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Aspire IAS GS Test 2013

SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I


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1. Consider the following:
1. Light summer rain
2. Evergreen coniferous forest
3. Cool brief summer
4. Warm, wet forests
Which of the above are the characteristic features of
Siberian Cllimate?
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2 and 3

2. Consider the following and identify the correct ones:
1. Without water vapour and dust in the
atmosphere, there would be no weather.
2. Stratosphere is very cold and cloudless, with
extremely thin air and without dust, smoke or
water vapour.
3. Stratosphere experience a marked seasonal
temperature change.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a. Only 1
b. 2 and 3
c. Only 2
d. 1, 2 and 3

3. The rate of heating differs between land and ocean
surfaces, and land gets heated up much more quickly
than the ocean. Which of the following can be the reason
for the above?
1. Water is transparent and the heat absorbed by it
is very slow.
2. Water is always in motion and the heat absorbed
gets distributed over greater depth and area.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

4. Which of the following characteristics are directly
related to the temperature of the air?
1. Amount of water vapour present in the air
2. Rate of evaporation
3. Rate of condensation
4. Stability of the atmosphere
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

5. Consider the following statements:
1. A steep slope experiences a more rapid
change in temperature than a gentle one.
2. When an airmass moves over the leeward
slope, a decrease in altitude decreases both
the pressure and temperature, with little or
no precipitation.
Select eth correct answer:
a) Only 1 is correct
b) Only 2 is correct
c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

6. In India, the eastern coast is the favourable location for
the delta formation by large rivers like Ganga, Krishna,
Godavari, Cauvery, etc. Which of the following are the
favourable locations for the formation of deltas?
1. Shallow continental margin
2. Large lakes in the course of the rivers
3. High tide locations
4. Strong perpendicular ocean currents
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

7. Which of the following are the characteristic features
of the Hot, wet equatorial climate?
1. Great uniformity of temperature throughout
the year
2. Cloudiness and heavy precipitation
3. Regular land and sea breeze
4. Convectional, orographic and cyclonic rainfall
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

8. Which of the following are correct in regard to the
nomadic herdsman?
1. More advanced group of desert dwellers
2. Pursue shifting cultivation
3. Engaged in trade with the caravan merchants
Aspire IAS GS Test 2013
SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I
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Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) 1 and 3
d) Only 3

9. Under warm temperate eastern margin climate, which
of the following type experience an annual precipitation
distribution more similar to Monsoonal regime?
1. China type
2. Gulf type
3. Natal type
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Only 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

10. Continentality and subsequent extremes of
temperature is a phenomenon of
1. The steppe climate
2. The cold desert climate
3. Monsoonal climate
4. Taiga
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 4

11. Consider the following:
1. The worlds distribution of earthquakes
coincides very closely with that of volcanoes.
2. In the present times, the Mediterranean-
Himalayan belt has become the region of
greatest seismicity, overtaking the Circum-
pacific belt.
Select the correct answer:
a) Only 1 is correct
b) Only 2 is correct
c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

12. Chemical weathering is the basic process by which
denudation proceeds in a granitic rock. Because granitic
rock comprises mainly of
1. Quartz
2. Feldspar
3. Mica
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

13. Which of the following Constitutional bodys heads
are removed in the same manner and on the same
grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court?
1. Election Commission
2. UPSC
3. Finance Commission
4. CAG
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 1 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4

14. Which of the following constitute the part of the oath
or affirmation by CAG before the President?
1. To bear true faith and allegiance to the
Constitution of India
2. To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of
India
3. To do right to all manner of people in
accordance with the constitution and the
law, without fear or favour, affection or ill-
will.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

15. Which of the following are the situational discretion
for the President, during which he can act without the
advice of the Ministers?
1. Appointment of Prime Minister
2. Dismissal of the Council of Ministers
3. Promulgation of Ordinance
4. Promulgation of Emergency
5. Dissolution of Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) 3 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 5
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SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I
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c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 4 and 5

16. According to the Indian Constitution, which of the
following can be the basis for disqualifying an elected
Member of Parliament?
1. If he holds any office of profit under the
Union or state government
2. If he is of unsound mind and stands so
declared by a court
3. If he is an undischarged insolvent
4. If he failed to lodge an account of his election
expenses within the time
Select the most appropriate answer from the
codes given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

