1. Consider the following: 1. Light summer rain 2. Evergreen coniferous forest 3. Cool brief summer 4. Warm, wet forests Which of the above are the characteristic features of Siberian Cllimate? a. 1 and 2 b. 3 and 4 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 2 and 3
2. Consider the following and identify the correct ones: 1. Without water vapour and dust in the atmosphere, there would be no weather. 2. Stratosphere is very cold and cloudless, with extremely thin air and without dust, smoke or water vapour. 3. Stratosphere experience a marked seasonal temperature change. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a. Only 1 b. 2 and 3 c. Only 2 d. 1, 2 and 3
3. The rate of heating differs between land and ocean surfaces, and land gets heated up much more quickly than the ocean. Which of the following can be the reason for the above? 1. Water is transparent and the heat absorbed by it is very slow. 2. Water is always in motion and the heat absorbed gets distributed over greater depth and area. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
4. Which of the following characteristics are directly related to the temperature of the air? 1. Amount of water vapour present in the air 2. Rate of evaporation 3. Rate of condensation 4. Stability of the atmosphere Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 4 c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. Consider the following statements: 1. A steep slope experiences a more rapid change in temperature than a gentle one. 2. When an airmass moves over the leeward slope, a decrease in altitude decreases both the pressure and temperature, with little or no precipitation. Select eth correct answer: a) Only 1 is correct b) Only 2 is correct c) Both 1 and 2 are correct d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
6. In India, the eastern coast is the favourable location for the delta formation by large rivers like Ganga, Krishna, Godavari, Cauvery, etc. Which of the following are the favourable locations for the formation of deltas? 1. Shallow continental margin 2. Large lakes in the course of the rivers 3. High tide locations 4. Strong perpendicular ocean currents Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a) Only 1 b) 1 and 2 c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
7. Which of the following are the characteristic features of the Hot, wet equatorial climate? 1. Great uniformity of temperature throughout the year 2. Cloudiness and heavy precipitation 3. Regular land and sea breeze 4. Convectional, orographic and cyclonic rainfall Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 4 c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
8. Which of the following are correct in regard to the nomadic herdsman? 1. More advanced group of desert dwellers 2. Pursue shifting cultivation 3. Engaged in trade with the caravan merchants Aspire IAS GS Test 2013 SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I 2
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) 1 and 3 d) Only 3
9. Under warm temperate eastern margin climate, which of the following type experience an annual precipitation distribution more similar to Monsoonal regime? 1. China type 2. Gulf type 3. Natal type Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Only 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
10. Continentality and subsequent extremes of temperature is a phenomenon of 1. The steppe climate 2. The cold desert climate 3. Monsoonal climate 4. Taiga Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 4 c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 4
11. Consider the following: 1. The worlds distribution of earthquakes coincides very closely with that of volcanoes. 2. In the present times, the Mediterranean- Himalayan belt has become the region of greatest seismicity, overtaking the Circum- pacific belt. Select the correct answer: a) Only 1 is correct b) Only 2 is correct c) Both 1 and 2 are correct d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
12. Chemical weathering is the basic process by which denudation proceeds in a granitic rock. Because granitic rock comprises mainly of 1. Quartz 2. Feldspar 3. Mica Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a) Only 1 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Which of the following Constitutional bodys heads are removed in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court? 1. Election Commission 2. UPSC 3. Finance Commission 4. CAG Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 4 c) 1 and 4 d) 1, 3 and 4
14. Which of the following constitute the part of the oath or affirmation by CAG before the President? 1. To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India 2. To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India 3. To do right to all manner of people in accordance with the constitution and the law, without fear or favour, affection or ill- will. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
15. Which of the following are the situational discretion for the President, during which he can act without the advice of the Ministers? 1. Appointment of Prime Minister 2. Dismissal of the Council of Ministers 3. Promulgation of Ordinance 4. Promulgation of Emergency 5. Dissolution of Lok Sabha Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a) 3 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 5 Aspire IAS GS Test 2013 SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I 3
