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PRACTICE SET
SBI Associate PO
Test-I: English Language
Directions (Q. 1-10): Read the passage carefully and
answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
The Expert Committee formed under the supervision
of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Deputy Governor, Urjit Patel,
released their report to revise and strengthen the monetary
policy framework, earlier this year. Since then, the report
has been heavily discussed and debated in academic and
policy circles. It recommends a fundamental change in the
way monetary policy is conducted in India. The one
recommendation that has been the main talking point so
far is the adoption of a flexible inflation target. Here we
attempt to analyse this particular recommendation of the
committee against the backdrop of the current Indian
economic scenario.
Monetary policy in independent India has evolved
substantially over the past several decades. India adopted
widespread liberalisation, privatisation, and deregulation
reforms in the early 1990s. During the post-liberalisation
period running up to the present time, the RBI has been
following a multiple-indicator approach for executing
monetary policy. In this approach, information is gathered
on various macroeconomic indicators such as output, trade,
credit, inflation rate, exchange rate, capital flows etc.
Thereafter, monetary policy is designed to fulfil the multiple
objectives of increasing employment, closing the gap with
potential output, moderating inflation, stabilising exchange
rate and so on.
This kind of multiple-indicator approach, however,
lacks a nominal anchor or a specific target per se and hence
it may be argued that it is less likely to be effective in
achieving all the objectives at the same time. Such an
approach makes the monetary policy highly discretionary
and runs the risk of sending confusing signals to market
participants as well as corporations.
In India, the multiple-indicator approach of the
monetary policy worked relatively well, especially between
the late 1990s and late 2000s when Indian GDP was growing
at a healthy and robust rate of close to 10 per cent or more,
and inflation (measured by the wholesale price index or
WPI) was moderate at around 5-6 per cent. This was also
the time when all was apparently well in the global economy,
which was going through a phase of relatively low output
volatility.
1. Which of the following statements is contrary to the
facts mentioned in the given passage?
1) The Urjit Patel committee report has expressed
resentment with the way monetary policy is
conducted in India.
2) Indias economy experienced a much better GDP
growth rate between the late 1990s and late 2000s.
3) A lot of monetary policy changes have taken place
in post-independent India.
4) Between the late 1990s and the late 2000s, contrary
to India, the global economy was passing through
a phase of financial crisis.
5) All the above
2. Why was the Urjit Patel committee set up? Reply in
the context of the passage.
1) The Urjit Patel Committee was set up to provide
expert opinion on how to cut rates to strengthen
the economy.
2) The Urjit Patel committee was set up to receive
suggestions for issuing banking licences to private
players.
3) The Urjit Patel Committee report was set up to
provide expert opinion on how to contain inflation
in a short time.
4) The Urjit Patel Committee was set up to suggest
steps to restructure the monetary policy to
strengthen the economy.
5) None of these
3. What is the meaning of the phrase flexible inflation
target as used in the given passage?
1) Flexible inflation target means to calculate core
inflation on the basis of variable CPI for certain
goods and services.
2) Flexible inflation target means the policy rate set
up by the central bank so as to stablilise inflation
around the targeted rate and also stabilise the real
economy.
3) Flexible inflation target means the target set by the
central bank by which it tries to bring inflation back
to the targeted rate after a deviation.
4) Flexible inflation target is a forecast published by
the RBI in respect of the policy rate and inflation
for bringing real economic stability.
5) None of these
4. Which of the following is not true on the basis of the
given passage?
(A) The economic growth pick-up in India began a
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full decade prior to the liberalising reforms in the
1990s.
(B) The current monetary policy is based on the
information collected about many different
macroeconomic indicators.
(C) Monetary policy is designed to collect a huge
amount of revenue to meet various govt
expenditures.
1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (B) and (C)
3) Only (A) and (C) 4) Only (B)
5) Only (A)
5. What is/are the reasons for criticism against multiple-
indicator approach?
(A) Multiple-indicator approach is based on the
information about many indicators.
(B) Multiple-indicator approach has very little chance
of achieving all the fixed goals.
(C) Multiple-indicator approach is likely to send
confounding signals to stakeholders.
1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (A) and (C)
3) Only (B) and (C) 4) Only (B)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
Directions (Q. 6-8): Choose the word/group of words
which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group
of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
6. Per se
1) by word 2) mentioned 3) as such
4) accordingly 5) together
7. Volatility
1) dryness 2) effervescence 3) levity
4) insecurity 5) instability
8. Backdrop
1) framework 2) circumstances 3) credentials
4) drawbacks 5) tradition
Directions (Q. 9-10): Choose the word/group of words
which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/group
of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. Moderating
1) rising 2) subsiding 3) allaying
4) easing off 5) lessening
10. Discretionary
1) elective 2) facultative 3) open to choice
4) restricted 5) optional
Directions (Q. 11-20): Read the passage carefully
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
The most comprehensive indicator of economic growth
in an economy is the average annual growth in real Gross
Domestic Product (GDP) that is originating within the
geographical boundary and measured at constant base
period prices. It would, therefore, reflect average
incremental availability of goods and services produced
domestically in the economy over time. When the growth
of real GDP is adjusted for the population growth, it gives
the average annual growth of per capita real GDP and
reflects closely the improvements in standard of living
enjoyed by people in the economy on an average over
time. This is particularly valid for large countries where the
cross-border flows of goods and services are limited in
relation to the amount produced within the geographical
boundary. These three average annual growth rates in (i)
real GDP, (ii) population and (iii) per capita GDP (PCI) are
very significant parameters to reflect the performance and
prospects of economic development in any country over a
fairly long time period.
The history of economic growth in India is both
interesting and educative. Comparable time series estimates
of real GDP in India can be stretched back till the year 1890
for meaningful analysis.
The growth performance during the first phase when
the country was under the last 50 years of the British rule
was the worst during all the phases so far. Real GDP grew
at around 1 per cent annually and so did the population.
As a result, the per capita real income almost stagnated for
the first fifty years of the last century in India. Since the
last fifty years of the British rule in the country were
perhaps the best period for the Indian economy under their
rule of about 190 years in terms of development of all
physical and social overhead capital such as railways,
ports, schools, colleges, hospitals, banks and other
institutions, it can be safely assumed that the stagnation
of real living standards of people observed during 1900-51
was perhaps the phenomenon during the entire period of
190 years of the British rule in the country. These two
centuries of stagnation ensured that one of the richest
countries in the world luring everybody by its wealth and
prosperity turned into one of the poorest countries by the
year 1950-51.
11. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the
given passage?
1) To calculate the economic development of a country
one should have the data related to real GDP and
population.
2) During the last fifty years of the British rule the
growth performance was not at all good.
3) The rates of population growth and economic
growth were the same during the phase of the last
fifty years of the British rule.
4) The per capita real income during the first fifty years
of the last century in India registered no positive
growth rate.
5) During the two centuries of British rule, the last
fifty years was certainly the worst period for the
Indian economy.
12. Which of the following correctly gives the average
annual growth of per capita real GDP? Reply on the
basis of the given passage.
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1) The average annual growth of per capita real GDP
is the market value of all final goods and services
produced within a country in a year.
2) The average annual growth of per capita real GDP
is the product of sum total of GDP and GNP divided
by the total population of a country.
3) The average annual growth of per capita real GDP
is the product of growth of real GDP divided by the
population growth of a country over the given
period.
4) The average annual growth of per capita real GDP
is the adjusted value of GDP for changes in money
value in the given period.
5) None of these
13. When was greater emphasis laid on the development
of social overhead capital in India during the British
rule?
1) During the entire period of 190 years of British rule
in India
2) During the last fifty years of the last century of
British rule in India
3) During the last fifty years of the first century of
British rule in India
4) During the entire period of the last century of the
British rule in India
5) Not mentioned in the given passage
14. Why did India become one of the poorest countries in
the world by the year 1950-51?
1) Because of the drain of wealth to England
2) Because of uncalculated investment for the
development of physical and social overhead
capital
3) Because of static economic growth
4) Because of overpopulation and no positive
economic growth
5) Because of misrule by the British
15. Find the correct statement on the basis of the given
passage.
(A) The GDP indicates the production of goods and
services in a country over time.
(B) The most important indicator of an economy is
the growth in real GDP of a country measured at
wholesale price index.
(C) The living standard of the citizen of a country is
closely related to the average annual growth of
per capita real GDP.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) and (B) 5) Only (B) and (C)
Directions (Q. 16-18): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
16. Parameters
1) purview 2) criteria 3) constant
4) limitations 5) amplitude
17. Stagnated
1) declined 2) surged 3) grew
4) derailed 5) stalled
18. Luring
1) dispersing 2) dispelling 3) tempting
4) banishing 5) disenchanting
Directions (Q. 19-20): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
19. Prospects
1) impossibility 2) chance 3) hope
4) anticipation 5) likelihood
20. Stretched
1) go 2) draw 3) protract
4) dragout 5) shrink
Directions (Q. 21-25): Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
number of that part is the answer. If there is No error,
the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
21. 1) In fact, the human civilisation is / 2) the history of
mans growth / 3) control over / 4) the sources of energy.
/ 5) No error
22. 1) We all know that steam engine / 2) marks an epochal
change in the production capacity / 3) and thus the
beginning / 4) of modern capitalist world. / 5) No error
23. 1) United States of America has not blacklisted India
as a priority foreign country / 2) in its report on the
intellectual property regime / 3) of trading partner
despite strong demands / 4) from its pharmaceutical
companies. / 5) No error
24. 1) In Beijing recently, smog had become / 2) so thick
that virtual sunrise / 3) was arranged on huge TV
screens / 4) across the city. / 5) No error
25. 1) It is said that Prometheus gave the power / 2) over
fire to man after creating him / 3) from water and earth
because he had become fond of men / 4) than the king
of gods, Zeus, had anticipated. / 5) No error
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Directions (Q. 26-30): Each question below has two
blanks, each blank indicating that something has been
omitted. Find out which option can be used to fill up the
blank in the sentence in the same sequence to make it
meaningfully complete.
26. Indian policy makers have a difficult task of ________
Indian economy ________ a higher growth.
1) recoiling, on 2) reviving, across
3) recuperating, about 4) backfiring, for
5) rebounding, along
27. The industrial, agricultural, commercial and public
services ________ a significant proportion of
electricity for ________ their demand for final energy.
1) exhaust, accomplishing
2) consume, meeting
3) utilise, conforming
4) expend, completing
5) absorb, meeting
28. The ________ of three pillars of sustainable
development in public policies in a balanced measure
is a difficult ________.
1) collection, duty 2) association, function
3) integration, exercise 4) combination, undertaking
5) group, act
29. Apart from reviewing the partys _______ showing,
________ would be fixed on those who worked
against the partys interest.
1) dismal, accountability
2) formal, responsibility
3) outstanding, culpability
4) national, reasons
5) brilliant, answerability
30. The regulatory agencies must be knowledge-based,
_______, independent and ________ for their actions
to Parliament.
1) clear, culpable
2) functional, obliged
3) active, innocent
4) transparent, accountable
5) questionable, unreliable
Directions (Q. 31-35): Rearrange the following six
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer
the questions given below.
(A) Everybody cannot do well on the index.
(B) This is the logic of a development index.
(C) The index is not based on a priori views about
whether a particular state is less developed or
not.
(D) It is equally important to note that the index and,
therefore, the allocation of funds are relative.
(E) For this reason, some states that are ranked higher
on the development scale would receive less
funds than a lower-ranked state.
(F) There has been insufficient appreciation that the
composite development index is transparent and
based on official verifiable data.
31. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence
after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) F 4) C 5) E
32. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence
after rearrangement?
1) D 2) A 3) E 4) B 5) C
33. Which of the following would be the LAST (SIXTH)
sentence after rearrangement?
1) E 2) C 3) D 4) F 5) B
34. Which of the following would be the FOURTH
sentence after rearrangement?
1) C 2) A 3) B 4) E 5) D
35. Which of the following would be the SECOND
sentence after rearrangement?
1) F 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) E
Directions (Q. 36-45): In the following passage, some
of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated
by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given
against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
The economic history of India shows a number of
distinct phases over the period it fell under the colonial
control to the modern times when it (36) on economic
reforms. Before the formal onset of the British colonial rule
in India after the Battle of Plassey in 1757, India was among
