Professional Documents
Culture Documents
ENTIRE QUESTION PAPER IS DIVIDED INTO THREE SECTIONS WHERE IN CANDIDATE IS ASKED TO ATTEMPT EVERY
QUESTION. EACH QUESTION SHOULD BE ANSWERED BY MARKING THE CHOSEN ANSWER.
DURATION: 90 MINUTES
SECTION A
1). From 7:00 AM to 11:00 AM it rained 2.25 inches. At 11:00 AM the rain increased to fall at a rate of 1.25 in. every two hours. How
many inches of rain landed on the ground by 5:00 PM?
a) 7
b) 9.75
c) 6
d) 3.25
e) 7.125
2). The owner of a hobby store needed to calculate the percentage of customers who purchase wood glue. Upon completing his
survey, he noticed that 60% of the people that entered his store purchased an item. Of those customers, 15 percent purchased wood glue.
What percent of the people that entered the store purchased wood glue?
a) 8%
b) 7%
c) 9%
d) 12%
e) 15%
a) 7/9
b) 16/7
c) 7/16
d) 9/7
e) 7/4
4) A store owner is packing small radios into larger boxes that measure 25 in. by 42 in. by 60 in. If the measurement of each radio is
7 in. by 6 in. by 5 in., then how many radios can be placed in the box?
a) 300
b) 325
c) 400
d) 420
e) 480
5) Frank is 15 years younger then John. In 5 years John will be twice as old as Frank. How old will Frank be in four years?
a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 14
e) 16
6) A store owner decided to raise the price of a particular item by exactly 10%. Of the following which is NOT the new price?
a) $1.10
b) $8.80
c) $11.00
d) $57.30
e) $78.10
7) The price of a candy bar is $1.00. The price of a ten pack of the same candy bar is $7.40. The ten pack of candy bars is what
percentage cheaper then purchasing ten candy bars individually?
a) 18%
b) 26%
c) 32%
d) 48%
e) The prices are same
8) In a certain department store, which has four sizes of a specific shirt, there are 1/3 as many small shirts as medium shirts, and 1/2
as many large shirts as small shirts. If there are as many x-large shirts as large shirts, what percent of the shirts in the store are medium?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 33%
d) 50%
e) 60%
9) A new apartment complex purchased 60 toilets and 20 shower heads. If the price of a toilet is three times the price of a shower
head, what percent of the total cost was the cost of all the shower heads?
a) 9%
b) 10%
c) 11%
d) 13%
e) 15%
10) A car averages 55 mph for the first 4 hours of a trip and averages 70 mph for each additional hour. The average speed for the
entire trip was 60 mph. How many hours long is the trip?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 11
d) 12
e) 14
11) In 1991, was the number of people in City A three times greater then the number of people in City B?
1) In 1991, there were approximately 1.1 million more people in City A than in City B.
2) In 1991, the 300,000 Catholics in City A made up 20% of its population, and the 141,000 Buddhists in City B made up 30% of its
population.
a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is
sufficient.
d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem
are needed.
a) 1
b) 100
c) 229
d) 329
e) 349
13) If the ticket sales s for a company increases 25% from standard sales to 60 tickets sold, then 60 - s =:
a) 7
b) 12
c) 18
d) 30
e) 48
14) All of the tickets for 2 music concerts, X and Y, were either purchased or given away, and the ratio of X tickets to Y was 2 to 1. Of
the total number of X tickets and Y tickets, what percentage was purchased?
2) Of the X tickets, exactly 60% were purchased, and of the Y tickets, exactly 80% were purchased.
a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is
sufficient.
d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem
are needed.
1) b is even.
2) a is odd.
a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is
sufficient.
d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem
are needed.
1) r < 4.
2) q = 18.
a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is
sufficient.
d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem
are needed.
