Bank Po

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z zz zMUKHERJEE NAGAR z zz z MUNIRKAz zz zUTTAM NAGARz zz zDILSHAD GARDEN z zz zROHINIz zz z BADARPUR BORDER z zz zJAIPURz zz zGURGAONz zz zNOIDA
(1- 5):
A, B, C, D, E, F, G H A ,D
E C, G E H , B
G
1. D C
(1) B (2) C A (3) G
(4) E (5) G E
2. E
(4) C (5)
3. H A
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
4.
(1) CH (2) F G (3) D A
5.
(4) G D (5)
(6-10): #, S, %, @
'A # B A, B
'A $ B 'A, B
'A % B A, B
'A B A ,B
'A @ B A, B
I
II
(1) I
(2) II
(3) I II
(4) I II
(5) I II
6. : A#B, B%C, C D
: I. C @A
II. A # D
7. : P $ Q, Q@S, S%R
: I. P @ R
II. R $ Q
8. : W X, X # Y, Y$Z
: I. W Z
II. W @ Z
9. : G @ H, H $ J, J % K
: I. K G
II. J G
10. : N$ M, M $ P, P$T
: I. T # N
II. P N
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Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight friends sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A
sits second to the left of D, who is third to the left of E. C sits third to the right of G who is not an
immediate neighbour of E H sits third to the right of B, who sits second to the right of G.
1. Who sits between D and C?
(1) Only B (2) Only C and A (3) Only G
(4) Only E (5) Only G and E
2. Who sits second to the right of E?
(1) B (2) F (3) G
(4) C (5) None of these
3. What is the position of A with respect to H?
(1) Third to the left (2) Third to the right (3) Second to the left
(4) Second to the right (5) Fourth to the left
4. Four of the following five are alike based upon their seating arrangements and so form a
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) CH (2) FG (3) DA
(4) BE (5) GB
5. Which of the following pairs has the second person sitting to the immediate left of the first
person?
(1) DB (2) EH (3) FA
(4) GD (5) None of these
Directions (6-10): In the following questions, the symbols #, S, %, and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below:
'A # B means A is not greater than B.
'A $ B means 'A is neither smaller nor equal to B'.
'A % B means A is neither smaller nor greater than B.
'A B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B.
'A @ B means A is not smaller than B.
Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which
of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answers
accordingly. Mark answer
(1) if only conclusion I is true.
(2) if only conclusion II is true.
(3) if either conclusion I or II is true
(4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
6. Statements : A#B, B%C, C D
Conclusions : I. C @A
II. A # D
7. Statements : P $ Q, Q@S, S%R
Conclusions : I. P @ R
II. R $ Q
8. Statements : W X, X # Y, Y$Z
Conclusions : I. W Z
II. W @ Z
9. Statements : G @ H, H $ J, J % K
Conclusions : I. K G
II. J G
10. Statements : N$ M, M $ P, P$T
Conclusions : I. T # N
II. P N
REASONING TEST
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(11 - 15):
I II
(1) I
(2) II
(3) I II
(4) I II
(5) I II
11. :
: I.
II.
12. :
: I.
II.
13. :
: I.
II.
14. :
: I.
II.
15. :
: I.
II.
(16 - 20): I, II III
16. :
: I.
II.
III.
(1) I (2) II III
(3) I II III (4) III (5)
17. :
: I.
II.
III.
(1) (2) I (3) II
(4) III (5) II III
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Directions (11 - 15): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions
numbered I and II An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to
consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption is
implicit in the statement
Give answer (1) if only assumption I is implicit.
Give answer (2) if only assumption II is implicit.
Give answer (3) if either assumption I or II is implicit.
Give answer (4) if neither assumption I or II is implicit.
Give answer (5) if both assumptions I and II are implicit.
11. Statement : Many employees of the organization applied for special sabbatical leave
of two years to pursue higher education.
Assumptions : I. The management of the organization may not grant leave to most of
these employees.
II. These employees may be able to complete their education during the
sabbatical leave.
12. Statement : The college administration has instructed all the students to stop using
cell phones within the college premises.
Assumptions : I. The students may stop using cell phones in the college premises.
II. The students may continue to use cell phones in the college premises.
13. Statement : The Govt. has decided to levy congestion tax on passengers traveling by
air to and from the metro cities.
Assumptions : I. The tax so collected may be adequate to meet part of the expenses for
providing additional resources to handle huge traffic.
II. Passengers traveling by air to and from these cities may be able to pay
extra amount by way of congestion tax.
14. Statement : The local citizens group submitted a memorandum to the civic authority
for allowing them to convert the vacant plot in the locality into a garden
at their own cost.
Assumptions : I. The local citizen group may be able to gather enough funds to develop
the garden.
II. The civic authority may not accept to the request of the local citizen
group.
15. Statement : Most of the private companies have decide against awarding annual
increase in the salaries of their employees for the previous year due to
the current economic situation.
Assumptions : I. Majority of the employees may leave their job to protest against the
decision.
II. These companies may announce hike in salaries next year.
Directions (16 - 20): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three
conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
16 Statements : Some bags are plates.
Some plates are chairs.
All chairs are tables.
Conclusions : I. Some tables are plates.
II. Some chairs are bags.
III. No chair is bag.
(1) Only I follows (2) Only either II or III follows
(3) Only I and either II or III follow (4) Only III follows (5) None of these
17. Statements : All desks are rooms
Some rooms are halls.
All halls are leaves.
Conclusions : I. Some leaves are desks.
II. Some halls are desks.
III. Some leaves are rooms.
(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows (5) Only II and III follow
5
18. :
: I.
II.
III.
(1) (2) I II
III (5) II III
19. :
: I.
II.
III.
(1) I II (2) II III
I III (4) (5)
20. :
: I.
II.
III.
(1) (2) I II
III II III
21. ELRLJ
(1) (2) (3)
22.
(1) (2) (3)
(4)
23. M, D R,D F,M T, R D T
(1) (2) (3)
(4)
24. JM PS BE
25. DENIAL MDCMBJ SOURCE
26.
M L K J I H G F M L K J I H G M L K J I H M L K J I
27. ROAM 5913 DONE 4962 MEAN
28. 53261489
29. STORM
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
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18. Statements : All buildings are mirrors.
Some mirrors are pens.
No pen is paper.
Conclusions : I. Some papers are buildings.
II. Some pens are buildings.
III. Some papers are mirrors.
19. Statements : Some books are trees.
All trees are roads.
All roads are wheels.
Conclusions : I. Some wheels are books.
II. Some roads are books.
III. Some wheels are trees.
(1) Only I and II follow (2) Only II & III follow (3) Only I and III follow
(4) AII follow (5) None of these
20. Statements : All stones are rivers.
All rivers are cars.
Some cars are trains.
Conclusions : I. Some trains are stones.