17. In regard to disqualification of an MP on the ground
of defection, the question of disqualification will be
decided by
a) The concerned High Court from where the
MP been elected or petition been filed.
b) The President of India
c) Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha and
Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha
d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

18. Consider the following statements in regard to an
Adjournment motion and identify the correct ones:
1. It only terminate a sitting and not a session
2. It can be done by the President too, in some
cases.
3. It will bring an end to all the business
pending before the house.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3
d) None

19. Consider the following:
1. The application of the acts of the Parliament
and the State Legislature, both, can be
modified or exempted in the Tribal areas
specified in the Schedule VI.
2. In all the states having Tribal areas, there will
be a Tribes Advisory Council at the state level
to advice on welfare and advancement of the
Tribes.
Select eth correct answer:
a) Only 2 is correct
b) Only 1 is correct
c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

20. Consider the following:
1. The Constitution authorises the Parliament to
prescribe the duties and powers of the CAG
in relation to the accounts of the Union and
the State.
2. The Constitution of India visualises the CAG o
be the Comptroller as well as Auditor
General.
Select eth correct answer:
a) Only 1 is correct
b) Only 2 is correct
c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

21. Which of the following Constitutional bodies are
being set up without the further amendment in the
Constitution of India, after 1950?
1. UPSC
2. National Commission for SCs
3. National Commission for STc
4. Election Commission
5. National Human Rights Commission
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4

22. Which of the following institution, in India, is to
promote the production of good cinema, by bringing
about improvement in the quality of cinema and its
access?
a) National Film Development Corporation
b) Directorate of Film Festivals
c) Central Board of Film Certification
d) Film and Television Institute of India

23. Which of the following are the specific features of the
Amaravati School of Art, developed in the ancient India?
1. Red Sandstone as the medium
2. Human beings as the Central characters
Aspire IAS GS Test 2013
SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I
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3. Prominence of Kings, Princes and Palaces
figures, in the sculptural representation
4. The sculptures of kings are individual statues
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) Only 1
b) 2 and 3
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

24. Consider the following in regard to the difference
between Islamic and Indian architecture in the ancient
times:
1. In the method of construction, the building in
Islamic countries were made of stone,
employing pillars and lintels, whereas
buildings of the ancient India were of brick,
lime and mortar.
2. The style of Islamic architecture was arcuate,
whereas of Indian architecture was trabeate.
Select eth correct answer:
a) Only 1 is correct
b) Only 2 is correct
c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

25. Consider the following, in regard to the great creation
of Indian bronze art, Shiva Nataraja:
1. It symbolises the process of creation and
dissolution through a yogi posture with cross
legged position.
2. Almost all Indian bronze Nataraja statues of
the ancient time were made of Cire Perdue
process.
Select eth correct answer:
a) Only 1 is correct
b) Only 2 is correct
c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

26. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a. Most reef-forming corals prefer sea
temperature between 17
o
C and 33
o
C.
b. Coral growth is usually restricted to the
upper 25 or 30 m of the sea.
c. Coral animals belong to the organisms of
Phylum Porifera.
d. Coral animals live in a mutualistic relationship
with algae.

27. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
As per the Press Licensing regulations of 1823,
a. The printer and publisher had to obtain a
license for starting a press.
b. Magistrates could attach unlicensed presses.
c. Every book or newspaper was required to
have printed the name of printer and
publisher on it and a free copy supplied to
local government.
d. The Governor-General had the right to
revoke a license or call for a fresh application.

28. Who among the following was the Sarbadhinayaka or
the supreme leader of the Tamralipta Jatiya Sarkar, a
parallel government set up by the nationalists in Tamluk
during the Quit India Movement?
a. Ajay Mukhopadhyay
b. Sushil Chandra Dhara
c. Matangini Hazra
d. Satish Chandra Samanta

29. During Indian struggle for independence, who among
the following came forward in defence of the prisoners in
the Meerut Conspiracy Case?
1. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Muzaffar Ahamed
3. P. C. Joshi
4. M. C. Chagla
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

