Bank Po 85

1
z zz zMUKHERJEE NAGAR z zz z MUNIRKAz zz zUTTAM NAGARz zz zDILSHAD GARDEN z zz zROHINIz zz z BADARPUR BORDER z zz zJAIPURz zz zGURGAONz zz zNOIDA
1. JUMPING
(1) (2) (3)
(4)
2. ONDE
(1) (2) (3)
(5)
3.
P P O P O N P O N M P O N M L P O N M L
(4) I (5)
4. 'GLAMOUR' 'BMHLQTN' 'SERVING'
5. 6837941
(1) (2) (3)
6. 'GEAR' '5%9$' 'FIRM' '3@$7' 'FAME'
(4) 5397 (5)
@, , %, S
P Q P , Q
P Q' 'P. Q
P % Q P Q
P $ Q P Q
T @ Q P Q
I, II III
7. : J $ D, D K, K % R
: I. R $ J
II. R $ D
III K $J
(1) (2) I (3) II
III (5) II III
8. : M K, K @ R, R % N
: I. R % M
II. R @ M
III. N $ K
(1) I (2) II III
(4) I II (5) I II III
9. : B % H, H$J, J M
: I. B % J
II. M % B
III. H $ M
(1) (2) I (3) II
(4) II (5) II III
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REASONING TEST
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUMPING each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two
(4) Three (5) More than three
2. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ONDE using each letter
only once in each word ?
3. What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O P O N P O N M P O N M L P O N M L
(1) P (2) K (3) J
(4) I (5) None of these
4. In a certain code GLAMOUR is written as BMHLQTN. How is SERVING written in that code?
(1) TFSUFMH (2) QDRTFMH (3) QDRTHOJ
(4) SFTUFMH (5) None of these
5. How many such digits are there in the number 6837941 each of which is as far away from the
beginning in the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the
number?
6. In a certain code GEAR is written as 5%9$ and FIRM is written as 3@$7. How is FAME
written in that code?
(1) 397% (2) 3%97 (3) 597%
(4) 5397 (5) None of these
Directions (7-11): In the following questions, the symbols @, , %, $ and are used with the
following meanings illustrated.
P Q means P is not greater than Q.
P Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P % Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
P $ Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
T @ Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
In each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of
the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true.
7. Statements : J $ D, D K, K % R
Conclusions : I. R $ J
II. R $ D
III K $ J
(1) None is true (2) Only I is true (3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true (5) Only II and III are true
8. Statements : M K, K@R, R%N
Conclusions : I. R % M
II. R @ M
III. N $ K
(1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only III is true
(4) Only either I or II is true (5) Only either 1 or II and III are true
9. Statements : B % H, H $ J, J M
Conclusions : I. B % J
II. M % B
III. H $ M
(4) Only III is true (5) Only II and III are true
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10. : Z K, K % E, E @ R
: I. R $ K
II. Z % E
III. R $ Z
(1) I (2) I II (3) I III
II III (5) I, II III
11. : W @ M, MR, R $ F
: I. F % M
II. R W
III. W % F
(1) (2) I (3) II
III I II
12- 18
12.
(1) (2) (3)
(5)
13.
(1) (2) (3)
(5)
14.
(1) (2) (3)
(5)
15.
(1) (2) (3)
16.
(1) (2) (3)
17.
(1) (2)
18.
(1) (2) (3)
19- 25 IV
19.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
(1) I (2) I II
(3) I II IV (4) II IV
(5)
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10. Statements : Z K, K%E, E @ R
Conclusions : I. R $ K
II. Z % E
III. R $ Z
(1) Only I is true (2) Only I and II are true (3) Only I and III are true
(4) Only II and III are true (5) All I, II and III are true
11. Statements : W @ M, M R, R $ F
Conclusions : I. F % M
II. R W
III. W % F
(4) Only III is true (5) Only I and II are true
Directions (12 -18 ); Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends, Meenal, Rumia, Shikha, Ali, Peter, Harleen, Ketan and Bharat, are sitting around
a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the
middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre while those
who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
Bharat sits second to the right of Shikha. Bharat does not sit at any of the corners. Meenal sits
third to the right of Peter. Peter is not an immediate neighbour of Shikha. Rumia and Ketan are
immediate neighbours of each other but Rumia does not sit at any of the corners of the table.
Harleen is an immediate neighbour of neither Peter nor Shikha.
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
(1) Peter (2) Rumia (3) Harleen
(4) Shikha (5) Bharat
13. Who sits third to the left of Ali?
(1) Bharat (2) Rumia (3) Shikha
(4) Peter (5) Cannot be determined
14. What is the position of Peter with respect to Meenal?
(1) Immediate to the left (2) Second to the left (3) Third to the left
(4) Third to the right (5) Second to the right
15. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of Ketan?
(1) Shikha (2) Ali (3) Bharat
(4) Harleen (5) Meenal
16. Who amongst the following represent the immediate neighbours of Harleen?
(1) Meenal, Ketan (2) Bharat, Rumia (3) Bharat, Meenal
(4) Ali, Rumia (5) Ali, Ketan
17. Who amongst the following sits exactly between Peter and Ali?
(1) Only Bharat (2) Ketan and Rumia (3) Only Harleen
(4) Harleen and Meenal (5) No one sits belwecn Peter and Ali.
18. Who amongst the following is an immediate neighbour of Meenal?
(1) Rumia (2) Ali (3) Ketan
(4) Harleen (5) Shikha
Directions (19-25): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
19. Statements : Some roses are flowers.
Some flowers arc buds.
All buds are leaves.
All leaves are plants.
Conclusions : I. Some plants are flowers.
II. Some roses are buds.
III. No leaves are roses.
IV. No roses are buds.
(1) Only I follows (2) Only I & II follow
(3) Only I and either II or IV follow (4) Only either II or IV follows (5) None of these
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20.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
(1) I II (2) I
(3) I, II III (4) (5)
21.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
(1) (2) II III
(3) I III (4) III IV (5)
22.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
(1) (2) I II
(3) II III (4) II, III IV
(5)
23.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
(1) I (2) II
(3) I III (4) II IV (5)
24.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
(1) (2) I II
(3) II III (4) I, II III (5)
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20. Statements : Some books arc journals.
All journals are papers.
Some papers are cards.
All cards are boards.
Conclusions : I. Some papers are books.
II. Some papers are boards.
III. Some boards are journals.
IV. Some boards are books.
(1) Only I & II follow (2) Only I follows (3) Only I, II & III follow
(4) All follow (5) None of these
21. Statements : Some grapes are apples.
Some apples are bananas.
All bananas are guavas.
No guava is pomegranate.
Conclusions : I. No grapes are pomegranates.
II. Some guavas are grapes.
III. Some guavas are apples.
IV. No bananas are pomegranates.
(1) None follows (2) Only II & III follow (3) either I or III follows
(4) Both III & IV follow (5) None of these
22. Statements : Some doors are walls.
All walls are floors.
All floors are rooms.
Some rooms are windows.
Conclusions : I. All walls are rooms.
II. Some rooms are doors.
III. Some rooms are walls.
IV. Some floors are doors.
(1) None follows (2) Only I & II follow (3) Only II & III follow
(4) Only II, III & IV follow (5) All follow
23. Statements : Some spoons are forks.
Some forks are bowls.
