Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1
10. After administering a blood-pressure lowing agent, the nurse must caution the
patient:
a. To avoid straining during defecation
b. To avoid low-sodium and potassium diet
c. To avoid abrupt change of positions
d. To take warm shower immediately after taking the drug
11. The nurse prepares to give a diet appropriate for a hypertensive patient. Which food
should the nurse include in the menu?
a. Canned meat loaf
b. Scallops and shrimps
c. Fresh citrus juice and cake
d. Butter and pork steaks
12. If the physician orders Captopril as the home medication for the high BP, the nurse
must caution that the side-effect of this drug that is disturbing is:
a. Rashes
b. Cough
c. Pruritus
d. Ringing of the ears
13. If the client is discharged with home medication of Propranolol hydrochloride, the
nurse must include in her medication-teaching plan which one?
a. Take the medication on an empty stomach
b. Obtain blood pressure readings regularly
c. Perform active exercises to prevent Hypotension
d. Caution to avoid hazardous activities after taking the drug
14. The nurse determines that the following drugs are calcium channel blockers that can
be prescribed by the physician to the patient. One is not included:
a. Nifedipine
b. Verapamil
c. Telmisartan
d. Diltiazem
SITUATION: Joseph,, 50 y.o. Businessman awakens in the middle of the night with
dyspnea, bilateral basilar rales and frothy sputum. He is brought to the Mulawin
hospital. His diagnosis is congestive heart failure.
15. The physician gives the patient furosemide and digoxin. The nurse’s main concern is
to:
a. Take the central venous pressure reading
b. Observe for decrease edema
c. Observe for signs and symptoms of hypokalemia
d. Force fluids
16. The mechanism of action of dioxin that makes it useful in patients with CHF is that it:
a. Produces a negative inotropic effect
b. Increases cardiac conduction
c. Enhances cardiac contractility
d. Increases the heart rate
17. The nurse is very vigilant about digoxin overdose. Which one statement below by the
patient may alert the nurse of a possible development of toxicity?
a. “Nurse, I don’t feel like eating for the past few days”
b. “I am having constipation lately”
c. “I am developing a nagging cough and night terrors”
d. “I am experiencing dryness of the eyes and sandy sensation”
18. The nurse evaluates that the drug digoxin is effective when the patient manifests:
a. Decreased bowel sounds
b. Increased urine output
c. Increased drowsiness
d. Decreased sympathetic response of the body
19. The following manifestations must be assessed by the nurse to detect beginning
digitalis toxicity, with the exception of:
a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Palpitations
c. Diplopia and visual yellow-green halos
d. Hypertension
20. The nurse instructs the patient on diet modification during digitalis therapy. She is
certain that her teaching is effective when the patient will choose all the foods items
below, except:
a. Fresh orange juice and potato fries
b. Dried mangoes and tomato juice
2
c. Broccoli salad with bean sprouts
d. Flavored gelatin and iced tea
21. The nurse obtains an apical pulse of 78 beats/min. She is bringing the next dose of
digoxin and then proceeds to do which one action below?
a. Withhold the drug and notify the physician
b. Start IV infusion of Digibind (digoxin antibody)
c. Instruct patient to consume more meat and nuts
d. Administer the drug
3
c. Heparin will anticoauglate the blood by inhibiting vitamin K metabolism
d. The clot formed in the vein must be lysed by activating plasmin, the action of
heparin
31. If the doctor orders for heparin therapy monitoring, the nurse must obtain which
laboratory tests from the lab unit?
a. Prothrombin time
b. Clotting time
c. Partial thromboplastin time
d. Prothrombin consumption test
32. The above laboratory value must is considered therapeutic if the result is about:
a. 3 times the normal
b. 2 times the normal
c. Equals the normal
d. Less than the normal
33. The nurse must administer heparin to Mrs. Amor. She determines that the most
common routes of administration are:
a. IV and IM
b. SC and IV
c. ID and IM
d. IV and intrathecal
34. When the nurse is monitoring the patient for heparin overdose, she is observing for
the following signs/symptoms, except?
a. Ecchymoses
b. Positive Homan’s sign
c. Dark, cola-colored urine
d. Epistaxis
35. Which one effect of heparin therapy will cause nursing concern?
a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Constipation
c. Bone marrow depression
d. Dizziness
36. In the event of an overdose of heparin injection, the nurse prepares which one
antidote for toxicity?
a. Phytomenadione
b. Atropine Sulfate
c. Protamine sulfate
d. Deferoxamine chelators
37. The doctor switched from standard heparin to low molecular weight heparin injection.
The advantage of LMWH over the standard heparin is:
a. The LMWH can be administered IM
b. The LMWH does not need frequent laboratory monitoring
c. The LMWH has a better potency
d. The LMWH does not cause bleeding problems
38. The nurse reads the chart and notes for an order of oral Warfarin sodium, while the
patient is on heparin therapy. The nurse will:
a. Question the order because of potential excessive bleeding if given
simultaneously
b. Administer the drug as ordered
c. Withhold the heparin and administer the Warfarin orally
d. Report the error to the nurse supervisor as the patient may be at risk for
toxicity
39. IF Mrs. Amor is discharge with warfarin sodium, the nurse must include in her
discharge teaching which one?
a. Keep Vitamin A ampule available for injection c/o the health center in case of
emergency
b. Report any bright red blood in the stool or urine
c. Take aspirin to manage the headache side-effect of the drug
d. Utilize firm toothbrush when brushing to prevent build up of plaques and
gingival hyperplasia
40. The nurse must remind the patient that warfarin therapy is monitored with the use of
which laboratory examinations?
a. PT and PTT
b. PT and INR
c. Clotting time and bleeding time
d. Platelet count and PT
4
SITUATION: Mrs. Avery had a previous attack of mild stroke and coronary artery
disease. She is taking Aspirin.
