I - BASIC ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM

1. What composes all matter whether a

liquid, solid or gas (November, 1995)
a. Atoms
b. Electrons
c. Protons
d. Neutrons
2. Protons are about____ heavier than
electrons (November, 1996)
a. 1800 times
b. Less than thrice
c. Less
d. Twice
3. In the periodic table, all elements are
arranged in the order according to their
(April, 2004)
a. Atomic number
b. Valence
c. Nucleus
d. Characteristics
4. What do you call the subatomic particle
that has a mass approximately equal to
that of the proton, but it has no electrical
charge? (April, 2004)
a. Atom
b. Proton
c. Electron
d. Neutron
5. The nucleus of an atom is made up
of_____ (April, 2004)
a. Protons and electrons
b. Electrons only
c. Electrons and neutrons
d. Protons and neutrons
6. Refers to the atom that losses an
electron (November, 2003)
a. Positive ion
b. Negative ion
c. Emf
d. Neutron
7. What is the symbol for carbon dioxide?
(November, 2005)
a. CO
b. C2O
c. CO2
d. Co2
8. The definite discrete amount of energy
required to move an electron from lower
shell to another shell (November, 1999)
a. Negative energy
b. Positive energy
c. Quantum
d. Quanta

9. The force between two magnetic poles
in relation to their pole strength
is________ (November, 1999)
a. Not related
b. Inversely proportional
c. Directly proportional
d. Independent
10. How are static charges created?
(November, 2003)
a. By motion
b. By friction
c. By immersion
d. By conduction
11. Very few metals are now used in their
pure state. A mixture of two or more
metals or a mixture of metal and another
material is called? (November, 2003)
a. Alloy
b. Colloid
c. Compound
d. Amalgam
12. Which of the following statement is
true? (November, 2003)
a. An increase in the temperature does
not affect the resistance
b. An increase in temperature lowers the
resistance
c. An increase in temperature increases
the resistance
d. An increase in temperature doubles
the resistance
13. It exhibits positive temperature
coefficient (April, 2004)
a. Conductor
b. Glass
c. Semiconductor
d. Superconductor
14. Which material has more free
electrons? (November, 1999)
a. Mica
b. Dielectric
c. Insulators
d. conductor
15. Which of the following is not a good
conductor of electricity (April, 2004)
a. Silver
b. Copper
c. Aluminum
d. Mica

16. An insulator is a substance that
a. Offers a resistance to current flow
b. Offers a low resistance to current
flow
c. Absorbs electricity
d. Forms a condenser
17. The total resistance of two similar wire
conductors connected in parallel is _____.
(November, 1999)
a. Same resistance of 1 wire
b. Double the resistance of 1 wire
c. One half the resistance of 1 wire
d. Resistance of 1 wire multiplied by 4
18. A rheostat is a device that regulates the
strength of an electric current by
(November, 2003)
a. Increasing the magnetic field in the
circuit
b. Varying the voltage in the circuit
c. Varying the resistance in the circuit
d. Varying the current in the circuit
19. The reciprocal of capacitance is
called________(November,1995)
a. Elastance
b. Permitivitty
c. Permeability
d. Conductance
20. Which of the following describes the
action of capacitor (April, 1998)
a. Converts AC to DC
b. Creates a DC resistance
c. Stores electrical energy
d. Opposes change in current flow
21. The following are the factors that affect
the inductance of a coil (April, 2004)
1. The number of turns in a coil
2. The diameter of a coil
3. The coil length
4. The number of layers of windings in
the coil
5. The type of core material
a. 1,2,3 and 4 only
b. 1,2,3 and 5 only
c. 1,2,3,4 and 5
d. 1,2,4 and 5 only
22. Inserting a soft iron core into a coil has
what effect on the inductance of the coil?
(November, 2003)
a. Increase inductance
b. Decrease inductance
c. Does not affect the inductance
d. None of these
23. Which of the following characterizes
inductance? (April, 1998)
a. Tends to oppose DC
b. Tends to oppose change in
current
c. Tends to oppose change in
voltage
d. Opposes all frequencies equally
24. What law in electronics where an
induced current will be in such a direction
that its own magnetic field will oppose the
magnetic field that produces the same?
a. Electromagnetic law
b. Nortons law
c. Lenzs law
d. Maxwells law
25. What is the unit of magnetic flux in SI
system?
a. Weber
b. Maxwell
c. Tesla
d. Gauss
26. Materials with permeabilities slightly
less than that of free space are referred to
as
a. Diamagnetic
b. Ferromagnetic
c. Non-magnetic
d. Paramagnetic
27. Solve for flux density (in gauss) from a
magnetic flux of 5,000 Mx through a
perpendicular area of 2 cm x 5 cm.
a. 5,000 G
b. 500 G
c. 10,000 G
d. 50 G
28. What is the law that determines
polarity of an induced voltage?
a. Nortons law
b. Thevenins law
c. Lenzs law
d. Faradays law
29. The natural magnet refers to
(November,1999)
a. Steel
b. Soft iron
c. Magnesia
d. Lodestone
30. It is the air space between poles of
magnet (April, 1998)
a. Air gap
b. Vacuum
c. Free zone
d. Free space
31. Where do you classify hydrogen as a
material? (November, 1999)
a. Diamagnetic
b. Paramagnetic
c. Non-magnetic
d. Ferromagnetic
32. What is the law whereby the attraction
or repulsion between two magnetic poles
is directly proportional to their strength?
(April, 1998)
a. Coulombs law
b. Newtons law
c. Coulombs first law
d. Nortons law
33. _________ is the property of magnetic
materials which retain magnetism after
magnetizing force is withdrawn.
a. Reluctivity
b. Resistivity
c. Retentivity
d. Conductivity
34. Permeability is the _________ (April,
2004)
a. Power found in the
electromagnet
b. Power found in the magnetic
field
c. Ease with which metals maybe
magnetized or demagnetized
d. Power found in the transformer
35. Electric energy refers to __________.
a. Joules divided by time
b. Volt-Coulomb
c. Volt-Ampere
d. Watt
36. Electric power refers to________
(November, 1997)
a. Joule
b. Volt-ampere
c. Watt-second
d. Volt-coulomb
37. The current of electric circuits is
analogous to __________ parameter of a
magnetic circuit.
a. Flux density
b. Reluctivity
c. Mmf
d. Flux
38. Which of the following refers to the
point where the intensity of magnetic lines
of force is maximum?
a. Magnetic pole
b. Weak pole
c. North pole
d. Great circle
39. Which one is the paramagnetic
material? (November, 1997)
a. Copper
b. Oxygen
c. Carbon
d. Bismuth
40. What is the term used to express the
amount of electrical energy stored in an
electrostatic field?
a. Volts
b. Watts
c. Coulombs
d. Joules
41. When you demagnetize properly by
applying an AC field and then gradually
reduced it to zero, it is called______
(November, 1997)
a. Damping
b. Decaying
c. Degaussing
d. Gaussing
42. What is the flux density in gauss (G)
having a flux of 12,000 Mx through a
perpendicular area of 6 cm squared?
a. 2000 G
b. 72000 G
c. 72 G
d. 200 G
43. What is another term for magnetic
lines of force?
a. Flux
b. Magnetic pole
c. Armature
d. Lodestone
44. A magnet that is heated will _____
(November, 2003)
a. Increase in magnetism
b. Decrease in magnetism
c. Not change in magnetism
d. Become demagnetized
45. What is the name of the effect of some
of the magnetic field leaking off due to less
than 100 percent coupling?
a. Eddy currents
b. Electromagnetic effect
c. Leakage reactance
d. Self inductance

46. The difference between the charges in
the conductor is equal to the difference in
potential. This voltage caused in the
moving magnetic field is called
(November,2003)
a. Electromagnetic force
b. Induced voltage
c. Electromotive force
d. Counter-electromotive force
47. The basic unit of measuring electrical
power (November, 2003)
a. Watt
b. Watt-hour
c. Volt
d. Ampere
48. Which of the following does not refer
to electric energy?
a. Joule
b. Watt second
c. Volt coulomb
d. Volt ampere
49. It is composed of a series of energy
levels containing the valence
electrons.(November,1999)
a. Conduction band
b. Forbidden band
c. Side band
d. Valence band
50. It has a unit of electronvolt
a. Charge
b. Energy
c. Current
d. Potential difference

II DC CIRCUITS

1. Two heaters A and B are in parallel
across a supply voltage V. Heater A
produces 500kcal in 20 minutes and B
produces 1000 kcal in 10 minutes, the
resistance of A is 10 ohms. What is the
resistance of B?
a. 4.5 ohms
b. 3.5 ohms
c. 2.5 ohms
d. 0.14 ohms
2. In a series circuit of 2 resistors 2200 and
4500 with an impressed voltage of 10,
what is the circuit current in mA?
(November, 2005)
a. 1.49
b. 6.76
c. 4.34
d. 1.34

3. The current needed to operate a
soldering iron which has a rating of 600
watts at 110 volts is.
a. 5.455 A
b. 66,000 A
c. 18200 A
d. 0.182 A
4. The ammeter reads 230 amperes while
the voltmeter is 115 volts. What is the
power in KW at the time of reading (April,
2004)
a. 264.5
b. 2645
c. 264500
d. 26.45
5. What type of circuit whose parameters
are constant which do not change with
voltage or current?
a. lumped
b. tuned
c. reactive
d. Linear
6. What is the total resistance of two equal
valued resistors is series?
a. twice as one
b. the sum of their reciprocal
c. the difference of both
d. the product of both
7. What do you expect when you use two
20 kohms, 1 watt resistor in parallel
instead of one 10 kohms, 1 watt?
a. provide more power
b. provide lighter current
c. provide less power
d. provide wider tolerance
8. The voltage applied in DC circuit having a
power of 36 watts and a total resistance of
4 ohms.
a. 6 V
b. 9 V
c. 12 V
d. 24 V
9. When resistors are connected in series,
what happens?
a. the effective resistance is
decreased
b. nothing
c. the tolerance is decreased
d. the effective resistance is
increased
10. Find the thevenins impedance
equivalent across R2 of a linear close circuit
having 10-V supply in series with resistors
(R1 =10 ohms and R2 = 200 ohms
(November, 1997)
a. 666 ohms
b. 6.66 ohms
c. 66.6 ohms
d. 6.66 ohms
11. How much power does electronic
equipment consume, assuming a 5.5 A
current flowing and a 120-V power source
(November, 1997)
a. 60 W
b. 66 W
c. 660 W
d. 125.5 W
12. How many nodes are needed to
completely analyze a circuit according to
Kirchoffs Current Law (April, 1998)
a. One
b. Two
c. All nodes in the circuit
d. One less than the total number
of nodes in the circuit
13. A common connection between circuit
elements or conductors from different
branches.
a. Node
b. Junction
c. Ground
d. Mesh
14. It is used to denote a common
electrical point of zero potential (April,
2004)
a. Short circuit
b. Reference point
c. Open circuit
d. Ground
15. Loop currents should be assumed to
flow in which direction? (April, 1998)
a. Straight
b. clockwise
c. counterclockwise
d. either B or C
16. In mesh analysis, we apply:
a. KCL
b. KVL
c. Source transformation
d. Millmans Theorem
17. Which of the following is not a valid
expression of Ohms Law (November, 1999)
a. R =PI
b. E =IR
c. I = E/R
d. R = E/I
18. Using Ohms Law, what happens to the
circuit current if the applied voltage
increases? (April, 2004)
a. Current doubles
b. Current increases
c. Current remains constant
d. Current decreases
19. According to Ohms Law, what happens
to the circuit current if the circuit
resistance increases? (April, 2005)
a. Current doubles
b. Current decreases
c. Current increases
d. Current remains constant
20. If the resistance of a circuit is doubled
and the applied voltage is kept constant,
the current will be________ (April, 2005)
a. Be quadrupled
b. Remains the same
c. Be cut in half
d. Be doubled
21. It is an electrical current that flows in
one direction only? (April, 2005)
a. Normal current
b. Alternating current
c. Direct current
d. Eddy current
22. In Ohms law, what is E/R? (November,
2005)
a. Amperage
b. Voltage
c. Resistance
d. Power
23 A 33-kohm resistor is connected in
series with a parallel combination made up
of 56-kohm resistor and a 7.8-kohm
resistor. What is the total combined
resistance of the three resistors?
(November, 1999)
a. 39067 ohms
b. 49069 ohms
c. 63769 ohms
d. 95000 ohms
24. Which of the following cannot be
included in a loop of Kirrchhoffs Voltage
law (April, 2004)
a. Current sources
b. Voltage sources
c. Resistance
d. Reactance
25. A series connected circuit consists of 3
loads and consume a total power of 50
Watts. It was reconfigured such that 2 are
in parallel and the other load is in series
with the combination. What is the
expected power to be consumed then?
a. 50 Watts
b. 25 Watts
c 75 watts
e. 45 watts.