30. The Preamble of the Constitution of India was based
on the Objectives Resolution introduced in the
Constituent Assembly in its first session in December,
1946 and was adopted in January, 1947. Who among the
following moved the Objective Resolution?
a. B. N. Rau
b. B. R. Ambedkar
c. Jawaharlal Nehru
d. Rajendra Prasad

31. With reference to the Nehru Report, Consider the
following statements:
1. In the Nehru Report, the secular character of the State
was listed as a Fundamental Right
2. The Nehru Report recommended that the
redistribution of provinces should take place on a
linguistic basis
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Aspire IAS GS Test 2013
SUPER 40 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I
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a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

32. Which of the following was a reason for the failure of
talks held at the Simla Conference in 1945?
a. The Congress boycotted it
b. The Viceroy was indifferent to demands of
Congress
c. The Dominion status suggested by the Viceroy
was not acceptable to both Congress and Muslim
League
d. Jinnah insisted that all muslim members of the
Executive Council must be nominated by Muslim
League

33. Consider the following statements:
1. The revolutionaries under the leadership of Surya Sen
set up a Provisional Independent Government of India
at Chittagong.
2. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose proclaimed the
establishment of a Provisional Government of Free
India at Singapore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

34. During the Indian freedom struggle, who of the
following started the weekly Yugantar in April 1906?
a. Jnanendranath Basu and Bipin Chandra Pal
b. Barindra Kumar Ghosh and Bhupendranath Dutta
c. Aswini Kumar Dutta and Satishchandra Mukherji
d. Krishna Kumar Mitra and Hemchandra Kanungo

35. A series of articles by Aurobindo Ghosh known as
Doctrine of Passive Resistance are associated with which
one of the following movements?
a. Swadeshi and Boycott movement
b. Civil Disobedience movement
c. Non-Cooperation movement
d. Young Bengal movement

36. Consider the following statements:
1. The continental shelves of Lakshadweep originated
due to coral reefs.
2. The continental shelves of western coast are due to
faulting and submergence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

37. Regular oscillations in the water surface of large
water bodies are formed because of
a. Gravitational effect of Moon
b. Difference in temperature of sea water and the
air above
c. Rotation of Earth
d. Friction of wind on the water surface

38. Consider the following:
1. Strong winds
2. Long winter nights
3. Cloudy sky
4. Cold dry air
Which of the above are the ideal conditions for the
formation of temperature inversions?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

39. The famous phrase tattvamasi is found in which one
of the following Upanishads?
a. Chandogya
b. Mundaka
c. Mandukya
d. Isavasya

40. Who of the following started one of the earliest
centres of revolutionary activity outside India in England
known as Indian Home Rule Society?
a. Bhikaji Cama
b. Dadabhai Naoroji
c. Rashbihari Bose
d. Shyamaji Krishna Varma

41. Who of the following founded the Independent
Labour Party in 1936?
a. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
b. M. C. Rajah
c. Jagjivan Ram
d. Jayaprakash Narayan

42. In the context of Woods Despatch, consider the
following statements:
1. It laid the foundation for the present system of
education in India.
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2. It made a provision for moral education through
Christian missionaries.
3. It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to
encourage private enterprise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

43. Consider the following statements:
1. The Hinayanists considered the Buddha as a man and
gave his teachings an ethical value.
2. The Hinayanists laid emphasis on the concept of
Boddhisattvas.
3. Vajrayana evolved from the interaction of Buddhist
thought and Brahmanical speculations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 2 and 3 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

44. Consider the following statements:
1. Ghazal is a product of Persian influence on Hindustani
music.
2. It has an underlying Islamic element in it.
3. The form is said to have began with Amir Khusrau.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 2 only

45. Which of the following gas contribute to begin the
formation of stars?
1. Hydrogen
2. Nitrogen
3. Oxygen
4. Helium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 1 and 3

46. Consider the following statements:
1. The Minimum support Price is announced by the
Government of India for 25 crops currently at the
beginning of Rabi and Kharif season.
2. The Government of India announced MSP for the first
time, for wheat during green revolution.
3. Procurement of food grains at MSP is carried out by
Food Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 2 and 3 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

47. The Government of India has taken various steps to
reduce air pollution in the country. These include
1. Bharat stage-IV emission norms have been
implemented in 13 mega cities including NCR for new 4-
wheelers from 2010.
2. Mass emission standards (Bharat Stage III) have been
notified for two, three wheelers and diesel driven
agricultural tractors from April 1, 2010 throughout the
country.
3. Supply of improved diesel and gasoline.
4. Operating Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) mode public
transport in all major cities.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

