NAUI First Aid and CPR

Written Examination
Version B
Directions: This test includes 66 standard questions. There is only one correct answer for each
question. Additional questions that are relevant to your geographic region or your instructors
preference may be provided for you to answer.
1. There are documented cases where students in a first aid or CPR course have contracted a disease
from using training aids and manikins.
a. True
b. False
2. First aid is defined as...
a. Intervention in an accident to prevent further harm.
b. Emergency care given before regular medical aid can be obtained.
c. Using splints and bandages to care for wounds.
d. Care given in advance of CPR.
3. Blood-borne pathogens are transmitted through
a. Sharing hypodermic needles.
b. Accidental puncture from a contaminated needle, broken glass, or other sharps.
c. Contact between broken skin or mucus membranes and contaminated body fluids.
d. All of the above.
4. Biohazard labels are...
a. Blue and yellow.
b. Fluorescent orange, red, or orange-red.
c. Red and black.
d. Green and fluorescent yellow.
5. The average adult body contains approximately _____________________ of blood.
a. 3 liters (a little more than 3 quarts)
b. 4 liters (a little more than 5 quarts)
c. 5 liters (a little more than 5 quarts)
d. 6 liters (a little more than 6 quarts)

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6. The first aid provider should always take at least _____ seconds when checking for the presence of
circulation.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15
7. Head, Neck, Upper Extremities, Thorax, Abdomen, Pelvis, and Lower Extremities are
a. The major divisions of the body.
b. Terms used by paramedics when communicating with physicians.
c. The area inspected during a primary survey of a victim.
d. All of the above.
8. There are a number of questions you must answer in a short time to evaluate the situation at the
scene of an accident. The first is
a. Is the area safe for you to provide first aid?
b. What appears to have happened?
c. Are there multiple victims?
d. Is there anyone else close by to help?
9. Care or treatment begins with
a. An assessment of the victim.
b. A secondary survey.
c. A call for help.
d. Alleviating the victims discomfort.
10. A head-to-toe examination is also known as a
a. Comprehensive assessment.
b. Whole body inspection.
c. Secondary survey.
d. Field neurological exam.

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11. Good Samaritan laws...

a. Protect people providing first aid from liability.
b. Protect victims from unscrupulous health care workers.
c. Insure travelers when accidents occur.
d. Only exist in certain states in the US.
12. Smoking, obesity, cholesterol, and high blood pressure
a. Are heart disease risk factors we can control.
b. Are heart disease risk factors that are hereditary.
c. Are heart disease risk factors we can control with medication.
d. Cause over thirty percent of sudden cardiac arrests worldwide.
13. The universal ratio of compressions to rescue breaths is
a. 5 to 1
b. 10 to 2
c. 15 to 2
d. 30 to 2
14. The ratio of compressions to rescue breaths for two professional rescuers is
a. 5 to 1
b. 10 to 2
c. 15 to 2
d. 30 to 2
15. First aid for an unconscious victim with a foreign body airway obstruction includes
a. Positioning the victim on flat on their back.
b. Looking in the victims mouth for the object.
c. Using a finger sweep to hook the object and remove it.
d. All of the above
16. Administering oxygen is recommended in...
a. Near-drowning
b. Strokes
c. Sudden illness
d. All of the above

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17. Touching the surface of the oxygen cylinder valve opening or regulator orifice with your fingers...
a. Ensures they are clean before use.
b. Can leave body oil residue that might ignite when the system is pressurized.
c. Is required in order to seat the o-ring seal in place.
d. None of the above.
18. When administering emergency oxygen using a non-rebreather mask set the constant flow setting to
_____ liters per minute.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
19. The Automated External Defibrillator (AED) should be used within _____________ of sudden
cardiac arrest.
a. 1 to 2 minutes
b. 5 to 6 minutes
c. 30 to 60 minutes
d. 1 to 2 hours
20. If a professional rescuer is rescuing a victim of an asphyxial cardiac arrest (for example, a drowning
victim) you should
a. Leave the victim and retrieve the AED from its storage unit.
b. Perform CPR for five cycles (about 2 minutes) before retrieving the AED.
c. Perform CPR for three cycles (about 1 minute) before retrieving the AED.
d. Perform CPR for ten minutes before retrieving the AED.
21. Venous bleeding is
a. Bright red.
b. Bright red and thick.
c. Dark red or maroon.
d. Blue or cyanotic.