III AC CIRCUITS

1.The description of two sine waves that
are in step with each other going through
their maximum and minimum points at the
same time and in the same direction
(November, 1999)
a. Sine waves in phase
b. Stepped sine waves
c. Phased sine waves
d. Sine waves in coordination
2. Term used for the out of phase, non-
productive power associated with
inductors and capacitors (November, 1996)
a. Effective power
b. True power
c. Reactive power
d. Peak envelope power
3. Refers to reactive power. (November,
2001)
a. Wattless ,non productive power
b. Power consumed in circuit Q
c. Power loss because of capacitor
leakage
d. Power consumed in wire resistance in
an inductor
4. Term used for an out-of-phase, non-
productive power associated with
inductors and capacitors.
a. effective power
b. reactive power
c. peak envelope power
d. true power
5. The product of current and voltage in an
AC circuit refers to the
a. Real power
b. Useful power
c. Apparent power
d. Dc power
6. The distance covered or traveled by a
waveform during the time interval of one
complete cycle (April, 2005)
a. Frequency
b. Wavelength
c. Time slot
d. Wave time
7. The power dissipated across the
resistance in an AC circuit (November,
1999)
a. real power
b. reactive power
c. apparent power
d. true power
8. It is the number of complete cycles of
alternating voltage or current completed
each second (November, 2003)
a. Period
b. Frequency
c. Amplitude
d. Phase
9. How many degrees are there in one
complete cycle? (November, 2000)
a. 720
b. 360
c. 180
d. 90
10. The impedance in the study of
electronics is represented by resistance
and ________ (April, 1998)
a. Reactance
b. Inductance and capacitance
c. Inductance
d. Capacitance
11. It is the current that is eliminated by a
synchro capacitor? (April, 2004)
a. Magnetizing stator
b. Loss
c. Stator
d. Rotor
12. It is a rotating sector that represents
either current or voltage in an AC circuit
(November, 2003)
a. Resistance
b. Phasor
c. Solar diagram
d. Velocity
13. The relation of the voltage across an
inductor to its current is described as
a. leading the current by 90 degrees
b. lagging the current by 90 degrees
c. leading the current by 180 degrees
d. in phase with the current
14. Find the phase angle between the
voltage across ant the current through the
circuit when X
C
is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms
and X
L
is 50 ohms. (April, 2005)
a. 76 degrees with voltage leading the
current
b. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging
the current
c. 14 degrees with the voltage leading
the current
d. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging
the current
15. Calculate the period of an alternating
current having an equation of I
=20sin120t
a. 4.167 ms
b. 8.33 ms
c. 16.67 ms
d. 33.33 ms

16. What do you mean by root-mean-
square (rms) value? (November, 1996)
a. It is the average value
b. It is the effective value
c. It is the value that causes the same
heating effect as the dc voltage
d. b or c
17. The maximum instantaneous value of a
varying current, voltage or power equal to
1.414 times the effective value of a sine
wave. (November, 2000)
a. RMS value
b. Peak value
c. EFFECTIVE VALUE
d. Peak to Peak value
18. If an AC signal has a peak voltage of 55
V, what is the average value? (April, 2000)
a. 34.98 V
b. 61.05 V
c. 86.34 V
d. 38.89 V
19. If an AC signal has an average voltage
of 18 V, what is the rms voltage? (April,
2000)
a. 12.726 V
b. 19.980 V
c. 25.380 V
d. 16.213 V
20. A 220-volt, 60Hz is driving a series RL
circuit. Determine the current if R = 100
ohms and 20 mH inductance
a. 2.2A(lagging)
b. 2.0 A(lagging)
c. 2.2 A(leading)
d. 2.0 A(leading)
21. Ignoring any inductive effects, what is
the impedance of RC series capacitor made
up of a 56 Kilo ohm resistor and a 0.33 F
capacitor at a signal frequency of 4650 Hz
(November, 1999)
a. 66730 ohms
b. 57019 ohms
c. 45270 ohms
d. 10730 ohms
22. What is the time constant of a 500mH
coil and a 3300 ohm resistor in series?
(April, 2000)
a. 0.00015 sec
b. 6.6 sec
c. 0.0015 sec
d. 0.000015 sec
23. Ignoring the effects of capacitance,
what is the impedance of a 100mH
coil(with an internal resistanceof 45 ohms)
in parallel with 4700 ohms resistor at a
frequency of 500Hz (April, 2001)
a. 237 ohms
b. 5013 ohms
c. 310 ohms
d. 314 ohms
24. What is the relationship between
frequency and the value of X
c
? (November,
2001)
a. Frequency has no effect
b. X
C
varies inversely with frequency
c. X
C
varies indirectly with frequency
d. X
C
varies directly with frequency
25. Ignoring the effects of DC resistance,
what is the total reactance of a 250mH coil
in series with a 4.7 F capacitor at a signal
frequency of 450 Hz (April, 2000)
a. 97 ohms
b. 752 ohms
c. 84 ohms
d. 706 ohms
26. In RL circuit, the time constant is the
time required for the induced current to
reach what percentage of its value?
a. 63%
b. 37%
c. 100%
d. 48%
27. The reactance of a 25 mH coil at 5000
Hz is which of the following?
a. 785 ohms
b. 785000 ohms
c. 13 ohms
d. 0.0013 ohm
28. Assuming an ideal capacitor with no
leakage, what is the capacitive reactance of
10 microfarad capacitance at DC? (April,
2000)
a. Infinite capacitive reactance
b. 0 ohm
c. 16000 ohms
d. 1 000 000 000 ohms
29. There are no transients in pure resistive
circuits because they
a. Offer high resistance
b. Obey Ohms Law
c. Are linear circuits
d. Have no stored energy
30. The transient current in a loss free LC
circuit when excited from a DC source is
a. Under-damped
b Critically-damped
c. Over-damped
d. Un-damped

IV RESONANCE AND FILTERS

1. What is the ability of a filter circuit to
reduce the amplitude of unwanted signals
below the level of desired output
frequency?
a. Attenuation
b. Discrimination
c. Elimination
d. Filtration
2. The center frequency of a bandpass filter
is always equal to the_____
a. Bandwidth
b. Geometric average of the cutoff
frequencies
c. Bandwidth divided by Q
d. 3-dB frequency
3. The Q of a narrowband filter is
always______
a. Small
b. Equal to bandwidth divided by fc
c. Less than 1
d. Greater than 1
4. The higher the value of the Q the______
a. More selective the circuit
b. Less selective the circuit
c. More sensitive the circuit
d. Less sensitive the circuit
5. A bandStop filter is sometimes
called_________
a. Snubber
b. Phase shifter
c. Notch filter
d. Time-delay circuit
6. The biquadratic filter _____
a. Has low component sensitivity
b. Uses three or more op-amps
c. Also called a Tow Thomas filter
d. All of the above
7. The all-pass filter is sometimes called a
_____
a. Tow Tomas filter
b. Delay equalizer
c. KHN filter
d. State-variable filter
















































8. If a DC signal is applied to a passive high pass
filter, the DC signal will be?
a. Attenuated
b. Amplified
c. Passed
d. Disappear

Answer a. Attenuated

9. Pole in filters refers to _______
a. Feedback circuit
b. Single RC filter
c. Active filter
d. Op-amp

Answer b. Single RC filter

10. An LC circuit resonates at 2000 kHz and has
Q of 100. Find the lower and upper cut-off
frequencies.

a. 1950 kHz, 2050 kHz
b. 1900 kHz, 2100 kHz
c. 1990 kHz, 2010 kHz
d. 1990 kHz, 2005 kHz

Answer c. 1990 KHz, 2010 KHz
Solution
Bandwidth=
KHz 20
100
KHz 2000
Q
f
c
= =

KHz 2010 KHz 1990 KHz 20 KHz 2000 f
off cut
= =

11. What is the resonant frequency of a circuit
when L is 1 microhenry and C is 10 picofarads
are in series?

a. 15.9 MHz
b. 50.3 MHz
c. 15.9 MHz
d. 50.3 kHz

Answer b. 50.3 MHz
Solution

Hz 50329
) p 10 )( 1 ( 2
1
f
r
=
t
=

12. If you need an LC circuit to resonate at 2500
Hz and used a 150mH coil, what should the
capacitance value be?
a. 0.15F
b. 27F
c. 0.015F
d. 0.027F

Answer d. 0.027 F
Solution

6
2 2
r
r
10 x 027 . 0
)) 2500 ( 2 ( m 150
1
) f 2 ( L
1
C
then
LC 2
1
f

=
t
=
t
=
t
=


13. What is the resonant frequency of a circuit
when L is 30 H and C is 40 F that are in
parallel?
a. 2.6 MHz
b. 3.6 MHz
c. 4.6 MHz
d. 5.6 MHz

Answer c. 4.6 MHz
Solution
MHz 5944 . 4
) 40 )( 30 ( 2
1
f
r
=
t
=
14. A __________ network is a two-port circuit
made up of a repeated L, T, pi or H networks.

a. Lattice
b. Ladder
c. Hybrid
d. Hierarchy

Answer b. Ladder

15. Find the half power bandwidth of a parallel
resonant circuit, which has a resonant
frequency of 3.65 MHz and a Q of 218
a. 606 kHz
b. 47.4 kHz
c. 58.7 kHz
d. 16.5kHz

Answer d. 16.5 KHz
Solution
B = Hz 16743
218
10 x 65 . 3
6
=

16. Which network provides the greatest
harmonic suppression?
a. L-network
b. Pi-L network
c. Pi-network
d. Inverse L-network

Answer b. Pi-L network

17. A filter that has a flat time delay in passband
is____
a. Chevyshev filer
b. Butterworth filter
c. Bessel filter
d. Elliptic filter

Answer c. Bessel filter

18. A filter having a single continuous
transmission band with neither the upper nor
the lower cutoff frequencies being zero or
infinite is called_________.
a. Band pass filter
b. longitudinal suppression filter
c. high pass filter
d. band rejection filter

Answer a. Band pass filter

19. Term for the phenomena which occur in an
electrical circuit when the inductive reactance
balanced with the capacitive reactance
a. Resonance
b. Reactive equilibrium
c. Q
d. Reactive quiescence

Answer a. Resonance

20. What is the term for the number of times
per second that tank circuit energy is stored in
an inductor or capacitor? (April, 2001)
a. Resonant frequency
b. Non-resonant frequency
c. Circuit frequency
d. Broadcast frequency

Answer a. Resonant frequency

21. Characteristics of current in a series R-L-C
circuit at resonance.
(April, 1998)
a. It is dc
b. It is maximum
c. It is minimum
d. It is zero

Answer b. It is maximum

22. In series resonant LC circuit, what is the
impedance at resonant frequency? (April, 2000)
a. Zero
b. Maximum impedance value
c. Determine solely by the DC resistance
d. Infinity

Answer c. Determine solely by the DC
resistance

23. When is the line current minimum in a
parallel LC circuit? (April, 2001)
a. At the broadcast frequency
b. At the circuit frequency
c. At the highest frequency
d. At the resonant frequency

Answer d. At the resonant frequency

24. ._______is a parallel LC circuit (April, 1998)
a. Parallel resisting circuit
b. Hartley circuit
c. Static circuit
d. Tank circuit

Answer d. Tank circuit

25. When the magnetic field of the inductor
completely collapse, where is the energy of the
tank stored? (November, 2000)

a. In the circuit
b. Capacitor
c. Expanding the inductor
d. Dissipated as heat

Answer b. Capacitor

V ENERGY CONVERSION

1. A 4-pole DC generator with duplex lap
winding has 48 slots and four elements per slot.
The flux per pole is 2.5 x 10
6
Maxwells and it
runs at 1500 rpm. What is the output voltage?
a. 60
b. 360
c. 225
d. 120

Answer a. 60
Solution
E
G
=
V 60 10 x
) 4 )( 2 ( 60
) 4 )( 48 )( 1500 )( 10 x 5 . 2 ( 4
10 x
a 60
NZ P
8
6
8
= =
|


2. Find the frequency in kilocycles per second in
the armature of a 10 pole, 1200 rpm generator?
a. 100
b. 1000
c. 10
d. 0.1

Answer d. 0.1
Solution
f=
KHz 1 . 0 1000 / Hz 100
120
) 1200 ( 10
120
rpm P
= = =
-

3. What is the voltage regulation when the full
load voltage is the same as no-load voltage
assuming a perfect voltage source?(Nov. 1999)
a. 100%
b. 10%
c. 1%
d. 0%

Answer d. 0%

4. In dc motors, the emf developed which
opposes to the supplied voltage.
a. Residual emf
b. Coercive emf
c. Induced emf
d. Counter emf

Answer d. Counter emf

5. What will happen to a dc series motor when
its load is removed?
a. the motor will stop
b. the motor speed remains the same
c. the torque remains the same
d. the motor will over speed

Answer d. the motor will over speed

6. The armature of a DC generator is laminated
to ____________.
a. Reduce the bulk
b. Provide passage for cooling air
c. Reduce eddy current losses
d. Insulate the core

Answer c. Reduce eddy current losses

7. Which of the following helps in reducing the
effect of armature reaction in DC generators?
1.Interpoles
2.Compensating windings
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 or 2

Answer b. 2 only

8. The loss in DC generator that varies with the
load is ___________.
a. Copper loss
b. Eddy current loss
c. Hysteresis loss
d. Windage loss

Answer a. Copper loss

9. Magnetic field in a DC generator is produced
by __________.
1. Electromagnets
2. Permanent magnets
3. Iron core
4. Steel laminations
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1,2,3 and 4

Answer a. 1 only

10. In DC generator, the cause of rapid brush
wears maybe _____________.
1. Severe sparking
2. Rough commutation surface
3. Imperfect contact
4. slots disorientation
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer a. 1, 2 and 3 only

11. Which of the following components of a DC
generator plays vital role for providing direct
current of a DC generator?
a. Dummy coils
b. Commutator
c. Eye bolt
d. Equalizer ring

Answer b. Commutator

12. Find the voltage regulation of a generator
when full load voltage is 110V and the no load
voltage is 120V.
a. 1%
b. 9.09%
c. 90.9%
d. 10%

Answer b. 9.09%
Solution
V
R
=
% 09 . 9 100 x
110
110 120
100 x
V
V V
FL
FL NL
=

13. Where does voltage generated in a dc
generator depend?
1.Field resistance
2. speed
3. flux
4. Field current
5. Armature resistance
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2, 3, and 4 only
d. 1, 3 and 5 only

Answer b. 2 and 3 only

14. Generators are often preferred to be run in
parallel because of ________.
1.Great reliability
2.Meeting greater load demands
3.Higher efficiency
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only

Answer a. 1,2 and 3
15. DC generator preferred for charging
automobile batteries is _______.
a. Shunt generator
b. Long shunt compound gen.
c. Series generator
d. Any of these

Answer a. Shunt generator

16. The purpose of providing dummy coils in a
generator is ________.
a. To reduce eddy current losses
b. To enhance flux density
c. To amplify voltage
d. To provide mechanical balance for the
rotor

Answer d. To provide mechanical balance for
the rotor

17. Which of the following generating machine
will offer constant voltage on all loads?
a. Self excited generator
b. Separately excited
generator
c. Level compounded
generator
d. All of the above

Answer c. Level compounded generator

18. A DC generator works on the principle of
a. Lenzs Law
b. Ohms Law
c. Faradays Law of Electromagnetic
induction
d. None of the above

Answer c. Faradays Law of Electromagnetic
induction

19. With a DC generator, which of the following
regulation is preferred?
a. 100% regulation
b. infinite regulation
c. 50% regulation
d. 1% regulation