the richest (37) of the world. According to some (38),
during the Mughal period India was the second-largest
economy having a share of almost 25 per cent of the world
economy. Two centuries of the (39) British colonial rule
led to Indias wealth being (40) away and the process of
deindustrialisation taking a heavy (41) on the people of
India. The great nationalist leader Dadabhai Naoroji was
the first person to systematically highlight this (42) of the
colonial (43). His analysis laid the theoretical (44) for the
freedom struggle (45) in Indias independence in 1947.
36. 1) ceased 2) dissented 3) embarked
4) launched 5) stopped
37. 1) metropolitan 2) continents 3) provinces
4) states 5) countries
38. 1) appraisal 2) estimates 3) evaluation
4) belief 5) thought
39. 1) crafty 2) unworthy 3) scandalous
4) exploitative 5) sinister
40. 1) drained 2) depleted 3) hacked
4) dragged 5) washed away
41. 1) demand 2) taxation 3) toll
4) price 5) cost
42. 1) face 2) demeanour 3) attitude
4) countenance 5) aspect
43. 1) payoff 2) exploitation 3) corruption
4) offence 5) nepotism
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44. 1) basement 2) groundwork 3) justification
4) foundation 5) authority
45. 1) culminating 2) crowning 3) converting
4) sustaining 5) dreaming
Directions (Q. 46-50): In each of the following
questions four words are given, of which two words are
most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the
two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in
meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter
combination as your answer.
46. (A) Snitch (B) Stitch (C) Suffix (D) Sneak
1) A B 2) A C 3) C D
4) A D 5) B D
47. (A) Peek (B) Porch
(C) Verandah (D) predator
1) B C 2) A B 3) A D
4) B D 5) C D
48. (A) Examine (B) Variegate
(C) Vituperate (D) Compliment
1) A B 2) C D 3) A C
4) B C 5) B D
49. (A) Conundrum (B) Quash (C) Riddle (D) Thrill
1) A B 2) B D 3) C D
4) A D 5) A C
50. (A) Praise (B) Lash (C) Fidget (D) Creak
1) C D 2) A D 3) A C
4) A B 5) B C
Test-II: General Awareness,
Marketing and Computers
51. According to the latest National Sample Survey data,
which of the following states topped in creation of
new jobs in the manufacturing sector among all states
during the six years between 2004 and 2011?
1) West Bengal 2) Gujarat 3) Maharashtra
4) Madhya Pradesh 5) Tamil Nadu
52. The United Nations and which of the following
international sports bodies signed a historic agreement
recently with the objectives of using the power of
sports to promote peace and economic development
across the world?
1) FIFA 2) IOC 3) FIDE 4) ICC 5) None of these
53. The Supreme Court appointed a special investigating
team (SIT) to probe black money stashed by Indians
in foreign tax havens recently. Who among the
following is the chairman of the SIT?
1) Ram Jethmalani2) Arijit Pasayat 3) MB Shah
4) Ranjana Desai 5) Ranjan Gogoi
54. The provisions of the new Companies Act mandates
all non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) for
creation of a debenture-redemption reserve (DRR)
equivalent to __________of debentures or bonds over
the repayment term.
1) 30 per cent 2) 35 per cent 3) 40 per cent
4) 45 per cent 5) 50 per cent
55. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced to
conduct an independent forensic audit of corporates
declared fraudulent by banks that have borrowed more
than
1) `500 cr 2) `1,000 cr 3) `1,500 cr
4) `2,000 cr 5) `2,500 cr
56. The book Capital in the Twenty-First Century has
been authored by who among the following?
1) Thomas Piketty 2) Tyler Cowen
3) Emmanuel Saez 4) Paul Krugman
5) Martin Wolf
57. Who among the following won the World Womens
Senior Snooker Championship 2014 recently?
1) Umadevi Nagraj 2) Alena Asmolava
3) Maureen Rowland 4) Reanne Evans
5) Chitra Magimairaj
58. According to the 13th edition of the Global
Information Technology Report 2014, which of the
following countries tops in terms of leveraging
information and communication technology (ICT) for
growth and well being?
1) Finland 2) Sweden 3) Singapore
4) US 5) South Korea
59. The Reserve Bank of India disallowed overseas
branches of domestic banks from extending ECBs to
manufacturing and infrastructure companies for
repaying rupee loans. ECB stands for
1) Excess Commercial Borrowings
2) External Commercial Borrowings
3) Exponential Commercial Borrowings
4) External Corporate Borrowings
5) Excess Corporate Borrowings
60. Who among the following replaced Anand Sinha as
the deputy governor of the Reserve Bank of India
recently? Sinha retired in Jan.
1) G Padmanabhan 2) B Mahapatra
3) P Vijaya Bhaskar 4) DK Mohanty
5) R Gandhi
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61. The Asian Squash Federation adjudged who among
the following as the Outstanding Asian Mens Player
of the Year 2013 recently?
1) Mahesh Mangaonkar 2) Omar Mosaad
3) Harinderpal Sandhu 4) Saurav Ghosal
5) Tarek Momen
62. In what could be a first for the countrys iron-ore sector,
which of the following state govts is preparing an
action plan to auction iron-ore mines to end-users? It
has proposed to put 15 of its 51 Category-C mines on
the block.
1) Goa 2) Jharkhand 3) Karnataka
4) Odisha 5) Maharashtra
63. The National Pension System (NPS) made news
recently when HDFC Life was disqualified to be one
of the NPS managers. Which of the following is/are
correct about NPS?
(A) It is a contributory pension scheme launched by
the Centre in Jan 2004.
(B) It was made compulsory for all new govt
employees.
(C) It is not available for the private sector yet.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B)
3) Only (C) 4) Only (A) and (B)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
64. Who among the following has been given this years
prestigious Goldman Environmental Prize which is
often called the Green Nobel?
1) Ramesh Agrawal 2) Soni Sori
3) Sunderlal Bahuguna 4) Aruna Roy
5) None of these
65. A letter issued by a bank to another bank (especially
one in a different country) to serve as a guarantee for
payments made to a specified person under specified
conditions is termed as
1) participatory note 2) letter of credit
3) commercial paper 4) bill of exchange
5) None of these
66. Operation Clandestine Fox refers to a vulnerability
in which of the following web browsers which allows
owners of malicious websites to gain complete access
to the sites visitors computer?
1) Internet Explorer 2) Chrome
3) Mozilla Firefox 4) Opera
5) Maxthon
67. Former Chief of the Air Staff Norman Anil Kumar
Browne has been appointed as Indias next
Ambassador to which of the following countries
recently?
1) Italy 2) UK 3) Spain
4) France 5) Norway
68. A major field exercise by the Army, code named
Sarvada Vijay, was conducted in which of the
following states recently? The overall aim of the
exercise is to practise conventional cross-border
thrusts into enemy territory.
1) Gujarat 2) Rajasthan 3) Punjab
4) Jammu & Kashmir 5) Odisha
69. Suzlon Energy Ltd, the worlds fifth largest wind
turbine maker, announced a cashless restructuring of
its existing FCCBs worth $485 mn after it failed to repay
$209 mn of debt recently. Expand the term FCCB.
1) Foreign Currency Curative Bonds
2) Foreign Currency Categorised Bonds
3) Foreign Currency Concession Bonds
4) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds
5) None of these
70. The RBI panel on credit information submitted its
report recently with recommendations like providing
a free copy of their credit profile to customers. The
panel was headed by who among the following?
1) Deepak Parekh 2) Shikha Sharma
3) Aditya Puri 4) Chanda Kochhar
5) Pratip Chaudhuri
71. DRDO successfully test-fired Indias first indigenously
developed Astra missile recently. Which of the
following statements is/are correct about the missile?
(A) It is an air-to-air Beyond Visual Range (BVR)
missile.
(B) Designed and developed by DRDO, it possesses
high Single Shot Kill Probability (SSKP), making
it highly reliable.
(C) It is an all-weather missile with active radar
terminal guidance and smokeless propulsion.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C)
4) Only (B) and (C) 5) All (A), (B) and (C)
72. The Supreme Court held which of the following
provisions as unconstitutional in its recent verdict?
1) Mandatory prior sanction for CBI to probe
corruption cases against any govt officer
2) Mandatory prior sanction for CBI to probe
corruption cases against officers of joint secretary-
rank or above
3) Mandatory prior sanction for CBI to probe
corruption cases against Union Ministers
4) Mandatory prior sanction for CBI to probe
corruption cases against Prime Minister
5) None of these
73. The govt has decided to continue with the export
subsidy on raw sugar shipments for the Apr-May
period. In order to help the cash-starved industry to
pay arrears to sugarcane farmers, the govt had
approved the incentive for two years at
1) `1,300 per tonne 2) `2,300 per tonne
3) `3,300 per tonne 4) `3,700 per tonne
5) `4,300 per tonne
74. Which of the following communication satellites of
India retired recently after serving for ten years in orbit?
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1) GSAT-14 2) INSAT-3E 3) IRNSS-1B
4) GSAT-16 5) None of these
75. The Govt of India has authorised the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) to issue debt instruments up to a ceiling of
what amount under the market stabilisation scheme
(MSS) for the fiscal 2014-15?
1) `20,000 cr 2) `30,000 cr 3) `40,000 cr
4) `50,000 cr 5) `60,000 cr
76. Which of the following is NOT an ideal pricing strategy
for new products?
1) Promotional pricing 2) Skimming pricing
3) Discriminatory pricing 4) All the above
5) None of the above
77. What does PLC stand for in terms of marketing?
1) Product Life Costing 2) Product Laying Cost
3) Preferred Life Cycle 4) Product Life Cycle
5) Promotion Life Cycle
78. A company uses which of the following tools to get
the attention of target audiences while marketing its
products?
1) General media exposure
2) Celebrity Endorsements
3) Packaging Design
4) Slogans
5) All the above
79. As far as Indian consumers are concerned, which of
the following is NOT a feature of their buying
behaviour?
1) Bargaining
2) Trademark consciousness
3) Changing consumption pattern
4) None of the above
5) All the above
80. Market segmentation refers to
1) Developing a wide product portfolio
2) Creating multiple marketing teams
3) Aggregating prospective buyers into groups that
have common needs
4) Adopting discriminatory pricing policies
5) None of these
81. In order to market its loan products, banks will not
target
1) Students
2) Teachers
3) Retired servicemen
4) Loan defaulters of other banks
5) None of these
82. Delivery channel(s) for banks other than their
branches is/are
1) ATMs
2) Advertisement in newspapers
3) Advertisement on television
4) Customer care
5) None of these
83. Key customers for wholesalers are
1) Distributors 2) Retailers
3) Manufacturers 4) Govt
5) None of these
84. The purpose of giving a presentation is
1) to display a product beautifully
2) to display your communication skills
3) distributing gifts
4) to explain the utility of products
5) None of these
85. A prospect can also be called
1) a loyal customer 2) a stable customer
3) a fickle customer 4) a potential customer
5) None of these
86. Identify the storage device that uses rigid, permanently
installed magnetic disks to store data.
1) Optical disk 2) Floppy diskette 3) Hard disk
4) Permanent disk5) None of these
87. The amount of data transferred from one place to
another or processed in a specified amount of time is
called
1) throughput 2) goodput
3) network multitasking 4) tracking
5) None of these
88. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs
in which a single CPU is involved is termed as
1) multiprocessing 2) multitasking
3) multiprogramming 4) time-sharing
5) None of these
89. The programme that uses a variety of different
approaches to identify and eliminate spam is known
as
1) webcrawler 2) directory search
3) web server 4) anti-spam programme
5) None of these
90. A system software
1) is an optional form of software
2) is a programming language
3) helps the computer manage internal resources
4) allows the user to diagnose and troubleshoot the
device
5) None of these
K
KUNDAN
91. Which of the following is contained on chips
connected to the system board and is a holding area
for data instructions and information? It holds
processed data waiting to be output to secondary
storage.
1) Modem 2) Programme
3) Memory 4) Bus
5) Cloud
92. In order to extend the length of the network without
having the signal degrade, which of the following
should be used?
1) Repeater 2) Modem 3) Gateway
4) Router 5) Switch
93. The process of copying software programs from a
secondary storage media to the hard disk is known as
1) Uploading 2) Installation 3) Downloading
4) Storage 5) Configuration
94. Which of the following processes checks to ensure
that the components of the computer are operating
and connected properly?
1) Spooling 2) Booting 3) Scanning
4) Processing 5) Indexing
95. The application designed with which of the following
features ensures that even if a disk drive fails, the
computer application running and using it can
continue processing?
1) Fault tolerance 2) High reliability
3) Firmware 4) Crash resistant
5) None of these
96. To type a URL and display a web page, or retype a
keyword to display a list of related web pages, you
would use which of the following bars?
1) Title 2) Address 3) Search
4) Tool 5) Menu
97. While the computer programs are written in high-level
programming language, the human-readable version
of a program is called
1) instructions set 2) source code
3) platform 4) flow chart
5) None of these
98. If you use a site often, instead of typing the address
of the site every time you should do which of the
following?
1) Save it as a file 2) Make a copy of it
3) Save it as a web page 4) Bookmark it
5) None of these
99. What is a computer file?
1) Another name of floppy drive
2) A section of main storage used to store data
3) A part of a program that is used to describe what
the program should do
4) A collection of information that has been given a
name and is stored in secondary storage
5) None of these
100. What is compatibility in the context of computer
systems?
1) The software is doing the right job for the user.
2) The computer is versatile enough to handle multiple
jobs.
3) A new software running with other previously
installed software.
4) New software can be copied to the hard disk.
5) None of the above
Test-III: Data Analysis and
Interpretation
Directions (Q. 101-105): Study the radar graph
carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The graph shows price (in ` per kg) of various
types of oils in different years
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
80
90
100
110
2008
2009
2010 2011
2012
Palm Olive Mustard Coconut
101. What is the average price of Olive oil during the given
five years?
1) `72 per kg 2) `74 per kg 3) `76 per kg
4) `78 per kg 5) `80 per kg
102. In which year is the average price of all types of oil the
minimum?
1) 2009 2) 2008 3) 2010 4) 2012 5) 2011
103. A buys 10 litres of Olive oil in 2010, 20 litres of Mustard
oil in 2010 and 25 litres of Coconut oil in 2009 and sells
all these oils in 2012. What is the percentage profit or
loss?
1) 27.54% loss 2) 32.42% loss 3) 30.76% profit
4) 29.48% profit 5) 18% profit
104. The price of Coconut oil in 2011 is approximately what
per cent of the price of Palm oil in 2010?
1) 90% 2) 110% 3) 95% 4) 120% 5) 100%
105. What is the ratio of the average price of Palm oil to the
average price of Coconut oil during the given five
years?
1) 33 : 35 2) 31 : 32 3) 36 : 37 4) 39 : 41 5) 36 : 47
K
KUNDAN
Directions (Q. 106-110): Study the given bar graph
and pie chart to answer the following questions.
The bar graph shows the production (in thousand
tonnes) of Wheat, Rice and Maize in different states.
0
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
UP MP Bihar Odisha Haryana Punjab
State
P
r
o
d
u
c
t
i
o
n