All bowls are plates.
Some plates are utensils.
Conclusions : I. Some utensils are forks.
II. Some plates are forks.
III. Some plates are spoons.
IV. Some utensils are spoons.
(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only I & III follow
(4) Only II & IV follow (5) None of these
24. Statements : All chairs are tables.
All tables are desks.
Some desks are benches.
Some desks are sofas.
Conclusions : I. Some benches are sofas.
II. Some sofas are tables.
III. Some benches are tables.
IV. No chair is bench.
(1) None follows (2) Only 1 & II follow (3) Only II & III follow
(4) Only I, II & III follow (5) None of these
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25.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
(1) (2) I III
(3) III IV II III
: but 32 71 glory fair south 65 84
I : south but 32 71 glory fair 65 84
II : south 84 but 32 71 glory fair 65
III : south 84 glory but 32 71 fair 65
IV : south 84 glory 71 but 32 fair 65
V : south 84 glory 71 fair but 32 65
VI :
VI
26. III
(1) (2) (3)
(5)
27.
28. II
(5)
29.
IV
30. II : war 58 box cart 33 49 star 24
31.
(1) (2) (3)
(4)
I
II
I
II
I II
I II
I II
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25. Statements : Some sweets are chocolates.
Some chocolates are mints.
Some mints are food.
Some food is diet.
Conclusions : I. No sweets are diet.
II. No food is chocolates.
III. Some sweets are diet.
IV. Some sweets are food
(1) None follows (2) Either I or III follows (3) Only III & IV follow
(4) Only II & III follow (5) None of these
Directions (26 -31): A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words
and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of input rearrangement.
Input : but 32 71 glory fair south 65 84
Step I : south but 32 71 glory fair 65 84
Step II : south 84 but 32 71 glory fair 65
Step III : south 84 glory but 32 71 fair 65
Step IV : south 84 glory 71 but 32 fair 65
Step V : south 84 glory 71 fair but 32 65
Step VI : south 84 glory 71 fair 65 but 32
and Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps,
find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
26. Step III of an input is: year 92 ultra 15 23 strive house 39 How many more steps will be
required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Two
(4) Five (5) None of these
27. Input; any how 49 24 far wide 34 69
Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
(1) V1 (2) VII (3) V
(4) VIII (5) None of these
28. Step II of an input is: town 74 pair 15 31 nice job 42 Which of the following is definitely the
input?
(1) pair 15 31 town nice job 42 74 (2) pair 15 town 31 74 nice job 42
(3) pair 15 town 74 31 nice job 42 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
29. Input: play over 49 37 12 match now 81.
Which of the following will be step IV ?
(1) play 81 over 49 37 match now (2) play 81 over 49 37 12 now
(3) play 81 over 49 now 37 match 12 (4) There will be no such step.
(5) None of these
30. Step II of an input is : war 58 box cart 33 49 star 24.
Which of the following steps will be the last?
(1) V (2) VI (3) IV
(4) VII (5) None of these
31. Input: shower fall water 34 51 67 98 goal
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Six
(4) Five (5) None of these
Direction (32- 36) In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions
numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to
consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is
implicit in the statement. Given answer:-
(1) If only Assumption I is implicit
(2) If only Assumption II is implicit
(3) If either Assumption I or Assumption II implicit.
(4) If nether Assumption I nor Assumption Il is implicit.
(5) If both Assumptions I and II are is implicit.
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32 .
I.
II.
33.
I.
II.
34.
I.
II.
35.
I.
II.
36.
I.
II.
(37-42):
:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
37. IPDTWU
(1) 752$97 (2) 752$9@ (3) @52$9@
(4) @52$97 (5)
38. AJFIKD
(1) 1%672 (2) %671 (3) 2%671
(4) 2%6712 (5)
39. EWMAPH
(1) 89453 (2) 39458 (3) 89458
(4) 89453 (5)
40. HMUIWA
(1) 34@79 (2) 34@793 (3) 4@79
(4) 4@793 (5)
41. DAHITJ
(1) 237$% (2) %37$% (3) %37$2
(4) 237$2 (5)
42. MUPRKE
(1) 4@5 18 (2) 8@5 14 (3) 8@5 18
(4) 4@5 14 (5)
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32. Statement : Banks should always check financial status before lending money to a
client.
Assumptions : I. Checking before lending would give a true picture of the clients
financial status.
II. Clients sometimes may not present the correct picture of their ability
to repay loan amount to the bank.
33. Statement : The government has decided to run all commercial vehicles on bio-
fuels in order to save the depleting fossil fuel reserves.
Assumptions : I. It is possible to switch over from fossil fuels to bio- fuels for vehicles.
II. Sufficient amount of bio-fuel can be produced in the country to run all
commercial vehicles.
34. Statement : To save the environment enforce total ban on illegal mining throughout
the country.
Assumptions : I . Mining which is done ligally does not cause any harm to the
environment.
II. Mining is one of the factors responsible for environmental degradation.
35. Statement : Give adequate job-related training to the employees before assigning
them full-fledged work.
Assumptions : I. Training helps in boosting the performance of employees.
II. Employees have no skill sets before training is provided to them.
36. Statement : Take a ferry or a boat instead of a bus to reach the Kravi islands faster.
Assumptions : I. The islands being in remote location are not easily accessible.
II. Ferries and boats are available to travel to Kravi islands.
Directions (37-42): In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four
combinations of digits/ symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the
combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system
and the conditions and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the
combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5), ie None of these, as your
answer.
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter a vowel, their codes are to be
interchanged
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as the code for the last
letter
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for
the first letter.
37. IPDTWU
(1) 752$97 (2) 752$9@ (3) @52$9@
(4) @52$97 (5) None of these
38. AJFIKD
(1) 1%672 (2) %671 (3) 2%671
(4) 2%6712 (5) None of these
39. EWMAPH
(1) 89453 (2) 39458 (3) 89458
40. HMUIWA
(1) 34@79 (2) 34@793 (3) 4@79
(4) 4@793 (5) None of these
41. DAHITJ
(1) 237$% (2) %37$% (3) %37$2
(4) 2S37$2 (5) None of these
42. MUPRKE
(1) 4@5 18 (2) 8@5 14 (3) 8@5 18
(4) 4@5 14 (5) None of these
11
43- 45
394 632 783 576 895
43.
(1) 895 (2) 394 (3) 576
(4) 632 (5) 783
44.
(1) 576 (2) 895 (3) 783
(4) 394 (5) 632
45.
(1) 632 (2) 783 (3) 576
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Directions (43-45): The following questions are based on the three-digit numbers given below:
394 632 783 576 895
43. If the first and second digits of each of the numbers are added the resulting sum of which of
the following numbers will not be exactly divisible by 3?
(1) 895 (2) 394 (3) 576
(4) 632 (5) 783
44. If 2 is added to the last digit of each number and then the positions of the first and the third
digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the highest number ?
(1) 576 (2) 895 (3) 783
(4) 394 (5) 632
45. If the positions of the first and the second digit within each number are interchanged, which
of the following will be the second highest number?
(1) 632 (2) 783 (3) 576
(4) 895 (5) 394
Direction (46-50): In each of the question given below which one of the five answer figures on
the right should come after or in the place of question mark given in the porblem figures figures
on the left, if the sequence were continued?
