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TECHNICAL BRANCH

ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE TEST (EKT)

DISCLAIMER

The model question paper only offers a broad overview and does not purport to represent either
the syllabus or the pattern of questions that would appear in the Engineering Knowledge Test

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SCHEME AND SYLLABUS

Engineering Knowledge Test is a common test aimed at testing the Basic Engineering knowledge of the candidates applied for
Aeronautical Engineering Courses. EKT has two parts, namely

Part A - General Engineering: 40 Questions Duration: 1 Hour


Part B - Specialist Paper for each Engineering discipline: 35 Questions

Engineering Knowledge Test is pitched at pre-final to final year engineering level. The test consists of two parts viz General Engineering
and Specialist subjects for the two streams of Technical Branches i.e Aeronautical Engineering (Electronics) and Aeronautical
Engineering (Mechanical).

The specialised papers are in Mechanical Engineering, Aeronautical engineering, Electronics and Communication engineering, Electrical
and Instrumentation engineering and Computer Engineering.

The questions are objective type in nature and duration of test is approximately one hour. It is mandatory for the candidates to pass in
both General and Specialist papers to qualify for AFSB interview.

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MODEL QUESTION PAPER
ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE TEST (EKT)

Part A: General Engineering

1. The probability of hitting a target from 9. Moving electric charges will interact 17. The units of angular impulse in SI
one gun 9/10, from another gun is 7/10. If with system are
both gun are fired at the same time, the (A) electric field only (A) Nms (B) Ns
probability of hitting the target is (B) magnetic field only (C) Nm/s (D) Ns/m
(A) 2/20 (B) 63/100 (C) both of these
(C) 16/20 (D) 63/20 (D) none of these 18. A particle is projected with a velocity
√4gR
2. If the three vectors a, b and c are 10. Gamma radiation is most similar to 3 ½ ½
coplanar , then the missed product a x b. c (A) sound waves (B) X-ray (A) gR (B) gR
is (C) Alpha particles (D) neutrons 2 3
(A) Zero (B) Non-Zero ½ ½
(C) Unity (D) Non of these 11. The fundamental particle responsible (C) gR (D) 2gR
for keeping the nucleus together is 3
3. Limit sin x is (A) meson (B) anti proton 19. Stainless steel contains iron and
x→0 x (C) positron (D) muon (A) Chromium and nickel
(A) not defined (B) 1 (B) Chromium and carbon
(c) zero (D) -1 12. Air contains 21% oxygen by volume (C) Nickel and carbon
and the rest nitrogen. If the barometer (D) Chromium and manganese
4. The Laplace transform of sin23t is pressure is 740 mm of Hg the partial
(A) 18 (B) 18 pressure of oxygen is close to 20. The property of material by which it
S(S2+36) S2(S+36) (A) 155 mm of Hg offers resistance to scratching or
(C) 18 (B) 18 (B) 310 mm of Hg indentation is called
(S+36) (S+36)(S+4) (C) 465 mm of Hg (A) Brittleness
(D) 162 mm of Hg (B) Hardness
5. The function (C) Toughness
x2 for x< 3 13. In the electrolytic cell (D) Resilience
f(x) (A) electrical energy is converted into
2x+3 for x>3 chemical energy 21. The failure of a material due to repeated
(A) continuous over the entire number scale (B) chemical energy is converted into stressing is known as
(B) continuous at x=3 but discontinuous at electrical energy (A) Creep
all other points (C) mechanical energy is converted into (B) Fracture
(C) discontinuous at x=3 but continuous at potential energy (C) Fatigue
all other points (D) potential energy is converted into (D) Brittle Fracture
(D) discontinuous everywhere kinetic energy
22. The electric device which blocks DC
6. When a body hits an obstacle, the force 14. The force required to maintain a body at but allows AC is called
with which it hits the obstacle depends constant speed in free space is equal to (A) Capacitor
upon its (A) the mass of the body (B) Inductor
(A) average velocity (B) zero (C) Amplifier
(B) velocity at the instant of collision (C) the weight of the body (D) Transducer
(C) initial velocity (D) the force required to stop it
(D) all of these 23. When a charge is moved from one point
15. If the length of a spring is halved, the to another in an electric field, the work
7. The wavelength of visible light is of the spring constant becomes done is
order of (A) half (B) 1/4th (A) independent of the path
(A) 1µm (B) 100 µm (C) double (D) four times (B) zero along the direction of the field
(C) 1mm (D) 1 Å (C) measured in Joules per metre
16. The coefficient of static friction (D) measure in Volt per metre
8. Whenever a source of sound moves depends on
towards an observer (A) the material of the bodies in contact 24. A capacitor with lowest leakage is
(A) the frequency heard by the observer is (B) the quality of surface finish of the (A) Paper (B) Ceramic
less than that of the source bodies (C) Polyester (D) Mica
(B) the frequency heard by the observer is (C) the presence of foreign matter between
greater than that of the source the surface 25. A zener diode operates
(C) the frequency heard by the observer is (D) all of these (A) In an extremely high forward bias
unchanged (B) In an extremely low reverse bias
(D) the wavelength of sound heard is (C) In an extremely low forward bias
greater than that of the sound emitted (D) In a reverse bias higher than laid down
voltage
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26. The specific gravity of a lead acid cell 30. Heat and work are
is often used as a measure of its 28. A steam engine device which keeps the (A) Path functions
(A) Rate of discharge speed of the engine, all loads, constant is (B) Properties of a substance
(B) Operating temperature known as (C) Point functions
(C) State of charge (A) Flywheel (D) Absolute units
(D) Life expectancy (B) Eccentric
(C) Connecting rod
27. An uniformly distributed load is one (D) Governor
which
(A) Acts at a point on a beam 29. The refrigerant hiving the lowest
(B) Spreads uniformly over the whole freezing point is
length of a beam (A) Ammonia
(C) Varies uniformly over the whole length (B) Carbon dioxide
of a beam (C) Freon – 11
(D) loads the beam from one end only (D) Freon – 22

