1

Subject 1. ISSUES OF GENERAL MEDICAL CARE.

Each of the question or incomplete statement below is followed by suggested answers or
completions. Select the one which is the best in each case.

001. What are the responsibilities of junior medical personnel?
a) damp cleaning
b) dispensation of food
c) injections
d) intubation and enemas

002. What are the responsibilities of medical nurses?
a) damp cleaning
b) feeding and care for the severely ill patients
c) accompanying the patients to be investigated

003. What is ethics?
a) theory of debt of honor
b) theory of medical workers duty
c) theory of moral principles
d) theory of morality

004. What is medical deontology?
a) theory of duty
b) theory of necessity
c) theory of proper behavior of medical nurses
d) theory of medical nurses duty

005. What are the cases of disclosing the medical confidentiality?
a) should this data inflict harm on the medical worker
b) with a view to exercise a morale effect on the patient
c) availability of socially dangerous diseases: HIV infection, gonorrhea, syphilis
d) to improve the quality of patients treatment

006. What is required to do in case of incurable disease?
a) the patient to be told the truth
b) the patient to be white lied
c) to tell the truth to an immediate relative (wife, children)
d) to clarify relatives motivation, to tell them the truth in case they are capable to
adequately take it

007. Main types of patient care institutions, except:
a) hospitals
b) in-patient departments
c) polyclinics
d) specialized clinics
e) pharmacies

008. What is medical station?
a) an institution of urgent medical aid
b) an institution of undergoing prophylactic medical examination
c) an institution for curing the women
d) a medical institution at work
2

009. In Russia there exist all the dispensaries, except for:
a) TB
b) dermatovenerological
c) oncological
d) cardiological
e) obstetrical-gynecological
f) psychoneurological
g) of medical exercises

010. Major documents kept at a nurses station:
a) log of blood and blood substitutes transfusion
b) log of medical assignments
c) narcotic drugs log
d) procedural log

011. A relationship between care and treatment:
a) care and treatment are different notions: treatment is performed by doctors; care is
performed by junior medical personnel and medical nurses
b) care and treatment are identical notions, since the purpose of both care and treatment is to
make the patient healthy
c) care is an integral part of treatment

012. What does special care mean?
a) care to be performed particularly careful
b) care to be performed under special conditions
c) care to be performed with targeted specialists being available
d) care which needs additional measures because of specific character of disease

013. Who should care for patients?
a) patients relatives
b) junior medical personnel and medical nurses
c) all medical workers jointly with patients relatives, each one having specific range of tasks to
have the care organized properly

014. What does the medical deontology study, except?
a) relationships between the doctor and the patient
b) a wide range of the issues of duty, morality and professional ethics of medical workers
c) iatrogenic diseases
d) prophylaxis doctrine

015. Patients illness was diagnosed as malignant tumor of stomach at the stage when it can be
removed drastically by surgical procedure. The patient strongly objects to be subject to surgery.
Your tactics:
a) to tell the patient his/her actual diagnosis
b) to discharge the patient concealing the actual diagnosis from him/her
c) to tell the patient that his/her illness is diagnosed as gastric ulcer / polypus, which is
nevertheless to be subject to surgery; do your best to persuade the patient to be operated.

016. The patient is suffering severe epigastric pains, sickness, vomiting. Medical workers
evaluated status of the patient as food poisoning and directed the patient to an infectious diseases
3
hospital, where being more carefully investigated he was diagnosed as abdominal (gastric)
myocardial infarction. How can you evaluate the initial actions of medical workers?
a) the only true way
b) as a medical mistake
c) negligent, careless

017. Medical nurse mixed up bottles looking very much alike and injected to the patient a high
dose of insulin instead of heparin decreasing by this the level of blood sugar; this resulted in
deterioration of the patients state (hypoglycemic coma). How can you evaluate the actions of
the medical nurse?
a) legally wrong from the medical point of view (negligence, carelessness)
b) medical mistake
c) wrongdoing occurring by chance

018. Several months ago young womans father died of myocardial infarction. She experienced
bitter grief because of his death. While reading a special literature, she came to the conclusion
that there can be genetic predisposition to myocardial infarction. Then, she started to feel a sense
of discomfort in left breast; fear hung upon her to die. She asked the doctor to consult her. What
disease is the patient supposed to have?
a) iatrogenic illness
b) most probably, iatrogenic illness is accompanied by elements of neurosis (cardiophobia),
nevertheless the patient needs to be given an additional examination.
c) acute cardial disease

019. Maintaining of medical confidentiality is a principle of:
a) medical ethics
b) medical deontology
c) legal medicine

020. Moral principles of medicine are the subject of studying:
a) medical ethics
b) medical deontology
c) legal medicine

Subject 2. HOSPITAL RECEPTION ROOM. DOCUMENTATION.
Each of the question or incomplete statement below is followed by suggested answers or
completions. Select the one which is the best in each case.

001. How are the medications of groups A and B kept?:
a) on an open shelf in the cabinet
b) in a locked away compartment in the cabinet
c) in the fridge

002. How are serum and vaccines kept?:
a) on an open shelf in the cabinet
b) in a locked away compartment in the cabinet
c) in the fridge

003. Who is responsible for thermometry? :
a) medical nurse at a nurses station:
b) procedural medical nurse
c) reception medical nurse
4
d) medical nurse of functional diagnostics department

004. Which of medical nurses samples blood?
a) medical nurse at a nurses station:
b) procedural medical nurse
c) reception medical nurse
d) medical nurse of functional diagnostics department

005. Which of medical nurses perform injections?
a) medical nurse at a nurses station:
b) procedural medical nurse
c) reception medical nurse
d) medical nurse of functional diagnostics department

006. Which of medical nurses supervises observance of personal hygiene by patients?
a) medical nurse at a nurses station
b) procedural medical nurse
c) reception medical nurse
d) medical nurse of functional diagnostics department

007. Who keeps a log to accept-&-handover the shifts?
a) medical nurse at a nurses station:
b) procedural medical nurse
c) reception medical nurse
d) medical nurse of functional diagnostics department

008. Which of medical nurses distributes drugs for patients?
a) medical nurse at a nurses station
b) procedural medical nurse
c) reception medical nurse
d) medical nurse of functional diagnostics department

009. Who assembles and installs the intravenous drip-feed systems?
a) medical nurse at a nurses station:
b) procedural medical nurse
c) reception medical nurse
d) medical nurse of functional diagnostics department

010. Procedural medical nurse carries out all medical manipulations except for:
a) injections
b) pleurocentesis
c) blood grouping
d) measurement of blood pressure

011. Which of medical nurses keeps a log of medical assignments?
a) medical nurse at a nurses station:
b) procedural medical nurse
c) reception medical nurse
d) medical nurse of functional diagnostics department

012. What is a preventive medical examination?
a) investigation and treatment of patients in dispensaries
5
b) recording the patients suffering some particular diseases
c) close supervision over the patients suffering some particular diseases, alongside over the
health of particular population group

013. A patient applied to a hospital reception room without any medical application documents;
he suddenly felt queer. What are you expected to do?
a) to survey the patient rendering him a required medical aid to solve the issue of further
treatment
b) to call an ambulance
c) to ask the patient to bring appropriate medical documents

014. At arrival of the patient in reception, lousiness was revealed. What shall you do?
a) to refuse the patient to be hospitalized
b) the patient to be re-washed with soap in a tub, his clothes being forwarded to a
disinfection room
c) to undertake cleansing, including hair cut (if possible), greasing the hair with a mixture of
kerosene and sunflower oil, then the hair to be washed again + hot 10% vinegar

015. In a hospital reception room is a patient complaining of abdominal pains. General condition
is satisfactory. Can he take a hygienic bath?
a) yes, he can
b) no, he cant
c) he cannot unless serious surgical indications are excluded

016. In a hospital reception room is a patient on suspicion of gastrointestinal bleeding.
(3 hours ago he vomited, vomit mass looked like coffee grounds). He feels satisfactory,
capable of moving. How should he be transported to an in-patient department?
a) on foot escorted by a nurse
b) by the seat-wheelchair
c) by the stretcher-wheelchair

017. What are responsibilities of a head medical nurse?
a) carrying out the most critical medical manipulations
b) supervising the activity of a charge nurse, writing out the requirements for medicines
c) supervising over the provision of the department with hard and soft equipment,

018. What contributes to spreading the nosocomial infections?
a) violation of the rules of aseptics and antiseptics in the hospital
b) appearance of bedbugs and roaches at the departments
c) revealing lousiness at the departments

019. What disinfectant solutions are used for damp cleaning?
a) 10% solution of chloric lime
b) 1% solution of chloramine
c) 3% solution of hydric dioxide
d) solution of potassium hypermanganate

020. How often should the wards be subject to damp cleaning?
a) every day
b) as required
c) as required, two times a day at least
Subject 3. PERSONAL HYGIENE OF THE PATIENT
6
Each of the question or incomplete statement below is followed by suggested answers or
completions. Select the one which is the best in each case.