17) How many integers between 100 and 150, inclusive, cannot be evenly divided by 3 nor 5?
a) 35
b) 27
c) 25
d) 26
e) 28
18) Susan wants to put up fencing around three sides of her rectangular yard and leave a side of 20 feet unfenced. If the yard has an
area of 680 square feet, how many feet of fencing does she need?
a) 38
b) 44
c) 72
d) 88
e) 97
a) x2 + 1 = 0
b) x2 - x - 2 = 0
c) 2x2 - 2 = 0
d) x2 - 2x - 3 = 0
e) x2 - 10x - 5 = 0
20) A computer store regularly sells all stock at a discount of 20 percent to 40 percent. If an additional 25 percent were deducted from
the discount price during a special sale, what would be the lowest possible price of a part costing $16 before any discount?
a) $6.80
b) $7.20
c) $9.60
d) $11.30
e) $14.80
21) If "basis points" are defined so that 1 percent is equal to 100 basis points, then 75.5 percent is how many basis points greater than
65.5 percent?
a) .01
b) .10
c) 10
d) 100
e) 1000
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
e) 8
23) If 2x + y = 10 and x = 3, what is x – y
a) -3
b) -1
c) 0
d) 1
e) 3
24) If a triangle has a base B and the altitude of the triangle is twice the base, then the area of the triangle is
a) .5AB
b) AB
c) .5AB2
d)
B2
e)
2B2
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
SECTION B
DIRECTIONS :- ENITRE SECTION B IS DIVIDED INTO THREE PASSAGES. READ EACH PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND ANSWER
QUESTIONS MENTIONED BELOW.
PASSAGE – I
QUESTION NO 1-6
If one always ought to act so as to produce the best possible circumstances, then morality is extremely demanding. No one could plausibly
claim to have met the requirements of this "simple principle." . . . It would seem strange to punish those intending to do good by sentencing
them to an impossible task. Also, if the standards of right conduct are as extreme as they seem, then they will preclude the personal projects
that humans find most fulfilling.
From an analytic perspective, the potential extreme demands of morality are not a "problem." A theory of morality is no less valid simply
because it asks great sacrifices. In fact, it is difficult to imagine what kind of constraints could be put on our ethical projects. Shouldn't we
reflect on our base prejudices, and not allow them to provide boundaries for our moral reasoning? Thus, it is tempting to simply dismiss the
objections to the simple principle. However, in Demands of Morality, Liam Murphy takes these objections seriously for at least two distinct
reasons.
First, discussion of the simple principle provides an excellent vehicle for a discussion of morality in general. Perhaps, in a way, this is
Murphy's attempt at doing philosophy "from the inside out.". . . Second, Murphy's starting point tells us about the nature of his project.
Murphy must take seriously the collisions between moral philosophy and our intuitive sense of right and wrong. He [must do so] because his
work is best interpreted as intended to forge moral principles from our firm beliefs, and not to proscribe beliefs given a set of moral principles.
[Murphy] argues from our considered judgments rather than to them. . . For example, Murphy cites our "simple but firmly held" beliefs as
supporting the potency of the over-demandingness objection, and nowhere in the work can one find a source of moral values divorced from
human preferences.
Murphy does not tell us what set of "firm beliefs" we ought to have. Rather, he speaks to an audience of well-intentioned but unorganized
moral realists, and tries to give them principles that represent their considered moral judgments. Murphy starts with this base sense of right
and wrong, but recognizes that it needs to be supplemented by reason where our intuitions are confused or conflicting. Perhaps Murphy is
looking for the best interpretation of our convictions, the same way certain legal scholars try to find the best interpretation of our Constitution.
This approach has disadvantages. Primarily, Murphy's arguments, even if successful, do not provide the kind of motivating force for which
moral philosophy has traditionally searched. His work assumes and argues in terms of an inner sense of morality, and his project seeks to
deepen that sense. Of course, it is quite possible that the moral viewpoints of humans will not converge, and some humans have no moral
sense at all. Thus, it is very easy for the moral skeptic to point out a lack of justification and ignore the entire work.
On the other hand, Murphy's choice of a starting point avoids many of the problems of moral philosophy. Justifying the content of moral
principles and granting a motivating force to those principles is an extraordinary task. It would be unrealistic to expect all discussions of moral
philosophy to derive such justifications. Projects that attempt such a derivation have value, but they are hard pressed to produce logical
consequences for everyday life. In the end, Murphy's strategy may have more practical effect than its first-principle counterparts, which do
not seem any more likely to convince those that would reject Murphy's premises.