PART B-1 AE (M): MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

1. An impulse turbine 7. The ability of sand to permit the metal to 14. The gears in which axes of the shaft
(A) Makes use of a draft tube shrink when it solidifies is known is connected by them, intersect, are known as
(B) Always operates submerged (A) Plasticity (B) Permeability (A) Spur gears (B) Bevel gears
(C) Converts the pressure head into velocity (C) Collapsibility (D) Cohesiveness (C) Spiral gears (D) Gear train
head through the vanes
(D) Is most suited for low head installations 8. Rivets are generally specified by 15. Shot peening
(A) Overall length (A) Is done at re-crystallization temperature
2. Power required to drive a centrifugal (B) Shank diameter (B) Changes the crystalline structure at
pump is directly proportional to (C) Thickness of plates to be jointed materials
(A) Diameter of its impeller (D) Diameter of head (C) Improves the fatigue life of small parts
(B) Square of diameter of its impeller (D) Refines the grain structure
(C) Cube of diameter of its impeller 9. Which of the following is steady flow
(D) Fourth power of diameter of its compressor 16. In a bomb calorimeter the heat released
impeller (A) Reciprocating compressor by the fuel is absorbed by
(B) Centrifugal compressor (A) Atmospheric air
3. The locus of the common point on the (C) Voot blower (B) Water
two meshing spur gears is known as (D) Vane blower (C) Metal container
(A) Addendum circle (D) Bomb, water and metal container
(B) Duodenum circle 10. A closed cycle gas turbine works on
(C) Pitch circle (A) Carnot cycle (B) Rankine cycle 17. Nitriding is done
(D) Base circle (C) Brayton cycle (D) Joule cycle (A) On low carbon steels only
(B) To impart blue colour to steels
4. When there is a reduction in amplitude 11. Thermal conductivity of solid metals (C) To improve machinability
over every cycle of vibration then the body (A) Decreases with rise in temperature (D) To increase surface hardness
is said to have (B) Does not vary with temperature
(A) Free vibration (C) Increases with rise in temperature 18. The extent of cold work that a metal can
(B) Forced vibration (D) Remains constant with rise in withstand depends on
(C) Damped vibration temperature (A) Purity of metal
(D) Natural vibration (B) Carbon percentage
12. During adiabatic saturation process, air (C) Ductility
5. For machining at high speed the tool property which remains constant, is known (D) Room temperature
material should have as
(A) Wear resistance (A) Wet bulb temperature 19. Which engine has the highest air fuel
(B) Red hardness (B) Dry bulb temperature ratio
(C) Toughness (C) Relative humidity (A) Petrol engine (B) Gas engine
(D) All of these (D) Specific humidity (C) Diesel engine (D) Gas turbine

6. MIG welding is 13. Bell-Coleman cycle as applied to 20. Annealing of steels is done to
(A) A gas welding process refrigeration operates (A) Remove internal stresses
(B) An electric resistance welding process (A) On open air system (B) Produce soft core under hard surface
(C) A electric resistance welding process (B) On vapour compression system (C) Produce hard core under soft surface
(D) A forge welding process involving high (C) On vapour absorption system (D) Introduce capacity to withstand shocks
temperatures and low pressures (D) On none of these