001. What is the mouth cavity of severely ill patients washed with?
a) 3% solution of hydric dioxide
b) 0,5% solution of sodium hydrocarbonate
c) solution of furacilinum
d) spiritus

002. In what position should be the patient so that the liquid would no penetrate into a
respiratory tract?
a) vertical
b) semisedentary position with the head bent forward
c) sedentary position
d) edgewise

003. When are the eyes washed with 2% solution of boric acid and 0,9% solution of sodium
chloride?
a) all bed patients
b) patients hands and legs
c) conjunctivitis

004. What vessel should be used to wash the conjunctival cavity?
a) eyedropper
b) bottle
c) undine
d) drinking bowl

005. What should be the temperature of eye drops?
a) body t (37 degrees)
b) indoor t (about 20 degrees)
c) warm t (above 40 degrees)
d) chilled t (18-20 degrees)

006. What is used to make cerumen soft?
a) vegetable oil
b) eau de cologne
c) 3% solution of hydric dioxide
d) chlorhexidine

007. To what depth is the tip of Janet's syringe introduced to delete cerumen?
a) 3 mm
b) 1 cm, no more
c) 2 cm, no more

008. How to soften nasal crusts?
a) with water
b) 0,9% solution of sodium chloride
c) vaseline oil

009. How to apply cold on an area of the nose bridge?
a) unless the bleeding stops
7
b) 10-15 min, no more
c) up to 1 hour with some breaks
d) 3-4 min with some breaks

010. What one should do with the patients face before shaving:
a) to wash the patient
b) to wash the skin with a soap
c) to treat the face with cold water
d) to treat the face with hot water

011. Why are the patients suffering the cardiovascular system disease, shortbreathing are
recommended to be in a semisedentary position in bed?
a) its more convenient to feed the patient
b) to decrease congesion of blood in pulmonary circulation
c) to lessen the danger of bed sores

012. What is the main purpose of a functional bed?
a) to create a convenient position to the patient
b) it can be easily and quickly transported
c) it can fixed the patient

013. How often is the change of underwear and linen carried out?
a) every 10 days
b) every week, after a bath or shower
c) as soon as it becomes dirty, at least every 10 days

014. Can the decubitus ulcers appear with those patients who had to be in a sitting position?
a) no, they cant, since decubitus ulcers can only be generated with the patients lying on down
on his/her back , pronate or edgewise
b) yes, they can, in the are of ishial tuberosity
c) no, they cant since in a sitting position there is a thick layer of subcutaneous fat and muscular
tissue between bony prominences and mattress

015. Why cant a rubber ring be inflated intensively?
a) it shall fail to work rather soon
b) it shall be difficult to stably position it
c) it should change its shape with the patient moving

016. What should be undertaken in the initial stage of decubitus ulcers?
a) to reinforce the preventive control (keeping the patients bed clean and neat, changing
the position of the patient, careful skin care)
b) surgical treatment
c) to assign physiotherapeutic procedures to the affected region (UHF, UVL)
d) to process the affected regions with a 1% solution of brilliant green, strong solution of
potassium permanganate, 5-10% solution of iodine

017. A seriously ill patient is subject to fragility of hair and slight hair fall. Does he/she need
combing and brushing?
a) by all means and as often as possible
b) try no to comb and brush the hair at all
c) to comb and brush in a usual way using a large-toothed comb

8
018. The patient suffering from pneumonia was assigned penicillin, which brought to white fur
plastering his/her mouth. What will you do?
a) to improve the mouth care
b) to take a swab from oral mucosa for bacteriological test
c) to recommend the patient to clean the teeth more often
d) to recommend the patient to remove dental prosthesis
e) to administrate antifungal agents (nystatin, for example)

019. Why is it not viable to drop into the eyes more that 1-2 drops of medicine solutions?
a) eye drops contain superpotent drugs
b) conjunctival cavity does not keep more than 1 drop of solution
c) large quantity of conjunctiva is not good for the condition of conjunctiva

020. Is the patient with nasal bleeding recommended to throw back his/her head?
a) yes, in doing so, the bleeding shall stop sooner
b) this position is only recommended with more voluminous bleeding
c) no, he/she doesnt need to do so because the blood will be flowing down along rear wall
of nasopharynx, which prevents from the right assessment of the bleeding dynamics

6. Medical diets.
Each of the question or incomplete statement below is followed by suggested answers or
completions. Select the one which is the best in each case.

001. One of the main principles of medical diet is:
a) the balance of main components
b) to increase caloric value and vitamins contents
c) to limit caloric value through reduced animal fat and refined carbohydrates

002. The ration of a healthy man should include:
a) 80 100 g of proteins, 80 100 g of fats, 400 500 g of carbohydrates
b) 150 250 g of proteins, 150 250 g of fats, 150 250 g of carbohydrates
c) 400 500 g of proteins, 80 100 g of fats, 80 100 g of carbohydrates

003. The ration of a healthy man should include:
a) 2500 3000 g of water
b) 1700 2000 g of water
c) 3000 3500 g of water

004. How many are there main diets now?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 15

005. In what diets are reduced a salt content (sodium chloride)?
a) 7, 10
b) 8, 9
c) 1, 2

006. In what diets are reduced an animal fat and refined carbohydrates content?
a) 7, 10
b) 8, 9
c) 1, 2
9

007. What should be a correlation between proteins, fats and carbohydrates in rational diet of the
patients?
a) 1:1:4
b) 4:1:1
c) the correlation between proteins, fats and carbohydrates depends on the character
of the disease

008. Who prescribes the diet to the patients?
a) a doctor
b) a buffet nurse
c) a head medical nurse
d) a charge nurses

009. Who registers the diet for every patient?
a) a doctor
b) a buffet nurse
c) a head medical nurse
d) a charge nurses
010. Can buffet nurse change a diet number by the patient`s request?
a) yes
b) no
c) it depends on the situation

011. Who is carried out the total daily register of diets and responsible for correct planning and
application of medical diets?
a) a doctor-dietologist
b) a head physician
c) a head medical nurse

012. What diet`s number is prescribed for patients with stomach and duodenum ulcers diseases?
a) 7
b) 1
c) 5

013. What diet`s number is prescribed for patients with liver and gall bladder diseases?
a) 7
b) 1
c) 5

014. What diet`s number is prescribed for patients with kidney diseases?
a) 7
b) 1
c) 5

015. What diet`s number is prescribed for patients with obesity?
a) 7
b) 8
c) 9

016. What diet`s number is prescribed for patients with diabetes mellitus?
a) 7
10
b) 8
c) 9

017. What diet`s number is prescribed for patients with heart diseases?
a) 10
b) 11
c) 15

018. The artificial feeding is used:
a) when the patients can not take food by himself
b) when the oral intake of food appears insufficient
c) all above

019. There are all the following ways of artificial feeding, except:
a) through the probe introduced into the stomach
b) through the rectum
c) by stomas
d) peripheral parenteral nutrition

020. Probes for artificial feeding are as follows, except:
a) a soft plastic tubes 3 5 mm in diameter
b) a silicone tubes 3 5 mm in diameter
c) a rubber tubes 3 5 mm in diameter
d) a metal tubes 3 5 mm in diameter

021. Is it possible to use a mixtures containing a milk, eggs, broth for enteral feeding by stomas
or through the probe?
a) yes
b) no

022. How often should be given various mixtures for enteral feeding during the day?
a) 2 - 3 times a day with a large portions
b) 5 6 times a day with a small portions
c) 10 - 12 times a day with a small portions

023. Preparation for parenteral feeding more frequently are introduced:
a) intramuscularly
b) intravenously
c) subcutaneously

024. For parenteral feeding are used:
a) protein hydrolyzates, fatty emulsions
b) glucose solutions, vitamins
c) donor blood, plasma
d) all above

025. Correct application of parenteral preparation make it possible:
a) to decrease intoxication of an organism
b) to correct metabolic disturbances
c) to normalize functions of various organs and systems
d) all above

11
7. Measurement of body temperature, registration of a temperature chart.
Each of the question or incomplete statement below is followed by suggested answers or
completions. Select the one which is the best in each case.