48. Consider the following statements:
1. India has the second largest working population in the
world after China.
2. This demographic dividend emerges because India
has the worlds youngest work force with a median age
way below that of China, North America and Western
Europe.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

49. Consider the following statements:
1. The National Policy on Skill Development was
formulated in 2009 to focus on policy coherence,
inclusivity and improving the quality with emphasis on
employment outcomes.
2. The National Skill Development Corporation has a
target of skilling/ upskilling 150 million people by the year
2022.
3. The National Skill Development Corporation has been
established for catalysing private sector efforts in skill
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development through appropriate Public-Private
Partnership (PPP) models.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

50. Neonicotinoids was in news recently. Which of the
following is/are correct, regarding this?
1. They are neuro-active insecticides chemically related
to nicotine.
2. Their use has been restricted in some countries due to
evidence of a connection to honey-bee colony collapse
disorder.
3. They act on the nervous systems of insects, with a
lower threat to mammals and the environment.
4. They are insoluble in water and hence are
concentrated on the surface of the soil.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

51. Who of the following is not a part of the committee
that recommends the appointment of the Chief
Information Commissioner to the President?
a. The Prime Minister
b. The leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha
c. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
d. A Union Cabinet Minister, nominated by the
Prime Minister

52. Which one of the following is not a feature of Ashok
Mehta Committee recommendations on Panchayati Raj
Institutions (PRIs)?
1. Constitutional recognition to PRIs
2. Non-Involvement of political parties in elections to the
PRIs
3. Establishment of Judicial tribunals
4. A Minister in charge of Panchayati Raj
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. 1, 3 and 4 only

53. In which of the following circumstances, courts are
debarred to interfere in electoral matters?
1. Delimitation of constituencies
2. Allotment of seats to the constituencies
3. Election petition presented to appropriate authority
provided under law
4. Election results
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 4 only
d. 1, 2 and 3 only

54. The President is recommended by the Finance
Commission as to the
1. distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the
Union and States
2. principles governing grants-in-aid of the revenue of
States out of Contingency Fund of India
3. measures to augment Consolidated fund of a state to
supplement resources of Municipalities
4. measures to augment Consolidated fund of a state to
supplement resources of Panchayats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 4 only
d. 3 and 4 only

55. Which of the following statements is correct
regarding the changing role of the District Collector after
independence?
1. The Collector is vested with powers under various
Central and State laws either by express provisions or by
delegation
2. The emergence of several technical departments at the
district level under the State has reduced the Collectors
authority
3. Even in times of natural calamities, the Collectors
supremacy no longer prevails
4. The Collectors role in rural development is affected by
his relationship with the Zila Parishad
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 1, 2 and 4 only
d. 2, 3 and 4 only

56. Which one of the following agencies does not have
statutory oversight over public expenditure?
a. The Parliament
b. The Planning Commission
c. The Comptroller and Auditor General
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d. The Finance Ministry

57. The Metropolitan Planning Committee while
preparing the draft plan has to give due regard to
1. matters of common interest between Municipalities
and Panchayats
2. overall objectives and priorities set by the Union
Government
3. plans prepared by Panchayats in Metropolitan areas
4. contingent circumstances emerging out of natural
calamities
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3 only

58. As per the sixth schedule to the Constitution of India,
the rules for the first constitution of District and Regional
Councils are prepared by
a. the Ministry of Home, Government of India
b. the Chief Minister in consultation with existing
tribal councils or other representative tribal
organizations of the region
c. the Governor in consultation with existing tribal
councils or other representative tribal
organizations of the region
d. the State Legislature


59. Consider the following statements:
1. Eagles can soar very high and hunt larger animals while
vultures are pure scavengers.
2. Eagles are found only in North and South America and
the eastern part of Australia while Vultures are found on
every continent except Antarctica and Oceania.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

60. The Indian Wild Ass, locally known as Khur, is an
endangered species. The Main threats to the Indian Wild
Ass is/are
1. overgrazing by livestock
2. persecution by farmers for crop raiding
3. contraction of diseases
4. extensive illegal salt mining operations
5. vehicular traffic
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 3 and 4 only
b. 2, 3 and 5 only
c. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