II. Some Cars are stones.
III. Some trains are rivers.
21. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ELRLJ using each letter
only once in each word?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two
(4) Three (5) More than three
22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
(1) Plastic (2) Nylon (3) Polythene
(4) Terelyne (5) Silk
23. M is sister of D. R is brother of D. F is father of M and T is mother of R. How is D related to T?
(1) Brother (2) Son (3) Daughter
(4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
24. JM is related to PS in the same way as BE is related to
(1) HJ (2) HK (3) IL
(4) JM (5) None of those
25. In a certain code DENIAL is written as MDCMBJ. How is SOURCE written in that code?
(1) TNRFDS (2) RNTFDS (3) TNR3DF
(4) TRNDBQ (5) None of these
26. What should come next in the following letter series?
M L K J I H G F M L K J I H G M L K J I H M L K J I
(1) K (2) N (3) H
(4) M (5) None of these
27. In a certain code ROAM is written as 5913 and DONE is written as 4962. How is MEAN written
in that code?
(1) 5216 (2) 3126 (3) 3216
(4) 9126 (5) None of these
28. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 53261489 are interchanged.
Similarly, the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which
of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement?
(1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 3
29. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STORM each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two
(4) Three (5) More than three
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30.
(2) (3)
(4)
: base 35 or gone 62 49 87 ahead
I : 87 base 35 or gone 62 49 ahead
II : 87 ahead base 35 or gone 62 49
III : 87 ahead 62 base 35 or gone 49
IV : 87 ahead 62 base 49 35 or gone
V
V
31. :
VI
(1) 64 how 56 was your stay 25 36 (2) 64 how 56 slay 36 was 25 your
32. :
33. III : 91 car 85 14 27 few new house
(1) 85 14 91 car 27 few new house
(2) car 91 85 14 27 few new house
(3) car 85 14 27 few newhouse91
34. II
(1) (2) (3)
(5)
35. :
(1) (2) (3)
(4)
(36 - 40):
A, M, D, P, R, T, B H M, A T D, H
T R,B T
36. B
(1) MD (2) DH (3) AM
37. T
38. H
39. B
40.
(4) PMH (5)
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30. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
(1) Blue (2) Green (3) Yellow
(4) Violet (5) Black
Directions (31- 35): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input
and rearrangement.
Input : base 35 or gone 62 49 87 ahead
Step I : 87 base 35 or gone 62 49 ahead
Step II : 87 ahead base 35 or gone 62 49
Step III : 87 ahead 62 base 35 or gone 49
Step IV : 87 ahead 62 base 49 35 or gone
Step V : 87 ahead 62 base 49 gone 35 or
and Step V is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate
step for the given input.
31. Input: how was your stay 56 25 36 64
Which of the following will be step VI?
(1) 64 how 56 was your stay 25 36 (2) 64 how 56 slay 36 was 25 your
(3) 64 how 56 stay 36 was your 25 (4) There will be no such step
(5) None of these
32. Input: power fail now 52 24 75 gate 34
Which of the following steps will be the last but one
(1) V (2) IV (3) VI
(4) III (5) None of these
33. Step III of an input is: 91 car 85 14 27 few new house
Which of the following is definitely the input?
(1) 85 14 91 car 27 few new house
(2) car 91 85 14 27 few new house
(3) car 85 14 27 few new house 91
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
34. Step II of an input is: 75 down 1624 farm eager 62 sky
How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six
(4) Seven (5) None of these
35. Input: 14 35 when they came 61 48 home
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six
(4) Seven (5) None of these
Directions ( 36-40): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
A, M, D, P, R, T, B and H are sitting around a circle, facing the centre, M is third to the left of A,
who is second to the left of T. D is second to the right of H, who is second to the right of T. R is second
to the right of B, who is not an immediate neighbour of T.
36. Which of the following combinations represents the first and the second to the left of B
respectively?
(1) MD (2) DH (3) AM
(4) AR (5) DM
37. Who is third to the right of T?
(1) D (2) B (3) H
(4) M (5) None of these
38. Who is to the immediate left of H?
(1) P (2) M (3) T
(4) R (5) Data inadequate
39. Who is second to the left of B?
(1) D (2) H (3) M
40. In which of the following combinations the third person is second to the left of the second
person?
(1) BAR (2) DBM (3) TPH
(4) PMH (5) None of these
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(41-45):
A, B, C, D, E, F, G H B,D F
C, A F G, E
41.
(1) GCD (2) FGH (3) EFH
(4) ABE (5)
42. H
(1) O (2) D (3) C
(4) (5)
43. A
(1) B (2) E (3) F
(4) (5)
44. B H
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
45. G
(1) H (2) F (3) D
(4) (5)
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
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Directions (41-45): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. B is second to the right of
D, who is third to the right of F. C is second to the left of A, who is second to the left of F. G is third to
the right of E.
41. In which of the following combinations is the first person sitting between the-second and the
third persons?
(1) GCD (2) FGH (3) EFH
(4) ABE (5) None of these
42. Who is third to the right of H?
(1) O (2) D (3) C
43. Who is on the immediate right of A?
(1) B (2) E (3) F
44. What is Hs position with respect to B?
(1) Fifth to the right (2) Third to the left (3) Fifth to the left
(4) Third to the right (5) Fourth to the left
45. Who is on the immediate left of G?
(1) H (2) F (3) D
Direction (46-50): In each of the question given below which one of the five answer figures on
the right should come after or in the place of question mark given in the porblem figures figures
on the left, if the sequence were continued?
46. Problem figures Answer figurers
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Directions (51-65): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below
it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
Political ploys initially hailed as masterstrokes often end up as flops. The
`
60,000 crore farm
loan waiver announced in the budget writes off 100% of overdues of small and marginal farmers
holding up to two hectares, and 25% of overdues of larger farmers. While India has enjoyed 8%-9%
GDP growth for the past few years, the boom has bypassed many rural areas and farmer distress and
suicides have made newspaper headlines. Various attempts 10 provide relief (employment guarantee
scheme, public distribution system) have had little impact, thanks to huge leakages from die
governments lousy delivery systems. So many economists think the loan waiver is a worthwhile
alternative to provide relief.
However, the poorest rural folk are landless labourers, who get neither farm loans nor waivers.
Half of small and marginal farmers get no loans from banks and depend entirely on moneylenders,
and will not benefit. Besides, rural India is full of family holdings rather than individual holdings,
and family holdings will typically be much larger than two hectares even for dirt-poor farmers, who
will, therefore, be denied the 100% waiver, It will thus fail in both its economic and political objectives,
IRDP loans to the rural poor in the 1980s demonstrated that crooked bank officials demand bribes
amounting to one-third the intended benefits. Very few of the intended beneficiaries who merited
relief received it. After the last farm loan waiver in 1990, many banks went slow on fresh farm
loans for some years. This waiver will similarly slow down fresh loans to deserving farmers. While
overdues to co-operatives may be higher, economist Surjit Bhalla says less than 5% of farmer loans
to banks are overdue, in overdues exist for only 2.25 million out of 90 mill ion farmers. If so, then
the 95% who have repaid loans will not benefit, They will be angry at being penalised for honesty.