c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
16. According to the Indian Constitution, which of the following can be the basis for disqualifying an elected Member of Parliament? 1. If he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government 2. If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court 3. If he is an undischarged insolvent 4. If he failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time Select the most appropriate answer from the codes given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 1 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
17. In regard to disqualification of an MP on the ground of defection, the question of disqualification will be decided by a) The concerned High Court from where the MP been elected or petition been filed. b) The President of India c) Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
18. Consider the following statements in regard to an Adjournment motion and identify the correct ones: 1. It only terminate a sitting and not a session 2. It can be done by the President too, in some cases. 3. It will bring an end to all the business pending before the house. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a) 3 only b) 1 only c) 2 and 3 d) None
19. Consider the following: 1. The application of the acts of the Parliament and the State Legislature, both, can be modified or exempted in the Tribal areas specified in the Schedule VI. 2. In all the states having Tribal areas, there will be a Tribes Advisory Council at the state level to advice on welfare and advancement of the Tribes. Select eth correct answer: a) Only 2 is correct b) Only 1 is correct c) Both 1 and 2 are correct d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
20. Consider the following: 1. The Constitution authorises the Parliament to prescribe the duties and powers of the CAG in relation to the accounts of the Union and the State. 2. The Constitution of India visualises the CAG o be the Comptroller as well as Auditor General. Select eth correct answer: a) Only 1 is correct b) Only 2 is correct c) Both 1 and 2 are correct d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
21. Which of the following Constitutional bodies are being set up without the further amendment in the Constitution of India, after 1950? 1. UPSC 2. National Commission for SCs 3. National Commission for STc 4. Election Commission 5. National Human Rights Commission Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 c) 1 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 4
22. Which of the following institution, in India, is to promote the production of good cinema, by bringing about improvement in the quality of cinema and its access? a) National Film Development Corporation b) Directorate of Film Festivals c) Central Board of Film Certification d) Film and Television Institute of India
23. Which of the following are the specific features of the Amaravati School of Art, developed in the ancient India? 1. Red Sandstone as the medium 2. Human beings as the Central characters Aspire IAS GS Test 2013 SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I 4
3. Prominence of Kings, Princes and Palaces figures, in the sculptural representation 4. The sculptures of kings are individual statues Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a) Only 1 b) 2 and 3 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
24. Consider the following in regard to the difference between Islamic and Indian architecture in the ancient times: 1. In the method of construction, the building in Islamic countries were made of stone, employing pillars and lintels, whereas buildings of the ancient India were of brick, lime and mortar. 2. The style of Islamic architecture was arcuate, whereas of Indian architecture was trabeate. Select eth correct answer: a) Only 1 is correct b) Only 2 is correct c) Both 1 and 2 are correct d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
25. Consider the following, in regard to the great creation of Indian bronze art, Shiva Nataraja: 1. It symbolises the process of creation and dissolution through a yogi posture with cross legged position. 2. Almost all Indian bronze Nataraja statues of the ancient time were made of Cire Perdue process. Select eth correct answer: a) Only 1 is correct b) Only 2 is correct c) Both 1 and 2 are correct d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
26. Which one of the following statements is not correct? a. Most reef-forming corals prefer sea temperature between 17 o C and 33 o C. b. Coral growth is usually restricted to the upper 25 or 30 m of the sea. c. Coral animals belong to the organisms of Phylum Porifera. d. Coral animals live in a mutualistic relationship with algae.
27. Which one of the following statements is not correct? As per the Press Licensing regulations of 1823, a. The printer and publisher had to obtain a license for starting a press. b. Magistrates could attach unlicensed presses. c. Every book or newspaper was required to have printed the name of printer and publisher on it and a free copy supplied to local government. d. The Governor-General had the right to revoke a license or call for a fresh application.