61. Consider the following statements:
1. India stands fourth place in the production of natural
rubber and second place in world consumption.
2. The total consumption of natural rubber in the country
exceeds its production, leading to negligible export of
natural rubber.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

62. Consider the following statements:
1. India is a major vaccine producer which are used for
the national and international market
2. More than 70% of all vaccines used globally are
produced in India.
3. The World Health Organization has cleared India's
vaccine regulatory system for maintaining international
standards, paving the way for easy export of
vaccines produced in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

63. Consider the following statements:
1. France and India have agreed for Strategic partnership
in higher education, with focus on establishing joint
research projects that will include student and academic
exchanges.
2. Germany is cooperating with Ministry of Human
Resources Development and the Kendriya Vidyalaya
Schools (KVS) to provide German teaching in Indian
Schools.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

64. Consider the following statements:
1. The Hypothalamus is a portion of brain that contains
the number of small nuclei which links nervous system to
the endocrine system through pituitary gland.
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2. The hypothalamus controls body
temperature, hunger, thirst, fatigue, sleep, etc
3. It is involved in determining intelligence and
personality of a person.
4. US scientists have recently derived a mechanism to
control ageing in mice through Hypothalamus
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2, 3 and 4 only
c. 1, 2 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3and 4

65. Consider the following statements:
1. India had introduced the Pentavalent vaccine
expansion in 2011 in Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
2. The Universal Immunization Programme which is
currently one of the key areas under National Rural
Health Mission (NRHM) consists of vaccination for five
diseases
3. India had declared year 2012-13 as the Year of
Intensification of Routine Immunization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

66. Which of the following is/are the provisions of
National Urban Health Mission?
1. NUHM would cover all cities with a population of more
than 100000.
2. While Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) is a part
of National rural Health Mission, Auxiliary Nursing
Midwives (ANM) are a part of NUHM.
3. It is 100% centrally sponsored scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

67. Consider the following statements:
1. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
is an international agreement linking environment
and development to sustainable land management.
2. The mitigation measures are not properly
implemented by the parties as it is not legally binding on
them.
2. As per a recent report by the Environment Ministry
submitted to UNCCD, more than one-fourth of Indias
geographical area is undergoing the process of
desertification despite ongoing efforts to tackle the
problem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

68. Consider the following statements:
1. The Government of India has launched Krishi Card, a
digital card which would be a gateway for farmers to avail
benefits like subsidies and loans.
2. The card will entitle the farmer to an agricultural loan
at the rate of 1%
3. The Government plans to introduce similar cards to the
fishermen and dairy farmers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

69. The Union Cabinet of India recently approved the
National Policy for Children, 2012.Which o the following
are the provisions of the policy?
1. It recognizes every person below the age of fourteen
years as a child.
2. The Ministry of Women and Child Development will be
the nodal ministry for overseeing and coordinating the
implementation of the policy.
3. The Government has also created a provision of
reviewing the Policy after every five years.
4. The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
and State Commissions for Protection of Child Rights are
to ensure that the principles of the policy are respected
in all sectors at all levels.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3and 4

70. Identify the correctly matched pairs from the below:
1. R. P. Goenka Industrialist
2. Vijender Singh Boxer
3. Sivanthi Adithan - Journalist
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
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71. The Government of India has launched a 6-year
aspirational agricultural research programme,
the National Agricultural Innovation Project. Its specific
objectives is/are:
1. To build the critical capacity of the ICAR as a catalyzing
agent for management of change in the Indian National
Agricultural Research System
2. To promote production to consumption systems
research
3. To build capacity to undertake basic and strategic
research to meet challenges in technology development.
4. To improve livelihood security of rural people
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 2, 3 and 4 only
c. 1, 2 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

72. The Government is emphasizing on diversification of
agriculture to include crops/varieties requiring less water.
Which of the given below techniques require less water
than normal for rice cultivation?
1. System Rice Intensification
2. Indirect seeded rice
3. Aerobic rice
4. Alternate wet and drying
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 2, 3 and 4 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