The budget thus grossly overestimates the number of beneficiaries. It also underestimates
the negative effects of the waiverencouraging wilful defaults in future and discouraging fresh
bank lending for some years. Instead of trying to reach the needy through a plethora of leaky schemes
we should transfer cash directly to the needy, using new technology like biometric smart cards,
which are now being used in many countries, and mobile phone bank accounts. Then benefits can
go direct to phone accounts operable only by those with biometric cards, ending the massive leakages
of current schemes.
The political benefits of the loan waiver have also been exaggerated since if only a small
fraction of farm families benefit and many of these have to pay bribes to get the actual benefit, will
the waiver really be a massive vote-winner? Members of joint families will feel aggrieved that,
despite having less than one hectare per head, their family holding is too large to qualify for the
100% waiver. All finance ministers of the central or state governments, give away freebies in their
last budgets, hoping to win electoral regards. Yet, four-fifths of all incumbent governments are voted
out. This shows that beneficiaries of favours are not notably grateful, while those not so favoured
may feel aggrieved and vote for the Opposition. That seems to be why election budgets constantly
fail to win elections in India and the loan waiver will not change that pattern.
51. Why do economists feel that loan waivers will benefit farmers in distress?
(1) It will improve the standard of living of those farmers who can afford to repay their loans
but are exempted.
(2) Other government relief measures have proved ineffective.
(3) Suicide rates of farmers have declined after the announcement of the waiver.
(4) Farmers will be motivated to increase the size of their family holdings not individual
holdings.
(5) The government will be forced to re-examine and improve the public distribution system.
52. What message will the loan waiver send to farmers who have repaid loans?
(1) The Government will readily provide them with loans in the future.
(2) As opposed to moneylenders, banks are a safer and more reliable source of credit.
(3) Honesty is the best policy.
(4) It is beneficial to take loans from co-operatives since their rates of interest are lower.
(5) None of these
ENGLISH LANGUAGE & COMPREHENSION
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53. What is the authors suggestion to provide aid to farmers?
(1) Families should split their joint holding to take advantage of the loan waiver.
(2) The government should increase the reach of the employment guarantee scheme.
(3) Loans should be disbursed directly into bank accounts of the farmer using the latest
technology.
(4) Government should ensure that loan waivers can be implemented over a number of years.
(5) Rural infrastructure can be improved using schemes which were successful abroad.
54. What was the outcome of IRDP loans to the rural poor?
(1) The percentage of bank loans sanctioned to family owned farms increased.
(2) The loans benefited dishonest moneylenders, not landless labourers.
(3) Corrupt bank officials were the unintended beneficiaries of the loans.
(4) It resulted in the government sanctioning thrice the amount for the current loan waiver.
(5) None of these
55. What are the terms of the loan waiver ?
A. One-fourth of the overdue loans of landless laborers will be written off.
B. The
`
60,000/crore loan waiver has been sanctioned for 2.25 million marginal fanners.
C. Any farmer with between 26 percent and 100 percent of their loan repayments overdue
will be penalised.
(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Both B & C
(4) A1l A, B & C (5) None of these
56. What is the authors view of the loan waiver?
(1) It will have an adverse psychological impact on those who cannot avail of the waiver.
(2) It is a justified measure in view of the- high suicide rate among landless labourers.
(3) It makes sound economic and political sense in the existing scenario.
(4) It will ensure that the benefits of Indias high GDP are fell by the rural poor.
(5) None of these
57. Which of the following can not be said about loan waiver?
A. Small and marginal farmers will benefit the most.
B. The loan waiver penalises deserving farmers.
C. A large percentage in ninety-five percent of distressed farmers will benefit.
(1) Only C (2) Both A & C (3) Only A
(4) Both B & C (5) None of these
58. Which of the following will definitely be an impact of loan waiver?
A. Family holdings will be split into individual holdings not exceeding one hectare.
B. The public distribution system will be revamped.
C. Opposition will definitely win the election.
(1) None (2) Only A (3) Both A & B
(4) Only C (5) All A, B & C
59. What impact will the loan waiver have on banks?
(1) Banks have to bear the entire brunt of the write off.
(2) Loss of trust in banks by big farmers
(3) Corruption among bank staff will increase.
(4) Farmers will make it a habit to default on Joans.
(5) None of these
60. According to the author, what is the governments motive in sanctioning the loan waiver?
(1) To encourage farmers to opt for bank loans over loans from moneylenders
(2) To raise 90 million farmers out of indebtedness
(3) To provide relief to those marginal farmers who have the means to but have not repaid
their loans
(4) To ensure they will be reelected
(5) None of these
Directions (61-63): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
161. incumbent
(1) mandatory (2) present (3) incapable
(4) lazy (5) officious
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62. ploys
(1) surveys (2) entreaties (3) ruses
(4) conspiracies (5) assurances
63. aggrieved
(1) vindicated (2) intimidated (3) offensive
(4) wronged (5) disputed
Directions (64-65): Choose the word/phrase which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
64. plethora
(1) dearth (2) missing (3) superfluous
(4) sufficient (5) least
65. merited
(1) ranked (2) unqualified for (3) lacked
(4) inept at (5) unworthy of
Directions (66-70): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase
given in hold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and
correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and No correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
66. The main objective of the workshop has made children aware of Western classical music.
(1) will make children are aware (2) is to make children aware
(3) is making aware children (4) awareness of children
(5) No correct ion required
67. Afraid of missing her train and was late for the meeting. Sunita arrived an hour early at the
station.
(1) but later for (2) and been late to (3) after being late
(4) and being late for (5) No correction required
68. As a famous historian he has travelled around the world giving lectures on rare subjects.
(1) rarely to subjects (2) of rare subject (3) with rarest of subject
(4) in subjects rarely (5) No correct ion required
69. The stadium wherever the opening ceremony will be held next month, is equipped with the
latest facilities.
(1) in the opening ceremony (2) which the ceremony will open
(3) where the opening ceremony (4) that the opening ceremony
(5) No correction required
70. There will beat rend of unseasonal rainfall in April, in recent years.
(1) There has been (2) It has been (3) There is being
(4) It may have been (5) No correction required
Directions (71-75): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D). (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them
A. Assuming that all these reasons are true, the fact remains that there is an urgent need to
check the accelerated costs and initiate suitable measures.