001. The scale of the medical thermometer includes a range of temperature from:
a) 34 up to 42
b) 32 up to 40
c) 35 up to 43

002. The scale interval of the medical thermometer there is (graded in):
a) 0,1
o
C
b) 0,2
o
C
c) 0,3
o
C

003. Body temperature may be taken:
a) in the axillary region
b) in the inguinal region
c) sublingually
d) rectally
e) all above

004. When temperature is measured in the mouth cavity, the thermometer is located:
a) under the tongue
b) above the tongue

005. Duration of body temperature measurement is:
a) 3-5 minutes
b) 7-10 minutes
c) 10-15 minutes

006. Rectal temperature is higher than in the armpit on:
a) 0,1 - 0,5
o

b) 1,0 - 1,5
o

c) 0,5 - 1,0
o


007. Elevated temperatures from 37
o
to 38
o
C are called:
a) moderately high
b) subfebrile
c) high

008. Elevated temperatures from 38
o
to 39
o
C are called:
a) moderately high
b) subfebrile
c) high

009. Elevated temperatures from 39
o
to 40
o
C are called:
a) moderately high
b) subfefrile
c) high

010. Elevated temperature over 41
o
and 42
o
C are called:
a) high
12
b) very high
c) hyperpyretic

011. What type of fever is characterized by rises temperature sharply
(by 2
o
4
o
C) and drops to normal and subnormal level:
a) remittent fever
b) hectic fever
c) continued fever
d) inverse fever

012. A sudden temperature drop (to normal within 24 hours) is called:
a) lysis
b) crisis

013. The course of fever is characterized by:
a) period of elevation of temperature
b) period of high temperature
c) period of decreasing temperature
d) all above

014. What conditions can provoke the physiological rises of the body temperature?
a) physical strain, emotional stress, meals
b) infection disease
c) malignant tumours
d) tissues necrosis

015. What purpose does wipe (dry) the armpit before measurement temperature?
a) hygienic procedure
b) to prevent a mistake (more lower result) of measurement temperature
c) to have a stable position of the thermometer in the armpit

016. The difference between the morning and evening temperature in normal persons does not
exceed:
a) 0,6
o
C
b) 0,9
o
C
c) 0,1
o
C

017. Vertical axis of temperature chart consists of the temperature grid with:
a) 0,2
o
C interval
b) 0,1
o
C interval
c) 0,5
o
C interval

018. Temperature chart is used to:
a) graphic records of temperature curve
b) reflect dynamics of blood pressure, breath and pulse rate
c) reflect dynamics of body weight, daily amount of urine
d) all above

019. A patient has a fever during 2 weeks, morning temperature varies in the range of 36,0
o

36,5
o
C

and evening temperature is 37,5
o
38,0
o
C. What type of fever has the patient?
a) remittent fever
b) hectic fever
13
c) inverse fever
d) intermittent fever

020. What type of fever is characterized by the morning temperature is higher than in the
evening?
a) remittent fever
b) hectic fever
c) inverse fever
d) intermittent fever

021. The first stage of elevation temperature is accompanied by:
a) the skin blood vessels contraction
b) the skin blood vessels expansion (widening)
c) heavy perspiration

022. The stage of decreasing temperature is accompanied by:
a) chills
b) the skin blood vessels contraction
c) the skin blood vessels expansion

023. What nursing care should be done during the stage of elevation temperature?
a) put a cold compress on a forehead of patient
b) cover up warm, give to drink a hot tea, fruit juices
c) prevent a decubitus ulcers (bedsores)

024. The nursing care during the period of high temperature includes all these manipulations,
except?
a) put a cold compress on a forehead
b) observe the dynamics of blood pressure, pulse rate, diuresis
c) cover up warm
d) fluid intake

025. The nursing care during crisis decreasing temperature includes all these manipulations,
except?
a) put a cold compress on a forehead
b) observe the dynamics of blood pressure, pulse rate, dieresis
c) change a linen, bed-clothes
d) fluid intake

8. Measures of effect on an organism of the patient: cups, mustard plasters (sinapisms),
compresses. Balneotherapeutics.
Each of the question or incomplete statement below is followed by suggested answers or
completions. Select the one which is the best in each case.

001. Segmental-reflex therapy is accompanied by the following effects:
a) functional changes in organs and tissues (changes of vascular tension, secretory
and motor activity, cellular metabolism)
b) an improvement of appetite, mood and sleep
c) all above

002. All the following are the methods of segmental-reflex therapy, except:
a) the application of compresses, cups, sinapisms
14
b) hydrotherapy
c) injections

003. The wet cold compress may be effective in the treatment of various bruises:
a) in the first hours
b) in the first days
c) are not used in the treatment

004. How often should be change a cold compress?
a) in 2 3 minutes
b) in 10 15 minutes
c) when compress gets a dry

005. The application of cold compresses are used for various purposes, except:
a) constricts blood vessels
b) inhibits local circulation, suppuration and tissue metabolism
c) as a temporary anesthetic
d) vasodilation and increases local circulation

006. The wet warming compress is prepared of:
a) four layers
b) three layers
c) two layers

007. The duration of wet warming compress application should not exceed:
a) 10 hours
b) 15 hours
c) 12 hours
d) 6 hours

008. A half-spirituous warming compress is applied:
a) to accelerate resolution of inflammatory infiltrates
b) to inhibit local circulation
c) to inhibit tissue metabolism

009. Contra-indications for application of warming compresses are as follows, except:
a) the various skin diseases (dermatitis)
b) violations of skin cover integrity
c) local infiltrates

010. An ice-bag is used:
a) for durable local cooling
b) for accelerate resolution of inflammatory infiltrates
c) for increase local circulation

011. Sinapisms are used for treatment all the following, except:
a) bronchitis
b) neurologic diseases
c) angina pectoris
d) skin diseases

012. The cups are used for treatment all the following, except:
15
a) skin disease
b) bronchitis
c) myositises
d) pneumonia

013. The application of the cups is contra-indicated for all the following, except:
a) malignant neoplasms
b) active tuberculosis
c) pulmonary bleeding
d) myositises
e) skin diseases

014. The duration of the cups application is usually:
a) 5 10 minutes
b) 10 15 minutes
c) when the colour of skin changes under the cups

015. The cups are a glass jar with a volume:
a) 100 150 ml
b) 150 200 ml
c) 30 70 ml

016. To avoid burns, before applying the cups, it is necessary:
a) to grease the skin with mineral jelly
b) to moist the skin with warm water
c) to moist the skin with camphoric spirit

017. Each layer of wet warming compress should be of larger size than the previous one, that
to:
a) avoid fast drying
b) avoid burns
c) avoid hyperemia of the skin

018. Leeches are contra-indicated at:
a) anemia
b) hemorrhoid
c) essential hypertension

019. Leeches can be applied on the following parts of the body, except:
a) right hypochondrium
b) behind the ears
c) left part of the chest
d) face

020. How much blood are usually removed (sucked out) by the each leeches during 0,5 1
hours:
a) 40 50 ml
b) 10 15 ml
c) 60 70 ml

021. You can remove the leeches from the patient`s skin by application:
a) a cotton wool moistened with salt water or spirit solution (alcohol)
16
b) a cotton wool moistened with sweet water
c) a dry cotton wool

022. What effect can cause a cold bath (hydrotherapy) on the patient`s body?
a) spasm of smooth muscular of inner organs, blood pressure increase
b) relax influence on the central nervous system
c) dilation of smooth muscular of inner organs, blood pressure decrease

023. Hydrotherapy is contra-indicated at:
a) heavy atherosclerosis
b) pronounced stage of circulatory insufficiency and essential hypertension
c) active tuberculosis
d) malignant neoplasms
e) all above

024. Duration of hydrotherapeutic procedures (a baths) varies usually at a range:
a) 10 15 minutes
b) 20 - 25 minutes
c) 25 30 minutes

025. For hydrotherapeutic procedures can be used:
a) a cold water (about 20
o
)
b) indifferent water (34
o
36
o
)
c) warm water (37
o
39
o
)
d) hot water (high 40
o
)
e) all above

Tests for the lesson 9.
Drug administration. Intradermal, subcutaneous, intramuscular injection.