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PART B-2 AE (M): AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING
1. What mass of lead (sp gr = 11) will 10. Which of the following is 19. Hooke’s law is valid within the limits of
weigh as much as 8 gram of iron dimensionless proportionality. The limit of proportionality
(Sp gr = 8) when both are immersed in (A) young’s modulus of elasticity depends on
water (B) stress (C) strain (A) type of loading
(A) 7.7 gram (B) 8.8 gram (D) shear stress (B) area of cross section
(C) 10.0 gram (D) 1.1 gram (C) type of material
11. Which of the following relations is (D) hardness of material
2. Which of the two forces are important in incorrect
floating bodies One atmospheric pressure is nearly equal to 20. Euler’s equation of fluid motion can be
(A) inertial, pressure (A) 1013 bar integrated when it is assumed that
(B) buoyancy, gravity (B) 1013250 dynes/cm2 (A) the fluid is incompressible
(C) gravity, inertial (C) 1.033kgf/cm2 (B) Bernoulli’s equation is satisfied
(D) pressure, viscous (D) 735 mm of Hg (C) flow is rotational
(D) velocity potential exits and the density
3. A dimensionless number which is a ratio 12. Which of the following is a scalar is constant
of kinematics viscosity to thermal quantity
diffusivity is known as (A) velocity of a gear
(A) Prandtl Number (B) acceleration of a car
(B) Nusselt Number (C) force in friction
(C) Reynold’s Number (D) area of a triangle
(D) Stanton Number
13. The Mach number at inlet of a gas
4. Ozone is an turbine diffuser is 0.3. The shape of the
(A) isomer of oxygen diffuser would be
(B) allotrope of oxygen (A) converging (B) diverging
(C) isobar of oxygen (C) diverging – converging
(D) isotope of oxygen (D) converging – diverging

5. Within a carburetor the velocity of air is 14. For adiabatic expansion with friction
maximum at through a nozzle, the following remains
(A) inlet constant
(B) outlet (A) entropy (B) static enthalpy
(C) venture (C) stagnation enthalpy
(D) does not change within a carburetor (D) stagnation pressure

6. A 50 Kg mass is accelerated from rest to 15. Separation of flow is caused by


50 m/s. The force on it is (A) reduction of pressure in the direction
(A) 500 N flow
(B) 2,500 N (B) decrease in the boundary layer
(C) 512 N thickness
(D) Can not be determined from the given (C) increase of pressure in the direction of
data flow
(D) adverse pressure gradient
7. In vacuum the velocity of light depends
on 16. A pilot tube senses
(A) none of the following (A) stagnation pressure
(B) frequency (B) average pressure
(C) temperature (C) maximum pressure
(D) pressure (D) velocity head pressure

8. The source of solar energy is 17. Which of the following materials has
(A) nuclear fission / fusion the higher value of Poisson’ ratio
(B) electromagnetic radiation (A) rubber (B) copper
(C) chemical energy (C) steel (D) concrete
(D) burning of hydrogen
18. During forced vertex flow
9. The pressure of a real gas is less than the (A) velocity increases with radius
pressure of an ideal gas because of (B) velocity decreases with radius
(A) increase in the number of (C) fluid rotates as a composite solid
intermolecular collisions (D) inertial forces are significant
(B) higher energy possessed by the
molecules than the theoretical estimates
(C) inter-molecular forces
(D) finite size of molecules
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PART B-3 AE (L): ELECTRICAL, ELECTRONICS AND INSTRUMENTATION
1. In order for a 30 volt, 90 watt lamp to 9. The principle of operation of a 3-phase 18. A flip-flop
work properly in a 120 volt supply the induction motor is most similar to that of a (A) is a sequential logic device
required series resister in ohm is (A) synchronous motor (B) is a combinational logic device
(A) 10 (B) 20 (B) repulsion-start induction motor (C) remembers what was previously stored
(C) 30 (D) 40 (C) transformer with a shorted secondary in it
(D) capacitor-start, induction-run motor (D) both (A) and (C)
2. According to Theremin’s theorem, any
linear active network can be replaced by a 10. In the forward region of its 19. An operational amplifier
single voltage source characteristic, a diode appears as (A) can be used to sum two or more signals
(A) in series with a single impedance (A) an OFF switch (B) can be used to subtract two or more
(B) in parallel with a single impedance (B) a high resistance signals
(C) in series with two impedances (C) a capacitor (C) uses to principle of feed back
(D) in parallel with two impedances (D) an ON switch (D) all of the above