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22. First aid for a bleeding emergency includes

a. Direct pressure.
b. Elevation.
c. Pressure points.
d. All of the above.
23. If the victim has the object that caused the wound still in their body
a. Do not try to remove it as it will likely cause more tissue damage or bleeding.
b. Pull it straight out to avoid causing additional damage or bleeding.
c. Break it off and place a sterile dressing over the wound.
d. Push it through and wrap the wound with a sterile dressing and bandage.
24. If you suspect internal bleeding
a. Give the victim warm fluids to drink.
b. Wrap the area with a pressure bandage.
c. Apply an ice pack to the damaged area.
d. Apply heat to the damaged area.
25. The signs and symptoms of shock include...
a. Weakness.
b. Thirst.
c. Nausea.
d. All of the above.
26. Bruises are also known as
a. Abrasions.
b. Lacerations.
c. Incisions.
d. Contusions.
27. First aid for a blister includes
a. Careful draining of the blister and applying a clean dressing.
b. Not breaking the blister.
c. Draining the blister and trimming away of the excess skin.
d. Applying alternating heat and cold packs.

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28. A torn ragged wound is called

a. An incision.
b. An abrasion.
c. A laceration.
d. A contusion.
29. Controlling bleeding includes using
a. A constriction band above the wound site.
b. Application of hot packs.
c. A tourniquet.
d. A pressure dressing and bandage.
30. Signs and symptoms of a head injury include...
a. Confusion.
b. Unequal pupils.
c. Drowsiness.
d. All of the above.
31. In addition to preventing pressure on an injured eye by using an eye shield, it is important to
a. Place a patch over the uninjured eye.
b. Apply cold packs to reduce swelling of the eyeball.
c. Apply heat to increase blood circulation to the injury site.
d. None of the above.
32. There are two types of chest wounds:
a. Mild or severe.
b. Open or closed.
c. Internal or external.
d. Accidental or self-inflicted.
33. Strains usually occur when a _______________ is stretched too far.
a. Muscle
b. Joint
c. Ligament
d. Tendon

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34. The signs and symptoms of a fracture or dislocation include:

a. Swelling and discoloration.
b. Pain.
c. A grating noise or feeling.
d. All of the above.
35. First aid for a crushing injury to a large muscle mass includes removing the crushing force if it has
been in place for less than
a. 15 minutes.
b. 30 minutes.
c. 45 minutes.
d. 60 minutes.
36. When you suspect that a person has been poisoned
a. Call the Poison Control Center.
b. Induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac.
c. Give the victim plenty of water to drink.
d. Give the victim plenty of milk to drink.
37. There are a few species of spiders that are considered harmful and potentially deadly. Which of the
following is NOT one of them?
a. Black widow
b. Tarantula
c. Funnel web
d. Brown recluse
38. Fully _________ of all venomous snake bites are without any envenomation or dry bites.
a. A quarter
b. A third
c. Half
d. Three quarters

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39. Rabies is ________________fatal if left untreated and once symptoms develop.

a. 25%
b. 50%
c. Almost 75%
d. Virtually 100%
40. The symptoms of a pending cardiac emergency include:
a. Chest discomfort that lasts more than a few minutes.
b. Shortness of breath.
c. Chest pain that radiates to one or both arms.
d. All of the above.
41. Myocardial infarction (MI) occurs when there is __________ of the muscle cells of the heart.
a. Death of some
b. Damage to some
c. Bleeding in some
d. Bruising of some
42. ____________ occurs when there is an interruption of blood flow to the brain.
a. Angina
b. Myocardial infarction
c. Stroke
d. Alzheimers disease
43. Fainting is ___________________________________________.
a. Indicative of more severe disease.
b. Not usually harmful.
c. A condition commonly associated with heart disease.
d. A condition commonly associated with diabetes.
44. _____________________________ is a major cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disorders.
a. Asthma
b. Pneumothorax
c. Smoking cigarettes
d. Pulmonary edema

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45. An apparent loss of awareness can be a symptom of

a. A stroke.
b. A seizure.
c. Heart attack.
d. An insect bite.
46. A pregnant woman should call her obstetrician if she experiences
a. Blurry or impaired vision.
b. Frequent, severe, or continuous headaches.
c. Sudden weight gain or loss of two pounds within one day.
d. All of the above
47. Burns that damage the upper layers of skin are called
a. First degree.
b. Second degree.
c. Third degree.
d. Fourth degree.
48. Radiation burns are most commonly caused by
a.