(
i
n

t
h
o
u
s
a
n
d

t
o
n
n
e
s
)
Wheat Rice Maize
The pie-chart shows the percentage of agricultural
land in the given six states.
Productivity =
land al agricultur of Area
production Total
O
d
i
s
h
a

5
%
Bihar
20%
MP
25%
H
a
r
y
a
n
a

8
%
UP
30%
Punjab
12%
Total agricultural land = 2 lakh square km
106. The productivity of which state is the maximum?
1) Bihar 2) Haryana 3) Punjab
4) UP 5) MP
107. The production of which state is the maximum?
1) Bihar 2) MP 3) Haryana
4) UP 5) Punjab
108. The production of Wheat in Punjab is what per cent
more than the production of Maize in Odisha?
1) 350% 2) 250% 3) 300% 4) 200% 5) 400%
109. What is the ratio of the production of Rice in Bihar to
the production of Wheat in Haryana?
1) 2 : 3 2) 3 : 2 3) 2 : 1 4) 1 : 1 5) 1 : 2
110. If MP exports 40% of Rice at the rate of `30 per kg and
UP exports 30% of Rice at the rate of `32 per kg, then
what is the ratio of the incomes from the exports?
1) 65 : 48 2) 31 : 42 3) 43 : 54 4) 57 : 62 5) 1 : 2
Directions (Q. 111-115): Study the following pie-charts
to answer the following questions:
The pie-charts show the expenditure of two companies
A and B, which are `50 lakh and `60 lakh respectively.
Company A
Raw material
and
Transportation
20%
Machineand
Electricity
12%
Employees
28% Others
26%
Tax
14%
Company B
Raw material
and
Transportation
22%
Others
20%
Tax
6%
Employees
34%
Machine and
Electricity
18%
111. If the incomes of Company A and B are in the ratio of
4 : 5 and the income of Company B is 180% of its
expenditure, then what is the difference between the
income of Company B and the income of Company A?
1) `2200000 2) `1900000 3) `2160000
4) `1850000 5) `2250000
112. If the number of employees in Company A is a hundred
then what is the average salary of the employees in
Company A?
1) `14000 2) `16000 3) `13000
4) `15000 5) `15500
113. What is the ratio of tax paid by Company A to that by
Company B?
1) 35 : 18 2) 34 : 37 3) 42 : 41 4) 31 : 27 5) 27 : 25
114. What is the difference between the expenditure on
employees of Company B and that of Company A?
1) `4300000 2) `640000 3) `5900000
4) `8700000 5) `7800000
K
KUNDAN
115. The expenditure on Machine and Electricity of
Company B is what per cent more than that on the
same item of Company A?
1) 67% 2) 84% 3) 75%
4) 77% 5) 80%
Directions (Q. 116-120): Study the following graph
and pie-chart carefully to answer the given questions.
Number of volcano eruptions in various countries
in different years.
20
60
80
20
60
120
60
100
80
40
100 80
40
120
20
40
60
120
100
140
60
140
120
140
0
20
40
60
80
100
120
140
160
USA Chile Morocco Indonesia New
Zealand
J apan
2009 2010 2011 2012
Percentage of the number of volcanoes
in the given six countries
Japan
34%
Chile
6%
Indonesia
20%
Morocco
10%
New Zealand
12%
USA
18%
Total number of volcanoes = 1000
116. What is the ratio of the number of volcanic eruptions
in the year 2009 to that in 2011?
1) 31 : 47 2) 23 : 31 3) 17 : 23
4) 47 : 43 5) 43 : 39
117. The total number of volcanic eruptions in Japan during
the given four years is what per cent of the total number
of volcanoes in Japan?
1) 139.5% 2) 137.78% 3) 132.91%
4) 123.52% 5) 104.2%
118. What is the difference between the number of
volcanoes in Indonesia and the number of volcanoes
in Morocco?
1) 120 2) 100 3) 150 4) 80 5) 170
119. The total number of volcanic eruptions in Chile is what
per cent of the total number of volcanic eruptions in
USA during the given four years?
1) 109.5%2) 95.51%3) 80.42%4) 115.38% 5) 125.78%
120. What is the ratio of the total volcanoes in New Zealand
to the number of volcanic eruptions in New Zealand
during the given four years?
1) 5 : 3 2) 7 : 5 3) 2 : 5 4) 3 : 4 5) 4 : 7
Directions (Q. 121-125): Study the bar chart carefully
to answer the questions given below:
The number of factories of various industries in
India and Pakistan
800
700
500
700
500
500
300
600
500
400
0 200 400 600 800 1000
Steel
Cement
Fertilizer
Cotton
Sugar
N
a
m
e