B. Some people attribute to the increasing greediness among the medicos.
C. The impact of these measures will be visible only after a considerable passage of time.
D. Healthcare costs have been skyrocketing in our country.
E. The measures include yoga classes with emphasis on physical and mental exercises and
also change in food habits,
F. Certain others feel that it is because of drastic changes in peoples lifestyle and eating
habits.
71. Which of the following would be the FIRST statement after rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D (5) E
72. Which of the following would be the SECOND statement after rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D (5) E
73. Which of the following would be the FOURTH statement after rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D (5) E
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74. Which of the following would be the FIFTH statement after rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D (5) E
75. Which of the following would be the SIXTH (LAST) statement after rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D (5) C
Directions (76-85): In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words have been suggested,
one of which fits the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Traditional bank architecture is based on bank branches. These branches ensure the physical
(76) of a customers savings. A customer may go there to deposit and withdraw money, (77) loans
and (78) in other financial transactions. In the past two decades banking architecture has changed
the Automated Teller Machine (ATM) has been a big (79) and credit and debit cards have created
new financial spaces (80) the bank branch has remained the bedrock of the banking system after
all a person needs a bank account in a branch before he can operate a debit or ATM card. This may
be about to change as technocrats now (81) cell phones as the new architecture of virtual banks.
This has the potential to make branches (82). Cell phone banking looks especially relevant for
India since it can penetrate the countryside cheaply and (83). The world over cell phones are spreading
at a (84) rate and in India alone new cell phone connections are growing at the rate of six million a
month a rate of customer (85) that no bank can dream of.
76. (1) knowledge (2) security (3) presence
(4) confidentiality (5) guarantee
77. (1) negotiate (2) advance (3) credit
(4) disburse (5) sanction
78. (1) pursue (2) interact (3) operate
(4) enable (5) engage
79. (1) drawback (2) hurdle (3) consequence
(4) luxury (5) innovation
80. (1) Despite (2) Although (3) Even
(4) Yet (5) Until
81. (1) view (2) realise (3) display
(4) engineer (5) assess
82. (1) essential (2) obsolete (3) extant
(4) retreat (5) expired
83. (1) moderately (2) occasionally (3) conipulsort1y
(4) indiscriminately (5) effectively
84. (1) phenomenal (2) gradual (3) proportionate
(4) competitive (5) projected
85. (1) discount (2) base (3) expansion
(4) satisfaction (5) relationship
Directions (86-90): Read each sentence to find whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the
answer If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
86. So drastic drop(1) / in foodgrain production (2)/means a heavy (3)/ loss for farmers.(4)/ No
error.(5)
87. We are interesting in purchasing (1)/ the new laptop model since (2)/ it has many features
(3)/unavailable in conventional computers. (4)/No error(5)
88. The committee reviewing (1) / the deal comprising /(2) leading businessmen and
policymakers(3)/of our country.(4)/No error
89. Our company has initiated (1)/talks to sell more (2)/of twenty percent of (3)/ its stake in these
subsidiaries. (4)/No error. (5)
90. Owing to inflation(1)/ restaurants have hiked (2) / their prices by (3)/ approximate thirty
percent. (4)/ No error.(5)
15
(91-100):
91. { (52) + (45)
2
} ? = 8
(1) 611.345 (2) 487.225 (3) 591.125
(4) 372.425 (5)
92. 752.6 72% = 48% of ?
(1) 1128.9 (2) 1332.7 (3) 1536.5
(4) 1742.3 (5)
93. 658 ?% + 845 40% = 568.3
(1) 46 (2) 42 (3) 38
(4) 35 (5)
94. (1245 15.5% )-( 1458 12.5%) = ?
(1) 10.725 (2) 10.735 (3) 10.745
(4) 10.755 (5)
95. (64)
4
(8)
5
= ?
(1) (8)
12
(2) (8)
9
(3) (8)
4
(4) (8)
2
(5)
96. (99.75)
2
- 2250.0625 = ?
(1) 9900.625 (2) 7700 (3) 6545.625
(4) 8875 (5)
97. (12.25)
2
-
625
=?
(1) 235.1625 (2) 125.0625 (3) 375.2625
(4) 465.3625 (5)
98. 383 38 3.8 = ?
(1) 58305.8 (2) 57305.6 (3) 56305.4
(4) 55305.2 (5)
99. 43.231 - 12.779 - 6.542 - 0.669 = ?
(1) 27.341 (2) 25.242 (3) 23.241
(4) 21.342 (5)
100. 572 + 38 0.50 - 16 = ?
(1) 289 (2) 305 (3) 448
(4) 565 (5)
(101 - 105 ) :
101. (4576 + 3286 + 5639) (712 + 415 + 212) = ? .
(1) 18 (2) 22 (3) 34
(4) 10 (5) 46
102. 675.456 + 12.492 55.671 = ?
(1) 971 (2) 1071 (3) 1171
(4) 1271 (5) 1371
103. (447.22)
2
= ?
(1) 200000 (2) 210000 (3) 220000
(4) 230000 (5) 240000
104. 4374562 64 = ? 7777
(1) 360 (2) 3600 (3) 36000
(4) 360000 (5) 3600000
105. (872% of 659) 543 = ?
(1) 17 (2) 11 (3) 21
(4) 27 (5) 31
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16
Directions (91-100): What should come in place o question mark (?) in the following questions?
91. {(52) + (45)
2
} ? = 8
(1) 611.345 (2) 487.225 (3) 591.125
(4) 372.425 (5) None of these
92. 72% of 752.6 = 48% of ?
(1) 1128.9 (2) 1332.7 (3) 1536.5
(4) 1742.3 (5) None of these
93. ? % of 658 + 40% of 845 = 568.3
(1) 46 (2) 42 (3) 38
94. (15.5% of 1245)-(12.5% of 1458) = ?
(1) 10.725 (2) 10.735 (3) 10.745
(4) 10.755 (5) None of these
95. (64)
4
(8)
5
= ?
(1) (8)
12
(2) (8)
9
(3) (8)
4
(4) (8)
2
(5) None of these
96. (99.75)
2
- 2250.0625 = ?
(1) 9900.625 (2) 7700 (3) 6545.625
97. (12.25)
2
-
625
=?
(1) 235.1625 (2) 125.0625 (3) 375.2625
(4) 465.3625 (5) None of these
98. 383 38 3.8 = ?
(1) 58305.8 (2) 57305.6 (3) 56305.4
(4) 55305.2 (5) None of these
99. 43.231 - 12.779 - 6.542 - 0.669 = ?
(1) 27.341 (2) 25.242 (3) 23.241
(4) 21.342 (5) None of these
100. 572 + 38 0.50 - 16 = ?
(1) 289 (2) 305 (3) 448
Directions (101-105): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the
following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
101. (4576 + 3286 + 5639) (712 + 415 + 212) = ? .
(1) 18 (2) 22 (3) 34
(4) 10 (5) 46
102. 675.456 + 12.492 55.671 = ?