46. Problem figures Answer figurers
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Directions (51-65): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below
it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
As the price of gasoline spiked to record highs in 2007 and 2008, interest in alternatives to
fossil fuels, and electric transportation in particular, also spiked. It raised, however, many questions
about the true environmental impact of electric cars.
The electric car is being upheld as an ethical, green, nifty and cheap alternative to the carbon
dioxide-emitting automobiles clogging city roads around the world today. Though electric cars are
not a popular choice, the industrys future plans are riding high on the hope that on improving
certain factors (which, are currently deficient) such as, effective marketing, a growing public
awareness of the need for clean air and the increase in demand, the prices would eventually be
driven down.
However, battery-powered vehicles may still fail to completely replace liquid fuel-fed ones but
with more electric arid hybrid vehicles on the road, there is greater scope for a makeover in the
way environment is impacted by the automobiles. However, if the power to charge the battery-
operated vehicle is to be sourced from grids using conventional coal-fired power plants, the electric
car wouldnt really be all that green. These would actually cause an increase in demand on the
power plants energy production causing them to produce more power and thus more pollution,
unless greener ways of energy production are used. But as of now the bulk of the electricity used to
charge the batteries of electric vehicles is generated by fossil fuel-burning power stations and only
12% by the clean methods. Also, the amount of energy used by coal-fired power stations to create
the electricity to recharge electric vehicles makes them half as efficient as diesel cars. Recent
studies indicate that carbon emissions may reduce only by an insignificant level even if there is a
sudden surge in demand for electric cars.
Other factors making the rechargeable cars less efficient include the amount of electricity
lost in the journey between the coal-fired power stations which generate it and the point where it
recharges the car, and the energy lost by the faulty first-generation batteries and motors. The
researchers calculated that of the energy burned in a power station, only a quarter reaches an
electric car after leakages and, losses along the supply chain, giving the vehicle an energy efficiency
score of 24%. This amounts to more than 75% energy loss much before the car is even put on
ignition. A modem diesel engine, by contrast, achieves 45% efficiency. This suggests that if fossil
fuels are to be burned, it is much more efficient to do it within the engine of a vehicle rather than
at a power station and then try to send it via the National Grid, where a lot of energy is wasted, and
finally to store it in a battery which in itself might leak power.
Electric cars may still survive since the cars emissions would be far less polluting than those
that run on fossil fuels. With very minor emissions of sulphur caused when the batteries charge
and discharge, when compared to current emissions standards, electric cars are zero emissions.
The gasoline engine by comparison does not fare as well. Gasoline and diesel fuel burned in internal
combustion engines for transportation account for 54 percent of nitrites of oxygen, 89 percent of
carbon monoxide and 28 percent of carbon dioxide pollution produced. Switching to electric vehicles
drops those percentages to zero, and only slightly increases sulphur emissions. So even when the
power plants burn dirty fuel, the amount of pollution is less than an oil-burning car would create.
And this picture is improving all the time, as clean energy sources are added to the grid.
The goal should be to make more electric cars with greater incentives for consumers and
producers, as well as feeding grids with more power from renewable resources - as per the objectives
stated in the numerous plans on Climate Change. And till this goal is achieved, the debate whether
controlling emission at a few power plants is more convenient than controlling emission at millions
of tailpipes is, would continue.
51. Why does the author fear that the electric cars may eventually not be very eco-friendly?
1. The exhausts of these cars emit as much pollutants as the oil-fuelled cars.
2. Electric cars though have lesser quantity of other emissions, the sulphur emissions will
rise substantially, thus harming the environment.
3. The electricity for charging the batteries of these cars comes from power plants using
pollution-causing fossil fuels.
4. Only 1 and 3
5. None of these
ENGLISH LANGUAGE & COMPREHENSION
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52. What, according to the author, needs to be done in order to make the electric cars more eco
friendly?
1. Encouraging power plants to generate electricity using Eco-friendly methods
2. Setting certain emission standards for electric cars as is done for the oil-consuming cars
3. Controlling sulphur emissions, which are one of the major contributors to environmental
pollution at present.
4. Making provisions for easy availability of recharging sockets at all the places
5. None of these
53. Which of the following suggestions does the author make in order to popularise the electric
cars ?
1. Discontinue the use of fuel-s-powered cars completely.
2. Optimise the benefits of using electric cars to both consumers as well as producers.
3. To supply grids with renewable sources of energy for the production of electricity
4. Only 2 and 3
5. None of these
54. Why according to the author are electric cars not a popular option among the people?
A. The recharging points are not easily available Everywhere.
B. Effective marketing of the eco-friendly cars has been lacking
C. Lack of appreciation among the people for the need of unpolluted air
(1) Only A and C (2) Only B and C (3) Only A and B
(4) All A, B and C (5) None of these
55. Why according to the author, may the electric cars survive despite all their current deficiencies?
A. Electric cars will be subsidised and thus would prove to be cost efficient to the buyers.
B. An increasing number of grids are shifting to alternate forms of energy production.
C. In the future, incentives would be provided to those driving electric cars.
D. Pollution caused by the electric cars is far less as compared to the fossil fuel driven cars.
(1) Only A (2) Only C and D (3) Only B and D
(4) Only A and B (5) None of these
56. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the given passage?
1. The failure of the power grids
2. The rise and fall of cars using fossil fuels
3. The adverse effects of pollution caused by the power grids
4. The growing popularity of the electric cars
5. Why eco-friendliness of electric cars is a fiction at present
57. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
1. Electric cars may completely replace the fossil fuel powered cars one day.
2. Electric cars have brought about a drastic improvement in the pollution levels at present.
3. Electric cars have universally been accepted as environment-friendly cars
4. All 1, 2 and 3 are true
5. None of these
58. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the given passage
.
1. Nearly three-fourths of the total energy generated for powering electric cars is wasted.
2. The interest in electric cars increased during last year when most of the power grids
shifted to clean sources of fuel.
3. Electric car engines do not produce any carbon emissions.
4. There would not be any noticeable improvement in the pollution level if the oil-burning
cars are shifted to electric cars at present
5. None of these
59. Why, according to the author, is the efficiency of the electric cars low even before they actually
hit The roads.
A. A lot of energy is lost during the transit of electricity from the grid to the recharge point.
B. The manufacturing cost of the electric cars is much higher than that of the other cars.
C. The batteries and the motors of the electric cars are still relatively new and waste a lot of
power.
(1) Only A and C (2) Only B and C (3) Only B
(4) Only A and B (5) None of these
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Directions (60-62): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the
word printed in bold as used in the passage.
60. PICTURE
(1) Situation (2) Photograph (3) Representation
(4) Art work (5) Idea
61. FEEDING
(1) Eating (2) Supplying (3) Consuming
(4) Encouraging (5) Nourishing
62. SURGE
(1) Alteration (2) Modification (3) Intensification
(4) Increase (5) Evolution
Directions (63-65): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the
word printed in bold as used in the passage.
63. SLIGHTLY
(1) Adequately (2) Miserly (3) Certainty
(4) Remotely (5) Substantially
64. SWITCHING
(1) Prolonging (2) Withdrawing (3) Continuing
(4) Exchanging (5) Alternating
65. INCENTIVES
(1) Deterrents (2) Preventions (3) Disadvantages
(4) Prohibitions (5) Liability
Directions (66-70): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
A. In all varieties of humour, especially the subtle ones, it is therefore what the reader thinks
which gives extra meaning to these verses.