o
f

I
n
d
u
s
t
r
i
e
s
Number of factories
India Pakistan
121. If the ratio of production of Steel in India to that in
Pakistan is 5 : 3 and the production of Steel in India is
1000 tonnes, what is the ratio of the productivity
(production/no. of factories) of Steel in India to that
of Pakistan?
1) 5 : 4 2) 4 : 3 3) 3 : 2 4) 2 : 1 5) 1 : 9
122. What is the difference between the total number of
factories in India and that in Pakistan?
1) 250 2) 150 3) 50 4) 5 5) 100
123. The number of Cotton factories in Pakistan is what
per cent of the total number of Cement factories in
India?
1) 53.5% 2) 59.9% 3) 57.14%4) 50% 5) 48.7%
124. If Pakistan and India export 40% and 30% respectively
of their production of Fertilizer, then what is the
difference between the amounts of Fertilizer they used
for themselves? (The production of Pakistan is 50
tonnes per factory and that of India is 60 tonnes per
factory)
1) 15 tonnes 2) 0 tonne 3) 35 tonnes
4) 32 tonnes 5) 11 tonnes
125. If the production of Cement in India is 24500 tonnes
and that in Pakistan is 14500 tonnes, then what is the
difference between their productivity (production/
number of factories)?
1) 4.3 tonnes 2) 6 tonnes 3) 5.714 tonnes
4) 8.2 tonnes 5) 7.9 tonnes
K
KUNDAN
Directions (Q. 126-130): Study the given table carefully to answer the following questions:
Station Arrival time
Departure
time
Halt time
(in
minutes)
Distance travelled
from origin (in km)
Fare (` )
Number of
passengers boarding
the train at each
station
Number of
passengers
deboarding the train
at each station
Delhi Starting 5.45 pm 0 km 500
Mathura 7.00 pm 7.05 pm 5 100 60 200 80
Agra 8.30 pm 8.35 pm 5 210 130 350 50
J hansi 11.45 pm 12.00 night 15 400 250 250 100
Bhopal 3.58 am 4.05 am 7 720 375 180 200
Itarsi 7.35 am 7.48 am 13 1000 425 150 150
Nagpur 12.00 noon Terminates 1350 510
126. How many passengers deboard the train at Nagpur?
1) 2050 2) 1340 3) 1170
4) 1050 5) 150
127. What is the total fare of an eight-membered family
who board at Mathura and deboard the train at Itarsi?
Four members out of eight are children and each childs
fare is 55% of the fare for an adult?
1) `2635 2) `2051 3) `2192
4) `1818 5) `2590
128. What is difference between the speed of the train from
Jhansi to Nagpur and that from Delhi to Jhansi?
1) 11 kmph 2) 10.5 kmph 3) 12.5 kmph
4) 18 kmph 5) None of these
129. The total halt time is what per cent of the total travel
time?
1) 8.6% 2) 2.4% 3) 7.8%
4) 5.6% 5) 4.1%
130. What is the total revenue from this train between Agra
and Itarsi? (Assume all passengers pay full fare)
1) `300000 2) `296650 3) `326610
4) `349000 5) `151500
Directions (Q. 131-135): Study the table carefully to
answer the following questions.
The percentage profit is given on total cost price.
Cost price = cost of production + transportation cost +
packaging cost
Name
of
goods
Cost of
product--
tion
per kg
Cost
of
transpor-
tation
Cost
of
packag-
ing
Selling
price
per
kg
Profit/-
Loss
Percentage
of
profit/
loss
Ghee `80 `8 `120
Rice `40 0 0 5% profit
Sugar `45 `5 `50
Milk `20 `3 `1
Pulse `70 `10 `90 6% loss
131. If the percentage of profit on sold Ghee is 10%, then
what is its cost of packaging?
1) `24.90 2) `23.50 3) `22 4) `21.09 5) `27.80
132. What is the difference between the selling price of
Sugar and that of Rice, if the cost of transportation is
zero for both?
1) `56 2) `52 3) `48 4) `36 5) `72
K
KUNDAN
133. What is the cost of packaging of Pulse?
1) `22.5 2) `20.04 3) `19.91
4) `18.71 5) `15.74
134. What is the percentage profit of Milk if its selling price
is 80% of the cost price of Rice?
1) 28% 2) 30% 3) 32% 4) 34% 5) 38%
135. 4 kg Ghee, 3 kg Rice and 5 kg Milk are sold. What is
profit or loss percentage? (The packing cost is zero
for all goods) and selling price of Milk is `32 per kg?
1) 36% 2) 32% 3) 30.49%4) 34.2% 5) 31.5%
Directions (Q. 136-140): Study the following table
and pie-chart carefully to answer the given questions.
The table shows the ratio of Hindu religion
soldiers to soldiers of other religions
Name of regiment Hindu Other Religions
J at regiment 4 1
Sikh regiment 3 5
Madras regiment 2 1
Maratha regiment 3 2
Bihar regiment 5 3
Percentage of various regiments in the army
Madras
regiment
15%
Maratha
regiment
18%
Bihar
regiment
12%
Jat
regiment
35%
Sikh
regiment
20%
Total number of soldiers in the army = 10000
136. What is the number of Hindu soldiers in Jat regiment?
1) 2600 2) 2700 3) 3200
4) 2800 5) 2350
137. What is the difference between Hindu soldiers in
Madras regiment and soldiers of other religions in Bihar
regiment?
1) 485 2) 550 3) 520 4) 510 5) 490
138. The number of Hindu soldiers in Sikh regiment is what
per cent of the number of other soldiers in Maratha
regiment?
1) 97.12% 2) 99.56% 3) 102%
4) 104.16% 5) 25%
139. In which regiment is the number of non-Hindu soldiers
themaximum?
1) Maratha regiment 2) Sikh regiment
3) Madras regiment 4) Jat regiment
5) Bihar regiment
140. What is the ratio of the number of Hindu soldiers in
Bihar regiment to the number of non-Hindu soldiers in
Jat regiment?
1) 11 : 10 2) 12 : 11 3) 13 : 12
4) 14 : 13 5) 15 : 14
Directions (Q. 141-145): Study the chart carefully to
answer the following questions.
Temperature
Durban Quito Columbus Lisbon Riyadh
J anuary 20C 15C 20C 22C 35C
February 21C 16C 18C 20C 30C
March 22C 18C 16C 22C 32C
April 25C 20C 15C 25C 36C
May 28C 22C 14C 18C 38C
141. What is the difference between the average
temperature of Durban and that of Quito?
1) 8C 2) 11C 3) 9C 4) 7C 5) 5C
142. What is the difference between the average
temperature of all cities in May and that in February?
1) 10C 2) 13C 3) 3C 4) 2C 5) 5.8
143. The average temperature of Riyadh is approximately
what per cent more than that of Columbus?
1) 105% 2) 106% 3) 93.5%
4) 87.21% 5) 110.52%
144. What is the ratio of the average temperature of Lisbon
to that of Quito?
1) 91 : 89 2) 107 : 91 3) 57 : 47
4) 103 : 95 5) 2 : 3
145. The average temperature in May is what per cent of
the average temperature in March of the given five
cities?
1) 89.91% 2) 103.51% 3) 120%
4) 109.09% 5) 105.21%
146. A box contain 5 green, 4 yellow and 3 white marbles. 3
marbles are drawn at random. What is the probability
that they are not of the same colour?
1)
44
3
2)
55
5
3)
55
52
4)
44
41
5)
33
4
147. From a pack of 52 cards 2 cards are drawn together at
random. What is the probability that one is a spade
and the other one is a heart?
1)
13
1
2)
57
25
3)
256
35
4)
102
13
5)
49
37
Directions (Q. 148-150): Study the information
carefully to answer these questions.
There are 960 books in a library in which 40% are in
Hindi; one-fourth are in English; and the remaining are in
other languages. In Hindi books one-fourth are novels and
50% are epics while in English books one-third are novels
and 40% are epics.
K
KUNDAN
148. What is the ratio of Hindi to English books which are
neither novels nor epics?
1) 2 : 5 2) 8 : 7 3) 3 : 2 4) 5 : 7 5) 3 : 7
149. What is the number of books which are in other
languages?
1) 84 2) 192 3) 330 4) 336 5) 96
150. What is the difference between the number of Hindi
novels and that of English epics?
1) 10 2) 20 3) 0 4) 40 5) 60
Test-IV: Reasoning (High Level)
Directions (Q. 151-155): Read the information
carefully and answer the following questions:
A B means A is mother of B
A B means A is brother of B
A B means A is husband of B
A || B means A is father of B
A B means A is daughter of B
151. What should come in place of question mark in the
given expression to establish that P is sister of Q?
P L || N ? Q || R
1) 2) 3)
4) Either or 5) Either or
152. Which of the following expressions indicates that F is
son of G?
1) A || B G C F 2) A B G F C
3) A || B || G C F 4) G A B F C
5) A G B || F C
153. What should come in place of question mark in the
given expression to establish that S is Grandfather of
T?
S || P R Q ? T
1) 2) || 3)
4) Either or || 5) Either or ||
154. Which of the following expressions is true if the given
expression P Q || R S T is definitely true?
1) S is son of Q
2) P is grandfather of S
3) T is daughter-in-law of P
4) Q is mother of R
5) R is sister of S
155. Which of the following expressions is true, if P is not
daughter of Q?
1) A B C P Q 2) A || B C P Q
3) Q A B P R 4) Q A B P B
5) R || Q A P B
Directions (Q. 156-160): In each of the questions
below, two/three statements are given followed by
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume all the
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
with the commonly known facts and then decide which of
the given two conclusions logically follows from the
information given in the statements. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows
2) if only conclusion II follows
3) if either conclusion I or II follows
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
(156-157):
Statements: Some data are sufficient.
No sufficient is a statement.
No data is a question.
156. Conclusions: I. All questions can never be
sufficient.
II. No statement is a data.
157. Conclusions: I. Some questions are sufficient.
II. No question is a statement.
(158-159):
Statements: All numerics are alphabets.
All alphabets are written.
No written is verbal.
158. Conclusions: I. No numeric is verbal.
II. All written are alphabets.
159. Conclusions: I. No alphabet is verbal.
II. All numerics are written.
160. Statements: Some clouds are rains.
All rains are ice.
Conclusions: I. At least some clouds are ice.
II. At least some ice is rain.
Directions (Q. 161-165): Study the following
information and answer the given questions.
In a certain code language driving is not easy is written
as jo ro ho go, rough and tough driving is written as no sa
jo da, looks easy but dangerous is written as ai ro to po,
and is rough tough dangerous driving is written as ho jo
no ai da
161. What is the code for easy in the given code language?
1) go 2) no 3) sa 4) ro 5) no
162. What is the code for tough in the given code
language?
1) no 2) da 3) sa
4) Either sa or da 5) Either no or da
163. What may be the possible code for rough but nice?
1) po bi no 2) no po ai 3) no to po
4) no to ai 5) ta jo bi
K
KUNDAN
164. What may be the possible code for easy and solved
in the given code language?
1) sa go ro 2) sa ro cu 3) no ro sa
4) cu ro go 5) sa ro to
165. What is the code for dangerous in the given code
language?
1) no 2) sa 3) to 4) ai 5) ho
Directions (Q. 166-170): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Five friends P, Q, R, S and T are Musician, Architect,
Doctor, Engineer and Artist by profession and like White,
Blue, Red, Yellow and Green colour but not necessarily in
that order.
l The person whose hobby is dancing preferred
lemonade to cola while others preferred cola to
lemonade in beverages.
l The four friends who took cola were P, the one who is
an engineer, the person whose favourite colour is
Green and the one whose hobby is net surfing.
l S did not take lemonade and his favourite colour is
White.
l Qs favourite colour is Blue. He did not like lemonade.
l Ts hobby is not painting, reading or gardening.
l S clicks a picture of his friend who is an engineer.
l The person whose favourite colour is Red likes
painting and the person who is artist likes gardening.
l S is not a doctor. The person who is a doctor takes
cola. The person who is an engineer likes Blue colour.
l The musicians favourite colour is not Yellow. Rs
favourite colour is Green.
166. Who among the following is a Doctor?
1) R 2) P 3) S
4) Cant say 5) None of these
167. Qs hobby is
1) reading 2) painting 3) gardening
4) Cant say 5) None of these
168. The person who likes Blue colour is a/an
1) architect 2) musician 3) engineer
4) Cant say 5) None of these
169. Whose favourite colour is Yellow?
1) T 2) R
3) The one who is an artist4) Cant say
5) None of these
170. Which of the following combinations is not correctly
matched?
1) T Architect Yellow Dancing Cola
2) R Artist Green Gardening Cola
3) Q Engineer Blue Reading Cola
4) P Doctor Red Painting Cola
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 171-175): Study the following
information and answer the questions that follow:
Eight students A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in a school
sports competition participated in a game in which they
were sitting around a circular ring. The seats of the ring are
not directed towards the centre. All the eight students are
in four groups I, II, III and IV, ie two students in each
group, but not necessarily in the same order. These
students are from different sport houses, viz Maharishi,
Vyas, Aryabhatt, Vashistha, Shankaracharya, Balmiki,
Dhruv and Dayanand.
l No two students of the same group are sitting adjacent
to each other except those of group III. Students from
group IV are sitting opposite each other.
l D is neither in Dayanand nor in Aryabhatt house.
l The student from Dhruv house is sitting on the
immediate right of the student from Dayanand house.
l C, who is in Vashistha house, is in group I. She is
sitting on the immediate right of F, who is in group III.
l F is not in Aryabhatt house and she has also
participated in other sports.
l B from Vyas house is neither in group IV nor in group
I or II.
l B is sitting opposite E. Only Balmiki participant A is
sitting between Dhruv participant E and the
Shankaracharya participant.
l Both the students of group II are sitting adjacent to
students of group IV.
171. Who is in Maharishi house?
1) G 2) F 3) H
4) Cant say 5) None of these
172. H is in which house?
1) Dayanand 2) Shankaracharya
3) Maharishi 4) Cant say
5) None of these
173. Who among the following students are in group IV?
1) A and B 2) A and C 3) G and H