Answer d. 1% regulation

20. The purpose of an amperite regulator
a. Power regulation
b. Loss regulation
c. Current regulation
d. Voltage regulation

Answer c. Current regulation

21. The only purpose of a DC generator that has
been modified to function as an amplidyne is to
a. Serve as a booster
b. Serve as a regulator
c. Serve as a meter
d. Serve as power amplifier

Answer d. Serve as power amplifier

22. A simple method of increasing the voltage
of a DC generator is ______
a. Increase the length of the armature
b. Decrease the length of the armature
c. Increase the speed of rotation
d. Decrease the speed of rotation

Answer c. Increase the speed of rotation

23. A four-pole lap wound armature has 120
slots and four conductors per slot. The flux per
pole is 50mWb and it generates 240 volts. Find
the speed.
a. 1200 rpm
b. 800 rpm
c. 600 rpm
d. 300 rpm

Answer c. 600 rpm
Solution
E
G
=
a 60
NZ P|

N =
rpm 600
) 4 )( 120 )( m 50 ( 4
) 240 )( 4 ( 60
Z P
aE 60
G
= =
|

24. The power stated on the nameplate of any
motor is always the _______.
a. Gross power
b. Output power at the shaft
c. Power drawn in kva
d. Power drawn in KW

Answer b. Output power at the shaft

25. A DC motor is used to ________
a. Generate power
b. Change mechanical energy to electrical
energy
c. Change electrical energy to mechanical
energy
d. Increase energy put into it

Answer c. Change electrical energy to
mechanical energy

26. A dc motor is still used in industrial
applications because it _______
a. Is cheap
b. Is simple in construction
c. Provides fine speed control
d. None of the above

Answer c. Provides fine speed control

27. Carbon brushes are preferable to copper
brushes because _______
1. They have longer life
2. They reduce armature reaction
3. They have lower resistance
4. They reduce sparking
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 1 and 4 only

Answer d. 1 and 4 only

28. The field poles and armature of a DC
machine are laminated to _____
a. Reduce the weight of the machine
b. Decrease the speed
c. Reduce eddy current
d. Reduce armature reaction

Answer d. Reduce armature reaction

29. Steam turbo alternators are much smaller in
size than water turbine alternators for a given
output. This is so because _____________.
1. Steam turbo alternators are built with
smaller capacities
2. Steam turbo alternators run at high
speed
1. Steam turbo alternators have long
rotors
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer d. 1, 2 and 3

30. When the speed of a DC motor increases, its
armature current _______
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. None of the above

Answer b. Decreases

31. The amount of the back emf of a shunt
motor will increase when ______
a. The load is increased
b. The field is weak
c. The field is strengthened
d. None of the above

Answer c. The field is strengthened

32. The speed of a dc motor is _______
a. Directly proportional to the flux
per pole
b. Inversely proportional to the flux
per pole
c. Inversely proportional to the
applied voltage
d. None of the above

Answer b. Inversely proportional to the flux per
pole

33. The torque develop by a DC motor is directly
proportional to ____
a. Flux per pole x armature current
b. Armature resistance x applied voltage
c. Armature resistance x armature current
d. None of the above

Answer a. Flux per pole x armature current

34. The speed of a _______motor is practically
constant.
a. Cumulatively compounded
b. Series
c. Differentially compounded
d. Shunt

Answer d. Shunt

35.________ motor is a variable speed motor.
a. Series motor
b. Shunt motor
c. Cumulatively compounded
d. Differentially compounded

Answer a. Series motor

37. The working principle of a transformer is
___________.
a. Self induction
b. Static induction
c. Mutual induction
d. Dynamic induction

Answer c. Mutual induction

38. A type of transformer that is used to protect
technicians from deadly electrical shock is called
a/an_________.
a. Absorber transformer
b. Step down transformer
c. Step up transformer
d. Isolation transformer

Answer d. Isolation transformer

39. What is the typical use of an
autotransformer?
a. Toy transformer
b. Control transformer
c. Variable transformer
d. Isolating transformer

Answer c. Variable transformer

40. Synchronous motor is capable of being
operated at __________.
a. Lagging pf only
b. Unity pf only
c. Leading pf only
d. All of these

Answer d. All of these

VI BASIC ELECTRONICS

1. A vacuum tube has electrodes confined inside
an evacuated________.
a. Glass envelope only
b. Metal envelope only
c. Either glass or metal envelope
d. Plastic envelope

Answer c. Either glass or metal envelope

2. Calculate the velocity needed by an electron
to be emitted from the surface of a tungsten
material whose work function is 4.52 eV
a. 1.3 Mm/s
b. 2.3 Mm/s
c. 3.3 Mm/s
d. 4.3 Mm/s

Answer a. 1.3 Mm/s
Solution
Wf =
2
1
mv
2

therefore v =
m
Wf 2

v =
31
19
10 x 11 . 9
) 10 x 6 . 1 )( 52 . 4 ( 2

v = 1.26 Mm/s

3. In which of the following applications vacuum
tubes in a radio transmitter are used to.
a. Public addressing system
b. Radio receivers
c. Radio transmitters
d. electroplating

Answer b. Radio receivers

4. The emission of electrons in a vacuum tube
diode is achieved by
a. electrostatic field
b. magnetic field
c. heating
d. electron bombardment

Answer c. heating

5. When an electron moves through a potential
difference of 10 Volts, the energy acquired by it
will be
a 10 ergs
b. 10 joules
c. 10 watts
d. 10eV

Answer d. 10eV
6. Secondary emission of electrons occurs when
the metal surface is
a. Cooled to very low temperature
b. heated
c. Subjected to electric as well as
magnetic field
d. Bombardment with high energy
electrons

Answer d. Bombardment with high energy
electrons

7. Which of the following electron emission
process is widely used in vacuum tubes?
a. Photo electric emission
b. High field emission
c. Thermionic emission
d. Secondary emission

Answer c. Thermionic Emission

8. Generally metals with low work function have
a. Low melting point
b. Non-crystalline structure
c. High hardness
d. Low specific gravity

Answer a. Low melting point

9. Which of the following emitter material has
the lowest work function?
a. oxide coated
b. thoriated tungsten
c. pure tungsten
d. copper

Answer a. oxide coated

10. The work function of the oxide coated
emitter material is _________.
a. 1 eV
b. 2.63 eV
c. 3.98 eV
d. 4.52 eV

Answer a. 1 eV

11. Which of the following material usually
needs less than 1000 V as plate voltage?
a. Oxide coated
b. Thoriated tungsten
c. Pure tungsten
d. All of the above

Answer a. Oxide coated

12. In case of indirectly heated tubes, the
heater filament is usually made of
a. manganin
b. tungsten
c. invar
d. Gold

Answer b. tungsten

13. In case of indirectly heated cathode, the
cathode is in the shape of___.
a. Wire filament
b. cylinder
c. Metal strip
d. Circular

Answer b. cylinder

14. The surface of the anode is usually blacked
and roughened to
a. Dissipate heat produced at the anode
b. Arrest escaping electrons
c. Retard fast electrons emitted by cathode
d. Eliminate outside interference

Answer a. Dissipate heat produced at the anode

15. A control grid is provided in the pentode
tube to
a. Collect electrons from the space charge
b. Control the number of electrons moving
from cathode to plate
c. Restrict the secondary emission from the
plate
d. Accelerate the electron emission from the
plate

Answer b. Control the number of electrons
moving from cathode to plate

16. The grid of the triode is normally maintained
at_______.
a. Negative potential with respect to cathode
b. Positive potential with respect to cathode
c. Zero potential
d. Same potential as that of the anode

Answer a. Negative potential with respect to
the cathode

17. What will likely to happen when cathode of
a vacuum tube is heated and the anode is not
connected to any external circuit?
a. Electrons escape through glass tube
b. Glass tube gets charge
c. Electrons form a space charge
d. Protons are emitted from anode

Answer c. Electrons form a space charge

18. A triode can also be used as an amplifier
because_______.
a. It has 3 elements like a transistor
b. Plate is a high values and less positive
c. Control grid voltage is made less negative
d. Any small change in grid is capable of
causing a larger change in plate voltage

Answer d. any small change in grid is capable of
causing a larger change in plate voltage

19. In a cathode ray tube, which electrode has
the highest positive voltage?
a. cathode
b. anode
c. heater
d. Control grid

Answer b. anode

20. What is the unit of amplification factor?
a. siemens
b. ohms
c. amperes
d. Unitless

Answer d. Unitless

21. The value of parasitic capacitance of the
triode increases as_______.
a. Current increases
b. Current decreases
c. Signal frequency increases
d. Signal frequency decreases

Answer c. Signal frequency increases

22. The control grid of the triode is usually given
negative potential with respect to the cathode
so as to_______.
a. Reduce the grid current to zero
b. Reduce the space charge
c. Increase the space charge
d. Restrict the space charge to a safe value

Answer a. Reduce the grid current to zero

23. In a tetrode tube, secondary emissions
means the emission of
a. High velocity electrons from the
cathode
b. Electrons from the plate due to
bombardment of the fast moving electrons
emitted from the cathode
c. Electrons from the filament due to heat
energy
d. Electrons from the filament due to light
energy

Answer b. electrons from the plate due to
bombardment of the fast moving electrons
emitted from the cathode

24. The phenomenon of secondary emission is
common in_________.
a. diodes
b. triodes
c. tetrodes
d. Pentodes

Answer c. tetrodes

25. In a pentode, the suppressor grid is
provided between
a. Plate and screen grid
b. Cathode heater
c. Screen grid and plate
d. Control grid and cathode

Answer a. Plate and screen grid

26. In a pentode, the suppressor grid is used
to_______.
a. Limit anode voltage
b. Limit anode current
c. Dissipate heat
d. Suppress secondary emission

Answer d. Suppress secondary emission

27. Which of the following vacuum tube cannot
be used as an amplifier?
a. diode
b. triode
c. tetrode
d. Pentode

Answer a. diode

28. Which of the following does not have three
electrons?
a. Boron
b. Aluminum
c. Gallium
d. Phosphorus

Answer d. Phosphorus

29. What is the forbidden energy gap of
germanium?
a. 0.12 eV
b. 1.12 eV
c. 0.72 eV
d. 7.2 eV

Answer c. 0.72 eV

30. The forbidden energy gap between the
valence band and the conduction band will be
least in case of
a. metals
b. semiconductors
c. Insulators
d. All of the above
Answer a. metals

31. What is a semiconductor in its purest form?
a. Intrinsic semiconductor
b. Extrinsic semiconductor
c. P-type material
d. N-type material

Answer a. Intrinsic semiconductor

32. At absolute zero temperature, a
semiconductor behaves like
a. An insulator
b. A superconductor
c. A conductor
d. A variable resistor

Answer a. An insulator

33. When the atoms are held together by the
sharing of valence electrons
a. Each atoms becomes free to move
b. Neutrons start shifting
c. They form a covalent bond
d. Some of the electrons are lost

Answer c. they form a covalent bond

34. What happen when an electron breaks a
covalent bond and move away?
a. A hole is created
b. A proton is also lost
c. Atom becomes an ion
d. Rest of the electrons moves at
faster rate

Answer a. A hole is created

35. It is the process of deliberately adding
impurity to a semiconductor material is called
a. Impurification
b. Pollution
c. Deionization
d. Doping

Answer d. Doping

36. What is a doped semiconductor?
a. Impure semiconductor
b. Dipole semiconductor
c. Bipolar semiconductor
d. Extrinsic semiconductor

Answer d. Extrinsic semiconductor

37. What are the two mechanisms by which
holes and electrons move through a silicon
crystal?
a. Covalent bond and recombination
b. Forward and reverse bias
c. Free and charge particles
d. Diffusion and drift

Answer d. Diffusion and drift

38. Pure silicon crystal atoms contain how many
valence electrons as a result of covalent
bonding?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16

Answer c. 8

39. What is considered as the key to electrical
conductivity?
a. the number of electrons in the
valence orbit
b. the number of neutrons in the
nucleus
c. the number of protons and
electrons in the atom
d. the number of neutrons in the
nucleus

Answer a. the number of electrons in the
valence orbit

40. Lifetime is the amount of time between the
creation and disappearance of a/an_______.
a. free electron
b. proton
c. ion
d. neutron

Answer a. free electron

41. Silicon that has been doped with a trivalent
impurity is called
a. p-type semiconductor
b. n-type semiconductor
c. intrinsic semiconductor
d. extrinsic semiconductor

Answer a. p-type semiconductor

42. In an N-type semiconductor, holes are
called_______.
a. minority carriers
b. majority carriers
c. protons
d. charge carriers

Answer a. minority carriers

43. A silicon crystal is _______if every atom in
the crystal is a silicon atom.
a. extrinsic semiconductor
b. intrinsic semiconductor
c. p-type material
d. n-type material

Answer b. intrinsic semiconductor

44. Before doping, the semiconductor material
is
a. dehydrated
b. heated
c. hardened
d. purified

Answer d. purified

45. Which of the following is acceptor impurity
element?
a. antimony
b. gallium
c. arsenic
d. phosphorus

Answer b. gallium

46. An electrically neutral semiconductor has
a. no free charges
b. no majority carriers
c. no minority carriers
d. equal number of positive and negative
charges

Answer d. equal number of positive and
negative charges

47. In an N-type semiconductor, the
concentration of the minority carriers mainly
depends on
a. the number of acceptor atoms
b. the number of doping atoms
c. extent of the atom
d. temperature of the material

Answer d. temperature of the material

48. The resistivity of semiconductor
a. increase as the temperature increases
b. decreases as the temperature increases
c. remains constant even wren the
temperature varies
d. remains constant even when the
temperature is constant

Answer b. decreases as the temperature
increases

49. Semiconductors have _________.
a. zero temperature coefficient
b. positive temperature coefficient
c. negative temperature coefficient
d. all of the above

Answer c. negative temperature coefficient

50. What is the crystal structure of silicon?
a. simple cubic
b. body central cubic
c. face centered cubic
d. diamond

Answer d. diamond

VII DIODES AND APPLICATIONS

1. The vacuum tube diode was developed by J.
Fleming and is also known as ________.
a. Fleming diode
b. Fleming valve
c. audion
d. dione