1) The author suggests that the application of Murphy's philosophy to the situations of two different groups:
a) would help to solve the problems of one group but not of the other.
b) could result in the derivation of two radically different moral principles.
c) would be contingent on the two groups sharing the same fundamental beliefs.
d) could reconcile any differences between the two groups.
2) Suppose an individual who firmly believes in keeping promises has promised to return a weapon to a person she knows to be
extremely dangerous. According to Murphy, which of the following, if true, would WEAKEN the notion that she should return the weapon?
a) She also firmly believes that it is morally wrong to assist in any way in a potentially violent act.
b) She believes herself to be well-intentioned in matters of right and wrong.
c) The belief that one should keep promises is shared by most members of her community.
d) She derived her moral beliefs from first-principle ethical philosophy.
3) The passage implies that a moral principle derived from applying Murphy's philosophy to a particular group would be applicable to
another group if:
4) According to the passage, the existence of individuals who entirely lack a moral sense:
a) confirms the notion that moral principles should be derived from the considered judgments of individuals.
b) suggests a potential disadvantage of Murphy's philosophical approach.
c) supports Murphy's belief that reason is necessary in cases in which intuitions are conflicting or confused.
d) proves that first-principle strategies of ethical theorizing will have no more influence over the behavior of individuals than will
Murphy's philosophical approach.
5) Which of the following can be inferred about "doing philosophy from the inside out?"
6) A school board is debating whether or not to institute a dress code for the school's students. According to Murphy, the best way to
come to an ethical decision would be to:
PASSAGE – II
QUESTION NO 7-13
Agonistic behavior, or aggression, is exhibited by most of the more than three million species of animals on this planet. Animal behaviorists
still disagree on a comprehensive definition of the term, hut aggressive behavior can be loosely described as any action that harms an
adversary or compels it to retreat. Aggression may serve many purposes, such as Food gathering, establishing territory, and enforcing social
hierarchy. In a general Darwinian sense, however, the purpose of aggressive behavior is to increase the individual animal’s—and thus, the
species’—chance of survival.
Aggressive behavior may he directed at animals of other species, or it may be conspecific—that is, directed at members of an animal’s own
species. One of the most common examples of conspecific aggression occurs in the establishment and maintenance of social hierarchies. In
a hierarchy, social dominance is usually established according to physical superiority; the classic example is that of a pecking order among
domestic fowl. The dominance hierarchy may be viewed as a means of social control that reduces the incidence of attack within a group.
Once established, the hierarchy is rarely threatened by disputes because the inferior animal immediately submits when confronted by a
superior.
Two basic types of aggressive behavior are common to most species: attack and defensive threat. Each type involves a particular pattern of
physiological and behavioral responses, which tends not to vary regardless of the stimulus that provokes it. For example, the pattern of
attack behavior in cats involves a series of movements, such as stalking, biting, seizing with the forepaws and scratching with tile hind legs,
that changes very little regardless of the stimulus—that is, regardless of who or what the cat is attacking.
The cat’s defensive threat response offers another set of closely linked physiological and behavioral patterns. The cardiovascular system
begins to pump blood at a faster rate, in preparation for sudden physical activity. The eves narrow and the ears flatten against the side of the
cat’s head for protection, and other vulnerable areas of the body such as the stomach and throat are similarly contracted. Growling or hissing
noises and erect fur also signal defensive threat. As with the attack response, this pattern of responses is generated with little variation
regardless of the nature of the stimulus.
Are these aggressive patterns of attack and defensive threat innate, genetically programmed, or are they learned? The answer seems to be
a combination of both. A mouse is helpless at birth, but by its l2th day of life can assume a defensive threat position by backing up on its hind
legs. By the time it is one month old, the mouse begins to exhibit the attack response. Nonetheless, copious evidence suggests that animals
learn and practice aggressive behavior; one need look no further than the sight of a kitten playing with a ball of string. All the elements of
attack—stalking, pouncing, biting, and shaking—are part of the game that prepares the kitten for more serious situations later in life.