4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
174. The student from which house is sitting opposite the
Vashistha house participant?
1) Dayanand 2) Shankaracharya 3) Dhruv
4) Cant Say 5) None of these
175. Which of the following statements is false?
1) The Balmiki representative is sitting opposite the
Maharishi house representative.
2) The Vyas house representative is sitting opposite
the Dhruv house representative.
3) H and G are sitting opposite each other.
4) The two girl-participants are sitting opposite each
other.
5) None of these
Direction (Q. 176-180): Study the given information
and answer the following questions:
When a word and number arrangement machine is
given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them
following a particular rule. The following is an illustration
of an input and rearrangement:
K
KUNDAN
Input : 45 navel change 33 48 down town frown 62
88 98 gesture orange 21
Step I: 45 navel change 33 48 down frown 62 88 98
gesture orange town 21
Step II: 45 navel change 48 down frown 62 88 98
gesture town 21 orange 33
Step III: change 48 down frown 62 88 98 gesture
town 21 orange 33 navel 45
Step IV: change down frown 62 88 98 town 21 orange
33 navel 45 gesture 48
Step V: change down 88 98 town 21 orange 33 navel
45 gesture 48 frown 62
Step VI: change 98 town 21 orange 33 navel 45
gesture 48 frown 62 down 88
Step VII: town 21 orange 33 navel 45 gesture 48 frown
62 down 88 change 98
Step VII is the last step of the above arrangement as
the intended arrangement is obtained. As per the rules
followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate
steps for the given input.
Input: 35 quant hear cute 50 65 98 silent giant 71
82 19 oliver melody
176. How many steps will be required to complete the given
input ?
1) Five 2) Six 3) Seven
4) Eight 5) None of these
177. Which of the following is the fourth element from the
left end of Step VI?
1) cute 2) melody 3) 71
4) oliver 5) None of these
178. What is the position of melody from the left end in
the final step?
1) Sixth 2) Seventh 3) Eighth
4) Fifth 5) Ninth
179. Which element is fourth to the right of giant in Step
V?
1) cute 2) 19 3) quant
4) 98 5) 35
180. Which of the following is Step III of the given input?
1) quant 82 hear 50 giant 35 cute 19 65 98 silent 71
oliver melody
2) hear cute 65 98 giant 71 82 melody silent 19 quant
35 oliver 50
3) hear cute 98 giant 71 82 silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50
melody 65
4) hear cute 98 65 giant 71 82 melody silent 19 quant
35 oliver 50
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 181-185): Each of the question below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and
II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given
in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions.
Read both the statements and give answer
1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement
II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) If the data in statement I and II together are not
sufficient to answer the question.
5) If the data in both statements I and II together are
necessary to answer the question.
181. How is Sunita related to Kaushal?
I. Purvi is a daughter of Kaushal. Geet, Sunitas sister,
has a son Rishab and a daughter Lavi.
II. Maya is maternal aunt of Lavi and mother of Piyush.
Rishabh is cousin of Piyush. Piyush is brother of
Purvi.
182. A salesman sold six magazines A, B, C, D, E and F
during a period from Monday to Saturday, one on
each day. How many magazines were sold after
magazine D?
I. Magazine C was sold at least before three
magazines. Magazine F was sold on Tuesday.
Magazine D was sold immediately after C.
II. Both Magazine B and E were sold at least before
one magazine. At least four magazines were sold
after Magazine E.
183. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are seated
around a circular table facing towards the centre.
Who is sitting on the immediate right of E?
I. C and E are not adjacent to each other. There are
three persons between B and H.
II. A is adjacent to F. F is on the left of C.
184. Five books of subject Hindi, English, Marathi, Punjabi
and Bengali are arranged from right to left.
Which book is placed at third from the left?
I. Marathi is placed second to the left of Hindi. English
is on the immediate left of Marathi. There are only
two books between Marathi and Bengali.
II. Punjabi is exactly in themiddle of Hindi and Marathi.
Both the Hindi and Marathi books are not at the
extreme ends of the rack.
K
KUNDAN
185. What is the code of sky in a code language?
I. In the code language, hu ta ki nu means kites fly
in sky, and ta ki ru means birds in sky.
II. In the code language, nu pa le means kites needs
thread and nu ki cu da means kites available in
colours.
186. If T >K and L D are definitely true, what will come in
place of blank spaces in the given expression?
R =K _E L _ T_G D
1) <, =, 2) >, =, 3) , =,
4) , =, 5) None of these
187. Which of the following expressions will be true if the
expression S E N T >H is definitely true?
1) S >H 2) N E 3) T >E 4) H <N 5) S >N
188. Which of the following symbols should replace the
question mark (?) in the given expression to make the
expression R E true and U >R false?
O <I >N <R ? U ? E
1) <, = 2) , = 3) >, =
4) =, > 5) None of these
Direction (Q. 189-191): Read the given information
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Independence Day is considered as a day of rejoicing.
Thousands of heroes of independence struggle made the
supreme sacrifice of their lives so that we can enjoy
freedom. But see how we have misused the hard-won
freedom over the last 67 years exactly in the same way
the racist representatives of the British, Winston Churchill,
predicted before India wrested independence from the
British. Independence Day and Republic Day do not kindle
patriotic fervour in a large section of our society any longer.
They have only been non-working days where people sit
back at home and enjoy with their families. They produce
only total revulsion for our corrupt political class, self-
serving bureaucracy, greedy business empires and the
completely undisciplined people. The gullible people of
the country have been taken for a ride by the promises
made by their leaders all these years while they have been
bleeding the nation white in scam after scam. To millions of
patriotic Indians Independence day will remain a sad day
until all these parasites are totally annihilated.
189. Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the
above passage?
1) People of India lack in nationalism.
2) Increasing corruption in India has ended the
patriotic feelings among the Indians.
3) Bureaucracy is the hurdle in national integrity.
4) The freedom movement of India was not public; it
was confined to only a few individuals.
5) None of these
190. Which of the following will be the effect of lack of
patriotism in India?
I. Communal harmony will be disturbed in the
country.
II. Caste system will be promoted.
III. Terrorism activities will increase in the country.
IV. The economy of the country will be affected
1) Only I 2) Only I and II 3) Only III
4) Only III and IV 5) Only I, II and IV
191. Which of the following statements are in line with the
above passage?
1) The independence of India was very hard-earned.
2) People of India are not respecting the hard-earned
freedom of India.
3) Increasing corruption in India is creating anger
among the people.
4) Independence day is just like a public holiday where
people sit at home and enjoy.
5) All of these
Direction (Q. 192-194): Read the following
information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Problems of illetracy, malnutrition, anaemia, vitamin
and iodine deficiency, and school dropouts are very
common among children in India. In 2001 theSupreme Court
of India ruled that state governments must provide Mid-
Day-Meal (MDM) to children of government-assisted
primary schools. The 2007-08 Budget of the Central
Government allocated about `73 billion for the MDM
scheme. Therefore, it becomes imperative that a
comprehensive evaluation of the programme be undertaken
to judge its efficiency. Increasing corruption and lack of
proper management has made the Mid-Day-Meal just the
promise written in the election mainfestoes of political
parties. The recent incident of the programme in Bihar has
made the condition worse. It has been more than five years
since the MDM scheme was launched but the condition
has not yet changed and the problems remain the same.
192. Which of the following is the main reason behind the
failure of the Mid-day-meal scheme?
1) Very small quantity of food is provided, which is
not able to fulfil the deficiency.
2) Increasing corruption, due to which good quality
of food is not provided to the children.
3) Mid-day meal provides the food but proper
nutritious food is not being given to the children.
4) Increasing health problem due to mid-day meal
5) All of these
193. What course of action should the government take to
fulfil the deficiency and make the mid-day meal a
successful programme?
I. The government should take steps to provide at
least specific calories and proteins to the children.
II. Inspection of food should be done before
providing it to children.
III. Strict action should be taken in case of violation.
IV. The government should work upon to provide
more delicious food to the children.
1) Only I 2) Only II and IV
K
KUNDAN
3) Only I, II and III 4) Only II and III
5) Only III
194. Which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in
the above passage?
I. Mid-day meal nowadays has become the weapon
of political parties before the elections.
II. Mid-day meal should be given to private
organisations by the government.
III. Continuous audits should be done in order to
check the effectiveness of the programme.
IV. The programme of Mid-Day Meal should be
stopped by the government.
1) Only I 2) Only I and II 3) Only I and III
4) Only I, II and III 5) All of these
195. The city-based English medium schools, which always
look for excuses to deny admission to poor candidates,
have now started turning down poor parents, appeal
citing the governments indifferences towards below
poverty line (BPL) students. The schools say the
government is reluctant to provide financial aid to the
institutions for the admission of poor students.
Which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in
the above passage?
1) The English medium schools do not want the poor
children to study in these schools.
2) The schools think that the poor students are going
to create unhealthy atmosphere in the schools.
3) The government is not providing financial aid to
the institutions to support poor children.
4) The schools want children of only super rich
parents.
5) All of these
Direction (Q. 196-200): Read the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Following are the conditions for admitting students
in an Engineering college:
The candidate must
(i) have secured at least 75 per cent aggregate marks
in XII Std exam in science stream.
(ii) have secured an average of at least 85 per cent
marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics in
XII Std exam.
(iii) pay `50,000 at the time of admission.
(iv) be at least 17 years old as on 1st May 2014.
However, in the case of a candidate who fulfils all the
criteria except
(a) (ii) above, but has secured 90 per cent aggregate
marks, he/she should be referred to the Principal.
(b) (iii) above, but pays at least `40000 he/she should
be referred to the Chairman, Admission.
Based on the above criteria and information provided
below, make a decision in each case. You are not to assume
anything. If the data given are not enough to take a decision
mark your answer as data inadequate. These cases are
given to you as on 01.05.2014. Give answer
1) if the case is to be referred to the Principal.
2) if the student is to be admitted.
3) if the data are inadequate to take a decision.
4) if the student is not to be admitted.
5) if the case is to be referred to the Chairman
Admission.
196. Nisha Malhotra has secured aggregate 80 per cent marks
in XII Std exam in science stream. She can pay `40,000 at
the time of admission. She has secured 86 per cent
average marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
197. Arindam Ghosh was born on 25 August 1995. He can
pay 60 thousand rupees at the time of admission. He
has secured 80 per cent aggregate marks in XII Std
exam in science stream and also 85 per cent average
marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
198. Arun Khanna has secured 90 per cent aggregate marks
in XII Std exam in science stream and he can also pay
50 thousand rupees at the time of admission. He was
born on Feb 20, 1996. He has secured 89 per cent
average marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
199. Kiran Thapar was born on July 15, 1994. He can pay 40
thousand rupees at the time of admission. He has
secured 79 per cent average marks in Physics,
Chemistry and Mathematics. He has secured 86 per
cent aggregatemarks in XII Std exam in science stream.
200. Vimal Upadhyaya was born on September 20, 1996. He
has secured 78 per cent aggregate marks in XII Std
exam in science stream. He can pay 42 thousand rupees
at the time of admission. He has secured 88 per cent
marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
K
KUNDAN
Productivity of Haryana is the maximum.
107. 5; Production of Punjab is maximum
=105000 tonnes
108. 3; Production of Wheat in Punjab
=40000 tonnes
Production of Maize in Odisha
=10000 tonnes
Reqd % =
4000010000
100%
10000