(1) 971 (2) 1071 (3) 1171
(4) 1271 (5) 1371
103. (447.22)
2
= ?
(1) 200000 (2) 210000 (3) 220000
(4) 230000 (5) 240000
104. 4374562 64 = ? 7777
(1) 360 (2) 3600 (3) 36000
(4) 360000 (5) 3600000
105. (872% of 659) 543 = ?
(1) 17 (2) 11 (3) 21
(4) 27 (5) 31
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
17
106.
(1) 72 (2) 84 (3) 96
(4) 108 (5)
107.
(1) 24 (2) 18 (3) 15
(4) (5)
108.
`
45
(1)
`
1020.60 (2)
`
398.80 (3)
`
437.40
(4)
`
583.20 (5)
109.
(1) 75% (2) 88% (3) 90%
(4) 100% (5)
110. 200% 350%,
5
12
(1)
5
9
(2)
5
8
(3)
7
12
(3)
11
12
(5)
111.
?
576
=
256
?
(1) 384 (2) 398 (3) 404
(4) 416 (5)
112.
(1) 51 (2) 153 (3) 104
(4) 88 (5)
113. 3Y + 9X = 54
28X
13Y
=
140
39
Y-X
(1) -1 (2) -2 (3) 2
(4) 1 (5)
114.
`
2,236 A, B C A C C B
A
(1)
`
460 (2)
`
890 (3)
`
780
(4)
`
1280 (5)
115. 53 58
(1) 58.62 (2) 58.37 (3) 57.37
(4) 57.62 (5)
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18
106. The sum of five numbers is 290. The average of the first two numbers is 48.5 and the average
of the last two numbers is 53.5. What is the third number ?
(1) 72 (2) 84 (3) 96
107. On a Schools Annual Day sweets were to be equally distributed amongst 112 children. But on
that particular day, 32 children were absent. Thus the remaining children got 6 extra sweets.
How many sweets was each child originally supposed to get?
(1) 24 (2) 18 (3) 15
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
108. An order was placed for supply of carpet of breadth 3 metres and the length of the carpet was
1.44 times of breadth. Subsequently the breadth and length were increased by 25 and 40 per
cent respectively. At the rate of
`
45 per square metre, what would be the increase the cost of
the carpet?
(1)
`
1020.60 (2)
`
398.80 (3)
`
437.40
(4)
`
583.20 (5) None of these
109. In a mixture of milk and water the proportion of water by weight was 75%. If in 60 gm of
mixture 1 5 gm water was added, what would be the percentage of water? (Weight in gm)
(1) 75% (2) 88% (3) 90%
(4) 100% (5) None of these
110. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased by
350%, the resultant fraction is
5
12
. What was the original fraction?
(1)
5
9
(2)
5
8
(3)
7
12
(3)
11
12
(5) None of these
111. Which number should replace both the question marks m the following equation?
?
576
=
256
?
(1) 384 (2) 398 (3) 404
112. The length of a rectangular plot is thrice its breadth. If the area of the rectangular plot is 7803
sq m, what is the breadth of the rectangular plot?
(1) 51 metres (2) 153 metres (3) 104 metres
(4) 88 metres (5) None of these
113. If 3Y + 9X = 54 and
28X
13Y
=
140
39
then, what is the value of Y-X ?
(1) -1 (2) -2 (3) 2
114. A sum of
`
2,236 is divided among A. B and C such that A receives 25% more than C and C
receives 25% less than B. What is As share in the amount?
(1)
`
460 (2)
`
890 (3)
`
780
(4)
`
1280 (5) None of these
115. The average weight of a group of 53 girls was calculated as 58 kg. It was later discovered that
the weight of one of the girls was read as 65 kg, whereas her actual weight was 45 kg. What is
the actual average weight of the group of the 53 girls ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(1) 58.62 (2) 58.37 (3) 57.37
(4) 57.62 (5) None of these
19
116. II
117. V
118. III IV
119. VI
120. VI I
(121-125):
121.
122. E
(1) 12 (2) 8 (3) 10
123.
124. D
125. B
(4) 373.3 (5)
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20
Directions (116-120): Study the information in the following pie-charts to answer these questions:
DETAILS Of 1500 EMPLOYEES WORKING IN AN ORGANISATION IN VARIOUS SCALES
BREAKUP OF1500 EMPLOYEES BREAKUPO 1800 MALE EMPLOYEES
ACROSS THE SCALES ACROSS THE SCALES
116. How many females are working in Scale II ?
(1) 144 (2) 81 (3) 96
117. What is the ratio of male to female employees working in Scale V?
(1) 7 : 8 (2) 2 :1 (3) 8 : 7
(4) 1 : 2 (5) None of these
118. What is the total number of female employees working in Scales III and IV together?
(1) 219 (2) 157 (3) 162
119. The number of male employees working in Scale VI is what per cent of the total number of
employees in that scale? (rounded off to the nearest integer)
(1) 35 (2) 46 (3) 44
120. What is the ratio of the female employees in Scale VI to the male employees in Scale I?
(1) 32 : 23 (2) 22 : 33 (3) 12 : 23
(4) 23 :12 (5) None of these
Directions (121-125): Study the following table carefully to answer these questions.
Percentage of marks obtained by six students in different subjects
121. What is the average marks obtained by all students in Geography?
(1) 41.5 (2) 42.5 (3) 38.5
122. Marks obtained by E in Economics is approximately what percent of the total marks obtained
by him in all subjects together?
(1) 12 (2) 8 (3) 10
(4) 22 (5) 17
123. What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by all the students in English?
(1) 83 (2) 69 (3) 71
124. What is the total marks obtained by D in History, Mathematics Science and English together?
(1) 256.25 (2) 275.55 (3) 235.75
(4) 253.75 (5) None of these
125. What is the total marks obtained by B in all subjects together?
(1) 376.3 (2) 373.6 (3) 376.6
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21
(126-130):
126. A D
(1) 11 : 12 (2) 13 : 11 (3) 12 : 11
(4) 11 : 13 (5)
127.
(1) 2800000 (2) 2901000 (3) 2755000
(4) 2795000 (5) 2917000
128. B C
(1) 75 (2) 112 (3) 124
(4) 133 (5) 97
129. A, B C D, E F
(1) 18 : 17 (2) 13 : 11 (3) 17 : 18
(4) 14 : 13 (5)
130. E
(1) 17.14 (2) 15.43 (3) 20.31
(4) 14.49 (5)
(131-135):
HRM
HRM
RHM
RHM
RHM
HRM
HRM
131. HRM
(1) 110 (2) 128 (3) 118
(4) 98 (5)
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22
Directions (126-130): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions.
Number of Candidates Appearing for an Entrance Test from Various Cities (Number in Lakhs)
126. What is the ratio of the number of candidates appearing for the Enhance Test from city A to
that from city D in the year 2808?