B. But such a verse may also be enjoyed at the surface level.
C. Nonsense verse is one of the most sophisticated forms of literature.
D. This fulfils the authors main intention in such a verse which is to give pleasure.
E. However, the reader who understands the broad implications ofthe content and allusion
finds greater pleasure.
F. The reason being it requires the reader to supply a meaning beyond the surface meaning.
66. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence?
(1) D (2) E (3) B
(4) C (5) A
67. Which of the following is the SIXTH (LAST) sentence?
(1) F (2) E (3) D
(4) A (5) C
68. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence?
(1) E (2) A (3) F
(4) D (5) C
69. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence?
(1) A (2) E (3) F
(4) B (5) C
70. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence?
(1) A (2) B (3) F
(4) C (5) D
Directions (71-80): In each of the following sentences, the error, if there is one, will be in the
part given in bold and numbered. The number of the part which contains the error is the answer.
If there is no error, the answer is 5). The error, if any, will be of grammar or/and usage. (Ignore
errors of punctuation, if any.)
71. Further trials have added weight on(1)/ these findings, and an expert panel concluded there
was no evidence to (2)/recommend beta-carotene supplements for the general (3)/ population,
and strong evidence to recommend that smokers avoid it. (4) No error (5)
72. Had I (1)/ known it earlier(2)/ I would had (3) made a different (4)/ plan. No error (5)
73. If you decide (1) to straighten out a lot of (2)/ things in your life all at once,(3)/ it is probable
that you will (4) achieve nothing. No error (5)
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16
74. It is(1)/ important not to direct(2)/ people too much and to let(3)/ them find their own way/(4).
No error (5)
75. Product planners, in the production (1)/ units work intimately with(2)/ programme managers
to defining new (3)/ ideas for products(4)/ or product features. No error (5)
76. I will always remember (1)/ the advice from(2)/ my supervisors as I work on phones(3)/ Smile.
It doesnt matter that they cant see you(4)/ youll sound friendly and happy. No error (5)
77. To our knowledge,(1)/ no one foresaw exactly how fast (2)/ and how big the (3)/ PC market had
grown (4) in the years to come. No error(5)
78. Results would have (1)/ teen much different had he (2)/ projected himself into the minds (3)/
of the masses of ordinary people and ask (4)/ himself these questions. No error (5)
79. It had (1)/ all begun(2)/ in a brightly lit room as I dreamily ran (3)/ my fingers over the surfaced
(4) of a globe. No error (5)
80. On writing (1)/ this book, we cannot over-e-emphasize the unique opportunity we have (2)/
had to probe(3)/ broadly and freely into the organization.(4)/No error (5)
Directions (81-90): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one
of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The World Diabetes Congress has determined that India has the largest number of diabetics
in the world. Apart from the loss of productivity, the (81) burden is alarming $ 2.8 billion annually.
Sedentary jobs, (82) of electronic entertainment, changing diet patterns and (83) dependence on
automobiles have driven the activity (84) of Indians lives, especially in cities.
The (85) is, therefore, to make people physically (86) and requires interventions which impact
a large (87) of the population. Admittedly, physical activity is a (88) of choice and is strongly driven
by (89) preferences. But policy making needs to shift to (90) moderate levels of physical activity in
the daily lives of people. One way to accomplish this is to create walkable communities that give
residents. a variety of destinations within walking distance.
81. (1) health (2) economic (3) finance
(4) subsidy (5) physical
85. (1) widespread (2) broadcast (3) spread
(4) prevalent (5) expand
83. (1) increasing (2) totally (3) entirely
(4) grown (5) mutual
84. (1) outside (2) most (3) out
(4) from (5) through
85. (1) dispute (2) ultimatum (3) hazard
(4) sensitivity (5) challenge
86. (1) qualified (2) equip (3 built
(4) active (5) trained
87. (1) piece (2) section (3) scale
(4) degree (5) percent
88. (1) lack (2) want (3) matter
(4) scarcity (5) right
89. (1) individually (2) showing (3) given
(4) special (5) personal
90. (1) attract (2) pursuit (3) indulge
(4) introduce (5) insist
17
91- 95
91. 15 21 39 77 143 (?)
(1) 243 (2) 240 (3) 253
(4) 245 (5)
92. 33 39 57 87 129 (?)
(1) 183 (2) 177 (3) 189
(4) 199 (5)
93. 15 19 83 119 631 (?)
(1) 731 (2) 693 (3) 712
(4) 683 (5)
94. 19 26 40 68 124 (?)
(1) 246 (2) 238 (3) 236
(4) 256 (5)
95. 43 69 58 84 73 (?)
(1) 62 (2) 98 (3) 109
(4) 63 (5)
96- 100
96. 15 25 40 130 ? 2560
(1) 500 (2) 520 (3) 490
(4) 480 (5)
97. 186 94 48 25 ? 7.75
(1) 13.5 (2) 14.8 (3) 12.5
(4) 14 (5)
98. 124 112 176 420 1488 ?
(1) 8568 (2) 7140 (3) 5712
(4) 6150 (5)
99. 384 381 372 345 264 ?
(1) 23 (2) 25 (3) 43
(4) 24 (5)
100. 282 286 302 ? 402 502
(1) 366 (2) 318 (3) 326
(4) 338 (5)
(101-105): I II
(1) x > y (2) x > y (3) x < y
(4) x < y (5) x = y
101. I. x
2
- x - 12 = 0 II. y
2
+ 5y + 6 = 0
102. I. x
2
- 8x + 15 = 0 II. y
2
- 3y + 2 = 0
103. I. x
2
- 32 = 112 II. y -
169
= 0
104. I. x -
121
= 0 II. y
2
- 121 = 0
105. I. x
2
- 16 = 0 II. y
2
- 9y + 20 = 0
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Directions (91 - 95) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
91. 15 21 39 77 143 (?)
(1) 243 (2) 240 (3) 253
92. 33 39 57 87 129 (?)
(1) 183 (2) 177 (3) 189
93. 15 19 83 119 631 (?)
(1) 731 (2) 693 (3) 712
94. 19 26 40 68 124 (?)
(1) 246 (2) 238 (3) 236
95. 43 69 58 84 73 (?)
(1) 62 (2) 98 (3) 109
Direction (96 - 100) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number
series?
96. 15 25 40 130 ? 2560
(1) 500 (2) 520 (3) 490
97. 186 94 48 25 ? 7.75
(1) 13.5 (2) 14.8 (3) 12.5
98. 124 112 176 420 1488 ?
(1) 8568 (2) 7140 (3) 5712
99. 384 381 372 345 264 ?