Answer b. Fleming valve

2. In case a PN junction is forward biased
a. Holes and electrons seized to move
b. Electrons and holes moves away the junction
c. Electrons and holes move toward the junction
d. depletion region decreases

Answer d. depletion region decreases

3. The bulk resistance of a diode is_____
a. the resistance of N-material only
b. the resistance of P material only
c. the resistance of the junction only
d. the resistance of the P and the N material

Answer d. the resistance of the P and the N
material

4. The depletion layer of the PN junction diode
has
a. only free mobile electrons
b. only free mobile holes
c. both free mobile holes and mobile electrons
d.neither free mobile electrons nor holes

Answer d. neither free mobile electrons nor
holes

5. A zener diode is invariably used with
a. forward biased
b. reverse biased
c. Zero bias
d. no bias

Answer b. reversed biased

6. The light emitting diode produces light when
a. Unbiased
b. forward bias
c. reverse bias
d. zero bias

Answer b. forward bias

7. The PN junction offers
a. a high resistance in forward as well as reverse
direction
b. Low resistance in forward as well as in
reverse
c. conducts in forward direction only
d. conducts in the reverse direction only

Answer c. conducts in forward direction only

8. The DC resistance of a diode is ________than
its AC resistance.
a. same as
b. more than
c. less than
d. all of the above

Answer c. less than

9. The PIV rating of a crystal diode is
________that of equivalent vacuum diode.
a. lower than
b. more than
c. the same as
d. all of the above

Answer a. lower than

10. Crystal diode is a _____device.
a. non-linear
b. linear
c. amplifying
d. oscillating

Answer a. non-linear

11. A zener diode has______.
a. one PN junction
b. two PN junction
c. three PN junction
d. 1.5 PN junction

Answer a. one PN junction

12 The doping level in a zener diode is
______that of a crystal diode.
a. more than
b. less than
c. the same as
d. none of these

Answer a. more than

13. The most widely used rectifier circuit is
______.
a. half wave
b. center tap
c. bridge type
d. book type

Answer c. bridge type

14. If PIV rating of a diode is exceeded, the
diode ________.
a. stops conduction
b. is destroyed
c. conducts heavily in the forward direction
d. is not destroyed

Answer b. is destroyed

15. The _______filter circuit results in the best
voltage regulation
a. choke input
b. capacitor input
c. resistant input
d. transformer input

Answer a. choke input

16. A 60 Hz sine voltage is applied to the input
of a half wave rectifier, what is the output
frequency?
a. 60 Hz
b. 120 Hz
c. 30 Hz
d. 180 Hz

Answer a. 60 Hz

17. If the load resistance of a capacitor filtered
- full wave rectifier is reduced, the ripple
voltage
a. increases
b. decreases
c, is not affected
d. has different frequency

Answer a. increases

18. Load regulation is determined by
a. changes in load current and input voltage
b. changes in load current and output voltage
c. changes in load resistance and input voltage
d. changes in zener current and load current

Answer b. changes in load current and output
voltage

19. If you are checking a 60 Hz full-wave bridge
rectifier and observe that the output has a 60
Hz ripple,
a. the circuit is working properly
b. the transformer secondary is shorted
c. there is an open diode
d. the filter capacitor is leaky

Answer c. there is an open diode

20. The cathode of a zener diode in a voltage
regulator is normally
a. more positive than the anode
b. more negative than the anode
c. at +0.7 V
d. grounded

Answer a. more positive than the anode

21. A no load condition means that
a. the load has infinite resistance
b. the load has zero resistance
c. the output terminals are pen
d. answers a and c

Answer d. answers a and c

22. The internal resistance of a photodiode
a. increases with light intensity when reversed
bias
b. decreases with light intensity when reversed
bias
c. increases with light intensity when forward
bias
d. decreases with light intensity when forward
bias

Answer b. decreases with light intensity when
reversed bias

23. A diode that has a negative resistance is the
________.
a. Schottky diode
b. Tunnel diode
c. Laser diode
d. hot-carrier diode

Answer b. Tunnel diode

24. The small value of direct current that flows
when a semiconductor device has a reverse bias
(November, 1999)
a. surge current
b. bias current
c. reverse current
d. current limit

Answer c. reverse current


25. How does a junction diode rated?
(November, 1996)
a. maximum reverse current and PIV
b. maximum forward current and PIV
c. maximum forward current and capacitance
d. maximum reverse current and capacitance

Answer b. maximum forward current and PIV

26. Where do you measure the positive direct
current output voltage from a half wave
rectifier circuit? (November, 2003)
a. anode terminal
b. any terminal
c. cathode terminal
d. ground terminal

Answer c. cathode terminal

27. The main disadvantage of a conventional
full-wave rectifier is that the peak voltage
is_____that of a half wave rectifier. (November,
2003)
a. triple
b. half
c. double
d. quadruple

Answer b. half

28. What is the condition of the diode in a
series limiter when the output is developed?
(November, 2003)
a. conducting
b. cut-off
c. shorted
d. shunted

Answer a. conducting

29. As a rule of thumb, what is an acceptable
ratio of back-to-forward resistance for a diode?
(November, 2003)
a. 2 to 1
b. less than 10 to 1
c greater than 10 to 1
d. 5 to 1

Answer c. greater than 10 to 1

30. What do you call the tiny crystal of
semiconductor material that glows when an
electric current passes through it? (November,
2003)
a. LED
b. laser beam
c. photon
d. liquid crystal

Answer d. liquid crystal
31. The percentage change in output voltage for
a given change in load current is called________
(November, 2003)
a. load regulation
b. line regulation
c. output regulation
d. voltage regulation

Answer a. load regulation

32. How many diodes does a bridge circuits
require? (April, 2004)
a. two diodes
b. three diodes
c. five diodes
d. four diodes

Answer d. four diodes

33. What type of circuit would a zener diode is
most likely used in? (April, 2004)
a. voltage regulator
b. amplifier
c. oscillator
d. rectifier

Answer a. voltage regulator

34. What is the correct operating voltage for a
typical LED? (April, 2004)
a. +3 to +6 V
b. -6 to +5 V
c. +12 to +18 V
d. 0 to +120 V

Answer a. +3 to +6 V

35. The ratio of a varactors capacitance at
specified minimum voltage to the capacitance
at a specified maximum voltage.
a. tuning ratio
b. percentage ratio
c. capacity ratio
d. efficiency ratio

Answer a. tuning ratio

VIII TRANSISTORS AND AMPLIFIERS

1. A PNP transistor is made of
a. silicon
b. germanium
c. carbon
d. either silicon or germanium

Answer d. either silicon or germanium

2. The transistor is usually encapsulated in
a. graphite powder
b. enamel paint
c. epoxy raisin
d. black plastic

Answer c. epoxy raisin

3. Power transistors are invariably provided
with
a. solder connections
b. heat sink
c. metallic casing
d. screw bolt

Answer b. heat sink

4. The transistor specification number 2N refers
to a
a. diode
b. junction transistor
c. FET with one gate
d. SCR

Answer b. junction transistor

5. Which if the following is necessary for a
transistor action?
a. the base region must be very wide
b. the base region must be very narrow
c.the base region must be made from
insulating materials
d. the collector region must be heavily doped

Answer b. the base region must be very narrow

6. As compared to a CB amplifier a CE amplifier
has
a. low current amplification
b. higher current amplification
c.lower input resistance
d. higher input resistance

Answer b. higher current amplification

7. It is the most stable type of circuit biasing
a. self-bias
b. signal bias
c. voltage-divider bias
d. fixed bias

Answer c. voltage-divider bias

8. The quiescent state of a transistor implies
a. zero bias
b. no output
c. no distortion
d. no input signal

Answer d. no input signal

9. Each of the 2 cascaded stages has a voltage
gain of 30. What is the overall gain?
a.3
b. 9
c. 30
d. 900

Answer d. 900
Solution
G
total
= (30)(30) = 900

10. Which class of amplifiers operates with the
least distortion?
a.Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

Answer a. Class A

11. Which of the following circuit is the fastest
switching device?
a. JFET
b. BJT
c. MOSFET
d. Triode

Answer c. MOSFET

12. Which of the following device is a unipolar?
a. FET
b. BJT
c. Zener diode
d. LED

Answer a. FET


13. The cascaded amplifier which is often used
in the IC is
a. inductively coupled
b. capacitively coupled
c. direct coupled
d. transformer coupled

Answer c. direct coupled

14. Highest operating frequency can be
expected in case of
a. bipolar transistor
b. JFET
c. MOSFET
d. IGFET

Answer a. bipolar transistor

15. Which of the following is expected to have
the highest input impedance?
a. MOSFET
b. JFET amplifier
c. CE bipolar transistor
d. CC bipolar transistor

Answer a. MOSFET

16. The ______is quite popular in digital circuits
especially in CMOS which require very low
power consumption.
a. JFET
b. BJT
c. D-type MOSFET
d. E-type MOSFET

Answer d. E-type MOSFET

17. What is the amplification factor in FET
transistor amplifiers?
a. Zi
b. gm
c. I
D

d. I
G


Answer b. gm

18. The E-MOSFET is quite popular in what type
of applications.
a. digital circuitry
b. high frequency
c.buffering
d. a, b and c

Answer d. a, b and c

19. A JFET just operates with specifically
a. the drain connected to ground
b. gate to source PN junction forward biased
c. gate connected to the source
d. gate to source PN junction reverse biased

Answer d. gate to source PN junction reverse
biased

20. The main difference of a MOSFET from a
JFET is that
a. JFET has PN junction
b. of the power rating
c. MOSFETS has two gates
d. MOSFETs do not have physical
channel

Answer a. JFET has PN junction

21. A small signal amplifier
a. uses only a small portion of its loadline
b. always has an output signal in the mV
range
c. goes into saturation once on each input
cycle
d. is always a common emitter amplifier

Answer a. uses only a small portion of its
loadline

22. The parameter h
fe
corresponds to
a.
DC

b.
AC

c. r
e

d. r
c


Answer b.
AC


23. If the DC emitter current in a certain
transistor amplifier is 3 mA, the approximate
value of re is
a. 3K
b. 3
c. 8.33
d. 0.33 K

Answer c. 8.33
Solution
re = O = 66 . 8
mA 3
mV 26


24. The input resistance of a common base
amplifier is
a. very low
b. very high
c. the same as CE
d. the same as CC

Answer a. very low

25. Each stage of a four stage amplifier has a
voltage gain of 15. The overall voltage gain is
a. 60
b.15
c. 50625
d. 3078

Answer c. 50625
Solution
V
over-all
= (15)(15)(15)(15) = 50 625

26. The maximum efficiency of a transformer
coupled Class A amplifier is__.
a. 25
b. 50
c. 78.5
d. 100

Answer b. 50

27. In a MOSFET, the process of creating a
channel by the addition of charge carrier is
called.
a. inducement
b. improvement
c. balancing
d. enhancement

Answer d. enhancement

28. What is the current gain of a common base
circuit called?
a. gamma
b. delta
c. bravo
d. alpha

Answer d. alpha

29. The name of the very first transistor
a. diode
b. junction transistor
c. point contact transistor
d. triode

Answer c. point contact transistor

30. Region in a transistor that is heavily doped.
a. collector
b. emitter
c. base
d. gate

Answer b. emitter

31. In a common base amplifier the voltage
gain is_____.(April, 2003)
a. medium
b. low
c. zero
d. high

Answer d. high

32. In a common collector amplifier, the input
resistance is___.(Nov,2003)
a. high
b. zero
c. medium
d. low

Answer a. high

33. A depletion MOSFET (D-MOSFET) can
operate with which of the following gate-source
voltage? (November, 2003)
1. zero
2. positive
3. negative
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer b. 3 only

34. What problem is caused by a loosely
coupled transformer in an RF amplifier? (April,
2004)
a. a too narrow bandpass
b. over coupling
c. optimum coupling
d. a too-wide bandpass

Answer a. a too narrow bandpass

35. Normally, how are high power tubes
tested? (April, 2004)
a. visually
b. individually
c. in their circuit
d. use portable testers

Answer c. in their circuit

VIII FEEDBACK AMPLIFIERS AND
OSCILLATORS

1. Who developed negative feedback?
a. Harold Black
b. Herald Black
c. Ronald Black
d. Blackdyak

Answer a. Harold Black

2. A portion of the output is taken and is
connected in the input.
a. feedback systems
b. amplifers
c. clampers
d. clippers

Answer a. feedback systems

3. This type of feedback increases the gain of
the system
a. positive feedback
b. negative feedback
c. degenerative feedback
d. zero feedback

Answer a. positive feedback

4. A circuit capable of providing a repetitive
output wave from an externally generated input
signal
a. amplifier
b. oscillator
c. feedback
d. regulator

Answer b. oscillator

5. What do you call the phenomenon that a
mechanical stress produces a potential
difference across the opposite faces of crystals?
a. photoelectric effect
b. piezoelectric effect
c. mechatronics effect
d hall effect

Answer b. piezoelectric effect

6. What type of crystal exhibit the highest
piezoelectric activity?
a. tourmaline
b. Rochelle salt
c. diamond
d. quartz crystal

Answer b. Rochelle salt
7. Blocking oscillator are used as
a. abrupt pulse generator
b. high impedance switches
c. low impedance switches
d. signal generator

Answer b. high impedance switches

8. A phase shift oscillator consist of number of
a. RC circuits
b. RL circuits
c. LC circuits
d. FET circuits

Answer a. RC circuits

9. To sustain oscillations, circuits must exhibit
a. hall effect
b. fly effect
c. flywheel effect
d. shake effect

Answer c. flywheel effect

10. A monostable multivibrator can be used to
generate
a. sweep
b. pulse
c. sinusoids
d. DC

Answer a. sweep

11. The main feature of crystal oscillator is
a. economy
b. reliability
c. stability
d. high frequency

Answer c. stability

12. In a certain oscillator, Av = 50, the
attenuation of the feedback circuit must
be______.
a. 1
b. 0.01
c. 10
d. 0.02

Answer d. 0.02
Solution
= 02 . 0
50
1
=

13. An oscillator differs from an amplifier
because
a. it has more gain
b. it requires no DC supply
c. it requires no input signal
d. it always has the same output