28. Who among the following was the Sarbadhinayaka or the supreme leader of the Tamralipta Jatiya Sarkar, a parallel government set up by the nationalists in Tamluk during the Quit India Movement? a. Ajay Mukhopadhyay b. Sushil Chandra Dhara c. Matangini Hazra d. Satish Chandra Samanta
29. During Indian struggle for independence, who among the following came forward in defence of the prisoners in the Meerut Conspiracy Case? 1. Jawaharlal Nehru 2. Muzaffar Ahamed 3. P. C. Joshi 4. M. C. Chagla Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
30. The Preamble of the Constitution of India was based on the Objectives Resolution introduced in the Constituent Assembly in its first session in December, 1946 and was adopted in January, 1947. Who among the following moved the Objective Resolution? a. B. N. Rau b. B. R. Ambedkar c. Jawaharlal Nehru d. Rajendra Prasad
31. With reference to the Nehru Report, Consider the following statements: 1. In the Nehru Report, the secular character of the State was listed as a Fundamental Right 2. The Nehru Report recommended that the redistribution of provinces should take place on a linguistic basis Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Aspire IAS GS Test 2013 SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I 5
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
32. Which of the following was a reason for the failure of talks held at the Simla Conference in 1945? a. The Congress boycotted it b. The Viceroy was indifferent to demands of Congress c. The Dominion status suggested by the Viceroy was not acceptable to both Congress and Muslim League d. Jinnah insisted that all muslim members of the Executive Council must be nominated by Muslim League
33. Consider the following statements: 1. The revolutionaries under the leadership of Surya Sen set up a Provisional Independent Government of India at Chittagong. 2. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose proclaimed the establishment of a Provisional Government of Free India at Singapore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
34. During the Indian freedom struggle, who of the following started the weekly Yugantar in April 1906? a. Jnanendranath Basu and Bipin Chandra Pal b. Barindra Kumar Ghosh and Bhupendranath Dutta c. Aswini Kumar Dutta and Satishchandra Mukherji d. Krishna Kumar Mitra and Hemchandra Kanungo
35. A series of articles by Aurobindo Ghosh known as Doctrine of Passive Resistance are associated with which one of the following movements? a. Swadeshi and Boycott movement b. Civil Disobedience movement c. Non-Cooperation movement d. Young Bengal movement
36. Consider the following statements: 1. The continental shelves of Lakshadweep originated due to coral reefs. 2. The continental shelves of western coast are due to faulting and submergence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
37. Regular oscillations in the water surface of large water bodies are formed because of a. Gravitational effect of Moon b. Difference in temperature of sea water and the air above c. Rotation of Earth d. Friction of wind on the water surface
38. Consider the following: 1. Strong winds 2. Long winter nights 3. Cloudy sky 4. Cold dry air Which of the above are the ideal conditions for the formation of temperature inversions? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
39. The famous phrase tattvamasi is found in which one of the following Upanishads? a. Chandogya b. Mundaka c. Mandukya d. Isavasya
40. Who of the following started one of the earliest centres of revolutionary activity outside India in England known as Indian Home Rule Society? a. Bhikaji Cama b. Dadabhai Naoroji c. Rashbihari Bose d. Shyamaji Krishna Varma
41. Who of the following founded the Independent Labour Party in 1936? a. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar b. M. C. Rajah c. Jagjivan Ram d. Jayaprakash Narayan
42. In the context of Woods Despatch, consider the following statements: 1. It laid the foundation for the present system of education in India. Aspire IAS GS Test 2013 SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I 6
2. It made a provision for moral education through Christian missionaries. 3. It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprise. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
43. Consider the following statements: 1. The Hinayanists considered the Buddha as a man and gave his teachings an ethical value. 2. The Hinayanists laid emphasis on the concept of Boddhisattvas. 3. Vajrayana evolved from the interaction of Buddhist thought and Brahmanical speculations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 2 and 3 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
44. Consider the following statements: 1. Ghazal is a product of Persian influence on Hindustani music. 2. It has an underlying Islamic element in it. 3. The form is said to have began with Amir Khusrau. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 and 2 only
45. Which of the following gas contribute to begin the formation of stars? 1. Hydrogen 2. Nitrogen 3. Oxygen 4. Helium Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 4 c. 1 and 4 d. 1 and 3
46. Consider the following statements: 1. The Minimum support Price is announced by the Government of India for 25 crops currently at the beginning of Rabi and Kharif season. 2. The Government of India announced MSP for the first time, for wheat during green revolution. 3. Procurement of food grains at MSP is carried out by Food Corporation of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 2 and 3 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