001. The following types of injections are performed by the nurse except
a) subcutaneous injection;
b) intramuscular injection;
c) intraarterial injection;
d) intravenous injection.

002. What site is commonly used for intradermal injection?
a) ventral forearm;
b) fat pads on the abdomen;
c) upper hips;
d) ventrogluteal areas.

003. The following volume of medical solution is commonly administered intradermaly
a) 0.5 ml or less;
b) 1-2 ml of fluid;
c) 3-5 ml of fluid;
d) 10-20 ml of fluid.

004. The following type of injection is used in allergy and tuberculin testing
a) intradermal injection;
b) subcutaneous injection;
c) intramuscular injection;
17
d) intravenous injection.

005. The following is right position of the syringe for intradermal injection
a) at a 90-degree angle to the skin surface;
b) at a 10-to-15- degree angle to the skin surface;
c) at a 30-to-45- degree angle to the skin surface;
d) at a 45-to-60- degree angle to the skin surface.

006. The following are subcutaneous injection sites except
a) loose tissue of the lower abdomen;
b) upper hips;
c) ventral forearm;
d) lateral upper arms.

007. What is the route of insulin administration?
a) intradermal injection;
b) subcutaneous injection;
c) intramuscular injection;
d) intravenous injection.

008. The following volume of medical solution is commonly administered subcutaneously
a) 0.5 ml or less;
b) 1-2 ml of fluid;
c) 3-5 ml of fluid;
d) 10-20 ml of fluid.

009.The following are skin contradications to perform subcutaneous injection except
a) pallid skin;
b) inflamed skin;
c) edematous skin;
d) scarred skin.

010. Is it necessary to aspirate for blood return when giving insulin or heparin?
a) yes;
b) no.

011. The following is right position of the syringe for subcutaneous injection
a) at a 90-degree angle to the skin surface;
b) at a 10-to-15- degree angle to the skin surface;
c) at a 30-to-45- degree angle to the skin surface;
d) at a 45-to-60- degree angle to the skin surface.

012. What type of injection is needed forming a fat fold?
a) intradermal injection;
b) subcutaneous injection;
c) intramuscular injection;
d) intravenous injection

013. The following site is commonly used for intramuscular injection
a) ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal areas;
b) loose tissue of lower abdomen;
c) dorsum of the hands;
18
d) lateral upper arms.

014. What complication can appear after all types of injections?
a) allergic reaction;
b) hematoma;
c) nerve or ligament damage;
d) air embolism.

015. The following volume of medical solution is commonly administered
intramuscularly
a) 0.5 ml or less;
b) 1-2 ml of fluid;
c) 3-5 ml of fluid;
d) 10-20 ml of fluid.

016. The following are systemic contradications for intramuscular injection except
a) impaired coagulation mechanisms;
b) acute myocardial infarction;
c) shock;
d) anemia.

017. Why is it necessary to check for blood return giving intramuscular injection?
a) it indicates that the needle isnt in the vein;
b) it minimizes vascular irritation;
c) it prevents an immediate effect of drug;
d) it prevents contamination with bacteria.

018. After intramuscular injection withdraw the needle
a) gently but quickly at a 90-degree angle;
b) slowly and smoothly, keeping it parallel to the skin;
c) gently but quickly at a 45-degree angle;
d) slowly at a 30-degree angle.

019. The following complication can appear after intramuscular injection except
a) nerve or ligament damage;
b) hematoma;
c) broken needle;
d) air embolism.

020. The following are typical features of the allergic reaction except
a) itching;
b) thrombosis;
c) bronchospasm;
d) urticarial rash.

Tests for lesson 10.
Peripheral intravascular therapy.

001. The following types of injections are performed by the doctor except
a) intraarterial injection;
b) intramuscular injection;
c) intrapleural injection;
19
d) intraarticular injection.

002. The best route of drug administration in emergency is
a) intradermal injection;
b) subcutaneous injection;
c) intramuscular injection;
d) intravenous injection.

003. The following are preferred venipuncture sites except
a) cephalic and basilic veins in the lower arm;
b) veins in the dorsum of the hand;
c) antecubital veins;
d) leg and foot veins.

004. The air vent clamp is needed
a) to control speed of infusion;
b) to provide administration of solution in the vein;
c) to administer the air in the bottle;
d) to prevent the passage of air in the vein.

005. The following are contradications to administer the solution intravenously except
a) abnormal discoloration;
b) cloudiness;
c) particles;
d) large volume of the solution.

006. Membrane-filter set at the bottom of the fluid chamber is needed
a) to control speed of infusion;
b) to provide administration of solution in the vein;
c) to administer the air in the bottle;
d) to prevent the passage of air in the vein.

007. The following are contradications to perform intravenous injection except
a) sclerotic vein;
b) burns;
c) pallid skin;
d) edematous skin.

008. The following can cause a vasomotor response resulting in venous constriction except
a) patients anxiety;
b) cold room;
c) lower temperature of the solution;
d) massage of the arm.

009. What type of injection is needed the application of a tourniquet?
a) intradermal injection;
b) subcutaneous injection;
c) intramuscular injection;
d) intravenous injection.

010. Applying the tourniquet is necessary
a) to control bleeding;
20
b) to dilate the vein;
c) to prevent hematoma;
d) to determine the place of venipuncture.

011. What is the best place applying the tourniquet in peripheral intravascular therapy?
a) 5 cm above intended puncture site;
b) 15cm above intended puncture site;
c) 30 cm above intended puncture site;
d) 15 cm below intended puncture site.

012. To perform venipuncture hold the needle
a) at a 15-to-25-degree angle over the vein;
b) at a 30-to-45- degree angle over the vein;
c) at a 45-to-60- degree angle over the vein;
d) at a 90- degree angle over the vein.

013. Why is it necessary to check for blood return giving intravenous injection?
a) it indicates that the needle is in the vein;
b) it minimizes vascular irritation;
c) it prevents an immediate effect of drug;
d) it prevents contamination with bacteria.

014. After intravenous injection withdraw the needle
a) gently but quickly at a 90-degree angle;
b) slowly and smoothly, keeping it parallel to the skin;
c) gently but quickly at a 45-degree angle;
d) slowly at a 30-degree angle.

015. The following complication can appear after intravenous injection except
a) allergic reaction;
b) broken needle;
c) thombophlebitis;
d) air embolism.

016. The following are systemic complications of intravascular therapy except
a) septicemia or bacteremia;
b) hematoma;
c) allergic reaction;
d) air embolism.

017. The following are local complications of intravascular therapy except
a) phlebitis;
b) cannula dislodgment;
c) allergic reaction;
d) hematoma;

018. The following are the symptoms of air embolism except
a) alteration or loss of consciousness;
b) respiratory distress;
c) decreased blood pressure;
d) erythema at a puncture site.

21
019. The following are the symptoms of thrombosis except
a) alteration or loss of consciousness;
b) edema and erythema at a puncture site;
c) pain along the vein;
d) ipsilateral swelling of arm.