Uranium 235 exposure.

b.

The sun.

c.

Tanning booths.

d.

Microwave ovens.

49. When responding to a victim of an electrical burn

a.

Be sure the power is turned off before approaching the victim.

b.

Activate EMS before approaching the victim.

c.

Use rubber gloves for insulation.

d.

None of the above.

50. The signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include:

a.

Hot, dry skin.

b.

High temperature.

c.

Normal pulse.

d.

Cold, clammy skin.

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51. Hypothermia
a.

Means decreased temperature.

b.

Is a precursor to heat stroke.

c.

Refers to skin temperature.

d.

None of the above

52. If you are responding to a victim of severe hypothermia and transport to a medical facility will be
delayed because you are in a remote location you should.
a.

Wrap the victim in blankets but do not attempt to re-warm them.

b.

Begin actively re-warming the victim.

c.

Give the victim warm fluids.

d.

None of the above.

53. When your feet are subjected to cold and wet conditions for long periods of time you can get
a.

Athletes foot.

b.

Toenail fungus.

c.

Trench foot.

d.

Frostbite.

54. Drowning is the ______________ cause of accidental death of children under five years old.
a.

Number one

b.

Number two

c.

Number three

d.

Number four

55. A barotrauma
a.

Is an injury to the ear.

b.

Only occurs in divers.

c.

Is any injury due to pressure.

d.

Is a bloody nose.

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56. When air expands in the lungs and it is unable to vent through the existing lung passages it will
most likely cause
a.

Decompression sickness.

b.

Pulmonary barotraumas.

c.

Heart failure.

d.

Thoracic hernia.

57. A general, stuporous condition caused by breathing nitrogen gas under pressure is called...
a.

Nitrogen narcosis.

b.

Decompression sickness.

c.

Decompression illness.

d.

Mediastinal Emphysema.

58. Wounds in the marine environment

a.

Are commonly treated with hot water soaks.

b.

Must be treated with topical and oral antibiotics.

c.

Are usually complicated by envenomation.

d.
Are contaminated with seawater, sand, slime from marine animals, germs from your own
skin, and other organic matter.
59. Marine injuries caused by stinging cells (nematocysts) of jellyfish, fire coral, and so on are
treated...
a.

By vigorously scrubbing the skin with seawater.

b.

With a paste made of baking soda and alcohol.

c.

With vinegar to neutralize the toxin.

d.

With a meat tenderizer and alcohol solution.

60. A moray eel, shark, barracuda, or other fish typically bites a diver only
a.

If they are carrying food items.

b.

If they are surprised.

c.

When they feel threatened.

d.

At night or in murky water.

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61. Ciguatera is the most common form of

a.

Marine life envenomation.

b.

Ingested fish poisoning.

c.

Contact skin disease.

d.

Tobacco related illness.

62. Eating pufferfish, sunfish, or porcupine fish can cause

a.

Tetrodotoxin poisoning

b.

Paralytic poisoning

c.

Scombroid poisoning

d.

Ciguatera poisoning

63. Your primary concern if you need to move a victim is

a.

To do no further harm.

b.

Move them to safety as quickly as possible.

c.

To protect yourself from injury.

d.

Begin CPR as soon as possible.

64. The Underarm Drag is an alternative carry to the

a.

Firefighters carry.

b.

Clothes drag.

c.

Packstrap carry.

d.

Overarm carry.

65. The Packstrap Carry is a good method to use if you need to move a conscious or unconscious
victim quickly and
a.

You do not suspect a neck or spinal injury.

b.

There are at least two rescuers.

c.

If the rescuer is strong enough and the victim is not too large.

d.

None of the above.

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66. You should use the Litter or Backboard carry only if you have at least _________ adults to help
or the victim is...
a.

Three, small enough that fewer people can lift the litter or backboard.

b.

Four, small enough that fewer people can lift the litter or backboard.

c.

Five, small enough that fewer people can lift the litter or backboard.

d.

Six, small enough that fewer people can lift the litter or backboard.

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