47. The Government of India has taken various steps to reduce air pollution in the country. These include 1. Bharat stage-IV emission norms have been implemented in 13 mega cities including NCR for new 4- wheelers from 2010. 2. Mass emission standards (Bharat Stage III) have been notified for two, three wheelers and diesel driven agricultural tractors from April 1, 2010 throughout the country. 3. Supply of improved diesel and gasoline. 4. Operating Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) mode public transport in all major cities. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a. 1 and 2 only b. 1, 2 and 3 only c. 1, 2 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
48. Consider the following statements: 1. India has the second largest working population in the world after China. 2. This demographic dividend emerges because India has the worlds youngest work force with a median age way below that of China, North America and Western Europe. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
49. Consider the following statements: 1. The National Policy on Skill Development was formulated in 2009 to focus on policy coherence, inclusivity and improving the quality with emphasis on employment outcomes. 2. The National Skill Development Corporation has a target of skilling/ upskilling 150 million people by the year 2022. 3. The National Skill Development Corporation has been established for catalysing private sector efforts in skill Aspire IAS GS Test 2013 SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I 7
development through appropriate Public-Private Partnership (PPP) models. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
50. Neonicotinoids was in news recently. Which of the following is/are correct, regarding this? 1. They are neuro-active insecticides chemically related to nicotine. 2. Their use has been restricted in some countries due to evidence of a connection to honey-bee colony collapse disorder. 3. They act on the nervous systems of insects, with a lower threat to mammals and the environment. 4. They are insoluble in water and hence are concentrated on the surface of the soil. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a. 1 and 2 only b. 1, 2 and 3 only c. 2, 3 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
51. Who of the following is not a part of the committee that recommends the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner to the President? a. The Prime Minister b. The leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha c. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court d. A Union Cabinet Minister, nominated by the Prime Minister
52. Which one of the following is not a feature of Ashok Mehta Committee recommendations on Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs)? 1. Constitutional recognition to PRIs 2. Non-Involvement of political parties in elections to the PRIs 3. Establishment of Judicial tribunals 4. A Minister in charge of Panchayati Raj Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 4 only d. 1, 3 and 4 only
53. In which of the following circumstances, courts are debarred to interfere in electoral matters? 1. Delimitation of constituencies 2. Allotment of seats to the constituencies 3. Election petition presented to appropriate authority provided under law 4. Election results Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 4 only d. 1, 2 and 3 only
54. The President is recommended by the Finance Commission as to the 1. distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States 2. principles governing grants-in-aid of the revenue of States out of Contingency Fund of India 3. measures to augment Consolidated fund of a state to supplement resources of Municipalities 4. measures to augment Consolidated fund of a state to supplement resources of Panchayats Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1, 3 and 4 c. 1 and 4 only d. 3 and 4 only
55. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the changing role of the District Collector after independence? 1. The Collector is vested with powers under various Central and State laws either by express provisions or by delegation 2. The emergence of several technical departments at the district level under the State has reduced the Collectors authority 3. Even in times of natural calamities, the Collectors supremacy no longer prevails 4. The Collectors role in rural development is affected by his relationship with the Zila Parishad Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 1 and 4 only c. 1, 2 and 4 only d. 2, 3 and 4 only
56. Which one of the following agencies does not have statutory oversight over public expenditure? a. The Parliament b. The Planning Commission c. The Comptroller and Auditor General Aspire IAS GS Test 2013 SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I 8
d. The Finance Ministry
57. The Metropolitan Planning Committee while preparing the draft plan has to give due regard to 1. matters of common interest between Municipalities and Panchayats 2. overall objectives and priorities set by the Union Government 3. plans prepared by Panchayats in Metropolitan areas 4. contingent circumstances emerging out of natural calamities Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 2 and 4 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 only
58. As per the sixth schedule to the Constitution of India, the rules for the first constitution of District and Regional Councils are prepared by a. the Ministry of Home, Government of India b. the Chief Minister in consultation with existing tribal councils or other representative tribal organizations of the region c. the Governor in consultation with existing tribal councils or other representative tribal organizations of the region d. the State Legislature
59. Consider the following statements: 1. Eagles can soar very high and hunt larger animals while vultures are pure scavengers. 2. Eagles are found only in North and South America and the eastern part of Australia while Vultures are found on every continent except Antarctica and Oceania. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