020. The following are the symptoms of phlebitis except
a) redness at tip of cannula and along vein;
b) puffy area over vein;
c) vein hard on palpation;
d) decreased skin temperature around site of injection;

Tests for lesson 12

001. Arterial hypertension is characteristic for all, except
a) some renal diseases
b) pathology of large blood vessels
c) diseases of endocrine system
d) gastritis and peptic ulcer

002. In case of arterial hypertension all the following are true except:
a) free salt diet
b) rest and psychological comfort
c) negative emotional factors

003. All the following signs are suggestive of hypertonic attack except:
a) sever headache
b) dizziness
c) nausea and vomiting
d) abdominal distention

004. The patient's treatment in case of hypertonic attack all the following are except:
a) ranitidine 20 mg
b) bendazole solution 0.5% 10 ml
c) magnesium sulfate 10% 10 ml
d) clonidin hydrochloride 0.03% 0.5-1 ml

005. Hypotension may be occurs in all following except:
a) thyrotoxicosis
b) myocardial infarction
c) bleeding

006. Chest pain may be in all following except:
a) Plevritis or pleurisy
b) Intercostals neuralgia
c) Myositis
d) Colitis

007. In typical cases of the anginal attacks all are true except:
a) pain in the right hypochondrium
b) retrosternal pain
c) left side of the chest
22

008. In case of typical angina pectoris pain radiates to all parts except:
a) left shoulder
b) right shoulder
c) intrascapula region
d) left part of neck

009. Typical angina pectoris is characterized by all symptoms, except:
a) duration of pain more 30 minutes
b) pain is relieved by nitroglycerin
c) pain isn't relieved by nitroglycerin
d) duration of pain no more 30 minutes
e) true a) and c)
f) true b) and d)

010. In case of myocardial infarction all symptoms are true except:
a) pain duration is less than 30 minutes
b) pain is accompanied by acute general weakness
c) fear of death
d) pain is relieved by nitroglycerin
e) true a) and d)
f) true b) and c)
g) all true

011. Symptoms of myocardial infarction all are true except:
a) diarrhea
b) asthma
c) sever pain e in epigastria area
d) arrhythmia
e) disorders of brain circulation

012. What staff of intensive therapy departments should be
a) 2 doctors and 2 nurses for 6 patients
b) 1 doctor and 2 nurses for 6 patients
c) 1 doctor and 1 nurse for 6 patients

013. Intensive therapy departments are supplied with all the following, except:
a) monitor observation of cardiovascular and respiratory functions
b) endoscopy
c) defibrillators
d) cardiac stimulators

014. Stabilization of the course of acute myocardial infarction includes all the following,
except:
a) estimation of pain
b) decrease of blood coagulation
c) normalization of stool and urination
d) normalization of the heart rhythm and level of blood pressure

015. How many days the patient usually stay in CCU:
a) 1-3 days
b) 2-4 days
23
c) 5-7 days

016. The medical care of the patient with myocardial infarction during the first days includes
of the following except:
a) strict bed rest
b) free bed rest
c) control of bedclothes state
d) regular change of bedding clothes

017. The medical care of the patient with myocardial infarction during the first few days
includes all the following except:
a) free bed rest
b) feeding of the patients
c) skin care
d) provision of bedpan and urinal

018. Vital signs are called all the following except:
a) breath and pulse rate count
b) measurement of blood pressure
c) measurement of temperature
d) measurement of daily urine amount

019. The causes of the heart failure are all the following, except:
a) myocarditis
b) ischemic heart disease
c) defects of heart
d) hypertension
e) peptic ulcer

020. The cause of cardiac asthma is
a) stagnation of blood in lesser circulation
b) bronchitis
c) spasm of bronchi and trachea
d) tumor of larynx

021. Signs of cardiac asthma are all the following, except:
a) sever dyspnea
b) rapid shallow breath
c) cyanosis
d) abdominal pain

022. Irregular pulse occurs in all situations, except:
a) ectopic beats
b) atrial fibrillation
c) sinuse tachycardia
d) sinuse bradicardia
e) true a) and b)
f) true c) and d)

023. Pulse is changed in next situation
a) stress
b) during work
24
c) fever
d) physical exercises
e) all is true

024. What properties of pulse should be estimated:
a) rate
b) rhythm
c) pressure
d) volume
e) all is true

025. Heart beat rate more 90 per minute is called
a) tachycardia
b) bradicardia

026. Heart beat rate lesser 60 per minute is called
a) tachycardia
b) bradicardia

Tests for lesson 13

001. Complication of cardiac asthma is
a) pneumonia
b) bronchitis
c) pulmonary edema
d) myocardial infarction

002. Signs and symptoms of chronic heart failure include all the following except:
a) dyspnea
b) cyanosis
c) tachycardia
d) bradycardia

003. Signs of chronic heart failure include all the following except:
a) dyspnea
b) peripheral edemas
c) enlargement of liver
d) enlargement of spleen

004.Most dangerous complication of myocardial infarction is
a) myocarditis
b) endocarditis
c) pericarditis
d) cardiogenic shock

005. Signs of cardiogenic shock are all the following, except
a) pale skin
b) hyperemia
c) cold sweating
d) dyspnea
e) thready pulse

25
006. First aid in cardiogenic shock is all the following, except:
a) removing painful sensation
b) elevation of blood pressure
c) decreasing blood pressure

007. First aid in cardiogenic shock is all the following except:
a) increasing circulating blood volume
b) decreasing circulating blood volume
c) increasing myocardium contractility
d) decreasing myocardium contractility
e) true a),b)
f) true c), d)
g) true a), c)

008. First aid in chronic heart failure is all the following, except:
a) keeping bed rest
b) raising bed head
c) inhalation of oxygen mixture
d) flat position of patient

009. Regular control for dynamics of edemas is necessary as
a) daily liquid balance
b) daily ECG
c) daily blood analysis

010. Positive diuresis means next:
a) predominance of amount of discharged liquid above intake
b) predominance of intake liquid above of amount of discharged liquid
c) amount of discharged liquid same with intake liquid

011. Negative diuresis means next:
a) predominance of amount of discharged liquid above intake
b) predominance of intake liquid above amount of discharged liquid
c) amount of discharged liquid same with intake liquid

012. Retention of liquid in the organism is characterized by?
a) positive diuresis
b) negative diuresis

013. Regular control for dynamics of edemas is all the following, except:
a) daily liquid balance control
b) daily blood analysis control
c) regular weighing of the patient

014. Treatment of edema is all the following, except:
a) Limit the amount of liquid intake
b) Administration of cardiac glycosides
c) Administration of diuretics promoting elimination of potassium from the organism

015. Syncope is characterized by
a) falling of vascular tone
b) falling of vascular tone and decreasing circulation of blood volume
26
c) increasing circulation of blood volume

016. Collapse is characterized by
a) falling of vascular tone
b) falling of vascular tone and decreasing circulation of blood volume
c) increasing circulation of blood volume

017. Cause of syncope is all the following, except:
a) sever pain
b) negative emotions
c) long standing
d) fast transition from a horizontal position to vertical
e) sever bleeding

018. Cause of collapse is all the following, except:
a) long standing
b) thromboembolisim of pulmonary artery
c) acute pancreatitis
d) sever arrhythmias
e) blood loss
f) poisoning

019. Signs of syncope are next
a) hypertension
b) hypotension
c) short-term loss of consciences
d) long-term loss of consciences
e) true a), c)
f) true b), d)
g) true b), c)

020. Treatment of syncope includes all the following, except:
a) horizontal position with the lowered head and raised legs
b) horizontal position with the lowered legs and raised head
c) fresh air providing
d) releasing patient from constraining clothes

021. Treatment of syncope includes all the following, except:
a) sprinkling cold water on the face of the patient
b) clapping on the cheeks
c) fresh air providing
d) providing horizontal position with the lowered legs and raised head

022. Collapse is characterized by all the following, except:
a) unconscious
b) pallor of the skin
c) redness of the skin
d) decreased body temperature

023. Collapse is characterized by all the following, except:
a) pallor of the skin
b) increased body temperature
27
c) surface and rapid breath
d) low blood pressure

024. Treatment of collapse includes all the following, except:
a) elevation of circulating blood volume
b) warming of the patient
c) elimination of collapse cause
d) administration of hypotensive drugs

025. Usually pulse is checked on
a) ulnari artery
b) radial artery

026. Pulse can be changed in all the following, except:
a) age
b) sex
c) climate
d) fever
e) all true

Tests for lesson 14

001. Pains due to impairment of the organs motor function are named
- visceral pains
b peritoneal pains
c motor pains
d boring pains

002. Pains due to perforation of stomach ulcer and inflammation of peritoneal layer are named
- visceral pains
b peritoneal pains
c motor pains
d boring pains

003. Peritoneal pains are characterized by
- precisely localization
b no precisely localization

004. What is necessary to prescribe by nurse if the nature of abdominal pains isnt clear?
- analgesics
b laxative
c - hot water bottle
d - enema
e - bed regimen

005. Dyspeptic disorder isnt
- nausea
b vomiting
c - diarrhea
d - abdominal pain
e - heartburn

28
006. Vomiting occurs at all diseases besides
- peptic ulcer
b tumor of stomach
c - renal colic
d - bile colic
e - phlebitis

007. Profuse vomiting can lead to
- dehydration or disorders of cardiac activity
b constipation or diarrhea
c - pyuria or haematouria