Answer c. it requires no input signal

14. Wien Bridge oscillators are based on
a. positive feedback
b. the piezoelectric effect
c. negative feedback
d. high gain

Answer a. positive feedback

15. For an oscillator to properly start, the gain
around the feedback loop must initially be
a. 1
b. less than 1
c. greater than 1
d. equal to

Answer c. greater than 1

16. The loop gain in a phase shift oscillator must
be_______degrees.
a. 45
b. 90
c. 180
d. 360

Answer c. 180

17. An oscillator using a capacitive voltage
divider to provide feedback.
a. Hartley
b. Colpitts
c. Armstrong
d. Phase shift

Answer b. Colpitts

18. The oscillator with the best frequency
stability and accuracy
a. Hartley
b. Colpitts
c. Clapp
d. Crystal-controlled

Answer d. Crystal-controlled

19. An oscillator circuit is mainly
a. DC to AC converter
b. DC to DC converter
c. AC to DC converter
d. AC to AC converter

Answer a. DC to AC converter

20. If the gain of an amplifier without feedback
is 10 and with negative feedback is 8, then the
feedback fraction is
a. 0.025
b. 0.9
c. 0.8
d. 0.225

Answer a. 0.025
Solution
A =
| + A 1
A

8 =
) )( 10 ( 1
10
| +

| = 0.025

21. The gain with negative feedback is
approximately ______when the feedback
fraction is 0.01.
a. 10
b. 100
c. 500
d. 1000

Answer b. 100
Solution
A = 1/0.01 = 100

22. What happens to the input resistance of an
amplifier employing current-shunt feedback?
a. increased
b. remains the same
c. decreased
d. equals infinity

Answer c. decreased

23. An oscillator always needs an amplifier with
a. Positive feedback
b. Negative feedback
c. Degenerative feedback
d. all of the above

Answer a. Positive feedback

24. An RC phase shift oscillator
uses______amplifier.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class AB

Answer a. Class A

25. A Wien Bridge oscillator is sometimes called
a
a. Trap
b. Band pass filter
c. Phase shifter
d. Wheatstone bridge

Answer a. trap

26. _______damping is the progressive decay
with time in the amplitude of the free
oscillation in a circuit.
a. decrement
b. pulse decay time
c. damping
d. transient

Answer c. damping

27. Link coupling is also called
a. capacitive coupling
b. transformer coupling
c. resistive coupling
d. power coupling

Answer b. transformer coupling

28. The kind of oscillator found in an electronic
wristwatch is the
a. Armstrong
b. Clapp
c. Colpitts
d. Quartz crystal

Answer d. Quartz crystal

29. Which of the following minerals provides
the highest piezoelectric effect?
a. Tourmaline
b. Rochelle Salt
c. Quartz
d. Diamond

Answer b. Rochelle Salt

30. A crystal is like _______before it is mounted
in its holder.
a. high pass filter
b. series resonant circuit
c. anti-resonant circuit
d. low pass filter

Answer b. series resonant circuit

31. A microwave oscillator is
a. Hartley oscillator
b. Colpitts oscillator
c. Relaxation oscillator
d. Klystron oscillator

Answer d. Klystron oscillator

32. Type of oscillator whose frequency is
dependent on the charge and discharge of the
RC networks.
a. Hartley oscillator
b. Colpitts oscillator
c. Relaxation oscillator
d. Klystron oscillator

Answer c. Relaxation oscillator

33. Which of the following is not an essential
part of an oscillator?
a. source of energy that supply the losses in
tank circuit
b. a resistor IC combination circuit
c. resonant circuit consists of inductance and
capacitance
d. regenerative feedback circuit

Answer b. a resistor IC combination circuit

34. Circuits that produces alternating or
pulsating current or voltage
a. damper
b. generator
c. oscillator
d. mixer

Answer c. oscillator

35. Crystals have a very
a. low Q
b. high Q
c. small inductance
d. large resistance

Answer b. high Q

X MICROELECTRONICS

1. It is a layer of photosensitive material that is
first coated in a wafer during photolithographic
process.
a. mask
b. photoresist
c. photomaterial
d. silicon dioxide

Answer b. photoresist

2. It is a combination of film and monolithic IC
techniques that is being applied to variety of
multichip integrated circuits.
a. mixture
b. hybrid
c. combined
d. fusion

Answer b. hybrid

3. Thick film employs silk screen techniques in
the formation of passive components, what is
then the process involve for thin film circuits for
the same purpose?
a. cathode sputtering technique
b. anode sputtering technique
c. isolation diffusion
d. metallization

Answer a. cathode sputtering technique

4. In IC production, it is the introduction of
controlled small quantities of a material into the
crystal structure for modification of its electrical
characteristics
a. Etching
b. Doping
c. Epitaxial growth
d. Diffusion

Answer d. Diffusion

5. What is the process that is being defined
when the metal is bombarded by high velocity
inert gas atoms causing some atoms of the
metal to be dislodge
a. evaporation
b. bombardment
c. sputtering
d. diffusion

Answer c. sputtering

6. An integrated circuit op-amps
has___________.
a. two inputs and two outputs
b. two inputs and one output
c. one input and two outputs
d. multiple inputs and one output

Answer b. two inputs and one output

7. In the differential mode,
a. opposite polarity signals are applied to the
inputs
b. the gain is 1
c. the outputs are differential amplitudes
d. only one supply voltage is used

Answer a. opposite polarity signals are applied
to the inputs

8. The output of a particular op-amp increases
8V in 12s. The slew rate is______.
a. 96 V/ s
b. 0.67 V/ s
c. 1.5 V/ s
d. 96 V- s

Answer b. 0.67 V/ s
Solution
Slew Rate = s / V 67 . 0 =
12
8


9. The purpose of offset nulling on operational
amplifier is to_______.
a. reduce the gain
b. equalize the input signal
c. zero the output error voltage
d. both b and c

Answer c. zero the output error voltage

10. A voltage follower________.
a. has a gain of 1
b. has no feedback resistor
c. is non-inverting
d. all of these

Answer d. all of these

11. The midrange open loop gain of an op-amp
a. extends from the low critical to the
upper critical frequency
b. extends from 0 Hz to the upper critical
frequency
c. rolls off at 20 dB/decade beginning at 0
Hz
d. answers b and c

Answer b. extends from 0 Hz to the upper
critical frequency

12. The frequency at which the open loop gain
is equal to 1 is called
a. upper critical frequency
b. cut-off frequency
c. notch frequency
d. the unity gain frequency

Answer d. the unity gain frequency

13. Phase shift in an op-amp is caused by:
a. the internal RC circuits
b. the external RC circuits
c. the gain roll off
d. the negative feedback

Answer a. the internal RC circuits

14. Each RC circuit in op-amp
a. causes the gain to roll off at -6 dB/octave
b. causes the gain to roll off at -20
dB/decade
c. reduces the midrange gain by 3 dB
d. both a and b

Answer d. both a and b

15. When a negative feedback is applied to an
op amp, what will happen to the gain-
bandwidth product?
a. increases
b. decreases
c. stays the same
d. fluctuate

Answer c. stays the same

16. If a certain op-map has a mid-range open
loop gain of 200 000 and a unity gain frequency
of 5 MHz, what is the gain-bandwidth product?
a. 200 000 Hz
b. 100 000 000 Hz
c. 5 000 000 Hz
d. 25 Hz

Answer c. 5 000 000 Hz
Explanation:
Gain-bandwidth product = Unity gain
frequency

17. In a zero-level detector, the output changes
state when the input
a. is positive
b. crosses zero
c. is negative
d. has a zero rate of change

Answer b. crosses zero
18. The zero level detector is one application of
a
a. comparator
b. summing amplifier
c. differentiator
d. diode

Answer a. comparator

19. Noise on the input of a comparator can
cause the output to
a. hang up in one state
b. go to zero
c. change back and forth erratically between
two states
d. produced the amplified noise signal

Answer c. change back and forth erratically
between two states

20. A comparator with hysteresis
a. has one trgigger point
b. has two trigger points
c. has a variable trigger point
d. is like a magnetic circuit

Answer b. has two trigger points

21. In a comparator, what is the purpose of
output bounding?
a. makes it faster
b. keeps the output positive
c. limits the output levels
d. stabilizes the output

Answer c. limits the output levels

22. If the voltage gain for each input of a
summing amplifier with a 4.7 K feedback
resistor is unity, the input resistors must have
the value of______.
a. 4.7 K
b. 4.7 K divided by the number of inputs
c. 4.7 K times the number of inputs
d. dependent on the number of inputs

Answer a. 4.7 K

23. An averaging amplifier has five inputs. The
ratio of Rf/Ri must be
a. 5
b. 0.2
c. 1
d. 0

Answer b. 0.2
Solution
Rf/Ri = 2 . 0 =
5
1

24. In a scaling adder, the input resistors are:
a. all the same value
b. all of different values
c. each proportional to the weight of
its input
d. related by a factor of two

Answer c. each proportional to the weight of
its input

25. In an integrator, the feedback element is a
a. resistor
b. capacitor
c. zener diode
d. voltage divider

Answer b. capacitor

26. For a step input, the output of the
integrator is:
a. a pulse
b. a triangular waveform
c. a spike
d. a ramp

Answer d. a ramp

27. The rate of change of an integrators output
voltage in response to a step input is set by:
a. RC time constant
b. amplitude of the step input
c. the current through the capacitor
d. all of these

Answer d. all of these

28. In a differentiator, what is the feedback
element is a
a. resistor
b. inductor
c. capacitor
d. diode

Answer a. resistor

29. The output of a differentiator is
proportional to
a. the RC time constant
b. amplitude of the input
c. the rate at which the input is
changing
d. both a and b

Answer d. both a and b

30. When you apply a triangular waveform to
the input of a differentiator, the output is
a. a dc level
b. inverted triangular waveform
c. square waveform
d. first harmonic of the triangular waveform

Answer d. first harmonic of the triangular
waveform

31. In order to make a basic instrumentation
amplifier which is usually used in high noise
environment, it takes
a. one op-amp with certain feedback
arrangements
b. two op-amps and seven resistor
c. three op-amps and seven resistor
d. three op-amps and seven capacitors

Answer c. three op-amps and seven resistor

32. Typically, an instrumentation amplifier has
an external resistor used for:
a. establishing the input impedance
b. setting the voltage gain
c. setting the current gain
d. interfacing with an instrument

Answer b. setting the voltage gain

33. Operational Transconductance Amplifier
(OTA) is basically a
a. voltage to current amplifier
b. current to voltage amplifier
c. current to current amplifier
d. voltage to voltage amplifier

Answer a. voltage to current amplifier

34. The operation of a logarithmic amplifier is
based on
a. nonlinear operation of op-amp
b. logarithmic characteristics of pn junction
c. reverse breakdown characteristics of a pn
junction
d. logarithmic charge and discharge of RC
circuit

Answer b. logarithmic characteristics of pn
junction

35. In op-amps functional block diagram, what
follows the differential amplifier?
a. cascode amplifier
b. complementary amplifier
c. level shifter
d. high gain amplifier

Answer d. high gain amplifier

36. How does the input of the op-amp made
high?
a. by using super beta transistor at the input
differential stage
b. by using FETs at the input differential
stage
c. by connecting a very high resistance in
series with the input differential stage
d. both a and b

Answer d. both a and b

37. What type of amplifier is commonly
connected at the output stage of the op-amps?
a. differential amplifier
b. cascade am0plifier
c. complementary amplifier
d. darlington stage amplifier

Answer c. complementary amplifier

38. Why do most operational amplifier uses
common collector configuration at the output
stage?
a. to have a higher output power
b. to have a better frequency response
c. to have a low harmonic distortion
d. to have a very low output resistance

Answer d. to have a very low output
resistance

39. An operational amplifier has a common-
mode voltage gain of 20 and a differential-mode
voltage gain of 20 000, calculate the common
mode rejection ratio (CMRR).
a. 20
b. 1 000
c. 10 000
d. 20 000

Answer b. 1 000
Solution
CMRR= 1000 =
20
20000
=
Ac
Ad


40. The approximate value of the bias current
compensating resistor in op-amp circuits is
a. equal to the feedback resistor
b. equal to the input resistor
c. equal to the series combination of the
input and feedback resistors
d. equal to the parallel combination of the
input and feedback resistors

Answer d. equal to the parallel combination of
the input and feedback resistors

41. In op-amp analysis, the input offset voltage
is represented by
a. battery
b. signal generator
c. Thevenins voltage source
d. Nortons current source

Answer a. battery
42. In most Ac amplifiers using op-amps, the
feedback resistor is shunted with a very small
capacitance, what is its purpose?
a. to prevent oscillation
b. to improve stability
c. to minimize high frequency noise
d. to compensate for high frequency loss

Answer c. to minimize high frequency noise

43. 8-PIN pin and SMT are among the most
popular op-amp packages. Which among the
following corresponds to TO-99?
a. metal can
b. SMT
c. 8-pin DIP
d. quadpack

Answer a. metal can

44. What is the package designation of Dual-In-
Line package?
a. TO-99
b. TO-91
c. TO-116
d. TO-220

Answer c. TO-116

45. Which of the following is the unity gain
frequency of a 741 op-amp?
a. 10 Hz
b. 20 KHz
c. 1 MHz
d. 15 MHz

Answer c. 1 MHz

46. Current cannot flow to the ground through
a. mechanical ground
b. an ac ground
c. a virtual ground
d. an ordinary ground

Answer c. a virtual ground

47. The temperature range of operational
amplifiers for military use is:
a. -80C - 150C
b. -45C - 200C
c. 0C - 70C
d. -55C - 125C

Answer d. -55C - 125C

48. An astable multivibrtaor has
a. 1 stable state
b. 2 stable state
c. two quasi stable state
d. no stable state

Answer c. two quasi stable state

49. In bistable multivibrator, speed up or
commutating capacitors are used to______.
a. to obtain time delay
b. to obtain constant output swing
c. to make multivibrator state more stable
d. to improve resolution time

Answer d. to improve resolution time

50. ______is used for counting of binary
information.
a. clamper circuit
b. Schmitt trigger
c. bistable vibrator
d. monostable vibrator