60. The Indian Wild Ass, locally known as Khur, is an endangered species. The Main threats to the Indian Wild Ass is/are 1. overgrazing by livestock 2. persecution by farmers for crop raiding 3. contraction of diseases 4. extensive illegal salt mining operations 5. vehicular traffic Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1, 3 and 4 only b. 2, 3 and 5 only c. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
61. Consider the following statements: 1. India stands fourth place in the production of natural rubber and second place in world consumption. 2. The total consumption of natural rubber in the country exceeds its production, leading to negligible export of natural rubber. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
62. Consider the following statements: 1. India is a major vaccine producer which are used for the national and international market 2. More than 70% of all vaccines used globally are produced in India. 3. The World Health Organization has cleared India's vaccine regulatory system for maintaining international standards, paving the way for easy export of vaccines produced in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
63. Consider the following statements: 1. France and India have agreed for Strategic partnership in higher education, with focus on establishing joint research projects that will include student and academic exchanges. 2. Germany is cooperating with Ministry of Human Resources Development and the Kendriya Vidyalaya Schools (KVS) to provide German teaching in Indian Schools. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
64. Consider the following statements: 1. The Hypothalamus is a portion of brain that contains the number of small nuclei which links nervous system to the endocrine system through pituitary gland. Aspire IAS GS Test 2013 SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I 9
2. The hypothalamus controls body temperature, hunger, thirst, fatigue, sleep, etc 3. It is involved in determining intelligence and personality of a person. 4. US scientists have recently derived a mechanism to control ageing in mice through Hypothalamus Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 and 3 only b. 2, 3 and 4 only c. 1, 2 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3and 4
65. Consider the following statements: 1. India had introduced the Pentavalent vaccine expansion in 2011 in Tamil Nadu and Kerala. 2. The Universal Immunization Programme which is currently one of the key areas under National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) consists of vaccination for five diseases 3. India had declared year 2012-13 as the Year of Intensification of Routine Immunization. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
66. Which of the following is/are the provisions of National Urban Health Mission? 1. NUHM would cover all cities with a population of more than 100000. 2. While Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) is a part of National rural Health Mission, Auxiliary Nursing Midwives (ANM) are a part of NUHM. 3. It is 100% centrally sponsored scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
67. Consider the following statements: 1. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification is an international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management. 2. The mitigation measures are not properly implemented by the parties as it is not legally binding on them. 2. As per a recent report by the Environment Ministry submitted to UNCCD, more than one-fourth of Indias geographical area is undergoing the process of desertification despite ongoing efforts to tackle the problem. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
68. Consider the following statements: 1. The Government of India has launched Krishi Card, a digital card which would be a gateway for farmers to avail benefits like subsidies and loans. 2. The card will entitle the farmer to an agricultural loan at the rate of 1% 3. The Government plans to introduce similar cards to the fishermen and dairy farmers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
69. The Union Cabinet of India recently approved the National Policy for Children, 2012.Which o the following are the provisions of the policy? 1. It recognizes every person below the age of fourteen years as a child. 2. The Ministry of Women and Child Development will be the nodal ministry for overseeing and coordinating the implementation of the policy. 3. The Government has also created a provision of reviewing the Policy after every five years. 4. The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights and State Commissions for Protection of Child Rights are to ensure that the principles of the policy are respected in all sectors at all levels. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 1, 2 and 4 only c. 2, 3 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3and 4
70. Identify the correctly matched pairs from the below: 1. R. P. Goenka Industrialist 2. Vijender Singh Boxer 3. Sivanthi Adithan - Journalist Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Aspire IAS GS Test 2013 SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I 10
71. The Government of India has launched a 6-year aspirational agricultural research programme, the National Agricultural Innovation Project. Its specific objectives is/are: 1. To build the critical capacity of the ICAR as a catalyzing agent for management of change in the Indian National Agricultural Research System 2. To promote production to consumption systems research 3. To build capacity to undertake basic and strategic research to meet challenges in technology development. 4. To improve livelihood security of rural people Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 2, 3 and 4 only c. 1, 2 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