(1) 23 (2) 25 (3) 43
100. 282 286 302 ? 402 502
(1) 366 (2) 318 (3) 326
Direction (101 - 105) :In the following question two equations numbered I and II are given. You
have to solve both the question and-
Given answer If
(1) Given answer x > y (2) Given answer x > y (3) Given answer x < y
(4) Given answer x < y (5) x = y or the relationship cannot be established
101. I. x
2
- x - 12 = 0 II. y
2
+ 5y + 6 = 0
102. I. x
2
- 8x + 15 = 0 II. y
2
- 3y + 2 = 0
103. I. x
2
- 32 = 112 II. y -
169
= 0
104. I. x -
121
= 0 II. y
2
- 121 = 0
105. I. x
2
- 16 = 0 II. y
2
- 9y + 20 = 0
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
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19
106. A B B C
C, A, B C
(1) 28 (2) 14 (3) 4
(4) 21 (5)
107. ` 84,000
`
30,240
(1) ` 30, 013.95 (2) ` 31,013.95 (3) ` 32,013.95
(4) ` 33,013.95 (5) ` 34,013.95
108. 3
(1)
1
10
(2)
9
20
(3)
9
10
(4)
1
20
(5)
109.
(1) 195.2 (2) 275.4 (3) 225.6
(4) 165.8 (5)
110.
15
26
(1)
8
11
(2)
10
11
(3)
9
13
(4)
10
13
(5)
111.
` `
(1)
`
935 (2)
`
905 (3)
`
945
(4)
`
975 (5)
112.
(1) 9 (2) 7 (3) 5
(4) 3 (5)
113.
(1) 12 (2) 13 (3) 14
(4) 15 (5)
114.
`
5,236
(1)
`
2,11,344 (2)
`
17,612 (3)
`
1,05,672
(4)
`
35,224 (5)
115.
(1) 420 (2) 400 (3) 320
(4) 360 (5)
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20
106 Work done by A in one day is half of the work done by B in one day. Work done by B is half of the
work done by C in one day. If C alone can complete the work in 7 days, in how many days can
A, B and C together complete the work?
(1) 28 (2) 14 (3) 4
107. The simple interest accrued on an amount of ` 84.000 at the end of three years is ` 30,240.
What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the
same period?
(1) ` 30.013.95 (2) ` 31,013.95 (3) ` 32,013.95
(4) ` 33,013.95 (5) ` 34,013.95
108. A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the probability
that the committee has at least one woman?
(1)
1
10
(2)
9
20
(3)
9
10
(4)
1
20
(5) None of these
109. One-fifth of a number is 81. What will 68% of that number be?
(1) 195.2 (2) 275.4 (3) 225.6
(4) 165.8 (5) None of these
110. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased by
300%, the resultant fraction is
15
26
What was the original fraction?
(1)
8
11
(2)
10
11
(3)
9
13
(4)
10
13
(5) None of these
111. The profit earned after selling an article for ` 996 is the same as the loss incurred after
selling the article for ` 894. What is the cost price of the article?
(1) ` 935 (2) ` 905 (3) ` 945
(4) ` 975 (5) None of these
112. The ages of Nishi and Vinnee are in the ratio of 6 : 5. After 9 years the ratio of their ages will
be 9 : 8. What is the difference in their ages?
(1) 9 years (2) 7 years (3) 5 years
(4) 3 years (5) None of these
113. The total of the ages of a class of 75 girls is 1050 years, the average age of 25 of them is 12
years and that of another 25 is 16 years. Find the average age of the remaining girls.
(1) 12 years (2) 13 years (3) 14 years
(4) 15 years (5) None of these
114. Ms Deepti Jain invests 11% of her monthly salary, i.e ` 5.236 in Fixed Deposits. Later she
invests 19% of her monthly salary on Life Insurance Policies; also she invests another 7% of
her monthly salary on Mutual Funds. What is the total annual amount invested by Ms Deepti
Jain?
(1) ` 2.11.344 (2) ` 17.612 (3) ` 1.05.672
(4) ` 35.224 (5) None of these
115. In a class of 40 students and 8 teachers, each student got sweets that are 20% of the total
number of students and each teacher got sweets that are 25% of the total number of students.
How many sweets were there?
(1) 420 (2) 400 (3) 320
21
116- 120
=
116. B 8,12,500
(1)
`
12,50,000 (2)
` `
16,50,000
(4)
`
117. 2005 2005 A B
118. 2009
`
27 B A
(1)
`
21.15 (2)
`
20.70 (3)
`
18.70
(4)
`
20.15
119. 2007 2008 A 2007
`
12
(1)
`
10,87,500 (2)
` `
12,45,000
`
120. 2006 ` 10.15
(1)
`
13.8 (2)
`
14.9 (3)
`
15.4
`
14.2
121- 125
121. S
122. P
(1) 10 (3) 9 30
(4) 12 30 (5)
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Directions (116 - 120) : Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.
Percent profit earned by two companies producing electronic goods over the years
Pr ofit Earned
%Profit 100
Total Investment
u
116. If the profit earned in 2006 by Company B was ` 8,12,500, what was the total income of the
company in that year?
(1) ` 12,50,000 (2) ` 20,62,500 (3) ` 16,50,000
(4) ` 18,25,000 (5) None of these
117. If the amount invested by the two companies in 2005 was equal, what was the ratio of the total
income of the Company A to that of B in 2005 ?
(1) 31 : 33 (2) 33 : 31 (3) 34 : 31
(4) 14 : 11 (5) None of these
118. If the total amount invested by the two companies in 2009 was ` 27 lakh, while the amount
invested by Company B was 50% of the amount invested by Company A, what was the total
profit earned by the two companies together ?
(1) ` 21.15 1akh (2) ` 20.701akh (3) ` 18.701akh
(4) ` 20.15 lakh (5) None of these
119. If the income of Company A in 2007 and that in 2008 were equal and the amount invested in
2007 was ` 12 lakh, what was the amount invested in 2008?
(1) ` 10,87.500 (2) ` 10,85,700 (3) ` 12,45,000
(4) ` 12,85,000 (5) None of these
120. If the amount of profit earned by Company A in 2006 was ` 10.15 lakh, what was the total
investment?
(1) ` 13.8 lakh (2) ` 714.9 lakh (3) ` 15.4 lakh
(4) ` 14.2 lakh (5) None of these
Directions (121-225): Study (he (able carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Distance (in km) travelled by six trucks on six different days of the week
121. What is the average distance travelled by Truck S on all the days together?
(1) 198 (2) 296 (3) 199
122. If the speed of Truck P on Monday was 19.2 km/hr, what was the time taken by it to cover the
given distance?
(1) 10 hours (2) 11 hours (3) 9 hours 30 minutes
(4) 12 hours 30 minutes (5) None of these
123. Q
(1) 42.50 (2) 28.25 (3) 37.75
(4) 32.25 (5)
124.
(1) 1623 (2) 1632 (3) 1263
(4) 1362 (5)
125. R T R T
(1) 154 : 159 (2) 142 : 167 (3) 161 : 173
(4) (5)
126- 130
126.
(1) 3800 (2) 3550 (3) 3300
(4) 3150 (5)
127. A
(1) 18 (2) 28 (3) 11
(4) 31 (5) 36
128.
(1) 1500 (2) 1750 (3) 1800
(4) 2050 (5)
129. C E
(1) 14 : 17 (2) 17 : 14 (3) 14 : 15
(4) 15 : 14 (5)
130. A B C, D E
(1) 58 (2) 75 (3) 69
(4) 83 (5) 52
131- 135
=
131. A, C F
(1) 816 (2) 826 (3) 824
(4) 812 (5)
132.
`
B
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123. If to travel the given distance, the time taken by truck Q on Friday was 8 hours, what was its
speed on that day?