73. Consider the following statements:
1. India@75 is a 3-Dimensional development idea for
India to assume adequate economic strength,
technological vitality and moral leadership by 75 years of
independence i.e. YEAR 2022.
2. It was articulated by Prof C.K.Prahalad.
3. National Development Council and India@75 have
partnered together to launch India Backbone
Implementation Network (IBIN).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

74. Recently, the Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Aquaculture has
produced Specific Pathogen Free (SPF) Litopenaeus
vannamei broodstock for the first time in India.
Litopenaeus vannamei is a species of
a. Fish
b. Shrimp
c. Lobster
d. Crab

75. Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court directed concerned organizations
to shift Asiatic lions from Gujarats Gir forest to
in Maharashtras Kuno wildlife sanctuary as lions should
have a second home especially if an epidemic or fires
wipe out the endangered species from one location.
2. Under the Cheetah Reintroduction Programme, the
Ministry of Environment and Forests had proposed the
introduction of the African Cheetahs in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

76. Consider the following statements:
1. Peacock killing and the trade of naturally shed peacock
feathers is prohibited under the Wildlife Protection Act,
1972.
2. Possessing peacock feathers by citizens is not be a
crime.
Select the incorrect answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

77. India has signed various trade agreements with which
of the following ?
1. ASEAN
2. Mercosur
3. European Union
4. SAFTA
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

78. The data related to Indias trade in services is
released by
a. Central Statistical Organisation
b. Reserve Bank of India
c. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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d. Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation

79. Consider the following statements:
1. International Centre for Environment Audit and
Sustainable Development (iCED) is a mega project
commissioned by the CAG of India, after the International
Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions
(INTOSAI) chose India as the centre for imparting
environmental and sustainable development audit.
2. It is the first government building in India to have a five
star green rating as per Green Rating for Integrated
Habitat Assessment norms and is based on the
sustainable design concept.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

80. Which of the following became the First city in South
Asia to create a comprehensive early warning system and
plan to prepare for extreme heat events fuelled by
climate change?
a. Delhi
a. Hyderabad
b. Chennai
c. Ahmedabad

81. Which of the following statements is/are correct, in
regard to haemophilia B?
1. Haemophilia B is a blood clotting disorder caused by
a mutation of the Factor IX gene.
2. The factor IX gene is located on the X chromosome.
3. Usually it affects only males.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

82. Consider the following:
1. SEBI
2. RBI
3. Forward Market Commission
Which of the given above regulate the commodity
markets in India?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 2 only
83. Consider the following statements:
1. Z+ category is the security cover of 100 personnel
which is the highest level.
2. Individuals under the Z+ security blanket include
current and former Supreme court and High court Judges,
Cabinet Ministers, Governors, Chief and Deputy Chief
Ministers, leading politicians, and senior bureaucrats.
3. The Special Protection Group (SPG) protects the Prime
Minister of India which is one of the eight Central Armed
Police Forces (CAPF).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

84. The Geographical Indication Registry (GIR) has
accorded the Geographical Indication (GI) registration to
the Lucknow Zardozi. Which of the following is/are
correct, regarding zardozi?
1. It is a type of embroidery in Iran, India and Pakistan.
2. Zardozi has been in existence in India from the time of
the Rig Veda.
3. Zardozi style flourished during the Mugal Emperor,
Akbar
4. Loss of royal patronage and industrialization led to
decline in this style.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4 only

85. Which of the following site in Delhi is/are not
included in the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites?
a. Red Fort Complex
b. India Gate
c. Humayuns Tomb
d. Qutab Minar

86. Consider the following:
1. Caffeine is a nitrogenous organic compound of the
alkaloid group.
2. It is a substance, able to produce marked physiological
effects.
3. It occurs naturally in tea, coffee, kolanuts, and cacao.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. Only 3
b. Only 1
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
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87. Consider the following:
1. Montreux record is a record of Ramsar sites where
changes in ecological character have occurred.
2. Due to improved conditions of the lake, Chilika Lake
been removed from the Montreux record.
3. Chilika lake, as an ecosystem, is a unique assemblage
of marine, brackish and freshwater ecosystem with
estuarine characters.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. Only 3
b. Only 1
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3