=300%
109. 4; The ratio of production of Rice in
Bi har to the producti on of Wheat in
Haryana
=25000 tonnes : 25000 tonnes =1 : 1
110. 1; Income of MP from export of 40%
of Rice at the rate of `30 per kg
=
40
32500 1000 30
100

=`39 crore
Income of UP from export of 30% of Rice
at the rate of `32 per kg
=
30
30000 1000 32
100

=`28.8 crore
Reqd ratio =39 : 28.8 =390 : 288
=65 : 48
111. 3; Expenditure of Company B
=60 lakh
Income of Company B =
180
60 lakh
100
=108 lakh =1 crore 8 lakh
Income of Company A =
4
10800000
5
=`8640000
Reqd difference =1080000 8640000
=`2160000
112. 1; Total expenditure on the employees
of Company A
=
28
5000000
100
=`1400000
Average salary of the employees =
1400000
100
=`14000
113. 1; Tax paid by Company A : Tax paid
by Company B
=
14
5000000
100
: 6000000
6
100
=700000 : 360000 =35 : 18
114. 2;
Difference =
34 28
6000000 5000000
100 100

=2040000 1400000 =`640000
115. 5; Expendi ture on Machine and
Electricity of Company B
=6000000
18
100
=`1080000 =10.8 lakh
Expenditure on Machine and Electricity of
Company A
=
12
5000000
100
=`600000 =6 lakh
Reqd % =
1080000 600000
100%
600000

=
48
100%
60

=80%
Hence, expenditure of Company B is 80%
more than Company A.
Total selling price =10 90 +20 70 +25
110 =`5050
% profit =
Selling price cost price
100
Cost price

=
1150
100
3900

=29.48%
104. 5; The price of Coconut oil in 2011
=`100 per kg
The price of Palm oil in 2010
=`100 per litre
Reqd % =
100
100
100

=100%
105. 5; The average price of Palmoil during
the given five years
=
5
1
(60 +70 +100 +80 +50)
=
5
360
=`72
The average price of Coconut oil during
the given five years
=
5
1
(100 +80 +80 +100 +110)
=
5
470
=94
Reqd ratio =72 : 94 =36 : 47
106. 2;
Productivity =
Total production
Area of agricultural land
Productivity of UP =
(35 30 25)1000
30
2 lakh
100