008. First medical care by nurse during vomiting is
- estimation of volume of emetic masses, smell, color, consistence, pH, character of food
remnants
b put or laid patient on the side, incline patients head downwards, put basin on the floor,
collect emetic contents
c - rinse the mouth of the patient with warm water
d gastric aspiration

009. Hematomesis means
- admixture of blood in emetic masses
b admixture of blood in feces
c - admixture of blood in sputum

010. Flatulence can be seen after next meals
- cabbage, black bread, haricot
b meat, butter, fish
c - buckwheat, millet, oats

011. Medical care in flatulence includes the prescription of
- of activated charcoal or carbolen
b laxative
c - spasmolytics

012. Length of colonic tube is
- 10-20 cm
b 30-50cm
c - 60-70 cm
d 70-90 cm

013. Diameter of colonic tube is
- 1-2 mm
b 3-5 mm
c - 2-4 mm
d 5-10 mm

014. Colonic tube is usually introduced through the rectum for
- 10-20 cm
b 30-40cm
c - 60-70 cm
d 20-30 cm
29

015. Gastrointestinal bleeding can arise in patients with
- peptic ulcer, liver cirrhosis, hemorrhoids, tumor of stomach
b neurosis, atherosclerosis, hives
c - pulmonary edema, cardiac asthma, myocardium infarction

016. Gastrointestinal bleeding appears as
- heamatemesis or melena
b hemoptysis or melena
c - black tarry stool or flatulence
d - black tarry stool or constipation

017. Emetic masses contain scarlet blood in case of
- gastric bleeding with high acidity or esophageal bleeding
b gastric bleeding with low acidity or intestinal bleeding
c - gastric bleeding with low acidity or esophageal bleeding or gastric bleeding with very
significant amount of blood loss

018. Emetic masses alike coffee-ground occur in case of
- gastric bleeding with high acidity
b gastric bleeding with low acidity
c - esophageal bleeding

019. Brownish color of emetic mass in gastric bleeding are result from
- chemical reaction of blood with pepsin
b chemical reaction of blood with hydrochloric acid
c - chemical reaction of blood with pentagastrin
d - chemical reaction of blood with gastrin

020. Melena is caused by
- impurity of sulfides
b impurity of chlorides
c - impurity of phosphates

021. Gastrointestinal bleeding is accompanied by
- low blood pressure, bradycardia or tachycardia, pallor of skin
b high blood pressure, bradycardia or tachycardia, pallor of skin
c - high blood pressure, bradycardia or tachycardia, tachypnea or bradypnea
d - low blood pressure, tachycardia, pallor of skin

022. After profuse gastrointestinal bleeding the level of blood hemoglobin
- increases
b decreases
c - no changes

023. Patient with gastrointestinal bleeding needs
- strict bed regimen
b Trendelenburgs position
c - half-sedentary position

024. Patient with gastrointestinal bleeding needs a medical care as
- applying hot water bottle
30
b applying ice-bag
c - applying caps
d applying enema

025. Patient with gastrointestinal bleeding needs a medical care as
- injection of vicasol
b injection of libexin
c - injection of diuretic

026. Patient with gastrointestinal bleeding needs a medical care as
- injection of 1% calcium chloride solution
b injection of 10% calcium chloride solution
c - injection of 0.1% calcium chloride solution

027. Melena is a sign of
- pulmonary bleeding
b intestinal bleeding
c - gastrointestinal bleeding
d rectal bleeding

028. Heamatemesis is a sign of
- pulmonary bleeding
b intestinal bleeding
c - gastrointestinal bleeding
d rectal bleeding

029. Gastroenterological diseases arent
- gastritis and duodenitis
b enteritis and colitis
c - peptic ulcer and tumor of stomach
d heamatomesis and melena

030. Gastroenterological diseases are
- eructation and regurgitation
b diarrhea and constipation
c - peptic ulcer and tumor of stomach
d nausea and vomiting

Tests for lesson 15

001. Gastric aspiration is used for
- treatment of gastric bleeding
b fractional investigation of gastric juice
c treatment of vomiting
d treatment of poisoning

002. Gastric aspiration helps to make diagnosis of
- peptic ulcer and gastritis
b peptic ulcer and colecystitis
c peptic ulcer and colitis

003. For gastric aspiration a nurse uses
31
- gastric probe 6-7 mm in diameter
b gastric probe 4-5 mm in diameter
c gastric probe 1-2 mm in diameter

004. For gastric aspiration a nurse usually uses
- 20-g syringe
b 10-g syringe
c 5-g syringe
d - 2-g syringe

005. Dyspeptic disorder isnt
- nausea
b vomiting
c - diarrhea
d - abdominal pain
e - heartburn

006. First portion of gastric aspiration characterizes
- gastric secretion at morning
b gastric secretion at night
c - gastric secretion at day and night
d - gastric secretion at night and morning

007. Pentagastrin for gastric aspiration is used in dose
- 6 mkg per 1 kg of body weight
b 5 mkg per 1 kg of body weight
c - 0.04 mkg per 1 kg of body weight
d - 0.04 mg per 1 kg of body weight

008. Histamine for gastric aspiration is used in dose
- 6 mkg per 1 kg of body weight
b 5 mkg per 1 kg of body weight
c - 0.04 mkg per 1 kg of body weight
d - 0.04 mg per 1 kg of body weight

009. Basal secretion means
- gastric juice before stimulation
b all gastric juice
c - portion at fasting
d - hydrochloric acid production before stimulation
e - hydrochloric acid production after stimulation
f - all amount hydrochloric acid production during aspiration

010. Acidity is determine by titration of gastric juice with
- 0.01N sodium hydroxide solution
b 1N sodium hydroxide solution
c - 0.1N sodium hydroxide solution

011. To stop bleeding the gastric lavage is used
- with iced water
b with hot water
c - with room temperature water
32

012. Normal intragastric pH is
- 1.0-1.3
b 1.3-1.7
c - 1.2-1.3
d 1.5-1.7

013. Duodenal aspiration is used for diagnostics
- gastritis
b cholecystitis
c - colitis

014. Duodenal probe is rubber probe
- 4-5 mm in diameter
b 5-6 mm in diameter with metal tip
c - 4-5 mm in diameter with metal tip
d 5-6 mm in diameter

015. There are three marks on duodenal probe as
- 45 cm, 70 cm, 80 cm
b 40 cm, 70 cm, 80 cm
c - 50 cm, 70 cm, 80 cm

016. Duodenal probe mark 70 cm means
- distance to subcardial stomach area
b distance to pyloris
c - distance to duodenum

017. Duodenal probe mark 80 cm means
- distance to subcardial stomach area
b distance to pyloris
c - distance to duodenum

018. When the probe of duodenal aspiration reaches the stomach, the patient should have the
position
- of Trendelenburg
b on right side
c - on left side
d - of sitting

019. Duodenal probe mark 45 cm means
- distance to subcardial stomach area
b distance to pyloris
c - distance to duodenum

020. Common duration of gastric aspiration is
- 40-60 minutes
b 20-30 minutes
c - 60-150 minutes
d - 120-150 minutes

021. The stimulant of gall bladder contraction for duodenal aspiration is
33
- 25-33% solution of magnesium sulfate
b 25-33% solution of calcium sulfate
c - 25-33% solution of calcium chloride

022. Portion A of duodenal aspiration is
- gastric contents
b duodenal contents
c - gall bladder contents
d contents of intra liver bile ducts

023. Portion B of duodenal aspiration is
- gastric contents
b duodenal contents
c - gall bladder contents
d contents of intra liver bile ducts

024. Portion C of duodenal aspiration is
- gastric contents
b duodenal contents
c - gall bladder contents
d contents of intra liver bile ducts

025. Normal portion B has
- brown or olive color
b white color
c - yellow color

026. Histamine for sub maximal gastric secretory stimulation is used in dose
- 0.01 mkg per 1 kg of body weight
b 0.01 mg per 1 kg of body weight
c - 0.04 mkg per 1 kg of body weight
d - 0.04 mg per 1 kg of body weight

027. Histamine for maximal gastric secretory stimulation is used in dose
- 0.01 mkg per 1 kg of body weight
b 0.01 mg per 1 kg of body weight
c - 0.04 mkg per 1 kg of body weight
d - 0.04 mg per 1 kg of body weight