(1) 42.50 km/hr (2) 28.25 km/hr (3) 37.75 km/hr
(4) 32.25 km/hr (5) None of these
124. What is the total distance travelled by all the trucks together on Saturday?
(1) 1623 km (2) 1632 km (3) 1263 km
(4) 1362 km (5) None of these
125. If on Tuesday, Truck R and Truck T travelled at the same speed, what was the ratio of the time
taken by Truck R and that taken by truck T to cover their respective distances?
(1) 154 : 159 (2) 142 : 167 (3) 161 : 173
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Directions (126-130): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Total Number of Males and Females in Five Different Organisations
126. What is the average number of females from all the organisations together?
(1) 3800 (2) 3550 (3) 3300
127. The number of males from Organization A is approximately what percent of the total number
of males from all the organisations together?
(1) 18 (2) 28 (3) 11
(4) 31 (5) 36
128. What is the difference between the total number of females and the total number of males
from all the organisations together?
(1) 1500 (2) 1750 (3) 1800
129. What is the ratio of the number of females from organisation C to the number of females from
Organisation E?
(1) 14 : 17 (2) 17 : 14 (3) 14 : 15
(4) 15 : 14 (5) None of these
130. The total number of males from Organisations A & B together is approximately what percent of
the total number of males from Organisations C, D and E together?
(1) 58 (2) 75 (3) 69
(4) 83 (5) 52
Directions (131-135): Study the following pie-chart irefully to answer these questions:
Total number of passengers in six different trains = 4800 Percentage-wise distribution of
passengers
131. What was the average number of passengers travelling in Train A, Train C and Train F together?
(1) 816 (2) 826 (3) 824
(4) 81.2 (5) None of these
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25
(1)
`
53,658 (2)
`
53, 568 (3)
`
53, 558
(4)
`
53, 468 (5)
133. E B D
(1) 63 (2) 69 (3) 75
(4) 54 (5)
134. C A
(1) 280 (2) 250 (3) 230
(4) 260 (5)
135. D, E F
(1) 2796 (2) 3225 (3) 2976
(4) 3125 (5)
136.
(1) 2 : 5 : 18 (2) 3 : 10 : 18 (3) 3 : 11 : 18
(4) 2 : 18 : 5 (5)
137.
(1) 111 (2) 115 (3) 120
(4) 125 (5)
138.
(1) 154.5 (2) 164.5 (3) 145
(4) 164 (5)
139.
(1) 64 (2) 82 (3) 74
(4) 72 (5)
140.
(1) 340 (2) 420 (3) 350
(4) 460 (5)
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26
132. If the cost of one ticket is
`
124, what is the total amount paid by passengers of Train B?
(Assuming all the passengers purchased tickets and cost of each ticket is equal)
(1) 53,658 (2) 53,568 (3) 53,558
(4) 53,468 (5) None of these
133. The number of passengers in Train E is approximately what percentage of the total number of
passengers in Train B and Train D together?
(1) 63 (2) 69 (3) 75
(4) 54 (5) 79
134. What is the difference between the number of passengers in Train C and the number of
passengers in Train A?
(1) 280 (2) 250 (3) 230
135. What is the total number of passengers in Train D, Train E and Train F together?
(1) 2796 (2) 3225 (3) 2976
Directions(136-140): Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow.
In a ship there are 1200 passengers. 18 percent of the total number of passengers are from
Britain. Two-fifths of the total number of passengers are from South Africa. 6 percent of the total
number of passengers are from Madagascar. The remaining number of passengers are from India.
25 percent of the number of passengers from Britain are females. Half the number of passengers
from South Africa are males. There is no female passenger from Madagascar. Two-thirds of the
number of passengers from India are females.
136. What is the ratio of the number of passengers from Madagascar, the number of female
passengers from South Africa and the total number of passengers from India?
(1) 2 : 5 : 18 (2) 3 : 10 : 18 (3) 3 : 11 : 18
(4) 2 : 18 : 5 (5) None of these
137. The number of male passengers from South Africa is approximately what percentage of the
total number of passengers from Britain?
(1) 111 (2) 115 (3) 120
(4) 125 (5) 131
138. What is the average number of male passengers from all the four countries?
(1) 154.5 (2) 164.5 (3) 145
139. What is the difference between the number of male passengers from Madagascar and the
number of male passengers from India?
(1) 64 (2) 82 (3) 74
140. What is the total number of male passengers from Britain and female passengers from India
together?
(1) 340 (2) 420 (4) 350
27
141.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
142.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
143.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
144.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
145.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
146.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
147.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
148.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
149.
(1)
`
(2)
`
(3)
`
(4)
`
(5)
`
150.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
151.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
152.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
153.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(5)
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141. Novak Djokovic of Serbia won the BNP Paribas Masters Tennis tournament at_________.
(1) Paris (2) Denmark (3) Canberra
(4) Brisbane (5) New Delhi
142. D. Rajendra Babu died of a heart attack, recently. Who was he?
(1) Filmmaker (2) Journalist (3) Writer
(4) 1 and 3 (5) 2 and 3
143. India recently signed a treaty with which of the following countries for transfer of sentenced
prisoners languishing in jails in the two countries?
(1) Estonia (2) Kenya (3) Vietnam
(4) Libya (5) Malta
144. _________ major central banks in the world made currency swap arrangements permanent
as a prudent liquidity backstop in case of future global financial strains.
(1) Seven (2) Six (3) Four
(4) Five (5) Ten
145. India ranked to the spot in the ease of doing business list according to the annual Doing
Business report.
(1) 134th (2) 135th (3) 136th
(4) 137th (5) 133th
146. Scientists discovered a new planet called Kepler 78b which has a similar mass and density to
that of which planet?
(1) Mercury (2) Earth (3) Venus
(4) Mars (5) Jupiter
147. The worlds first Bitcoin ATM machine which can exchange digital currency -Bitcoins -for any
official currency has launched in which of the following cities in Canada?
(1) Calgary (2) Ontario (3) Toronto
(4) Vancouver (5) Nova Scotia
148. Srishti Rana of India was crowned ______________ in Busan, South Korea.
(1) Miss World 2013 (2) Miss Universe 2013
(3) Miss Asia Pacific World 2013 (4) Miss Beautiful Smile 2013
(5) Miss Earth 2013
149. India has given Bhutan how much amount as assistance for the new government's stimulus
plan, recently?
(1)
`
200 crore (2)
`
100 crore (3)
`
300 crore
(4)
`
500 crore (5)
`
400 crore
150. S. Masood Ahmed, who has been recognised for his contributions in__ has won the K.K. Menon
Award for 2013.
(1) sedimentary geology (2) brain cell development (3) agricultural pesticides
(4) All of the above (5) None of the above
151. Who has been selected for the Radhakrishnan Gold Medal for the year 2013 by the Global
Economic Progress & Research Association?
(1) Dr. R. Mayil Murugan (2) Prof Avmash Kumar Agarwal
(3) Dr. Y. Raghumani Singh (4) Dr. Pijush Kanti Ghosh (5) Utpal Bhadra
152. Recently, Pankaj Razdan was appointed as the CEO and MD of the which of the following private
insurance players?