=
90000
60000
=1.5 tonnes per sq km
Productivity of MP
=
(30 32.5 27.5) 1000
25
2 lakh
100


=
90000
50000
=1.8 tonne per sq km
Productivity of Bihar
=
(22.5 25 27.5) 1000
20
2 lakh
100


=
75000
40000
=1.875 tonnes per sq km
Productivity of Odisha
=
(22.5 15 10) 1000
5
2 lakh
100


=
47.5 1000
10000
=4.75 tonnes per sq km
Productivity of Haryana
=
(25 35 30)1000
8
2 lakh
100


=
90000
16000
=5.625 tonnes per sq km
Productivity of Punjab
=
(40 30 35)1000
12
2 lakh
100


=
105000
24000
=4.375 tonnes per km
2
Answers
1. 4 2. 4 3. 2 4. 3 5. 3
6. 3 7. 5 8. 2 9. 1 10. 4
11. 5 12. 5 13. 2 14. 3 15. 3
16. 2 17. 5 18. 3 19. 1 20. 5
21. 2; Replace growth with growing
22. 2; Replace marks with marked
23. 1; Add The before United
24. 5
25. 3; Replace fond with fonder
26. 5 27. 2 28. 3 29. 1 30. 4
(31-35): FCDAEB
31. 3 32. 1 33. 5 34. 2 35. 4
36. 3 37. 5 38. 2 39. 4 40. 1
41. 3 42. 5 43. 2 44. 4 45. 1
46. 4 47. 1 48. 2 49. 5 50. 4
51. 1 52. 2 53. 3 54. 5 55. 2
56. 1 57. 5 58. 1 59. 2 60. 5
61. 4 62. 3 63. 4 64. 1 65. 2
66. 1 67. 5 68. 2 69. 4 70. 3
71. 5 72. 2 73. 3 74. 2 75. 4
76. 3 77. 4 78. 5 79. 4 80. 3
81. 4 82. 1 83. 2 84. 4 85. 4
86. 3 87. 1 88. 2 89. 4 90. 3
91. 3 92. 1 93. 2 94. 2 95. 1
96. 2 97. 2 98. 4 99. 4 100. 3
101. 3; The average price of Olive oil during
five years =
1
5
(50 +60 +70 +110 +90)
=`76 per kg
102. 1; The average price of oil in 2008
=
1
4
(50 +60 +80 +100) =`72.5 per kg
Similarly, in 2009 =
1
4
(50 +60 +70 +
80) =`65 per kg
In 2010 =
1
4
(60 +70 +80 +100)
=`77.5 per kg
In 2011 =
1
4
(80 +90 +100 +110)
=`95 per kg
In 2012 =
1
4
(50 +70 +90 +110)
=`80 per kg
I n 2009 the average price of all types of
oils is the minimum.
103. 4; Total cost price of oils
=10 70 +20 60 +25 80 =`3900
K
KUNDAN
116. 3; Total no. of volcanic eruptions in
the year 2009 =20 +60 +20 +60 +60 +
120 =340
Total no. of volcanic eruptions in the year
2011 =100 +120 +120 +20 +40 +60
=460
Reqd ratio =340 : 460 =17 : 23
117. 4; Total no. of volcanic eruptions in
J apan during the given four years =60 +
100 +120 +140 =420
Total number of volcanoes in J apan
=
34
1000
100
=340
Reqd % =
420 100
340
=123.52%
118. 2; Difference between the number of
Volcanoes in I ndonesia and the number of
Volcanoes in Morocco
=
20 10
1000 1000
100 100

=200 100 =100
119. 4; Total no. of volcanic eruptions in
Chile =40 +60 +80 +120 =300
Total no. of volcanic eruptions in the USA
=20 +60 +80 +100 =260
Reqd % =
300 100
260
=115.38%
Hence, volcani c eruptions in Chi le is
115.38% of the total no. of vol canic
eruptions in the USA.
120. 3; Total Volcanoes in New Zealand
=
12
1000 120
100

Total no. of volcanic eruptions i n New
Zealand =40 +60 +80 +120 =300
Reqd ratio =120 : 300 =2 : 5
121. 1; Production of Steel in India =1000
tonnes
Productivity of Steel in India =
1000
800
=1.25 tonnes per factory
Production of Steel in Pakistan =
3
1000
5
=600 tonnes
Productivity of Steel in Pakistan =
600
600
=1 tonnes per factory
Reqd ratio =1.25 : 1 =125 : 100 =5 : 4
122. 5; Total factories in India =300 +500
+500 +700 +800 =2800
Total factories in Pakistan =500 +400 +
700 +500 +600 =2700
Reqd difference =2800 2700 =100
123. 3; Total number of Cotton factories in
Pakistan =400
Total number of Cement factories in I ndia
=700
Reqd % =
400 100
700
=57.14% of the
number of Cement factories in India.
124. 2; Production of fertilizer in Pakistan
=50 700 =35000 tonnes
Export of Pakistan is 40% of its production.
Then, the Fertilizer used by Pakistan itself
=
60
35000
100
=21000 tonnes
Production of Fertilizer in India =60 500
=30000 tonnes
India exports 30% of its production.
So, Fertilizer used by India itself
=30000
70
100
=21000 tonnes
Reqd difference =21000 21000
=0 tonne
125. 2; Productivity of Cement
=Production per factory
Productivity of Cement in India =
24500
700
=35 tonnes
Productivity of Cement in Pakistan
=
14500
500
=29 tonnes
Reqd difference =35 29 =6 tonnes
126. 4; Passengers deboarding the train at
Nagpur = Total passengers boardi ng at
various stations from Delhi to Itarsi Total
passengers deboarding the train at various
stations from Mathura to I tarsi =(500 +
200 +350 +250 +180 +150) (80 +50 +
100 +200 +150) =1630 580 =1050
127. 1; Total fare of family =Fare of Adults
+Fare of Children
=4 425 +4 425
55
100
=1700 +935 =`2635
128. 3; Speed of train from Delhi to J hansi
=
400
11: 45 5.45
=
400
6
=66.67 kmph
Speed of train from J hansi to Nagpur
=
1350 400
12.00 night 12.00 noon
=
950
12
=76.16 kmph
Reqd difference =79.16 66.67
=12.50 kmph
129. 5; Total travel time =12.00 noon
5.45 pm (one day before) =18hr 15min
=
15
18 hours
60
=
73
4
hours
Total halt time =5 +5 +15 +7 +13 =45
mi nutes
Total halt time is
45 3
hours
60 4
Reqd % =
100
73
4
4
3

=4.10% of the total travel time.
130. 2; Total revenue between Agra to Itarsi
=(Fare of Railway from agra to I tarsi
Number of passengers between stations) =
Total revenue from Agra to J hansi +Total
revenue from J hansi to Bhopal + Total
revenue from Bhopal to I tarsi
=(500 +200 +350 80 50) (250
130) +(500 +200 +350 +250 100 80
50) (375 250) +(500 +200 +350 +
250 +180 200 100 50 80) (425
375)
={(920 120 +(1070 125) +(1050
50)}
={110400 +133750 +52500} =`296650
131. 4; Selling price of Ghee =`120 per kg
Profit =10%
Total cost price =120
100
110
=`109.09
Cost of packing =Cost price Cost of
production Cost of transportation
=109.09 80 8 =`21.09
132. 3; Selling price of Rice
=40
105
100
=`42
Selling price of Sugar =45 +5 +50 =`100
Reqd difference =100 42 =`48
133. 5; Selling price of pulse =`90
Loss =6%
Total cost price =90
100
94
=`95.74
Cost of packaging of pulse =Total cost
price Cost of production Cost of
transportation =95.74 70.10 =`15.74
134. 1; Cost price of Rice =`40
Selling price of Milk =40
80
100
=`32
Cost price of Milk =Cost of production +
Transportation +Packaging =20 +3 +2
=`25
% profit =
32 25
25
100 =28%
135. 3; Cost price of 4 kg Ghee +3 kg Rice
+5 kg Milk
={4 (80 +8) +3 40 +5 (20 +3)}
=352 +120 +115 =`587
Selling price of 4 kg Ghee +3 kg Rice +5 kg
Milk
=4 120 +3 42 +5 32 =480 +126 +
160 =`766
% profit =
766 587
100
587

=30.49%
136. 4; Number of soldiers in J at regiment
=
35
10000
100
=3500
Number of Hindu soldiers in J at regiment
=
4
3500
5
=2800
137. 2; No. of Hindu soldiers in Madras
regiment =10000
15
100

2
3
=1000
No. of soldiers of other religions in Bihar
regiment =
12
10000
100

3
8
=450
Difference =1000 450 =550
138. 4; Number of Hindu soldiers in Sikh
regiment =10000
20
100

3
8
=750
Number of soldiers of other reli gions in
Maratha regiment =10000
100
18

5
2
=720
Reqd % =
750 100
720
=104.16%
139. 1; Number of non-Hindu soldiers in J at
regiment =3500 2800 =700
K
KUNDAN
Let E be the event of drawing 3 balls of the
same colour.
Then, n(E) =event of drawing
(3 balls out of 5)
or (3 balls out of 4)
or (3 balls out of 3)

5 4 3
3 3 3
5 4
n(E) ( C C C ) 4 1 15
2 1


P(E) =
n(E) 15 3
n(S) 220 44

Reqd probability =1
3
44
=
41
44
147. 4; Sample space n(S)
=
52
2
C =
52 51
2
=1326
The number of events of getting 1 spade
and 1 heart
or, n(E) =Number of ways of choosing 1
spade out of 13 and 1 heart out of 13.
13 13
1 1
C C =13 13 =169
P(E) =
n(E) 169
n(S) 1326
=
13
102
(148-150):
Total books =960
Number of Hindi books =
40
960
100
=384
Number of English books =
1
960
4
=240
Number of books in Other languages =960
(384 +240) =336
Number of Hindi novels =
1
384
4
=96
Number of Hindi epics =
50
384
100
=192
Number of English novels =
1
240
3
=80
Number of English epics =
40
240
100
=96
No. of Hindi books that are neither novels
nor epics
=384 (96 +192) =96
No. of English books that are neither epics
nor novels
=240 (80 +96) =64
148. 3; Reqd ratio =96 : 64 =3 : 2
149. 4; Number of books in other languages
=336
150. 3; Difference between Hindi novels
and English epics =96 96 =0
151. 1; We put in place of question mark
Clearly, P is sister of Q
152. 2; Option 1)
Gender of F is not known.
Option 2)
Hence, F is son of G.
Option 3)
F is husband of G.
Option 4)
F is grandson of G.
Option 5)
F is sister of G.
153. 3; We put in place of question mark.
S is grandfather of T.
154. 3;
Clearly, T is daughter-in-law of P.
155. 3; Option 1)
P is daughter of Q. Hence, does not follow.
Option 2)
P is daughter of Q. Hence does not follow.
Option 3)
P is granddaughter of Q. Hence, follows.
Similarly, in Sikh regiment
=
10 5
10000
100 8