(1) 11 : 12 (2) 13 : 11 (3) 12 : 11
(4) 11 : 13 (5) None of these
127. What is the approximate average number of candidates appearing for the Entrance Test from
all the cities together in the year 2007?
(1) 2800000 (2) 2901000 (3) 2755000
(4) 2795000 (5) 2917000
128. The number of candidates-appearing for the Entrance Test from city B in the year 2008 is
approximately what per cent of the number of candidates appearing for the Entrance Test
from-city C in the same year?
(1) 75 (2) 112 (3) 124
(4) 133 (5) 97
129. What is the ratio of the number of students appearing for the Entrance Test from cities A, B
and C together in the year 2007 to the number of students appearing for the Entrance Test
from cities D. E and F together in the same year?
(1) 18 : 17 (2) 13 : 11 (3) 17 : 18
(4) 14 : 13 (5) None of these
130. The number of candidates appearing for the Entrance Test from city E in the year 2008 is what
percent of the total number of candidates appearing for the Entrance Test from all the cities
together in that year (rounded off to two digits after decimal)?
(1) 17.14 (2) 15.43 (3) 20.31
Directions (131-135): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
An Institute having 450 employees has sum all its employees for training in one or more
areas out of HRM, Computer Skills and Financial Skills. The employees are classified into two
categories Officers and Clerks, who are in the ratio of 4 : 5. 10% of the Officers take training only in
Computer skills, 16% of the Clerks take training only in HRM which is equal to the number of
Officers taking training only in Financial Skills and 50% of the number of Officers taking training
in HRM and Financial Skills both. 6% of the total employees take training in all the three of which
two-thirds are officers. 10% of the total employees take training in HRM and Computer Skills both,
which is five times the number of Clerks taking training in Computer Skills and Financial Skills.
10% of the Clerks take training in HRM and Computer Skills both. The number of Officers taking
training only in HRM is 25% of the number of Clerks taking training only in HRM. 20% of the total
number of employees lake training only in Computer Skills. Number of clerks taking training in
HRM and Financial skills both is 20% of the total number of Clerks.
131. Total how many officers take training in HRM?
(1) 110 (2) 128 (3) 118
23
132. HRM
(1) 113 (2) 104 (3) 88
(4) 79 (5)
133. HRM
(1) 106 (2) 135 (3) 127
(4) 134 (5)
134.
(1) 115 (2) 106 (3) 47
(4) 97 (5)
135.
(1) 25 (2) 40 (3) 20
(4) 15 (5)
(136-140):
= 640
136.
(1) 9% (2) 11% (3) 13%
(4) 14% (5) 7%
137.
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 1 : 3
(4) 2 : 3 (5) 2 : 1
138.
(1) 8% (2) 20% (3) 30%
(4) 18% (5) 10%
139. 'B' 'A' 'B'
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 6 : 5 (3) 4 : 3
(4) 7 : 6 (5) 4 : 5
140. 'B'
(1) 30% (2) 35% (3) 25%
(4) 20% (5) 15
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24
132. Total how many Clerks take training in Computer Skills but not in HRM
(1) 113 (2) 104 (3) 88
133. Total how many employees take training in Financial Skills but not in HRM?
(1) 106 (2) 135 (3) 127
134. Total how many Clerks take training in Financial Skills?
(1) 115 (2) 106 (3) 47
135. What per cent of the total number of Officers take training in Computer Skills but not in
Financial Skills?
(1) 25 (2) 40 (3) 20
Direction (136-140): Study the following profit of parliament carefully and answer the question
given below it.
Profile of Parliament in year Total members in Parliament = 640 (490 from Lok Sabha and
150 from Rajya Sabha)
136. What is the approximate percentage of the Muslim members in the Lok Sabha?
(1) 9% (2) 11% (3) 13%
(4) 14% (5) 7%
137. In the Rajya Sabha, if 30 male member were replaced by 30 females members, then what
would be the ratio of male member to female members?
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 1 : 3
(4) 2 : 3 (5) 2 : 1
138. What percentage of members in parliament are businessmen?
(1) 8% (2) 20% (3) 30%
(4) 18% (5) 10%
139. If all the 'others' of Lok Sabha join the party 'B' the what will be the ratio of the members of
party 'A' to the members of party 'B'?
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 6 : 5 (3) 4 : 3
(4) 7 : 6 (5) 4 : 5
140. Out of total member of party 'B' in parliament, what percentage of the member belong to Rajya
Sabha?
(1) 30% (2) 35% (3) 25%
(4) 20% (5) 15
25
141.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
142.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
143.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
144.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
145.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
146.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
147.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
148.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
149.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
150.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
151.
(1) 462 (2) 562 (3) 662
(4) 762 (5) 862
152.
(1) 1958 (2) 1960 (3) 1962
(4) 1964 (5) 1990
153.
(1) 1982 (2) 1984 (3) 1986
(4) 1988 (5) 1990
154.
(1) 11 (2) 13 (3) 15
(4) 17 (5) 19
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26
141. The Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare, Ghulam Nabi Azad announced that not a
single case of wild polio has been reported from any part of the country since the past-
years.
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four
(4) Five (5) Six
142. Which country has become the 18th member of the euro zone?
(1) Switzerland (2) Latvia (3) Romania
(4) Sweden (5) None of these
143. Ariel Sharon passed away at the age of 85. Who was he?
(1) Former Prime Minister of Israiel
(2) Former Prime Minister of Iran
(3) Former Prime Minister of Iraque
(4) Former Prime Minister of Indonesia
(5) None of these
144. Corey Anderson, who hit the fastest century in one-day international history recently, belongs
to which country?
(1) New Zealand (2) South Africa (3) England
(4) Australia (5) None of these
145. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh inaugurated the Petrotech-2014 at-
(1) Greater Noida (2) Ghaziabad (3) Faridabad
(4) Mathura (5 Kanpur
146. With which of the following, the Election Commission of India tied up for online voters
registration?
(1) Twitter (2) Yahoo (3) Facebook
(4) Google (5) None of these
147. Currently, India ranks in terms of energy production but fourth in terms of consumption.
(1) 7th (2) 8th (3) 9th
(4) 10th (5) 11th
148. Who is the new Air Force Chief of India?
(1) Kishore Chandra (2) Arun Singh (3) Vivek Tyagi
(4) Arup Raha (5) None of these
149. The National Youth Festival was held in Ludhiana from the 12th-16th January, 2014.
(1) 14th (2) 15th (3) 16th
(4) 17th (5) 18th
150. Worlds top three biggest coffee exporting countries are .
(1) Brazil, Indonesia and Vietnam
(2) Vietnam, Brazil and Indonesia
(3) Brazil, Vietnam and Indonesia
(4) Indonesia, Vietnam and Brazil
(5) None of these
151. The Union Urban Development has approved the proposal for release of third installment of
Rs. lakhs for the BRTS corridor-Kalewadi-KSB Chowk to Dehu-Alandi Road (Trunk Route 7).