(1) Birla Sun Life Insurance (2) AEGON Religare Life Insurance
(3) Aviva India (4) Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance
(5) Bharti AXA Life Insurance Co. Ltd
153. The Union Cabinet of India gave its approval for declaring which of the following two airports
as international airports, recently?
(1) Bhubaneswarand Vijaywada airports
(2) Raigarh and lmphal airports
(3) Bhubaneswar and Imphal airports
(4) Safdarjung and Imphal airports
(5) Bhubaneswar and Karnal airports
GENERAL AWARENESS
29
154.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
155.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
156.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) A (2) B, C D (3) B
(4) D (5) A, B,C D
157.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) A, B C (2) B C (3) B
(4) B, C D (5) A, B,C D
158.
A.
B. A
C.
(1) A (2) A B (3) B
(4) B C (5) C
159.
A.
B.
C.
(1) A (2) A C (3) A B
(4) C (5) A, B C
160.
A.
B.
`
C.
`
(1) B C (2) C (3) A
(4) A B (5) A, B C
161.
A
B
C
(1) B C (2) C (3) A B
(4) A (5) A, B C
Centres at:
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30
154. US President Barack Obama was ranked ____ in Forbes list of The Worlds Most Powerful
People.
(1) second (2) third (3) first
(4) fifth (5) tenth
155. Who among the following has been listed the worlds third most powerful woman on Forbes
list of TheWorlds Most Powerful People?
(1) Indra Nooyi (2) Kiran Majumdar Shaw (3) Mamta Banerjee
(4) SoniaGandhi (5) Jayalalitha
156. Consider the following statements:
A. Maharashtra government has decided to start e-banking facilities in 20,000 state Gram
Panchayats.
B. Maharashtra Government has taken this step to curb financial irregularities by self-help
groups and moneylenders.
C. There are around 28,000 Gram Panchayats in the state and out of them 20,000 would have
the e-banking facility.
D. Maharashtra would become the second state in the country to provide the facility of
e-banking in Gram Panchayats.
Which of the above is/are TRUE?
(1) Only A (2) B, C and D (3) Only B
(4) All except D (5) A, C and D
A. HimachaI Pradesh has become the second state to introduce Centres National Vocational
Qualitative Framework Scheme.
B. Haryana was the first state to introduce this scheme.
C. The scheme is being implemented by the All India Technical Education Council and the
National Skill Development Council.
D. 70 skill development councils would be set up and each council would be given specific
trades.
Which of the above Is/are TRUE?
(1) A,B and C (2) Both B and C (3) Only B
(4) B, C and D (5) A, B ,C and D
158. Consider the follwing statements:
A. Vinay Chandra Mishra was appointed Advocate General of Madhya Pradesh.
B. He (mentioned in A) has replaced Surya Prakash Gupta.
C. Vinay Chandra Mishra had held the post of the president of the Bar Council of India.
Which of the above is/art FALSE?
(1) Only A (2) Both A and B (3) Only B
(4) Both B and C (5) Only C
A Himachal Pradesh forest department has set up first ever Bird Ringing station of Western
Himalayan region.
B Wildlife Wing of the Forest department has taken the initiative to study wild birds by
attaching a small, individually numbered, metal or plastic tags to their legs or wings.
C. During the capacity building programme, 17 bird species were identified.
(1) Only A (2) Both A and C (3) Both A and B
(4) Only C (5) A, B and C
160. Consider the following statmenets;
A CM, Andhra Pradesh has presented a memorandum regarding the losses suffered owing to
the impact of cyclone Phailin to the PM.
B. Prime Minister has announced an interim assistance of
`
1000 crore each for Andhra
Pradesh and Odisha for relief and rehabilitation.
C. Prime Minister has sanctioned an ex-gratia of
`
5 lakh each to the next of kin of the
deceased.
Which ofthe above is/are TRUE?
(1) Both B and C (2) Only C (3) Only A
(4) Both A and B (5) A, B and C
161. Consider the following statmenets;
A. US President has nominated Jeh Johnson to head the Department ot Homeland Security.
B. Homeland Security coordinates the work of 22 agencies with a 240,000-strong workforce.
C. It has been set up after the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks.
(1) Both B and C (2) Only C (3) Both A and B
(4) Only A (5) A, B and C
31
161.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) A D (2) B, C D (3) B
(4) C D (5) A
163.
A.
B.
C.
(1) B (2) B C (3) A B
(4) A (5) A, B C
164.
A.
B.
C.
(1) A B (2) A (3) B C
(4) B (5) A, B C
165.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) A, B C (2) A D (3) B
(4) B D (5) C
166.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
167. II
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
168.
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (5)
169.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
Centres at:
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32
A. 5 nations elected to seats as non-permanent members by the UN Security Council in the
15-member Council.
B. These members have been elected for two-year term which would start from March 2014,
C. India had served as a non-permanent member at the council in 2011-2012.
D. Non-permanent members Argentina. Australia, Luxembourg, the Republic of Korea and
Rwanda will remain on the Council until the end of 2014,
Which of the above is/are FALSE?
(1) Both A and D (2) B, C and D (3) Only B
(4) Both C and D (5) Only A
A. India and China inked a comprehensive pact which commits them not to use military
capability to attack each other.
B. Under a Border Defence Cooperation Agreemmt signed, India and China agreed not to tail
each others patrol along the line of Actual Control.
C. The BDCA facilitates the establishment of a hotline between the military headquarters of
the two countries and meeting sites for border personnel in all sectors of the 4000-km
LAC.
Which or die above is/are TRUE?
(1) Only B (2) Both B and C (3)Both A and B
(4) Only A (5) A,B and C
A. The India-France Technology Summit witnessed 11 MoUs between India and France in
the field of Science and Technology and Education.
B. The Summit was organized by Department of Science and Technology, Confederation of
Indian Industry and French Embassy.
C. The MOUs were signed in the presence of Mr Sushil Kumar Shinde, Minister of Science
and Technology and Earth Sciences.
(1) Both A and B (2) Only A (3) Both B and C
(4) Only B (5) A,B and C
A. The 2nd Meeting of the Philippines-India Joint Commission on Bilateral Cooperation was
held in Manila.
B. The meeting was co-chaired by Albert F. Del Rosario, Secretary of Foreign Affairs of the
Philippines and Salman Khurshid, Minister of External Affairs of the Republic of lndia.
C. The Ministers agreed that the next meetings of the Policy Consultations and Strategic
Dialogue will be held in India, in 2014.
D. India and Philippines held comprehensive discussions on political, defense, security,
economic and cultural cooperation.
Which of the above is/are FALSE ?
(1) A, B and C (2) Both A and D (3) Only B
(4) Both B and D (5) Only C
166. ____is that unit of currency, the face value of which is higher than its intrinsic value
(1) Token Money (2) Standard Money (3) Paper Money
(4) Representative Money (5) None of these
167. Which of the following is a new instruments permitted by RBI to bonk under Tier II for Capital
adequacy purposes and what is its minimum maturity period ?
(1) Innovative perpetual debt instrument, 10 years
(2) Non-redeemable Cumulative Capital instrument 10 years
(3) Perpetual preference shares 15 years
(4) Redeemable preference shares, 15 years
(5) None of these
168. Government policy to raise additional resources through taxation and allocation of expenditure
as per its priorities is called _
(1) Economic policy (2) 5 year plan
(3) Expenditure and Income policy (4) Fiscal policy (5) None of these
169. The securities that the Banks purchase with the intention of keeping them till they mature
fall in which of the following categories ?