72. The Government is emphasizing on diversification of agriculture to include crops/varieties requiring less water. Which of the given below techniques require less water than normal for rice cultivation? 1. System Rice Intensification 2. Indirect seeded rice 3. Aerobic rice 4. Alternate wet and drying Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 2, 3 and 4 only c. 1, 3 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
73. Consider the following statements: 1. India@75 is a 3-Dimensional development idea for India to assume adequate economic strength, technological vitality and moral leadership by 75 years of independence i.e. YEAR 2022. 2. It was articulated by Prof C.K.Prahalad. 3. National Development Council and India@75 have partnered together to launch India Backbone Implementation Network (IBIN). Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
74. Recently, the Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Aquaculture has produced Specific Pathogen Free (SPF) Litopenaeus vannamei broodstock for the first time in India. Litopenaeus vannamei is a species of a. Fish b. Shrimp c. Lobster d. Crab
75. Consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court directed concerned organizations to shift Asiatic lions from Gujarats Gir forest to in Maharashtras Kuno wildlife sanctuary as lions should have a second home especially if an epidemic or fires wipe out the endangered species from one location. 2. Under the Cheetah Reintroduction Programme, the Ministry of Environment and Forests had proposed the introduction of the African Cheetahs in India. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
76. Consider the following statements: 1. Peacock killing and the trade of naturally shed peacock feathers is prohibited under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. 2. Possessing peacock feathers by citizens is not be a crime. Select the incorrect answer using the code given below: a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
77. India has signed various trade agreements with which of the following ? 1. ASEAN 2. Mercosur 3. European Union 4. SAFTA Select the correct option from the codes given below: a. 1 and 2 only b. 1, 2 and 3 only c. 1, 2 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
78. The data related to Indias trade in services is released by a. Central Statistical Organisation b. Reserve Bank of India c. Ministry of Commerce and Industry Aspire IAS GS Test 2013 SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I 11
d. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
79. Consider the following statements: 1. International Centre for Environment Audit and Sustainable Development (iCED) is a mega project commissioned by the CAG of India, after the International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI) chose India as the centre for imparting environmental and sustainable development audit. 2. It is the first government building in India to have a five star green rating as per Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment norms and is based on the sustainable design concept. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
80. Which of the following became the First city in South Asia to create a comprehensive early warning system and plan to prepare for extreme heat events fuelled by climate change? a. Delhi a. Hyderabad b. Chennai c. Ahmedabad
81. Which of the following statements is/are correct, in regard to haemophilia B? 1. Haemophilia B is a blood clotting disorder caused by a mutation of the Factor IX gene. 2. The factor IX gene is located on the X chromosome. 3. Usually it affects only males. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
82. Consider the following: 1. SEBI 2. RBI 3. Forward Market Commission Which of the given above regulate the commodity markets in India? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 and 2 only 83. Consider the following statements: 1. Z+ category is the security cover of 100 personnel which is the highest level. 2. Individuals under the Z+ security blanket include current and former Supreme court and High court Judges, Cabinet Ministers, Governors, Chief and Deputy Chief Ministers, leading politicians, and senior bureaucrats. 3. The Special Protection Group (SPG) protects the Prime Minister of India which is one of the eight Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
84. The Geographical Indication Registry (GIR) has accorded the Geographical Indication (GI) registration to the Lucknow Zardozi. Which of the following is/are correct, regarding zardozi? 1. It is a type of embroidery in Iran, India and Pakistan. 2. Zardozi has been in existence in India from the time of the Rig Veda. 3. Zardozi style flourished during the Mugal Emperor, Akbar 4. Loss of royal patronage and industrialization led to decline in this style. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a. 1 and 3 only b. 1, 2 and 3 only c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 4 only
85. Which of the following site in Delhi is/are not included in the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites? a. Red Fort Complex b. India Gate c. Humayuns Tomb d. Qutab Minar
86. Consider the following: 1. Caffeine is a nitrogenous organic compound of the alkaloid group. 2. It is a substance, able to produce marked physiological effects. 3. It occurs naturally in tea, coffee, kolanuts, and cacao. Which of the above statements are correct? a. Only 3 b. Only 1 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3 Aspire IAS GS Test 2013 SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I 12
87. Consider the following: 1. Montreux record is a record of Ramsar sites where changes in ecological character have occurred. 2. Due to improved conditions of the lake, Chilika Lake been removed from the Montreux record. 3. Chilika lake, as an ecosystem, is a unique assemblage of marine, brackish and freshwater ecosystem with estuarine characters. Which of the above statements are correct? a. Only 3 b. Only 1 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3