(1) 462 (2) 562 (3) 662
(4) 762 (5) 862
152. The Cental Vigilance Commission was set up in on the recommendation of Santanam
Committee.
(1) 1958 (2) 1960 (3) 1962
(4) 1964 (5) 1966
153. South Asian Federation of Accountants (SAFA) was formed in the year.
(1) 1982 (2) 1984 (3) 1986
(4) 1988 (5) 1990
154. The President of India Pranab Mukherjee has conferred Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Awards
to NRIs, PIOs and Organisations for their outstanding and illustrious contribution in the
country of their residence as well as to India in different spheres of their activity.
(1) 11 (2) 13 (3) 15
(4) 17 (5) 19
GENERAL AWARENESS
27
155.
`
(1) 15000 (2) 25000 (3) 35000
(4) 45000 (5) 55000
156.
A.
B.
C.
`
(1) B (2) A (3) B C
(4) A C (5) A, B C
157.
A.
B.
C.
(1) A (2) A B (3) B C
(4) A C (5) B
158.
A.
B.
C.
(1) A B (2) B C (3) C
(4) A (5) A , B C
159.
A.
B.
C.
(1) A (2) A B (3) A C
(4) C (5) A , B C
160.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) B D (2) B C (3) A , D C
(4) A (5) A , B C
161.
A.
B.
C.
(1) A B (2) C (3) B C
(4) A (5) A , B C
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28
155. Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyanisa flag ship programme that has been launched with
an outlay of
`
crores under the XII Plan, ending 2017.
(1) 15000 (2) 25000 (3) 35000
(4) 45000 (5) 55000
156. Consider the following statements:
A. Manish Tiwari is the Union Minister of State for Information & Broadcasting.
B. Manish Tiwari laid the Foundation Stone of Rural Road under PMGSY at village Dhandra of
Ludhiana.
C. The Road from Dugri to Dhandra is to be built up with cost of Rs. 1 crore 62 lacs and 37
thousand.
Which of the above is/are TRUE?
(1) Only B (2) Only A (3) Both B and C
(4) Both A and C (5) A, B and C
A. P.M. Manmohan Singh released a postage stamp in the memory of Punjab leader Beant
Singh.
B. Beant Singh was assassinated in a car bomb attack in secretariat complex in Chandigarh
on August 31,1995.
C. Beant Singh has been the Chief Minister of Punjab from 1991 to 1995.
(1) Only A (2) Both A and B (3) Both B and C
(4) Both A and C (5) Only B
A. The Rajya Sabha passed the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Bill, 2011 on December 17,2013.
B. The Bill has been passed by the Lok Sabha on December 18,2013.
C. The Lokpal will consist of a Chairperson and a maximum of eighteen Members, of which
fifty percent shall be judicial members.
Which of the above is/are FALSE?
(1) Both A and B (2) Both B and C (3) Only C
(4) Only A (5) A, B and C
A. Indias indigenously developed Pinaka rockets were successfully test-fired.
B. Seven rounds of Pinaka rockets were successfully tested.
C. The Pinaka system with a battery of six launchers could fire a salvo of 12 rockets in 44
seconds.
(1) Only A (2) Both A and B (3) Both A and C
(4) Only C (5) A, B and C
A. India and Venezuela signed a Programme on Cultural Exchange.
B. The programme was signed by the Secretary, Ministry of Culture, Government of India,
Ravindra Singh.
C. Javier Sarabia is the Minister of State for the Promotion of Cultural Economy, Ministry of
Peoples Power for Culture of Venezuela.
D. Programme on Cultural Exchange shall be valid for four years.
(1) Both B and D (2) Both B and C (3) A,D and C
A. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh released Headwaters, recently.
B. Headwaters is a new music album of popular sarod players Amaan Ali Khan and Ayaan Ali
Khan.
C. In 2011, Manmohan Singh released Ustad Amjad Ali Khans album Sarod Symphony.
(1) Both A and B (2) Only C (3) Both B and C
29
162.
A.
`
B.
C.
(1) B (2) A C (3) A
(4) A B (5) A , B C
163.
A. III
B.
C. III
D. III
(1) A B (2) B , C D (3) A
(4) C (5) A , B C
164.
A.
`
B. A
C.
D. I
(1) A C (2) A (3) B , C D
(4) A D (5) D
165.
A.
`
B.
C.
(1) B (2) B C (3) A C
(4) A (5) A , B C
166.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
167.
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (5)
168.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
169.
A.
B.
C.
(1) A (2) A C (3) C
(4) B (5)
Centres at:
==================================================================================
30
162. Consider the following statements;
A. Assam government announced a Rs 100-crore special package for uplift of the tea garden
communities.
B. The amount will primarily be spent for expanding education and increasing employment
opportunities among tea tribes.
C. The Chief Minister of Assam is Parkash Singh Badal.
Which of the above is/are TRUE
(1) Only B (2) Both A and C (3) Only A
(4) Both A and B (5) A,B and C
A. India test-fired its nuclear-capable Agni-III ballistic missile.
B. It has a strike range of more than 3,000 km.
C. It was the third user trial in the Agni-III series carried out.
D. The Agni-III missile is powered by a two-stage solid propellant system.
Which of the above is/are TRUE
(1) Both A and B (2) B,C and D (3) Only A
(4) All except C (5) A, B and C
A. Defence Ministry cleared procurement proposals worth over Rs 16,000 crore.
B. These proposals (mentioned in A) included Israeli Barak missiles proposal too.
C. Israeli Barak missiles acquisition was on hold for the last five years due to a CBI probe in
an alleged bribery case.
D. The Ministry had put on hold procurement of Barak-I missiles because of a CBI probe in
the case since 2008.
(1) Both A and C (2) Only A (3) B, C and D
(4) Both A and D (5) Only D
165. Consider the following statements;
A. The Union Cabinet approved the proposal for setting up of National Cancer Institute at a
cost of Rs. 2035 crore.
B. NCI will be set up in the Jhajjar campus of All Indialnstitute of Medical Sciences New
Delhi.
C. This institute is aimed to plan, conduct and coordinate research on cancers which are
more specific to India; like tobacco related cancers, cancer of the uterine cervix, gall bladder
cancer and liver cancers.
(1) Only B (2) Both B and C (3) Both A and C
166. Which of the following is not a Banking/ Economy Term ?
(1) Factoring (2) Blue Chip (3) Insider Trading
(4) Capital gain (5) Digital Signature
167. Which one of the following sources is not considered as a. source of Government revenue ?
(1) Taxes (2) Surplus of Public Enterprises
(3) Mobilisation of internal loan and deposits
(4) Transfer Payments (5) None of these
168. In India, the concept of Micro finance was started in the year______
(1) 1997 (2) 1992 (3) 1999
169. As we know that Reserve Bank of India changes the CRR.
Which of the following statement is correct in this regard ?