3. The internal resistance of ammeter is 11. The common-emitter forward 20. TTL logic is preferred to DRL logic
(A) very small (B) very high amplification factor βdc is given by because
(C) infinite (D) zero (A) IC/IE (B) IC/Ib (A) greater fan-out is possible
(C) IE/IC (D) IB/IF (B) greater logic levels are possible
4. Hay bridge is used mainly for the (C) greater fan-in is possible
measurement of 12. A common emitter amplifier is (D) less power consumption is possible
(A) resistance (B) inductance characterized by
(C) conductance (D) capacitance (A) low voltage gain
(B) moderate power gain
5. Which of the following is true about (C) signal phase reversal
series resonance (D) very high output impedance
(A) The reactance becomes zero and
impedance becomes equal to resistance 13. After VDS reaches pinch-off value VP in
(B) The current in the circuit becomes a JFET, drain current IO becomes
maximum (A) zero (B) low
(C) The voltage drop across inductance and (C) saturated (D) reversed
capacitance cancels each other
(D) All of the above statements are correct 14. An electronic oscillator
(A) needs an external input
6. A 3-Ф, 4 wire, 400/230 v feeder supplies (B) provides its own input
3-phase motor and an unbalanced lighting (C) is nothing but an amplifier
load. In this system (D) is just a dc/ac converter
(A) all four wires will carry equal current
(B) neutral wire will carry no current 15. In an SCR, the function of the gate is to
(C) neutral wire will carry both motor (A) switch it off
current and lighting load current (B) control its firing
(D) neutral wire will carry current only (C) make it unidirectional
when lighting load is switched on (D) reduce forward breakdown voltage

7. Equalizing connections are required 16. NAND and NOR gates are called
when paralleling two ‘universal’ gates primarily because they
(A) alternators (A) are available everywhere
(B) compound generators (B) are widely used in IC packages
(C) series generators (C) can be combined to produce AND, OR
(D) both (B) and (C) and NOT gates
(D) are the easiest to manufacture
8. An ideal transformer is one which
(A) has a common core for its primary and 17. Registers and counters are similar in the
secondary windings sense that they both
(B) has no losses and magnetic leakage (A) count pulses
(C) has core of stainless steel and windings (B) store binary information
of pure copper metal (C) are made from an array of flip-flops and
(D) has interleaved primary and secondary gates integrated on a single chip
windings (D) are in fact shift register

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PART B-4 AE (L): ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATIONS

1. In a communication system, noise is 8. A forward error correcting code corrects 16. If the peak transmitted power in a radar
most likely to get into the system errors only system is increased by a factor of 16, the
(A) at the transmitter (A) requiring partial retransmission of the maximum range will be increased by a
(B) in the channel signal factor of
(C) in the information source (B) requiring retransmission of entire signal (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16
(D) at the destination (C) using parity to correct to errors in all
cases 17. A high PRF will (indicate the false
2. When modulation frequency is doubled, (D) requiring no part of the signal to be statement)
the modulation index is halved, and the transmitted (A) make the returned echoes easier to
modulating voltage remains constant, the distinguish from noise
modulation system is 9. A typical signal strength received from a (B) make target tracking easier with conical
(A) amplitude modulation geosynchronous communication satellite is scanning
(B) phase modulation of the order of (C) increase the maximum range
(C) frequency modulation (A) a few milli watts (D) have no effect of the range resolution
(D) angle modulation (B) kilo watts (C) watts
(D) few pico watts 18. A solution to the “blind speed” problem
3. Impedance inversion may be obtained in a radar system is to
with 10. Telephone traffic is measured (A) change the Doppler frequency
(A) a short – circuited stub (A) with echo cancellers (B) vary the PRF
(B) an open – circuited stub (B) by the relative congestion (C) use mono pulse
(C) a quarter – wave line (C) in terms of the grade of service (D) use MTI
(D) a half – wave line (D) in erlangs
19. The number of active picture elements
4. HIGH frequency waves are 11. Positive logic in a logic circuit is one in in a television image depends on
(A) observed by the F2 layer which (A) fly back time
(B) reflected by D layer (A) logic 0 and 1 are represented by 0 and (B) CRT screen size
(C) capable of use for long-distance positive voltage respectively (C) received band width
communication on the moon (B) logic 0 and 1 are represented by (D) FB ratio of receiver antenna
(D) affected by the solar cycle negative and positive voltages respectively
(C) logic 0 voltage level in higher than 20. In a colour TV, the three primary
5. Which one of the following terms does logic 1 voltage level colours are
not apply to the Yagi-uda array (D) logic 0 voltage level is lower than logic (A) red, orange and blue
(A) Good band width 1 voltage level (B) red, blue and green
(B) Parasitic elements (C) red, green and yellow
(C) Folded diploe 12. A half-adder can be made from (D) red, orange and green
(D) High gain (A) two NAND gates
(B) a NOT gate and an OR gate
6. A duplexer is used (C) an AND gate and an OR gate
(A) to couple two different antennae to a (D) an AND gate and an X-OR gate
transmitter without mutual interference
(B) to allow one antenna to be used for 13. Which of the following devices has its
reception or transmission without mutual characteristics very close to that of an ideal
interference current source.
(C) to prevent interference between two (A) Field effect transistor
antennae when they are connected to (B) Transistor in common bas mode
receiver (C) Zener diode
(D) to increase the speed of the pulses in (D) MOSFET
pulsed radar
14. The main use of a common base
7. Indicate which of the following system is transistor amplifier is
digital (A) as voltage amplifier
(A) Pulse – Position modulation (B) current amplifier
(B) Pulse – Code modulation (C) for matching a high source impedance
(C) Pulse – Width modulation to a low load impedance
(D) Pulse – Frequency modulation (D) for rectification of a.c. signal