7) The passage asserts that animal social hierarchies are generally stable because:
a) the behavior responses of the group are known by all its members.
b) the defensive threat posture quickly stops most conflicts.
c) inferior animals usually defer to their physical superior.
d) the need for mutual protection from other species inhibits conspecific aggression.
8) According to the author, what is the most significant physiological change undergone by a cat assuming the defensive threat
position?
9) Based on the information in the passage about agonistic behavior, it is reasonable to conclude that:
I. the purpose of agonistic behavior is to help ensure the survival of the species.
II. agonistic behavior is both innate and learned.
III. conspecific aggression is more frequent than i aggression.
a) I only
b) II only
c) I and II only
d) I,II and III only
10) Which of the following would be most in accord with the information presented in the passage?
a) The aggressive behavior of sharks is closely inked to their need to remain in constant motion.
b) fine inability of newborn mice to exhibit the attack response proves that aggressive behavior must be learned.
c) Most animal species that do riot exhibit aggressive behavior are prevented from doing so by environmental factors.
d) Members of a certain species of hawk use the same method to prey on both squirrels and gophers.
11) The author suggests that the question of whether agonistic behavior is genetically programmed or learned:
12) Which of the following topics related to agonistic behavior is NOT explicitly addressed in the passage?
a) analyzing the differences between attack behavior and defensive threat behavior.
b) introducing a subject currently debated among animal behaviorists.
c) providing a general overview of aggressive behavior in animals.
d) illustrating various manifestations of agonistic behavior among mammals.
PASSAGE – III
QUESTION NO 14 - 20
The rich analysts of Fernand Braudel arid his fellow Annales historians have made significant contributions to historical theory and research.
In a departure from traditional historical approaches, the Annales historians assume (as do Marxists) that history cannot be limited to a
simple recounting of conscious human actions, but must be understood in the context of forces and material conditions that underlie human
behavior. Braudel was the first Annales historian to gain widespread support for the idea that history should synthesize data from various
social sciences, especially economics, in order to provide a broader view of human societies over time (although Febvre and Bloch, founders
of the Annales school, had originated this approach).
Braudel conceived of history as the dynamic interaction of three temporalities. The first of these, the evenmentielle, involved short-lived
dramatic events such as battles, revolutions, and the actions of great men, which had preoccupied traditional historians like Carlyle.
Conjonctures was Braudel’s term for larger cyclical processes that might last up to half a century. The longue duree, a historical wave of
great length, was for Braudel the most fascinating of the three temporalities. Here he focused on those aspects of everyday life that might
remain relatively unchanged for centuries. What people ate, what they wore, their means and routes of travel—for Braudel these things
create “structures’ that define the limits of potential social change for hundreds of years at a time.
Braudel’s concept of the longue duree extended the perspective of historical space as well as time. Until the Annales school, historians had
taken the juridical political unit—the nation-state, duchy, or whatever—as their starting point. Yet, when such enormous timespans are
considered, geographical features may well have more significance for human populations than national borders, In his doctoral thesis, a
seminal work on the Mediterranean during the reign of Philip II, Braudel treated the geohistory of the entire region as a “structure” that had
exerted myriad influences on human lifeways since the first settlements on the shores of the Mediterranean Sea. And so the reader is given
such arcane information as the list of products that came to Spanish shores from North Africa, the seasonal routes followed by
Mediterranean sheep and their shepherds, and the cities where the best ship timber could be bought.
Braudel has been faulted for the imprecision of his approach. With his Rabelaisian delight in concrete detail, Braudel vastly extended the
realm of relevant phenomena but this very achievement made it difficult to delimit the boundaries of observation, a task necessary to
beginning any social investigation. Further, Braudel and other Annales historians minimize the differences among the social sciences.