A. Reduction in CRR increases the liquidity position within Indian banks.
B. Decrease in CRR decreases lending capacity of banks.
C. Increase in CRR does not affect the liquidity position.
(1) Only A (2) A and C (3) Only C
(4) Only B (5) None of these
31
170. Discount and Finance House of India Limited
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
171.
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (5)
172.
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (5)
173.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
174.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
175.
(1) (2)
(3)
(4) (5)
176.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
177.
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (5)
178.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
179.
A.
B.
C.
(1) A B (2) C (3) B
(4) A C (5)
180.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
Centres at:
==================================================================================
32
170. Discount and Finance House of India Limited was set up by RBI in_______
(1) 1988 (2) 1989 (3) 1987
171. Demand deposits means________
(1) Current deposits (2) Fixed deposits
(3) Deposits withdraw able on demand by the depositor
(4) Short deposits (5) None of these
172. The relationship between a banker and a customer is __
(1) That of a debtor and a creditor (2) Primarily that of a debtor and a creditor
(3) That of a creditor and a debtor (4) Both 1 and 2
(5) None of these
173. FCNR accounts can be opened and maintained as __
(1) Savings Bank Account (2) Term Deposit Accounts
(3) Recurring Deposits (4) Current Accounts (5) None of these
174. Bank rate policy as a weapon of credit control has emerged from the Central Banks function
as
(1) Lender of the last resort (2) Bankers Bank (3) Bank of Issuer
(4) Controller of capital (5) None of these
175. Current Account Deficit on the Balance of payment reflects________
(1) Deficit on Trade Account.
(2) Deficit on Invisibles Account.
(3) Deficit on Trade and Invisibles Account.
(4) Deficit on Trade Invisibles and Capital Account,
(5) None of these
176. Which one of the following is an example of joint supply ?
(1) Sugar and Tea (2) Diesel and Bus (3) Ink and Fountain Pen
(4) Wool and Mutton (5) None of these
177. Which of the following effects of deficit financing of the central government affects the common
man most adversely?
(1) inflationary rise in prices. (2) Credit creation by banks
(3) Changes in the pattern of social investment
(4) Forced savings (5) None of these
178. The currency notes deposited in the currency chest are the property of_______
(1) Government of India (2) RBI (3) Respective Bank
(4) SBI (5) None of these
179. Consider the following statements regarding Loan syndication and state which among those
are true ?
A. More than one debtors applying for a loan to one creditor.
B. More than one creditors coming together to provide single loan.
C. More than one creditors coming toghter to provide multiple loans.
(1) A and B (2) Only C (3) Only B
(4) A and C (5) None of these
180. Fiscal stimulus is described as .
(1) It is massive investment by the Government in manufacturing sector to ensure the supply
of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth.
(2) It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the
country.
(3) It is governments intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of
loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food
in flatfpn
(4) It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of financial
inclusion
(5) None of these
33
www.amazon.com
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
http
(1) HTML (2)
(3) (4)
(5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
CSRJ
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2)
(3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2) ICs (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) POS
(4) (5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (5)
Centres at:
==================================================================================
34
Computer Knowledge
181. An on line commercial site such as www.amazon.com is an example of
(1) Single user database application (2) Multi user database application
(3) E-commerce database application (4) Data mining database application
(5) None of these
182. The 'http' you type at the beginning of any site's address stands for ________
(1) HTML Transfer Technology Process
(2) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(3) Hyperspace Techniques and Technology Protocol
(4) Hyper Space Terms and Teaching Protocol
(5) None of these
183. The operating system is the most common type of _______software.
(1) Communication (2) Application (3) System
(4) Word processing software (5) None of these
184. Programs form the same developer, sold bundled together, that provide better integration and
share common features, toolbars and menu are known as _________
(1) Software suites (2) Integrated software package
(3) Software processing package (4) Personal information manager
(5) None of these
185. Which of the following is a dataware house?
(1) Can be updated by the end users (2) Contains numerous naming connecting
(3) Organised around important subject areas
(4) Contains only current data (5) None of these
186. The second generation computers were based upon____
(1) Transistor (2) ICs (3) Valves
(4) Chips (5) None of these
187. The number of keys in a key board are___
(1) 100 (2) 88 (3) 101
(4) 110 (5) 117
188. is seen as important tool by modern business to transform data into business
intelligence giving an information advantage.
(1) Data mining (2) Data selection (3) POS
(4) Data conversion (5) None of these
189. is use of electronic message system to send unsolicited bulk message indiscriminately.
(1) Spam (2) Worm (3) Function
(4) Alpha key (5) None of these
190. Which of the following key do you use in programming?
(1) Arrow keys (2) Function key (3) Alpha Keys
(4) Number keys (5) None of these
191. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a computer?
(1) intelligence (2) speed (3) versatility
(4) automation (5) None of these
192. What can a firewall not do?
(1) Protect against unauthorised logins from external networks
(2) Protect the network against users connecting to internet by dailing to their ISP using their
office telephone and modem
(3) Appear tranparent to their users (4) Either (1) or (2) (5) All of the above
193. 11110011 is equivalent to
(1) 242 (2) 243 (3) 245
194. The first step in verifying user access in DBMS software is
(1) identification (2) authorisation
(3) access to data for different purposes (4) either (1) or (2) (5) all of the above
35
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
1 MB = 1024 KB 1 GB = 1024 KB 1 TB = 1032 GB
1 BYTE = 4 BIT 1 Bit = 4 Bytes
MS-Excel 2007 Alignment
Top align, bottom align, middle align, left align
Left align, center align, right align, justify align
Left align, center align, right align
Top align, bottom align, middle align
Portrait
Paper Orientation Paper size Paper layout
All of above
Centres at:
==================================================================================
36
195. A camera is an .
(1) input device (2) output device
(3) can be either input or ouput (4) processing unit (5) None of these
196. Which of the following is a part of the system unit?
(1) Monitor (2) CPU (3) CD-ROM
(4) floppy disc (5) None of these
197. Which statement is valid?
(1) 1MB = 1024 KB (2) 1GB = 1024 KB (3) 1TB = 1032 GB
(4) 1 BYTE = 4 BIT (5) 1BIT = 4 BYTES
198. How many types of alignment are there in MS Excel 2007 ?
(1) Top align, bottom align, middle align, left align
(2) Left align, center align, right align, justify align
(3) Left align, center align, right align
(4) Top align, bottom align, middle align
(5) None of thses
199. How many ways you can save a document?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5
200. Portrait and landscape are-
(1) Paper Orientation (2) Paper size (3) Paper layout
(4) All of above (5) None of these

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