=125
In Madras regiment =
15 1
10000
100 3

=500
In Maratha regiment =
18 2
10000
100 5

=720
In Bihar regiment =
12 2
10000
100 8

=450
I n Maratha regiment the number of non-
Hindu soldiers is the maximum.
140. 5; Number of Hindu soldiers in Bihar
regiment =
12 5
10000
100 8

=750
Number of non-Hindu soldiers i n J at
regiment =700
Reqd ratio =750 : 700 =15 : 14
141. 5; Average temperature of Durban
=
(20 21 22 25 28)
5

=23.2C
Average temperature of Quito
=
(15 16 18 20 22)
5

=18.2C
Reqd difference =(23.2 18.2C) =5C
142. 3; Average temperature in May
=
(28 22 14 18 38)C
5

=24C
Average temperature in Feb
=
(21 16 18 20 30)C
5

=21C
Reqd difference =(24C 21C) =3C
143. 2; Average temperature of Riyadh
=
(35 30 32 36 38)C
5

= 34.2C
Average temperature of Columbus
=
(20 18 16 15 14)C
5

=16.6C
Reqd % =
34.216.6C
100%
16.6

= 106.02% 106% more than average
temperature of Columbus
144. 2; Average temperature of Lisbon
=
22 20 22 25 18C
5

=21.4C
Average temperature of Quito
=
15 16 18 20 22C
5

=18.2C
Reqd ratio =21.4 : 18.2 =107 : 91
145. 4; Average temperature in May =24C
Average temperature in March
=
22 18 16 22 32C
5

=22C
Average temperature in May is (
24 100
22
=) 109.09% of average temperature in
March
146. 4; Let S be the sample space. Then,
n(S) =Number of ways of drawing three
marbles out of 12 =
12
3
C =
12 11 10
3 2


=220
K
KUNDAN
Option 4)
P is daughter of Q.
Option 5)
P is daughter of Q. Hence, does not follow.
Hence option 3) is the answer
156. 4; Some data are sufficient
conversion Some sufficient are data (I) +
No data is a question (E) =I +E =O =Some
sufficient are not questions. But all questions
can be sufficient. Hence, conclusion I does
not follow.
Again, Some data are sufficient (I ) +No
sufficient is a statement (E) =I +E =O =
Some data are not sufficient. Hence
conclusion II does not follow.
157. 4; No data is a question conversion
No question is a data (E) +Some data are
sufficient (I) =E +I =O* =Some sufficient
are not questions. Hence, conclusion I does
not follow.
Nor will II follow.
158. 1; All numerics are alphabets (A) +All
alphabets are written (A) =A +A =A =All
numerics are written (A) +No written is
verbal (E) =A +E =E =No numeric is
verbal. Hence, I follows.
Again, All alphabets are written conversion
Some written are alphabets. Hence II does
not follow.
159. 5; All alphabets are written (A) +No
written is verbal (E) =A +E =E =No alphabet
is verbal. Hence I follows.
Again, All numerics are alphabets (A) +All
alphabets are written (A) =A +A =A =All
numerics are written. Hence II follows.
160. 5; Some clouds are rains (I) +All rains
are ice (A) =I +A =I =Some clouds are ice.
Hence, conclusion I follows.
Again, All rains are ice conversion
Some ice is rain. Hence II follows.
(161-165):
driving is not easy jo ro ho go ... (i)
rough and tough driving
no sa jo da ... (ii)
looks easy but dangerous
ai ro to po ... (iii)
is rough tough dangerous driving
ho jo no ai da ... (iv)
From (i), (ii) and (iv) driving jo ... (v)
From (i), (iv) and (v) is ho ... (vi)
From (i) and (iii) easy ro ... (vii)
From (i), (v), (vi) and (vii)
not go ... (viii)
From (ii), (iv) and (v)
rough/tough no/da ...(ix)
From (ii), (v) and (ix) and sa ... (x)
From (iii) and (iv) dangerous ai ...(xi)
From (iii), (vii) and (xi)
looks/but to/po ... (xii)
161. 4 162. 5 163. 1 164. 2 165. 4
(166-170):
Person Profession Colour Hobby
Bever-
ages
P Doctor Red Painting Cola
Q Engineer Blue Reading Cola
R Artist Green Gardening Cola
S Musician White Net Surfing Cola
T Architect Yellow Dancing
Lemon-
ade
166. 2 167. 1 168. 3 169. 1
170. 1
(171-175):
171. 2 172. 4 173. 3 174. 2 175. 4
(176-180):
Words are arranged in reverse alphabetical
order and the numbers are arranged in
ascending order. One word and one number is
arranged in each step. The arrangement is
done from right to left.
Input: 35 quant hear cute 50 65 98 silent
giant 71 82 19 oliver melody
Step I. 35 quant hear cute 50 65 98 giant 71
82 oliver melody silent 19
Step II. hear cute 50 65 98 giant 71 82
oliver melody silent 19 quant 35
Step III. hear cute 65 98 giant 71 82 melody
silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50
Step IV. hear cute 98 giant 71 82 silent 19
quant 35 oliver 50 melody 65
Step V. cute 98 giant 82 silent 19 quant 35
oliver 50 melody 65 hear 71
Step VI. cute 98 silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50
melody 65 hear 71 giant 82
Step VII. silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50 melody
65 hear 71 giant 82 cute 98
176. 3
177. 5; 19
178. 2 179. 3 180. 2
181. 5; From I.
From II.

Maya is maternal aunt of Lavi.
From I and II.
Clearly, Sunita is sister-in-law of Kaushal.
Both I and II are required to answer.
182. 1; From I. Since Magazine C was sold
at least before three magazines, it was sold
on Mon, Tue or Wed. But F was sold on Tue.
So C was sold on Mon or Wed. Again, it cant
be Mon because then D would be sold on
Tue. Hence, C was sold on Wed and D on
Thu. Thus, two magazines were sold after D.
From II. At least four magazine were sold
after E. So, E was sold on Mon or Tue. Hence,
II is not sufficient.
183. 4; From I.
or
C and E are not adjacent to each other.
From II.
F is on the left of C.
A is adjacent to F.
From I & II.
and other possibilities.
Both I and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question.
184. 3; From I.
Clearly Punjabi book is placed at third.
I alone is sufficient.
K
KUNDAN
From II.
Clearly, Punjabi book is placed at third.
II alone is sufficient.
185. 5; From I. hu ta ki nu
kites fly in sky ... (i)
ta ki ru birds in sky ... (ii)
in sky ki/ta
Hence, I is not sufficient to answer
From II. nu pa le
kites needs thread ... (iii)
nu ki cu da kites available in colours
... (iv)
From I and II,
using equation (iv), (i) and (ii) sky ta
Both I and II together are sufficient to answer
the question.
186. 1; Check options one by one.
Option 1) R =K <E L =T G D
This leads us to K <T or T >K is true and
L D is true. Hence option 1) follows.
Option 2) R =K >E L =T G D
This leads us to L D is true. But we cant
compare K and T. Hence, option 2) does not
follow.
Option 3) R =K E L =T G D
This leads us to K T or T K is true.
Hence, (T >K) does not follow.
Option 4) R =K E L =T G D
This leadS us to L D is true. But we cant
compare K and T. Hence, option 4) does not
follow.
18 ; Given expression, S E N T >H.
Thus, we cant compare S and either H or N.
Hence, 1 and 5 do not follow. Similarly, T
and E cant be compared. Hence, 3 does not
follow.
Again, H and N cant be compared. So 4 does
not follow. But E N or N E follows.
Hence 2) follows.
188. 2;
Given expression: O <I >N <R ? U ? E
Check option one by one
Option (1)
Clearly, R <E and U >R are true. Hence,
does not follow.
Option (2) O <I >N <R U =E
Clearly R E is true and U >R is false.
Hence, follows.
Option (3) O <I >N <R >U =E
So, R E is not true.
Option (4) O <I >N <R =U >E
So, R E is not true. Hence, does not follow.
189. 2; Independence Day and Republic Day
only produce total revulsion for our corrupt
political class and self serving bureaucracy.
190. 4; Lack of patriotism will promote the
terrorist activities in the country as the
defence forces will not be vigilant. This in
turn will affect the economy of the country.
191. 5
192. 2; The passage gives only two reasons:
(i) increasing corruption and (ii) lack of
proper management.
193. 3; Specific calories and proteins should
be given to the children which will help in
fighting malnutrition. Inspection of food will
reduce the risk of medical problems after
eating the contaminated food and the persons
who are responsible for the violation should
be dealt strictly. This will create fear among
those who are putting the lives of the children
in danger.
194. 3; Assumption I is implicit in the
reference to election manifestoes of
political parties. I I I is implicit in the
imperative that a comprehensive
evaluation of the programme be undertaken.
195. 1; Assumption I is implicit; that is why
these schools always look for excuses to
deny admission to poor candidates. Beware
of assumption III! I t is a restatement.
(196-200):
Q. No (i) (ii)/(a) (iii)/(b) (iv)
196. ( )
197.
198.
199. ( )
200. ( )
196. 3 197. 2 198. 2 199. 4 200. 5