028. Stimulators of gastric secretory are
- histamine and pentagastrin
b histamine and charcoal
c - histamine and magnesium sulfates

029. Basal secretion includes
- all gastric aspiration portions before stimulation
b all gastric aspiration portions
c - four gastric aspiration portions before stimulation
d - gastric aspiration portions after stimulation
e last four gastric aspiration portions

030. Stimulated secretion includes
34
- all gastric aspiration portions before stimulation
b all gastric aspiration portions
c - four gastric aspiration portions before stimulation
d - gastric aspiration portions after stimulation
e last four gastric aspiration portions

Tests for lesson 16

001. In retention enema the patient holds the solution within the rectum for
- 10-15 minutes
b 20-40 minutes
c 30-40 minutes
d 30-60 minutes

002. In irrigating enema the patient holds the solution within the rectum for
- 15 minutes
b 40 minutes
c 30 minutes
d 60 minutes

003. Diagnostic enema is applied for diagnostics of
- flatulence
b ileus
c duodenitis

004. Vegetable oil for oil enema is usually used in dose
- 200-400 g
b 200-300 g
c 200-400 g
d - 100-200 g

005. Vegetable oil for oil enema is usually heated to a temperature
- 37-38 o C
b 38-39 o C
c 36-37 o C
d - 36-38 o C

006. The oil enemas provide
- relaxation of intestinal wall
b increased tonus of intestinal wall
c - general relaxation
d - decreased blood pressure

007. Hypertonic enema is used in patient with
- spasmodic constipation
b atonic constipation
c - diarrhea
d - ileus

008. Janet syringe is used for applying
- flash enema
b irrigating enema
35
c - oil enema
d - retention enema

009. Sodium chloride solution for hypertonic enema is usually used in concentration
- 20 %
b 10 %
c - 30 %
d 40%

010. Sodium chloride solution for hypertonic enema is usually used in volume
- 40-50 ml
b 50-60 ml
c - 60-80 ml
d 80-100 ml
e - 50-100 ml

011. Magnesium sulfate solution for hypertonic enema is usually used in concentration
- 20-30 %
b 10-20 %
c - 30-40 %
d 5-10 %

012. Flash enema is applied at
- dynamic or mechanical ileus
b enteritis
c - diarrhea
d - peritonitis

013. Flash enema isnt applied at
- dynamic or mechanical ileus
b enteritis
c - embolism of mesentery vessels

014. Irrigating enema is applied at
- gastrointestinal bleeding and necrotic tumor of a large intestine
b acute appendicitis and peritonitis
c - colitis with constipation
d colitis with diarrhea

015. Irrigating enema isnt applied at
- before applying medical enema
b acute appendicitis and peritonitis
c - colitis

016. Volume of medicinal enema is usually
- 30-50 ml
b 50-100 ml
c - 100-200 ml
d 150-200 ml

017. For medicinal enema a nurse usually uses
- collargol solution
36
b serum solution
c - collagen solution

018. Dropper enema is applied at
- persistent vomiting
b persistent nausea
c - persistent constipation

019. Dropper enema is applied at
- dehydratation
b hydrophobia
c - hydrolysis

020. Endoscopic investigation of abdominal cavity is named
- esophagogastroduodenoscopy
b rectoromanoscopy
c - colonoscopy
d laparoscopy

021. Before cholecystography its necessary
- applying oil enema
b applying flash enema
c - applying irrigating enema
d applying barium enema

022. Endoscopic investigation of large intestine is named
- esophagogastroduodenoscopy
b rectoromanoscopy
c - colonoscopy
d laparoscopy

023. X-ray investigation of gall bladder is named
- cholegraphy
b cholangiography
c - cholecystography

024. X-ray investigation of biliary ducts is named
- cholegraphy
b cholangiography
c - cholecystography

025. Before cholecystography its necessary to keep diet with exclusion
- cabbage, black bread, milk
b cabbage, white and black bread, milk
c - white and black bread, milk

026. At flush enema a patient should have position
- half sedentary
b Sims position
c - right-lateral Sims position
d - left-lateral Sims position

37
027. Contraindications for setting irrigating enema include
- ulcerative lesion of large intestine, acute appendicitis, acute rhinitis
b ulcerative lesion of large intestine, acute appendicitis, chronic rhinitis
c - ulcerative lesion of large intestine, acute appendicitis, acute urticaria
d - ulcerative lesion of large intestine, severe heart failure

028. At expressed flatulence to remove gases a nurse usually uses a colonic tube introduced
through the rectum for
- 20-30 cm
b 30-40 cm
c - 40-50 cm
d - 30-50 cm

029. At expressed flatulence to remove gases a colonic tube is applying no more
- 0.1 hour
b 1 hour
c - 1.5 hour
d - 2 hours

030. The preparation for rectoromanoscopy includes usually
- oil enema
b irrigating enema
c - dropper enema
d barium enema
e medicinal enema

Tests for lesson 17.

Care of the patients with urinary tract diseases.

001. The following are the common symptoms of renal disease except
a) pain in the lumbar region;
b) disordered urination;
c) oedema;
d) dry cough.

002. The following is the main symptom of renal colic
a) sharp, suddenly developing pain in the lumbar region;
b) dyspnoea;
c) deranged vision;
d) oedema.

003. If daily amount of urine exceeds 2 liters, this symptom is called
a) anuria;
b) oliguria;
c) polyuria;
d) nycturia.

004. A complete absence of urine or daily urine excretion rate less than 200 ml is called
a) anuria;
b) oliguria;
c) polyuria;
38
d) nycturia.

005. The following are the common symptom of renal hypertension except
a) headache;
b) deranged vision;
c) vertigo;
d) edema.

006. Normally daily urinary protein excretion rate
a) is less than 50 mg;
b) varies from 50 to 150 mg
c) varies from 0,5 to1 g;
d) exceeds 1 g.

007. The following elements can be detected in urinary sediment except
a) leucocytes;
b) erythrocytes;
c) casts;
d) proteins.

008. How many red cells can be fined normally in one vision field of a light microscope?
a) no more than one;
b) ranges 2-5;
c) ranges 5-10;
d) more than 10.

009. How many white cells can be fined normally in one vision field of a light microscope?
a) no more than one;
b) 1-3 in male, 3-5in female;
c) ranges 5-10;
d) more than 10.

010. The following type of casts can be detected in healthy person after physical exhaustion
a) hyaline casts;
b) granular casts;
c) waxy casts.

011. What test is used to determine the number of erythrocytes and leucocytes;
in daily amount of urine?
a) Addis-Kakovskys test;
b) Nechiporenkos test;
c) Zimnitskys test;
d) Rehbergs test

012. What test is used to determine the number of red and white cells in 1 ml of urine?
a) Addis-Kakovskys test;
b) Nechiporenkos test;
c) Zimnitskys test;
d) Rehbergs test.

013. Normally specific gravity of morning urine
a) should be less than 1010;
39
b) ranges 1005-1015;
c) should be more than 1018;
d) ranges 1030-1040.

014. Zimnitskys test is used to estimate
a) daily urinary protein excretion rate;
b) concentrative function.of the kidney;
c) glomerular filtration and tubular reabsorbtion;
d) endocrine function.of the kidney.

015. Rehbergs test is used to estimate
a) daily urinary protein excretion rate;
b) concentrative function.of the kidney;
c) glomerular filtration and tubular reabsorbtion;
d) endocrine function.of the kidney.

016. Normally creatinine clearance
a) dosnt exceed 60 ml/min;
b) ranges 80-120 ml/min;
c) exceeds 140 m,/min;
d) ranges 20-50 ml/min.

017. Routine bladder drainage with rubber catheter is performed
a) to control daily diuresis;
b) to provide continuous urine drainage;
c) to decreased risk of urinary tract infection;
d) in patients with absent bladder function.

018. To perform routine bladder drainage in male the rubber catheter is inserted
a) about 3 cm;
b) about 7-8 cm;
c) about 17-22 cm;
d) about 25-30 cm.

019. To perform routine bladder drainage in female the rubber catheter is inserted
a) about 3 cm;
b) about 7-8 cm;
c) about 17-22 cm;
d) about 25-30 cm.

020. Insertion indwelling urinary catheter in the bladder is used
a) to control daily diuresis;
b) to provide continuous urine drainage;
c) to decreased risk of urinary tract infection;
d) to prevent overdistention of the bladder.