Nevertheless, the many similarly designed studies aimed at both professional and popular audiences indicate that Braudel asked significant
questions that traditional historians had overlooked.
a) show how Braudel’s work changed the conception of Mediterranean life held by previous historians.
b) evaluate Braudel’s criticisms of traditional and Marxist historiography.
c) contrast the perspective of the longue duree with the actions of major historical figures
d) outline some of Braudel’s influential conceptions and distinguish them from conventional approaches.
15) The author refers to the work of Febvre and Bloch in order to:
16) According to the passage, all of the following are aspects of Braudel’s approach to history EXCEPT that he:
17) In the third paragraph, the author is primarily concerned with discussing:
18) The passage suggests that, compared with traditional historians, Annales/i> historians are:
a) more interested in other social sciences than in history.
b) critical of the achievements of famous historical figures.
c) skeptical of the validity of most economic research.
d) more interested in the underlying context of human behavior.
19) Which of the Following statements would be most likely to follow the last sentence of the passage?
20) The author is critical of Braudel’s perspective for which of the Following reasons
SECTION C
1) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are
listed below:
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points
for first.
If Eugene finishes two places ahead of Chris in the first race, all of the following will be true EXCEPT:
2) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are
listed below:
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points
for first.
If Don finishes third in the third race, which of the following must be true of that race?
3) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are
listed below:
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points
for first.
If Eugene's total for the six races is 36 points, which of the following must be true?
4) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are
listed below:
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points
for first.
If Alan finishes first only once, and Don finishes second exactly twice, the lowest total number of points that Bob can earn in the race is:
a) 32 points.
b) 38 points.
c) 40 points.
d) 44 points.
e) 48 points.
5) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are
listed below:
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points
for first.
If Alan finishes first in four races, which of the following could earn a total of fewer than 26 points in the six races?
a) Bob only.
b) Chris only.
c) Don only.
d) Eugene of Chris.
e) Don or Chris.
6) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are
listed below:
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points
for first.
If Frank enters the third race and finishes behind Chris and Don, which of the following must be true of that race?
She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and
two pairs of shoes, black and brown.
a) red stockings.
b) a blue skirt.
c) a white blouse.
d) blue stockings.
e) a sky blue blouse.
8) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color
combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this.
She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and
two pairs of shoes, black and brown.
If Jane is color blind and is unable to determine what outfits went well together, how many possible clothing combinations could she have?
a) 24
b) 32
c) 36
d) 44
e) 48
9) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color
combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this.
She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and
two pairs of shoes, black and brown.
10) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color
combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this.
She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and
two pairs of shoes, black and brown.
Jane buys a gray scarf. If she wears the new scarf, then she could:
She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and
two pairs of shoes, black and brown.
12) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy are doctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an optometrist, and
one is a general practitioner. They are seated around a square table, with one person on each side.
13) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy are doctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an optometrist, and
one is a general practitioner. They are seated around a square table, with one person on each side.
14) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired
two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No
part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working.
15) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired
two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No
part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working.
Which one of the following is an acceptable group of employees that could work on Saturday?
a) ZWYST
b) UVWYZS
c) VWXST
d) UZST
e) VWZS
16) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired
two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No
part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
17) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired
two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No
part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working.
a) X works on Saturday
b) Y works on Saturday
c) T works on Saturday
d) Z works on Saturday
e) U works on Saturday
18) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired
two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No
part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working.
19) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired
two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No
part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working.
Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the employees who have the possibility of working on Sunday?
a) UWYZ
b) UWYS
c) UVWXT
d) UVWXYT
e) UVWXYTS
20) In the earliest stages of common law, a party could have their case heard by a judge only upon the payment of a fee to the court,
and then only if the case fit into one of the forms for which there existed a writ. At first the number of such formalized cases of action was
very small, but judges invented new forms which brought more cases and greater revenues.
Which of the following conclusions is most strongly suggested by the paragraph above?
a) In most early cases, the plaintiff rather than the defendant prevailed.
b) One of the motivating forces for the early expansion in judicial power was economic considerations.
c) The first common law decisions were inconsistent with one another and did not form a coherent body of law.
d) Early judges often decided cases in an arbitrary and haphazard manner.
e) The judiciary at first had greater power than either the legislature or the executive.