Answer c. bistable vibrator

51. _______can be used to delay a circuit
a. clamper circuit
b. Schmitt trigger
c. bistable vibrator
d. monostable vibrator

Answer d. monostable vibrator

52. The maximum frequency of the output
waveform of a bistable multivibrator ;
a. is constant for all multivibrator
b. depends upon the maximum frequency of
the trigger signal
c. is infinity
d. is limited by the resolution time of the
multivibrator

Answer d. is limited by the resolution time of
the multivibrator

53. The frequency of the monostable vibrator
is_______the frequency of the triggering pulses.
a. equal to
b. one half
c. twice
d. thrice

Answer a. equal to

54. What is the pin number designation of the
output of a 555 timer?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

Answer a. 3

55. Pin number 5 of the 555 timer is the
_______.
a. supply voltage
b. control voltage
c. threshold
d.. ground

Answer b. control voltage

XI INDUSTRIAL ELECTRONICS

1. An electronic switch that has the highest
single device current capacity and can
withstand overloads better
a. thyratrons
b. ignitrons
c. SCR
d. triac

Answer c. SCR

2. It is the fusion or growing of the materials
being together.
a. coalition
b. coincidence
c. coalescense
d. mixing

Answer c. coalescense

3. Identify which of the following is a three layer
device.
a. SCS
b. Diac
c. Triac
d. PUT

Answer b. diac

4. What device can be modeled by a diode and
two resistors?
a. BJT
b. DIAC
c. SCR
d. UJT

Answer d. UJT

5. A junction that is formed by adding
controlled amounts of an impurity to the melt
during crystal growth is termed as
a. fused junction
b. unijunction
c. alloy junction
d. doped junction

Answer d. doped junction

6. A Triac is a _________.
a. 2 terminal switch
b. 2 terminal bilateral switch
c. 3 terminal unilateral switch
d. 3 terminal bidirectional switch

Answer d. 3 terminal bidirectional switch

7. Arc welding requires a voltage
around_________.
a. 60-100 V
b. 150-200 V
c. 400-440 V
d. 1000 5000 V

Answer a. 60 100V

8. During Arc Welding, the current is in the
range of ________-.
a.1 5 A
b. 5 50 A
c. 50 400 A
d. 500 4000 A

Answer c. 50 400A

9. The body structure of the car is welded by:
a. gas welding
b. spot welding
c. induction welding
d. arc welding

Answer b. spot welding

10. A thyristor equivalent of a thyratron tube is
________.
a. diac
b. triac
c. SCR
d. PUT

Answer c. SCR

11. Which of the following describes a triac?
a. conducts when not triggered
b. conducts when not triggered in both
directions
c. conducts when triggered in one direction
d. conducts when triggered in both direction

Answer d. conducts when triggered in both
directions

12. A thyristor is basically ________.
a. PNPN device
b. a combination of diac and triac
c. a set of SCRs
d. a set of SCR, diac and triac

Answer a. PNPN device

13. What is the PNPN device with two gates?
a. diac
b. triac
c. SUS
d. SCS

Answer d. SCS

14. Which device incorporates a terminal for
synchronizing purposes?
a. diac
b. triac
c. SUS
d. SCR

Answer c. SUS

15. An SCR is a ________.
a. unijunction device
b. device with three junctions
c. device with four junctions
d. device with two junctions

Answer b. device with three junctions

16. A thyristor can be turned off
a. by reducing the anode current below the
holding current value
b. by reversing the anode voltage
c. either a or b
d. both a and b

Answer. d. both a and b

17. Minimum duration of pulse triggering
system for thyristors is _______.
a. at least 10 microseconds
b. at least 30 milliseconds
c. at least 10 milliseconds
d. at least 1 second

Answer a. 10 microseconds

18. A device that cannot be triggered by voltage
of either polarity is _____.
a. diac
b. triac
c. SCS
d. all of the above

Answer c. SCS

19. Technically, what is dicing means?
a. process of joining two diacs
b. circuit of reducing noise
c. device for reducing magnetic and radio
interference
d. process of breaking the silicon slice into
chips

Answer d. process of breaking the silicon slice
into chips

20. The term used to describe the process
whereby two transistors with positive feedback
are used to simulate the action of the thyristor.
a. Arcing
b. Latching
c. Damping
d. Switching

Answer b. Latching

21. It is the minimum anode current to hold a
thyristor at conduction
a. trigger
b. maintaining current
c. holding current
d. threshold voltage

Answer c. holding current

22. Electron tube containing mercury
functioning as a rectifier
a. Thyratron
b. Ignitron
c. Thyrector
d. SCR

Answer b. Ignitron

23. How do you stop the conduction during
which the SCR is also conducting?
a. remove voltage gate
b. increase cathode voltage
c. interrupt anode current
d. reduce gate current

Answer c. interrupt anode current

24. A series RC connected in parallel with an
SCR to eliminate false triggering is the_______.
a. crowbar
b. snubber
c. varistor
d. eliminator

Answer b. snubber

25. Which are the three terminals of a TRIAC?
a. gate, anode1 and anode2
b. gate, source and sink
c. base, emitter and collector
d. emitter, base1 and base2

Answer a. gate, anode1 and anode2

26. For inspection of welding defects in thick
metals, which of the following ray is used to
photograph thick metals objects?
a. gamma rays
b. cosmic rays
c. infrared rays
d. ultraviolet rays

Answer a. gamma rays

27. The minimum emitter to base voltage to
trigger the UJT is the ________.
a. forward breakover voltage
b. Trigger
c. Breakdown voltage
d. Peak voltage

Answer d. Peak voltage

28. The ratio of the emitter to base1 resistance
to the interbase resistance of a UJT is
called_______.
a. aspect ratio
b. Current Gain
c. Voltage Gain
d. Intrinsic Standoff ratio

Answer d. Intrinsic Standoff Ratio

29. For a UJT, it is the region between the peak
and valley points as seen in its characteristics
curve.
a. Active region
b. Negative resistance region
c. Trigger region
d. Saturation region

Answer b. Negative resistance region

30. This device is two zener diodes connected
back to back in series and is used to support
voltage surges and transients.
a. thyristor
b. varactor
c. thyrector
d. phanatron

Answer c. thyrector

31. Refers to the number of degrees o an AC
cycle during which the SCR is turned ON.
a. conduction angle
b. firing delay angle
c. induction angle
d. ON angle

Answer a. conduction angle

32. It is the name given to the variety of rotary,
electromechanical, position sensing devices?
a. synchro
b. gyro
c. servo
d. motor

Answer a. synchro

33. It is a system in which a precise movement
of a large load is controlled by a relatively weak
control signal.
a. synchro
b. servo
c. gyro
d. motor

Answer b. servo

34. What is the primary purpose of a synchro
system?
a. precise and rapid transmission of data
between stations
b. accurate measurement of distances
c. to introduced stability to the system
d. gives additional mobility

Answer a. precise and rapid transmission of
data between stations

35. This is a very important method used in
synchro receivers to prevent the rotor from
spinning or oscillating,
a. jumping
b. precession
c. corresponding
d. damping

Answer d. damping

36. When will a synchro generate more heat
than it is design to handle?
a. when underload
b. when overshoot
c. when overload
d. when exposed to fire

Answer c. when overload

37. When can a maximum voltage is induced in
the stator coil of a synchro?
a. when the stator coil rotates
b. when the rotor coil is aligned with the
stator coil
c. when both coils rotates
d. when the rotor coil is magnetized by the
stator coil

Answer b. when the rotor coil is aligned with
the stator coil

38. It is the name given to the electrical output
of the control transformer
a. error signal
b. correct signal
c. differential signal
d. error free signal

Answer a. error signal

39. In a servo system, there are series of
overshoots which are known as :
a. eating
b. climbing
c. hunting
d. resting

Answer c. hunting

40. This principle stabilizes a system to minimize
the problem of overshoot.
a. clamping
b. fanning
c. damping
d. lagging

Answer c. damping

41. It is the property of gyro causing it to tilt in a
direction perpendicular to the direction of any
outside force.
a. Recession
b. Tecession
c. Precession
d. Post session

Answer c. Precession

42. It is the tendency of a spinning wheel to
remain in fixed position in space.
a. mobility
b. rigidity
c. accuracy
d. alternativity

Answer b. rigidity

43. A universally mounted gyro has how many
gimbals?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

Answer b. two

44. In what direction will a gyro precess in
response to an outside force?
a. perpendicular to the force
b. perpendicular to the spin axis
c. parallel to the force
d. parallel to the spin axis

Answer a. perpendicular to the force

45. How many degrees of freedom does a rate
gyro usually have?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

Answer a. one

46. What gyro characteristics provide the basis
for the operation of rate gyro?
a. decision
b. precession
c. weight
d. spin

Answer b. precession

47. Of the following term, which accurately
describes a synchro?
a. position sensing
b. electromechanical
c. rotary
d. all of the above

Answer d. all of the above

48. Control systems are used in what particular
application.
a. light load
b. heavy load
c. medium load
d. all of the above

Answer b. heavy load

49. What is defined as a device that gives an
indication usually in the form of a voltage that is
proportional to the acceleration to which it is
subjected? (April, 2004)
a. inertia meter
b. accelerometer
c. Speedometer
d. voltmeter

Answer b. accelerometer

50. Who discovered the principle of gyros?
a. Leon Focult
b. Tiger Focult
c. Leonard Focult
d. John Davis Focult

Answer a. Leon Focult

XII - ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTATION

1. Errors in analog meter reading due to your
physical position with respect to the meter
scale
a. parallax error
b. angular error
c. linear error
d. deviation

Answer a. parallax error

2. Instrument having recognized permanent or
stable value that is used as a reference.
a. standard instrument
b. reference instrument
c. fixed instrument
d. ideal instrument

Answer a. standard instrument

3. The smallest change in measured variable to
which an instrument will respond.
a. quantized value
b. resolution
c. minimum
d. step size

Answer b. resolution

4. What is the most common type of meter
movement?
a. Fixed coil
b. Iron Vane
c. D Arsonval
d. Electrodynamometer

Answer c. D Arsonval

5. What ammeter is mostly used in measuring
high frequency currents?
a. electrostatic
b. moving-coil
c. dynamometer
d. thermocouple

Answer d. thermocouple

6. It is a device tat mechanically measure the
output power of a motor
a. Megger
b.Concentric-vane instrument
c. radial-vane instrument
d. dynamometer

Answer d. dynamometer

7. Error in voltmeter reading is due to
a. loading
b. battery aging
c. conversion
d. insertion

Answer a. loading

8. It is a meter that requires its own power
source.
a. voltmeter
b. ammmeter
c. wattmeter
d. ohmmeter

Answer d. ohmmeter

9. Error in ohmmeter reading is due to:
a. insertion
b. loading
c. battery aging
d. meter friction

Answer c. battery aging

10. The zero adjust control in an analog type
ohmmeter is used to
a. compensate for the differing internal
battery voltage
b. make sure the pointer is moving correctly
c. align the infinity resistance position
d. align the zero-voltage position

Answer a. compensate for the differing
internal battery voltage

11. With no added gadget, DArsonval meter
can be used to measure
a. AC
b. AC and DC
c. DC
d. dynamic resistance

Answer c. DC

12. Type of power line frequency meters
composed of vibrating ion reeds placed in
alternating magnetic field
a. induction type
b. electrodynamic type
c. resonant type
d. vibrating reed type

Answer d. vibrating reed type

13. Electrodynamometer can be used to
measure
a. AC
b. DC
c. AC and DC
d. dynamic resistance

Answer c. AC and DC

14. An iron vane is used to measure
a. AC
b. AC and DC
c. DC
d. dynamic resistance

Answer c. AC and DC

15. It is the reciprocal of the full scale current of
a meter.
a. transconductance
b selectivity
c. sensitivity
d. dynamic resistance

Answer c. sensitivity

16. What is the device that is used to measure
current without opening the circuit?
a. multi-meter
b. megger tester
c. ammeter
d. clamp probe

Answer d. clamp probe

17. A bridge used to locate accidental ground on
communication and power lines.
a. Owens bridge
b. Murray loop
c. Schering bridge
d. Kelvin bridge

Answer b. Murray loop

18. An AC bridge that measures capacitance and
dissipation factor
a. Owens bridge
b. Schering bridge
c. Heaviside bridge
d. Kelvin bridge

Answer b. Schering bridge

19. Instrumentation amplifier employs how
many op-amps?
a. 1
b. 4
c. 2
d. 3

Answer d. 3

20. It consists of a diode and an op-amp and has
the ability to clip low level signals.
a. window comparator
b. precision diode
c. level detector
d. instrumentation amplifier

Answer b. precision diode

21. An electronic measuring device that
provides instantaneous visual indication of
voltage excursions.
a. power line meter
b. voltmeter
c. oscilloscope
d. power meter

Answer c. oscilloscope

22. A_____ is a device that can test all pins of an
IC at the same time.
a. logic probe
b. pulser
c. current tracer
d. logic clip

Answer d. logic clip

23. How does an ohmmeter behaves if its
positive lead is connected to the cathode of a
diode while negative to anode?
a. has decreasing resistance
b. has unstable resistance
c. has very low resistance
d. has infinite resistance

Answer d. has infinite resistance

24. What is the purpose of the rheostat in
ohmmeter?
a. balancing resistance
b. counter resistance of measured circuit
c. compensate aging battery of the meter
d. coil resistance

Answer c. compensate aging battery of the
meter

25. In indicating instruments, what would
happen to the controlling torque if the
deflection becomes greater?
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains unchanged
d. drops to zero

Answer a. increases

26. In a moving coil ammeter, a _______ is
connected in series with the coil to compensate
for temperature variations
a. limiting resistor
b. shunt resistor
c. multiplier
d. swamping resistor

Answer d. swamping resistor

27. It is a property of spectrum analyzer
whereby it simultaneously displays the
amplitude of all the signals in the frequency
range
a. functional
b. frequency dependence
c. real time
d. on time

Answer c. real time

28. What is the distortion that is caused by non-
linear operation of amplifier?
a. harmonic distortion
b. frequency distortion
c. time distortion
d. no distortion