Tests for lesson 18

001. Which one of the following subjects studies of dying process mechanism (clinical,
biochemical, morphological):
a) cardiology
b) pulmonology
40
c) nephrology
d) thanatology

002. What is the name of the state boundary between life and death?
a) coma
b) collapse
c) heart failure
d) terminal

003. Stages of terminal states include all the following, except:
a) coma
b) preagonal
c) agony
d) clinical death

004. What is name of second stage of terminal states?
a) agony
b) preagonal
c) coma
d) clinical death

005. What is name of first stage of terminal states?
a) Agony
b) preagonal
c) coma
d) clinical death

6. What is name of third stage of terminal states?
d)

007. In the preagonal state all the following are true, except:
a) gradual oppression of consciousness
b) fall of blood pressure
c) rapid heart beat and breath, turning to slow
d) slow heart beat and breath, turning to rapid

008. What is duration of preagonal period in case of myocardial infarction and sever
arrhythmias?
a) absent
b) several hours

009. What is the duration of preagonal period in chronic diseases:
a) absent
b) several hours

010. In terminal pause of preagonal state next is true:
a) short-term termination of breath from 5-10 seconds to 3-4 minutes
b) mild-term termination of breath from 10 minutes to 15 minutes
c) long-term termination of breath from 1 hour to 2 hours

011. Which one of the following character of agony is true?
a) short-term activation of mechanisms directed to maintenance of process of ability to live
41
b) mild-term activation of mechanisms directed to maintenance of process of ability to live
c) long-term activation of mechanisms directed to maintenance of process of ability to live

012. Which one of the following signs in the beginning of agony is true:
a) some rising blood pressure
b) decreasing blood pressure
c) decreasing heart rate

013. Which one of the following signs in the beginning of agony is true:
a) decreasing blood pressure
b) decreasing heart rate
c) increasing heart rate

014. Which one of the following signs in the beginning of agony is not true:
a) disappearing pain sensitivity
b) lost corneal, tendinous and skin reflexes
c) common tonic spasms
d) frequent, long and superficial breath

015. Which one of the following signs in the beginning of agony is true:
a) no change in the pain sensitivity
b) presence of corneal, tendinous and skin reflexes
c) rare, short and deep breath
d) heart rhythm 60-80

016. Which one of the following signs in the beginning of agony is not true:
a) slowing heart rate
b) involuntary miction and defecation
c) tonic spasms
d) presence of corneal, tendinous and skin reflexes

017. Which one of the following signs of clinical death is not true:
a) irreversible changes in organs and tissues
b) reversible changes in organs and tissues
c) disappearance of breath and heart beats

018. Which one of the following of clinical death is true:
a) clinical death lasts 3-4 minutes
b) clinical death lasts 5-6 minutes
c) clinical death lasts 10-12 minutes

019. In the biological death all the following are true, except:
a) body temperature between 30 o C to 35 o C
b) rigor mortis
c) death sports in 2-4 hours after heart arrest
d) death sports after in one hour after heart arrest
e) true a),b),c)
f) true a),c),d)

020. All the following causes of sudden cardiac and respiratory arrest are true, except:
a) myocardial infarction
b) traumatic chock
42
c) carbon monoxide poisoning
d) chronic cholecystitis

021. If the patient stops breathing which of the following manipulation nurse should do first?
a) check pulse on a.radialis
b) check pulse on a.carotis
c) auscultate the heart

022. If the patient has died in a hospital which of the following first manipulation should be
done?
a) tied the lower jaw
b) covered a corpse by besheet
c) left a corpse in the department for 2 hours
d) write in the history of fact of death and exact time of death

023. If the patient has died in a hospital the nurse should do all the following, except:
a) write by ink on the thigh the surname and initials of the dead patient
b) write in the history of fact of the death and exact time of the death
c)write on the thigh of case history number of the dead patient

024. Which of the following guidelines apply occurs when the death is happened less than 3
hours?
a) body warm, no rigor
b) body warm, rigor present
c) body cold, rigor present
d) body cold, no rigor

025.Which of the following guidelines apply occurs when the death is happened 3-8 hours before
the inspection time?
a) body warm, no rigor
b) body warm, rigor present
c) body cold, rigor present
d) body cold, no rigor

026. Which of the following guidelines apply occurs when the death is happened 8-36 hours
before the inspection time?
a) body warm, no rigor
b) body warm, rigor present
c) body cold, rigor present
d) body cold, no rigor

027. The resuscitative measures are carried our in all the following, except:
a) acute myocardial infarction
b) electric shock
c) sever traumas
d) last stage of malignant tumor

028. The general resuscitative departments are for resuscitative manipulations in all the
following, except:
a) traumatic shock
b) massive blood loss
c) acute heart failure
43
d) observation and treatment of post-operative patients

029. The specialized centers and departments of reanimation include all the following,except:
a) cardio-reanimation
b) the treatment of the patients with renal failure
c) treatment of the patients with poisoning
d) treatment of the patients with massive blood loss

030. In hemodialysis one of the following is true:
a) filtering of blood from various toxic substances by selective diffusion
b) extracting toxins from blood with help of sorbents
c) high pressure oxigination

031. Where is the intensive care unit located?
a) near a surgery department
b) near a reception department
c) near a cardiology department
d) near a nephrology department

032. The express diagnostics analysis in reanimation departments include all the following,
except:
a) investigation of total blood protein
b) investigation of blood gases
c) investigation of acid base balance
d) investigation of electrolyte balance of blood and urine

033. The necessity of artificial respiration arises in all the following, except:
a) disorders of brain circulation
b) brain edema
c) poliomyelitis
d) arthritis

034. Before starting artificial respiration nurse should provide
a) empty digestive tract
b) empty urinal bladder
c) free respiratory tract from water and mucus

035. During artificial respiration nurse should do all the following, except:
a) place the patient on his abdomen
b) loosen any tight clothing around his neck or chest
c) lift up the chin and tilt head back as far as possible
d) pinch the patient's nostrils for closing by fingers

036. If patient is revived after artificial respiration which one of the following is true?
a) keep him in cold place
b) do not move him at least 30 minutes
c) keep him in cold place and do not move him at least 45 minutes
d) keep him in warm place and don't move him at least one half hour

037. Which one of the following bags is called as hand-operated?
a) urine bag
b) Ambu bag
44
c) King bag
d) Soft bag

038. In external cardiac massage which one of the following is true?
a) supine on a flat, hard surface
b) supine on a bed
c) supine on flat, soft surface

039. Which one of the following is true?
a) cardiac massage is accompanied with artificial ventilation started at once
b) cardiac massage is accompanied with artificial ventilation started after 2 min
c) cardiac massage is accompanied with artificial ventilation started after 5 min

040. Which one of the following place in cardiac massage is true?
a) the heel of one hand over the upper third of the sternum
b) the heel of one hand over the lower third of the sternum
c) the heel of one hand over the middle third of the sternum

041. the pressure applied in the cardiac massage should be one of the following:
a) 10-15 kg
b) 20-30 kg
c) 35-45 kg
d) 5-10 kg

042. The movement of chest wall in adult patients in the cardiac massage should be one of the
following:
a) 3-4 cm
b) 5-6 cm
c) 6-7 cm
d) 1-2 cm

043. Which one of the following is true?
a) cardiac compressions should be 60 per minute
b) cardiac compressions should be 70 per minute
c) cardiac compressions should be 75 per minute

044. Which one of the ration of cardiac compression to ventilation should be if do it by 2
persons?
a) 3:1
b) 6:1
c) 8:1
d) 10:1

045.Indicationns for starting of external cardiac compression are based on all the following signs
except:
a) sudden arrest of breath
b) absence of pulse on carotid arteries
c) redness of skin and narrowing of pupils
d) loss of consciousness

046. Most frequent complication of indirect heart massages is on of the following:
a) damages of lungs and heart
45
b) fracture of ribs and sternum
c) rupture of lien
d) rupture of liver

047. Signs of efficiency of external cardiac compression are all the following, except:
a) extension of pupils
b) appearance of pulse on carotid arteries
c) increase of blood pressure
d) narrowing of pupils

048. At revealing fibrillation of ventricles one of the following is true:
a) external cardiac compression
b) intracardiac injection of 5 ml of 10% calcium chloride solution
c) defibrillation