15. A class-B amplifier is biased


(A) Just at cut-off
(B) nearly twice cut-off
(C) at mid point of load line
(D) so that IB equals jut IC

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PART B-5 AE (L): COMPUTER ENGINEERING
1. A logic gate is an electronic circuit 10. Both computer instructions and memory 20. The 80486 microprocessor from Intel
which addresses are represented by consists of
(A) makes logic decision (A) character codes (A) a fast 32 bit CPU but no coprocessor
(B) allows electron flow only in one (B) binary codes (B) a 32 bit CPU and an 80387 coprocessor
direction (C) binary word only
(C) works on binary algebra (D) parity bit (C) a 32 bit CPU, a 80387 coprocessor and
(D) alternates between 0 and 1 values memory management unit (MMU) only
11. A computer program that converts an (D) a 32 bit CPU, a 80387 coprocessor,
2. NAND and NOR gates are called entire program into machine language at memory management unit and a cache
‘universal’ gates primarily because they one time is called a/an memory
(A) are available everywhere (A) interpreter (B) simulator
(B) are widely used in IC packages (C) compiler (D) commander
(C) can be combined to produce AND, OR
and NOT gates 12. All the keys on the IBM PC key board
(D) are the easiest to manufacture repeat as long as we hold them down. Such
type of keys are known as
3. The ascending order of a data hierarchy (A) typematic keys
is: (B) functional keys
(A) bit-byte-record-field-file-data base (C) automatic keys
(B) byte-bit-field-record-file (D) alphabetic keys
(C) byte-bit-record-field-file-data base
(D) bit-byte-field-record -file-data base 13. What does the acronym ISDN stands
for
4. A dumb terminal can do nothing more (A) Indian Standard Digital Network
than communicate data to and from a CPU (B) Integrated Services Digital Network
of a computer. How does a ‘smart’ terminal (C) Intelligent Service Digital Network
differ from dumb terminal (D) Integrated Services Data Network
(A) it has a primary memory
(B) it has a cache memory 14. Two basic types of operating system are
(C) it has a micro processor (A) sequential and direct
(D) it has an input device (B) batch and time sharing
(C) direct and interactive
5. The main distinguishing features of fifth (D) batch and interactive
generation digital computer will be
(A) liberal use of micro processors 15. Which of the following entity does not
(B) artificial intelligence belong to word processing
(C) extremely low cost (A) characters (B) words
(D) versatility (C) cells (D) paragraphs

6. Which of the following terms is not used 16. A schema describes


to refer to the recording density of a disk (A) data elements
(A) mega-density (B) single-density (B) records and filer
(C) double-density (D) quad-density (C) record relationship
(D) all of the above
7. The two kinds of main memory are
(A) primary and secondary 17. Which of the following is not a tool
(B) random and sequential used to manage and control schedule
(C) ROM and RAM performance
(D) central and peripheral (A) CAD (B) PERT
(C) CPM (D) Gantt Chart
8. Which one of the following is not an
octal number 18. An expert system differs from a data
(A) 29 (B) 75 (C) 16 (D) 102 base program in that only an expert system
(A) contains declarative knowledge
9. Main problem with LCDs is that they are (B) contains procedural knowledge
very difficult to read (C) features the retrieval of stored
(A) directly information
(B) in bright light (D) experts users to draw own conclusion
(C) in dull light
(D) both (B) and (C) 19. The virtual memory addressing
capability of 80386 is
(A) 4 GB (B) 16 GB
(C) 64 GB (D) 64 TB

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