88. Consider the following: 1. Bharat Rural Livelihood Foundation (BRLF) will be a not-for-profit society, and not a perfect government body, to tackle the developmental challenges facing the tribal population in Central India. 2. Foundation will facilitate and upscale civil society action in partnership with Government for transforming livelihood and lives in rural households, with emphasis on women. 3. BRLF will be under the purview of the Comptroller Auditor General (CAG) and Right to Information Act. Which of the above statements are correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. Only 2 d. 1, 2 and 3
89. Which of the following are correct in regard to World Bank assisted ICDS Systems Strengthening and Nutrition Improvement Project (ISSNIP): 1. ISSNIP has been designed to supplement and provide value addition on the existing ICDS programme. 2. The ISSNIP will support the governments efforts in building the necessary institutional capacity and systems needed to improve nutrition in the targeted groups of mothers and children. 3. Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana (IGMSY) a conditional maternity benefit scheme, is a sub- component of this programme. Which of the above statements are correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. Only 2 d. 1, 2 and 3
90. Recently, the central government had revised Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) with certain norms and subsumed other centrally sponsored schemes of secondary education under RMSA. Which of the following are correct in this regard? 1. Centrally sponsored schemes of secondary education like Information and Communication Technology (ICT) at school, girls hostel, Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) and Vocational Education (VE) in their existing form under the umbrella of RMSA. 2. It extended all the benefits of RMSA to aided secondary schools excluding infrastructure support / core areas. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
91. Consider the following: 1. Lanthanum, cerium and Neodymium are some of the rare earth minerals available in India. 2. Recently, both the Ilmenite and Monazite has been delisted from the list of Prescribed Substances under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962. 3. In India, the prescribed regulatory inspections of beach sand mining facilities are being carried out by Atomic Energy Regulatory Board. Which of the above statements are correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3
92. Which of the following are the common rivers between India and Nepal? 1. Sarda 2. Rapti 3. Kamla 4. Bagmati Select the correct answer from the following codes given below: a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
93. Consider the following: 1. National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) has indigenously designed, developed and demonstrated Low Aspire IAS GS Test 2013 SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I 13
Temperature Thermal Desalination (LTTD) technology for conversion of sea water into potable water. 2. The LTTD is a process under which the warm surface sea water is flash evaporated at low pressure and the vapour is condensed with cold deep sea water. 3. The LTTD process can be used to generate potable drinking water utilizing the thermal wastewater from the thermal power plants. Which of the above statements are correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3
94. Consider the following statements: 1. The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) is a global study that compiles and presents a case for the economic basis for conservation of ecosystems and biodiversity. 2. Its objective is to highlight the growing cost of biodiversity loss and ecosystem degradation and to draw together expertise from the fields of science, economics and policy to enable practical actions. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
95. Ecosystem services are the direct and indirect contributions of ecosystems to human well-being. Which of the following are a part of Regulating services? 1. Habitats for species 2. Maintenance of genetic diversity 3. Local climate and air quality 4. Pollination Select the correct answer from the codes: a. Only 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 3 and 4
96. Which of the following are Heritage Sites has been part of World Heritage sites being recognized by UNESCO in India? 1. Nanda Devi National Park 2. Kaziranga National Park 3. Keoladeo National Park 4. Silent valley National Park Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a. 2 only b. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
97. Consider the following: 1. Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP) is a sub component of the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) to meet the specific needs of women farmers. 2. The programme envisages empowering women in agriculture by making systematic investments to enhance their participation and productivity, as also create and sustain agriculture based livelihoods of rural women. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a. 1 only correct b. 2 only correct c. Both 1 and 2 are correct d. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
98. Bansagar dam over sone river is located in which of the following state? a. Madhya Pradesh b. Uttar Pradesh c. Bihar d. Chhattisgarh
99. Recently Tiger Moth and Globmaster III were in news. Which of the following is correct in this regard? a. Latest aircrafts to join the Indian Air Force b. Water borne diseases c. Computer Aided Design software developed by the students of IIT Delhi d. None of the above
100. International highway to link North-East with the South-East Asian Nations, is a trilateral project between: 1. India 2. Myanmar 3. Vietnam 4. Thailand 5. Cambodia Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1, 2 and 4 c. 1, 3and 4 d. 1, 2 and 5
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