Answer a. harmonic distortion

29. This device extend the range of a
potentiometer very easily and conveniently
a. volt can
b. volt box
c. volt container
d. volt drawer

Answer b. volt box

30. It is the null detector of Wheatstone bridge
that indicates balance.
a. goniometer
b. oscilloscope
c. galvanometer
d. electrodynamometer

Answer c. galvanometer

31. It is a precision instrument that operates on
the null principle with primary application of
measuring unknown voltages.
a. potentiometer
b. rheostat
c. bridges
d. VOM

Answer a. potentiometer

32. It is a precision voltage divider network,
sometimes called a resistance ladder used in
conjunction with a potentiometer.
a. ladder circuits
b. hybrid circuits
c. volt box
d. black box

Answer c. volt box

33. What do you call the condition of a bridge
that indicates zero current flowing through the
detector?
a. unbalance
b. balance
c. ideal
d. perfect

Answer b. balance

34. A term used to indicate that no current is
flowing through a galvanometer, hence the
pointer is resting at center scale zero meaning
the bridge is balanced
a. No indication
b. Zero indication
c. Blank indication
d. Null indication

Answer d. Null indication

35. This is a device that is made out of similar
metals wherein contact potential is developed
across the junction of two metals.
a. thermocouple
b. photocell
c. zero set
d. thermometer

Answer a. thermocouple

36. It is the circuit in oscillator that provides
amplification of the signal to be applied to the
vertical deflection plate
a. Horizontal amplifier
b. Vertical amplifier
c. Phosphor
d. Delayed sweep

Answer a. Horizontal amplifier

37. This are patterns are form when applying
periodic signals to the deflection plates of an
oscilloscope
a. Vissaous figure
b. Jams figure
c. Lissajous figure
d. Assailus figure

Answer c. Lissajous figure

38. It is the time required for an electron beam
to return to its original position a CRT screen
after being deflected to the right by the
sawtooth waveform
a. trace time
b. retrace time
c. fly time
d. sweep return time

Answer b. retrace time

39. These are damped oscillations that occur in
improperly adjusted or poorly designed circuits
a. singing
b. ringing
c. twinkling
d. dancing

Answer b. ringing

40. These are undesired change in waveform
which can be a change in frequency, phase,
transient or intermodulation
a. drift
b. deviation
c. distortion
d. difference

Answer b. deviation

XIII MEDICAL AND BIO-ELECTRONICS


1. It is the plainly visible, colored ring that
surrounds the pupil.
a. iris
b. retina
c. cornea
d. lens

Answer a. iris

2. Who first proposed in 1985 that no two irises
are alike? They researched and documented the
potential of using the iris for identifying people
and were awarded patent in 1987.
a. Dr Leonard Flom and Dr. Aran Safir
b. D. John Daugman
c. Dr. Andrew Cope
d. Dr. Lars Rasmussen

Answer a. Dr Leonard Flom and Dr. Aran Safir

3. The official international organization in
Biometrics
a. ISO/IEC JTC1 SC 37
b. IBIA
c. INCITS M1
d. ANSI

Answer a. ISO/IEC JTC1 SC 37

4. When was Wilhelm Roentgen discovered X-
ray?
a. 1895
b. 1896
c. 1897
d. 1898

Answer a. 1895

5. This is a low-noise, biological isolation
amplifier suitable to connection to measuring
electrodes attached anywhere on the human
body
a. bios amplifier
b. physio amplifier
c. op-amp
d. bioamplifier

Answer d. bioamplifier

6. This device detects electrical signals from the
brain using the 8-16 pair of electrodes attached
to the scalp.
a. EEG
b. ECG
c. EMG
d. ENG

Answer a. EEG

7. What is the natural pacemaker of the body?
a. ventricular node
b. sinus node
c. atrium
d. aorta

Answer b. sinus node

8. This device uses a high frequency sound
waves to echo off the body to examined
kidneys, liver etc
a. Ultrasound
b. SONAR
c. X-ray
d. CT-scan

Answer a. Ultrasound

9. This medical equipment obtain multiple cross
sectional images of the organ concerned
a. Ultrasound
b. SONAR
c. X-ray
d. CT-scan

Answer d. CT-scan

10. It is a non-invasive test that records the
electrical activity of the heart
a. Electrocardiogram
b. Electromyogram
c. Electroencephalogram
d. mammography

Answer a. Electrocardiogram

11. Assess the health of the muscles and the
nerves controlling the muscles
a. Electrocardiogram
b. Electromyogram
c. Electroencephalogram
d. mammography

Answer b. Electromyogram

XIV ROBOTICS

1. A robot that has the approximate
appearance of a human being
a. Android
b. Cyborg
c. Nemic
d. Inhumanoid

Answer a. Android

2. A short term meaning a human being with
artificial limbs or organs
a. Android
b. Cyborg
c. Nemic
d. Inhumanoid

Answer b. Cyborg

3. The operational basis for a machine,
computer or mechanism to perform some
function normally associated with human
intelligence
a. Intelligence
b. Artificial Intelligence
c. Knowledge
d. Heuristics

Answer b. Artificial Intelligence

4. A robot that performs tasks in the home
a. Household robot
b. Robomaid
c. Domestic robot
d. Buddy Robot

Answer c. Domestic robot

5. A program written by Joseph Weizenbaun to
meet Turings definition of artificial intelligence.
a. MACBETH
b. ELIZA
c. AMJ
d. PARALLAX

Answer b. ELIZA

6. The desirable characteristics for handling the
robots are
a. Good pay load capacity
b. Large work space/robot size ratio
c. Simple point to point control
d. All of the above

Answer d. All of the above
7. SCARA robots are specifically designed for
______operations.
a. handling
b. welding
c. assembly
d. machining

Answer c. assembly

8. Robot classification is usually based on
a. Its manipulators anatomy
b. Its controller design
c. Its suitability for production tasks
d. All of the above

Answer d. All of the above

9. Which of the following country maintains the
highest ratio of robot worker to human worker?
a. USA
b. UK
c. Japan
d. Germany

Answer c. Japan

10. A modern industrial robot is _______.
a. multi-functional
b. servo-controlled
c. programmable
d. all of the above

Answer d. all of the above

11. DC motors and stepper motors are mainly
used in robots instead of AC motors because
they can
a. Be electronically controlled
b. Be operated by electric pulses
c. Withstand large overloads
d. Run at varying speed

Answer c. Withstand large overloads

12. Any solid object has a maximum
_______degrees of freedom.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

Answer d. 6

13. Programming of a continuous path robot is
normally carried out by a method called
________through.
a. lead
b. drive
c. walk
d. run

Answer c. walk

14. The essential feature of a non-servo
controlled robot is that
a. it requires programmable logic controller
b. each of its axis can move only between
hardware stops
c. it is small
d. it is used for heavy loads

Answer b. each of its axis can move only
between hardware stops

15. The word robot was coined by
a. Kondratieff
b. Karel Capek
c. Cyril Walter Kenward
d. Jaime Licuanan

Answer b. Karel Capek

16. ________robot is primaril;y used for
machining processes
a. Cincinatti T3
b. DEA PRAGMA
c. ADEPT One
d. Jolly 80

Answer a. Cincinatti T3

17. Serves as the muscle of the system,
produces the motion with power supplied
electrically, pneumatically or hydraulically.
a. Communicator
b. Control Computer
c. Actuator
d. Manipulator

Answer c. Actuator

18. The arm assembly of the robot.
a. End effector
b. Manipulator
c. Actuator
d. Controller

Answer b. Manipulator

19. ________is a device connected to the
wrists flange of the manipulators arm. It is
used in many different situations in the
production area.
a. End effector
b. Manipulator
c. Controller
d. Actuator

Answer a. End effector

20. Refers to the movement of the base of the
robot
a. Actuation
b. Walk
c. Travel
d. Precession

Answer c. Travel

21. What is the other name for the axes found
on the manipulator?
a. appendage
b. cycle time
c. degrees of freedom
d. actuator

Answer c. degrees of freedom

22. Describes the wrists angular movement
from the left side to the right side.
a. Pitch
b. Roll
c. Rotation
d. Yaw

Answer d. Yaw

23. _______is a computer language developed
in the 1950s at MIT. It is designed to manipulate
lists of symbols and is well suited for working
with words and phrases
a. RAIL
b. BASIC
c. LISP
d. WAVE

Answer c. LISP

24. A high level programming language which
was developed at the robotics research center
at Stanford University. It is useful for robotics
research because it can provide coordination
between two arms of the robot.
a. MCL
b. AL
c. RPL
d. Assembly language

Answer b. AL
25. It is a high level computer language
developed by Robotronic Corporation to make
commanding a personal robot easier
a. Androtext
b. ARMBASIC
c. AML
d. HELP

Answer a. Androtext

26. It is considered as the robots brain.
a. chain knucle
b. sensor
c. end effector
d. controller

Answer d. controller

27. This is used to program and teach positional
information for the manipulator.
a. operators panel
b. computer control
c. manual data input panel
d. teach pendant

Answer d. teach pendant

28. It is a robot software that produces only two
position motion
a. pick and stop programs
b. point to point programs
c. continuous path programs
d. positive stop programs

Answer d. positive stop programs

29. A user program that has the ability to move
a robot axis to any position within its range.
a. pick and place
b. point to point
c. positive stop
d. continuous path

Answer b. point to point

30. What are the basic categories of industrial
robot?
a. fast and slow
b. mechanical and electrical
c. autobots and deceptions
d. pick and place manipulator and
intelligent robot

Answer d. pick and place manipulator and
intelligent robot

31. It is a robot which is capable of decision
making and has memory.
a. pick and place robot
b. expert robot
c. continuous robot
d. intelligent robot

Answer d. intelligent robot

32. It is a robot structure wherein the body can
pivot vertically and horizontally and the arm
moves radially.
a. polar structure
b. pivotal
c. cylindrical structure
d. roborat

Answer a. polar structure

33. It is a robot structure wherein the body can
rotate horizontally and the arm can move
vertically and horizontally.
a. polar structure
b. pivotal
c. cylindrical structure
d. roborat

Answer c. cylindrical structure

34. The total weight that a robot arm can carry.
a. burden capacity
b. payload
c. gripper
d. power

Answer b. payload

35. Which is not the usual power source that
steers the arm of the robot?
a. thermionic
b. hydraulic
c. pneumatic
d. electric

Answer a. thermionic

36. The ______are two of the most common
mechanical configurations of industrial robots.
a. spherical and pneumatic
b. articulated arm and cylindrical
c. spherical and hydraulic
d. jointed-arm and electric

Answer b. articulated arm and cylindrical

37. A system in which the precise movement of
a large load is controlled by a relatively weak
signal.
a. hydraulic
b. electro
c. synchro
d. servo

Answer d. servo

38. A limited robot sequence is__________.
a. pick and place
b. point to point
c. continuous path
d. robota

Answer a. pick and place

39. The first patent for an industrial robot was
developed in 1954 by_______.
a. Asimov
b. Maniko
c. Devol
d. Hitachi

Answer c. Devol

40. The operational space of a robot
is________.
a. coordinate system
b. dead zone
c. degrees of freedom
d. work envelope

Answer c. degrees of freedom

41. The individual sections of the robot arm
between the joints are_______.
a. arms
b. branches
c. links
d. axes

Answer c. links

42. The control system for sport welding
is__________.
a. point to point
b. pick and place
c. continuous path
d. point to multi-point

Answer a. point to point

43. _______is a type of actuator of industrial
robots that has great force capability and great
holding strength when stopped.
a. pneumatic
b. steam
c. electric
d. hydraulic

Answer d. hydraulic

44. __________, a professor at MIT publishes
cybernetics, a book which describes the concept
of communications and control in electronic,
mechanical and biological systems
a. Willard Polard
b. Seward Babitt
c. John Mauchly
d. Norber Wiener

Answer d. Norber Wiener

45. Stanford Research Institute (SRI) built and
tested a mobile robot with vision capability is
called ________.
a. Unimate
b. Universal automation
c. Cybernetics
d. Shakey

Answer d. Shakey

46. Riochard Hohn for Cincinnati Milacron
Corporation develops the first commercially
available minicomputer-controlled industrial
robot. The robot is called the ______.The
Tomorrow Tool.
a. T3
b. Universal Automation
c. Versatran
d. Shakey

Answer a. T3

47. Joseph Engelberger starts Transition
Robotics, later named _______, to develop
service robots.
a. Helpmates
b. Playmates
c. Classmates
d. Servicemates

Answer a. Helpmates

48. The ability of a robot to produce meaningful
speech output
a. Speech synthesis
b. Speech detection
c. Speech refinement
d. Speech recognition

Answer a. Speech synthesis

49. The length of time in years required for a
robot to pay for itself through the savings it
provides.
a. Propagation Period
b. Delay period
c. Payload period
d. Payback Period

Answer d. Payback Period

50. Condensed human intelligence on some
subject area. A human is led through the system
by answering a series of questions asked by the
system.
a. Robot choreography
b. Expert system
c. Roboteer
d. Knowledge system

Answer b. Expert system

XV DIGITAL ELECTRONICS


1. Convert 8.50
16
- _____
8

a. 10.24
b. 8.24
c. 8.5
d. 1.24

Answer a. 10.24

2. What is the 7s complement of 1035
7
?
a. 6742
7

b. 5631
7
c. 5632
7
d. 6743
7

Answer c. 5632
7
Solution
7s KPL = 6666-1035 +1 = 5632

3. Binary 111111 is equivalent to:
a. 64
b. 63
c. 128
d. 127

Answer b. 63

4. In a digital system, the number level is:
a. 2
b. 1
c. 3
d. 4

Answer a. 2

5. In a progression of 0, 1, 10, 11.what comes
next after 11?
a. 12
b. 120
c. 110
d. 100

Answer d. 100
Note: The succeeding term is binary 1 +
previous term of the progression

6. A logic gate is an electronic circuit which
_____.
a. works on binary algebra
b. makes logical decision
c. alternates between 1 and 0
d. allow the flow of current in a single
direction
Answer b. makes logical decision