88. Consider the following:
1. Bharat Rural Livelihood Foundation (BRLF) will be a
not-for-profit society, and not a perfect government
body, to tackle the developmental challenges facing the
tribal population in Central India.
2. Foundation will facilitate and upscale civil society
action in partnership with Government for transforming
livelihood and lives in rural households, with emphasis on
women.
3. BRLF will be under the purview of the Comptroller
Auditor General (CAG) and Right to Information Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. Only 2
d. 1, 2 and 3

89. Which of the following are correct in regard to World
Bank assisted ICDS Systems Strengthening and Nutrition
Improvement Project (ISSNIP):
1. ISSNIP has been designed to supplement and provide
value addition on the existing ICDS programme.
2. The ISSNIP will support the governments efforts in
building the necessary institutional capacity and systems
needed to improve nutrition in the targeted groups of
mothers and children.
3. Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana (IGMSY) a
conditional maternity benefit scheme, is a sub-
component of this programme.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. Only 2
d. 1, 2 and 3

90. Recently, the central government had revised
Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) with
certain norms and subsumed other centrally sponsored
schemes of secondary education under RMSA. Which of
the following are correct in this regard?
1. Centrally sponsored schemes of secondary education
like Information and Communication Technology (ICT) at
school, girls hostel, Inclusive Education for Disabled at
Secondary Stage (IEDSS) and Vocational Education (VE) in
their existing form under the umbrella of RMSA.
2. It extended all the benefits of RMSA to aided
secondary schools excluding infrastructure support / core
areas.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

91. Consider the following:
1. Lanthanum, cerium and Neodymium are some of the
rare earth minerals available in India.
2. Recently, both the Ilmenite and Monazite has been
delisted from the list of Prescribed Substances under
the Atomic Energy Act, 1962.
3. In India, the prescribed regulatory inspections of beach
sand mining facilities are being carried out by Atomic
Energy Regulatory Board.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3

92. Which of the following are the common rivers
between India and Nepal?
1. Sarda
2. Rapti
3. Kamla
4. Bagmati
Select the correct answer from the following codes given
below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

93. Consider the following:
1. National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) has
indigenously designed, developed and demonstrated Low
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Temperature Thermal Desalination (LTTD) technology for
conversion of sea water into potable water.
2. The LTTD is a process under which the warm surface
sea water is flash evaporated at low pressure and the
vapour is condensed with cold deep sea water.
3. The LTTD process can be used to generate potable
drinking water utilizing the thermal wastewater from the
thermal power plants.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3

94. Consider the following statements:
1. The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) is
a global study that compiles and presents a case for the
economic basis for conservation of ecosystems and
biodiversity.
2. Its objective is to highlight the growing cost of
biodiversity loss and ecosystem degradation and to draw
together expertise from the fields of science, economics
and policy to enable practical actions.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

95. Ecosystem services are the direct and indirect
contributions of ecosystems to human well-being. Which
of the following are a part of Regulating services?
1. Habitats for species
2. Maintenance of genetic diversity
3. Local climate and air quality
4. Pollination
Select the correct answer from the codes:
a. Only 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 3 and 4

96. Which of the following are Heritage Sites has been
part of World Heritage sites being recognized by UNESCO
in India?
1. Nanda Devi National Park
2. Kaziranga National Park
3. Keoladeo National Park
4. Silent valley National Park
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. 2 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

97. Consider the following:
1. Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP) is a sub
component of the National Rural Livelihoods Mission
(NRLM) to meet the specific needs of women farmers.
2. The programme envisages empowering women in
agriculture by making systematic investments to enhance
their participation and productivity, as also create and
sustain agriculture based livelihoods of rural women.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. 1 only correct
b. 2 only correct
c. Both 1 and 2 are correct
d. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

98. Bansagar dam over sone river is located in which of
the following state?
a. Madhya Pradesh
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Bihar
d. Chhattisgarh

99. Recently Tiger Moth and Globmaster III were in
news. Which of the following is correct in this regard?
a. Latest aircrafts to join the Indian Air Force
b. Water borne diseases
c. Computer Aided Design software developed by
the students of IIT Delhi
d. None of the above

100. International highway to link North-East with the
South-East Asian Nations, is a trilateral project between:
1. India
2. Myanmar
3. Vietnam
4. Thailand
5. Cambodia
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 3and 4
d. 1, 2 and 5






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