(1) Held till maturity (2) Fixed securities (3) Fixed time securities
(4) Permanent securities (5) None of these
33
170.
A. B.
C.
D.
A
171.
(1) (2) (3)
172.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) A, C D
173.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) A, B D
174.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
175.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
176.
(1) (2) (3)
177.
(1) (2) (3)
178.
A.
B.
C.
(1) B C
179.
(1) (2) (3)
180.
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (5)
Centres at:
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34
170. Which of the following interest rates are not fixed by RBI and left to the direction of the Bank
concerned ?
A. Saving Bank deposits
B. DRI Advances
C. Ceiling rates on FCNR/NRE deposit accounts
D. Ceiling rates on export credit facilities
(1) A and D (2) A and C (3) Only A
(4) Only D (5) None of these
171. Which of the following liabilities is not taken as part of Time and demand liabilities for the
purpose of CRR?
(1) Fixed deposits (2) Saving bank account (3) Recurring deposits
(4) Paid-up capital (5) None of these
172. Credit creation capacity of commercial banks is determined by :
A. Cash withdrawals from the banking system by the public
B. Cash reserve ratio to be maintained by Commercial banks
C. Supply of currency notes by the central bank
D. Willingness of the borrowers to take loans from commercial banks.
(1) A, C and D (2) B, C and D (3) A, B and D
(4) A, B and C (5) None of these
173. Money supply in India can be increased if_____
A. RBI puts more paper money for circulation
B. The commercial banks expand their credit operations
C. The Central Government gives more grants to the states
D. The Government of India borrows from the RBI
(1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D (3) A, C and D
(4) A, B and D (5) None of these
174. Derivative deposit means
(1) Cash deposited in a bank by an employee of a business firm
(2) Deposits created by a commercial bank out of its borrowings from the RBI
(3) Cash deposits in a bank by another commercial bank
(4) Deposits Created by a bank out of its credit provided to the customer of the bank
(5) None of these
175. What is meant by a Scheduled Bank ?
(1) A Bank functioning under provisions of Banking Regulation Act 1949
(2) A Bank included in 2nd schedule of RBI Act 1934
(3) A Bank incorporated under Banking Companies Act 1956
(4) A Bank authorized-to do Banking functions
(5) None of these
176. Cash in a currency chest is held by a bank as __
(1) Licencee (2) A bailor (3) Agent
(4) Owner (5) None of these
177. KYC Guidelines have been issued by RBI Under the provisions of-
(1) Banking Regulation Act (2) RBI Act
(3) Negotiable Instrument Act (4) Prevention of Money Laundering Act
(5) None of these
178. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers bank. This would imply which of the following?
A. Other Banks maintain their deposits with the RBI
B. RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need
C. RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters
(1) B and C (2) A and B (3) A and C
(4) A, B and C (5) None of these
179. Which of the following forms the largest share of deficit in Government of India budget?
(1) Budgetary deficit (2) Fiscal deficit (3) Revenue deficit
(4) Primary deficit (5) None of these
180. Which one of the following is not a Quantitative credit control measure of the Reserve Bank of
India?
(1) Bank rate (2) Statutory cash reserve requirement
(3) Statutory liquidity ratio (4) Moral Suasion (5) None of these
35
181.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
182.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
183. ____
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
184. ____
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(5)
185.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
186.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
187. CPU
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(5)
188. ____
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
189. OS
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
190.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
191. ____
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) (5)
192. CPU ____
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(5)
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36
Computer Knowledge
181. What menu is selected to print?
(1) File (2) Tools (3) Special
(4) Edit (5) None of these
182. Programs or a set of electronic instructions that tell a computer what to do .
(1) Menu (2) Monitor (3) Hardware
(4) Software (5) None of these
183. A(n) ______ contains commands that can be selected.
(1) pointer (2) menu (3) icon
(4) button (5) None of these
184. Microcomputer hardware consists of three basic categories of physical equipment-
(1) keyboard, monitor, hard drive. (2) system unit, input/output, memory
(3) system unit, input/output, secondary storage.
(4) system unit, primary storage, secondary storage
(5) None of these
185. A piece of hardware that is used to enter information into the computer by using keys-
(1) keyboard (2) monitor (3) hard disk
(4) icon (5) None of these
186. A command that takes what has been typed into the computer and can be seen on the screen
and sends it to the printer for output on paper _________.
(1) print (2) return (3) jump
(4) attention (5) None of these
187. A CPU contains-
(1) a card reader and printing device
(2) an analytical engine and control unit.
(3) a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit.
(4) an arithmetic logic unit and a card reader.
(5) None of these
188. Powerful key that lets you exit a program when pushed-
(1) arrow keys (2) space bar (3) escape key
(4) return key (5) None of these
189. The ability of an OS to run more than one application at a time is called _____
(1) multitasking (2) object-oriented programming
(3) multi-user computing (4) timesharing
(5) None of these
190. Which of the following statements best describes the batch method of input?
(1) Data is processed as soon as it is input
(2) Data is input at the time it is collected.
(3) Data is collected in the form of source documents, placed into groups, and then input to the
computer.
(4) Source documents are not used.
(5) None of these
191. The benefit of using computers is that-
(1) Computers are very fast and can store huge amounts of data
(2) Computers provide accurate output even when in put is incorrect
(3) Computers are designed to be inflexible
(4) All of the above (5) None of these
192. The function of CPU is
(1) to provide external storage of text
(2) to communicate with the operator
(3) to read, interpret and process the information and instruction.
(4) to provide a hard copy (5) None of these
37
193. (ROM)
(1) ROM
(2) ROM
(3) ROM
(4) ROM
(5)
194.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
195.
(1) (2) (3) .
(4) (5)
196.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
197.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
198.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
199.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
200.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (5)
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38
193. What characteristic of read only memory (ROM) makes it useful?
(1) ROM information can be easily updated.
(2) Data in ROM is nonvolatile, that is, it remains there even without electrical power.
(3) ROM provides very large amounts of inexpensive date storage
(4) ROM chips are easily swapped between different brands of computers.
(5) None of these
194. ____ is the process of carrying out commands.
(1) Fetching (2) Storing (3) Decoding
(4) Executing (5) None of these
195. Which of the following peripheral device displays information to a user?
(1) Monitor (2) Keyboard
(3) Secondary storage devices (4) Secondary storage media
(5) None of these
196. To put information in a file on a magnetic disk, or in a computer's memory, so it can be used
later-
(1) store (2) ship (3) shift
(4) centre (5) None of these
197. Saving is the process of ______
(1) copying a document from memory to a storage medium
(2) making changes to a document's existing content.
(3) changing the appearance, or overall look, of a document
(4) developing a document by entering text using a keyboard.
(5) None of these
198. Printed information, called ____ exists physically and is a more permanent form of output than
that presented on a display device.
(1) soft copy (2) carbon copy (3) hard copy
(4) desk copy (5) None of these
199. To find a saved document in the computer's memory and bring it up on the screen to view ____.
(1) reverse (2) return (3) retrieve
(4) return (5) None of these
200. The Internet is a system of-
(1) Software bundles (2) Web page (3) Web site
(4) Interconnected Networks (5) None of these

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