41. The reason aspirin is utilized as an anti-platelet medication is because:
a. Aspirin can prolong the bleeding time
b. Aspirin affects the thromboxane production of the platelet
c. Aspirin interferes with the receptor binding of the platelets
d. Aspirin blocks the degranulation process inhibiting release of histamine
42. The nurse administers aspirin:
a. On an empty stomach to increase absorption
b. With meals
c. In Between meals
d. Intramuscularly
43. Mrs. Avery had a sudden severe and prolonged chest pain. Acute MI is suspected.
The nurse anticipates the doctor to order a fibrinolytic, and this may be:
a. Tranexamic Acid
b. Dipyridamole
c. Steptokinase
d. Coumadin
44. If the above drug is ordered to be given IV drip, the nurse must be aware of which
potential effect?
a. Hypersensitivity reaction
b. Congestive heart failure
c. Further damage to the myocardium
d. Excessive clot formation
45. If the patient is receiving tissue-plasminogen activator, the nurse must make which
one priority intervention?
a. Have heparin sodium available
b. Monitor closely the renal status
c. Observe for psychotic symptoms
d. Obtain a stand by Aminocaproic acid
5
c. Nausea and vomiting are potential problems alleviated by small frequent
meals
d. Suggest to buy a nebulizer machine to be used at home
e. Vitamin ADEK supplements because of impaired absorption
52. To be able to detect the effectiveness of Salbutamol, the nurse should check for:
a. Blood pressure and CVP readings
b. Urinary output per hour
c. Breath sounds
d. Level of consciousness
e. Pupillary reflexes
53. The patient is receiving theophylline capsule OD. The nurse cautions the patient to
avoid foods with components similar to theophyline and they can be:
a. Sugar and cream
b. Coffee and chocolate
c. Spinach and broccoli
d. Beans and aged cheese
e. Canned goods and wine
54. The patient is receiving theophylline capsule OD. The nurse cautions the patient to
avoid foods with components similar to theophyline and they can be:
a. Sugar and cream
b. Coffee and chocolate
c. Spinach and broccoli
d. Beans and aged cheese
e. Canned goods and wine
55. The nurse is administering acetylcysteine nebulization to a patient. It is very much
important to keep which item below at bedside?
a. Scissors
b. Ambu bag
c. Suction machine
d. Tracheostmy set
e. NG tube
56. After giving diphenhydramine to the patient, the nurse must ensure that the patient
understands the teachings below, EXCEPT:
a. Refrain from manipulating delicate machines
b. Take sugarless candy in the mouth to relieve dryness
c. Avoid taking the drug with alcohol
d. Check pulse rate before taking the drug
e. Manage gastric upset by taking it with food
57. The nurse watches out for a side-effect associated with intake of codeine sulfate and
provides appropriate intervention, this can be:
a. Constipation- provide liberal fluids
b. Excitement- provide less stimulation
c. Tachycardia- administer lidocaine
d. Polyuria- give the drug in the morning
e. Tachypnea- position on semi-fowler’s
58. Terbutaline sulfate is administered to a patient with asthma. If the patient has
another disease, the nurse is most vigilant and cautious if this condition exists:
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Polycystic ovarian disease
e. Emphysema
59. The nurse is administering oxymetazoline nasal decongestant. She includes in her
care plan all of the following interventions, EXCEPT?
a. Instruct the patient to clear the nasal passage of mucus before instilling
b. Remind patient to keep the head tilted for a few seconds after administration
c. Advise increased fluid intake
d. Encourage the use for one week for better effect
e. Caution that tachycardia and urinary retention may occur with systemic
absorption
60. The physician asks the nurse for an anticholinergic drug to be used for the asthmatic
patient. The nurse obtains from the pharmacy which drug?
a. Albuterol
b. Terbutaline
c. Metaproterenol
d. Ipratropium bromide
e. Salbutamol
6
61. The physician orders dextromethorphan for a patient who is complaining of very
uncomfortable coughing. The nurse understands that this drug acts to suppress
cough by:
a. Increasing the secretions of the bronchial glands
b. Removing the irritation from the respiratory tract
c. Inhibiting the medulla oblongata cough center
d. Inhibiting the stretch receptors in the lungs
e. Triggering the vagal responses
62. Inhaled corticosteroid like beclomethasone is administered to the patient with
asthma. It is important for the nurse to stress that this drug:
a. Acts rapidly to decrease inflammation
b. Promotes the secretion of mucus
c. May depress the immune function
d. Highly effective in terminating acute asthma attack
e. Is habituating and addicting
63. The second generation anti-histamines like cetirizine have the advantage over the
first generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine because second generation
antihistamines:
a. Have shorter duration of action that can be reversed rapidly
b. Have less sedation and anticholinergic properties
c. Posses less drug sensitivity reactions
d. Have a greater safety profile
e. Have less abuse potential
64. The nurse cautions the patient taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) to expect all of
the following side effects, except?
a. Dry mouth
b. Blurred vision
c. Urinary frequency
d. Drowsiness
e. Dizziness
65. The nurse must remember to administer theophylline slowly or with an infusion pump
because this drug, if given rapidly can cause:
a. Increased alertness
b. Severe hypotension
c. Tachycardia
d. Pallor
e. Headache