7. If A =0, B =0, then AB is
a. 1
b. 0
c. 10
d. either 1 or 0

Answer a. 1

8. In Boolean algebra, A +A+A+A++A is the
same as
a. 5A
b. nA
c. A
d. infinite

Answer c. A

9. A + B =Y is the Boolean function for
a. AND gate
b. NAND gate
c. NOR gate
d. OR gate

Answer d. OR gate

10. Which of the following is an inverter?
a. common base amplifier
b. common emitter amplifier
c. common collector amplifier
d. common gate amplifier

Answer c. common collector amplifier

11. Which gate corresponds to the action of
parallel switches?
a. OR gate
b. NOR gate
c. NAND gate
d. Not gate

Answer a. OR gate

12. The number of full adders in a 4-bit parallel
adder will be
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

Answer b. 3

13. A half adder includes
a. a NAND gate with OR gate
b. a NAND gate with XOR gate
c. only AND gate
d. neither OR nor XOR nor AND gate

Answer b. a NAND gate with XOR gate

14. A NAND gate is called a universal logic
element because
a. it is used by everybody
b. any logic function can be realized by NAND
gates alone
c. all the minimization techniques are
applicable for optimum NAND gate
realization
d. many digital computers use NAND gates

Answer b. any logic function can be realized
by NAND gates alone

15. The expression AB + AB + AC + AC will be
a. 0
b. A
c. ABC
d. 1

Answer d. 1

16. The bubble or small circle on the output of a
NAND gate and NOR gate represents;
a. addition
b. subtraction
c. product
d. complementation

Answer d. complementation

17. Current drawn when the number 8 is on the
LED display is________.
a. 140 nA
b. 140A
c. 560 mA
d. 5.6 A

Answer a. 140 nA

18. Current displayed for a four-digit liquid
crystal display that reads the number 8888 is of
the order of
a. 560 nA
b. 560 A
c. 560 mA
d. 2.6 A

Answer c. 560 mA

19. The fan out of a 7400 NAND gate is
a. 2 TTL
b. 5 TTL
c. 8 TTL
d. 10 TTL

Answer a. 2 TTL

20. What term is used to refer to the positional
value of a digit?
a. weight
b. radix
c. decimal
d. multiplier

Answer a. weight

21. The maximum propagation value in case of a
7400 NAND gates is
a. 1 second
b. 20 millisecond
c. less than 20 nanosecond
d. less than 20 picosecond

Answer c. less than 20 nanosecond

22. The refreshing rate of dynamic RAMs is in
the range of
a. 2 microseconds
b. 2 milliseconds
c. 50 milliseconds
d. 500 milliseconds

Answer b. 2 milliseconds

23. TTL circuit configuration resembles what
type of gate?
a. OR gate
b. NOR gate
c. AND gate
d. NAND gate

Answer d. NAND gate

24. Emitter Coupled Logic (ECL) has a very fast
switching speed as compared to the rest of logic
families, what is then its typical switching time?
a. 5 sec
b. 5 millisec
c. 5 microsec
d. 5 nanosec

Answer d. 5 nanosec

25. Logic circuits can be sequential or
combinational, what is the output of a
sequential circuit?
a. present input states
b. past input states
c. future input states
d. past and the present input states

Answer d. past and the present input states

26. For a TTL gate, the recommended and
standard fan out is _____.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

Answer b.10

27. Phanastron is a ________.
a. speed circuit
b. toggle circuit
c. data circuit
d. delay circuit

Answer d. delay circuit

28. To represent number 44 in binary, what is
the number of bits required?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7

Answer c. 6

29. When a logic circuit rejects an unwanted
signal, this is termed as______.
a. logic levels
b. noise margin
c. power consumption
d. propagation delay

Answer b. noise margin

30. In a system with MOS devices, the main bus
loading factor is likely to be:
a. resistive
b. current
c. capacitive
d. inductive

Answer c. capacitive

31. Data selector is also called________.
a. encoder
b. decoder
c. multiplexer
d. demultiplexer

Answer c. multiplexer

32. Refers to the ability of a logic circuit to
withstand noise superimposed on its input
signal
a. low noise immunity
b. high noise immunity
c. noise immunity
d. noise figure

Answer c. noise immunity

33. CMOS, NMOS and PMOS belong to MOS
family, what is (are) their significance?
a. they have lower power dissipation than
bipolar devices
b. they are slower than bipolar devices
c. they are most sensitive to electrostatic
d. all of the above

Answer d. all of the above

34. Another name for Universal Logic Module
(ULM)
a. Multiplexer
b. decoder
c. Demultiplexer
d. shift register

Answer a. Multiplexer

35. It is an undesirable condition which may
exist in a system when 2 or more inputs change
simultaneously.
a. race condition
b. contest
c. drive condition
d. noise immunity

Answer a. race condition

36. What is the memory element used in
clocked sequential logic circuit?
a. gates
b. Flip-flop
c. Static Ram
d. Read Only Memory

Answer b. Flip-flop

37. What is the function of flip-flop as logic
element?
a. stores binary data
b. generates clock signal
c. relay data
d. makes decision

Answer a. stores binary data

38. ______is not a type of flip flop
a. RS
b. Latch
c. D
d. register

Answer d. register

39. ______is a device that stay on once
triggered and store one or two conditions as a
digital circuit.
a. gate
b. latch
c. integrator
d. differentiator

Answer b. latch

40. A flipflop whose output is the same as its
input. This is sometimes used as a delay
element.
a. RS flipflop
b. D flipflop
c. T flipflop
d. JK flipflop

Answer b. D flipflop

41. Memory whose contents are lost when
electrical power is removed.
a. non volatile
b. volatile
c. dynamic
d. static

Answer b. volatile

42. Sequential access digital memory uses what
storage circuit?
a. parallel register
b. shift register
c. dynamic RAM
d. EEPROM

Answer b. shift register

43. The_______is ultraviolet light erasable and
electrically programmable
a. ROM
b. RAM
c. PROM
d. EPROM

Answer d. EPROM

44. In register index addressing mode the
effective address is given by:
a. index register value
b. sum of the index register value and
operand
c. the operand
d. difference of the index register value and
the operand

Answer b. sum of the index register value and
operand

45. The Integration Injection Logic has higher
density of integration than TTL because it
a. does not require transistors with high
current gain
b. uses compact bipolar transistor
c. does nor require isolation diffusion
d. uses dynamic logic instead of static logic

Answer b. uses compact bipolar transistor

46. Dynamic RAM uses capacitor as its data
storage element, while static RAM uses_____.
a. inductor
b. register
c. flip flop
d. magnet

Answer c. flip flop

47. An electronic counter in which bistable units
are cascaded to form a loop
a. ring counter
b. twisted ring counter
c. bistable counter
d. UP/DOWN counter

Answer a. ring counter




48. This type of memory sandwiches a thin film
with magnetic material between two
permanent bias magnets
a. bubble memory
b. soap memory
c. magnetic memory
d. RAM

Answer a. bubble memory

49. A memory circuit has 9 address inputs has
how many storage locations?
a. 255
b. 256
c. 512
d. 511

Answer c. 512
Solution
# of address = 2
n
= 2
9
= 512

50. The density of data stored on magnetic tape
is expressed as
a. units per inch
b. tracks per inch
c. packs per inch
d. bytes per inch

Answer d. bytes per inch

XVI COMPUTERS

1. Step by step instructions that runs the
computer are________.
a. hardware
b. CPU
c. documents
d. programs

Answer d. programs

2. Desktop and personal computers are other
names of:
a. microcomputers
b. minicomputers
c. mainframes
d. peripheral equipment

Answer a. minicomputers

3. The raw material hat is to be processed by
the computer is called_____.
a. program
b. software
c. data
d. information

Answer c. data

4. A bar code reader is an example of
a. processing device
b. input device
c. output device
d. storage device

Answer b. input device

5. The unit that transforms data into
information is the:
a. CPU
b. disk drive
c. bar code reader
d. wand reader

Answer a. CPU

6. A system whereby computers and data
storage are placed in dispersed locations is
known as:
a. centralized processing
b. distributed data processing
c. summarizing
d. packaged software

Answer b. distributed data processing
7. Another name for available for purchase
software is
a. secondary software
b. packaged software
c. system software
d. peripheral software

Answer b. packaged software

8. Which of the following is an acronym for a
computer department?
a. MIS
b. CPU
c. PDA
d. LAN

Answer a. MIS

9. People ho prepared data for processing are:
a. programmers
b. printers
c. librarians
d. data entry operators

Answer d. data entry operators

10. Another name for memory is:
a. secondary storage
b. primary storage
c. disk storage
d. tape storage

Answer b. primary storage

11. Which is not a computer classification?
a. maxicomputer
b. microcomputer
c. minicomputer
d. mainframe

Answer a. maxicomputer

12. When all access and processing is done in
one location, a computer system is said to be:
a. networked
b. centralized
c. distributed
d. linked

Answer b. centralized

13. An input device that translates motion of a
ball rolled on a flat surface to the screen is the:
a. wand reader
b. bar code reader
c. keyboard
d. mouse

Answer d. mouse

14. The most powerful computers are
the_________.
a. superinis
b. supermainframes
c. supermicros
d. supercomputers

Answer d. supercomputers

15. Laser beam technology is used for_______.
a. terminals
b. optical disk
c. keyboards
d. magnetic tape

Answer b. optical disk

16. This is a small amount of very fast memory
deigned for the specific purpose of speeding up
the internal transfer of data and software
instructions.
a. bakes
b. cache
c. flash
d. stane

Answer b. cache

17. The complex set of electrical circuitry that
executes program instructions is called the:
a. register
b. accumulator
c. central processing unit
d. bus line

Answer c. central processing unit

18. A bus line consist of_______.
a. registers
b. parallel data paths
c. accumulators
d. arithmetic operators

Answer b. parallel data paths

19. The primary storage units are also known as:
a. storage registers
b. mass storage
c. accumulators
d. memory

Answer d. memory

20. Data and instructions are put into primary
storage by:
a. memory
b. secondary storage
c. the control unit
d. the ALU

Answer c. the control unit

21. Registers that collect the results of
computations are________.
a. general purpose
b. storage registers
c. main storage
d. accumulators

Answer d. accumulators

22. During E-time, the ALU_______.
a. examines the instruction
b. executes the instruction
c. enters the instructions
d. elicits the instructions

Answer b. executes the instruction

23. When the control unit directs the ALU to
perform an operation on the data, the machine
cycle is involved I its_______.
a. first step
b. second step
c. third step
d. fourth step

Answer c. third step

24. Computer operations are synchronized by:
a. the CPU clock
b. the binary system
c. the octal system
d. E-time

Answer a. the CPU clock

25. What is a logic chip?
a. PROM
b. microprocessor
c. memory
d. ROM

Answer b. microprocessor
26. Data is represented o a computer by means
of a two-state on/off system called_______.
a. a word
b. a byte
c. the binary system
d. RAM

Answer c. the binary system

27. Memory capacity may be expressed
in_______.
a. microseconds
b. bits
c. kilobytes
d. cycles

Answer c. kilobytes

28. A type of computer that is faster because it
has fewer instructions:
a. symbolic
b. ASCII-8
c. RISC
d. ROM burner

Answer c. RISC

29. An emerging technology that provides non-
volatile memory chips is:
a. flash memory
b. CMOS
c. PROM
d. CISC

Answer a. flash memory

30. The data coding scheme that is American
Standard is:
a. ASCII
b. SIMM
c. KB
d. gigabyte

Answer a. ASCII

31. An organic chip is called a ______.
a. storage chip
b. microchip
c. biochip
d. silicon chip

Answer c. biochip

32. Entering data into the system as a by
product of the activity that generates the data is
called:
a. source data automation
b. discrete word system
c. CAD/CAM
d. MICR entry

Answer a. source data automation

33. The rate of screen refreshment is
called________.
a. pixel speed
b. bit-map speed
c. raster rate
d. scan rate

Answer d. scan rate

34. Imaging uses what device to input data?
a. scanner
b. bar code reader
c. icon
d. tablet

Answer a. scanner

35. A printer that forms characters from a series
of dots is called_______.
a. dot matrix
b. MICR
c. scanner
d. plotter

Answer a. dot matrix

36. The density of data stored on magnetic tape
is expressed as:
a. units per inch
b. tracks per inch
c. packs per inch
d. bytes per inch

Answer d. bytes per inch

37. Assigning more sectors to outer disk tracks
is called:
a. zone recording
b. data transfer
c. randomizing
d. sectoring

Answer a. zone recording

38. The ability to return a changed disk record
to its original location is called:
a. magneto optical
b. multimedia
c. rotational delay
d. updating in place

Answer d. updating in place
39. Processing transactions in groups is called:
a. data transfer
b. transaction processing
c. head switching
d. batch processing

Answer d. batch processing

40. Hashing to get an address is the process of
applying formula to a_______.
a. key
b. file
c. record
d. character

Answer a. key

41. The time required for the access arm get
into position over a particular track is_______.
a. rotational delay
b. seek time
c. data transfer
d. head switching

Answer b. seek time

42. The speed with which a disk can find data
being sought is called:
a. access time
b. direct time
c. data transfer time
d. cylinder time

Answer a. access time

43. A way of physically organizing data on a disk
pack to minimize seek time uses________.
a. sequential file
b. the cylinder method
c. removable hard disk cartridge
d. Winchester technology

Answer b. the cylinder method

44. Centralized processing but with the access
from terminals is known as
a. teleprocessing system
b. telecommuting
c. ring network
d. dial up system

Answer a. teleprocessing system

45. The presence of both data and its related
instructions in an object is_____.
a. C++
b. orientation
c. encapsulation
d. inheritance

Answer c. encapsulation

46. During the development of a program,
drawing a flow chart is a means to:
a. plan the solution
b. define the problem
c. code the program
d. define the problem

Answer a. plan the solution

47. The process of detecting, locating and
correcting logic errors is called
a. desk checking
b. debugging
c. translating
d. documenting

Answer b. debugging

48. The ability of an object to interpret a
message using its own method is called______.
a. polymorphism
b. inheritance
c. encapsulation
d. messaging

Answer a. polymorphism

49. The lowest level of programming language is
the________.
a. non procedural language
b. BASIC
c. assembly language
d. machine language

Answer d. machine language

50. The language Smalltalk is_________.
a. procedural oriented
b. problem oriented]
c. document oriented
d. object oriented

Answer d. object oriented