In This Issue

Regulars
Editorial 1063
November 2009 Science and Technology 1065
Year—12 Issue—141 Latest General Knowledge 1067
Inspiring Young Talents—
(i) Topper : Uttarakhand, PMT 2009 (4th Rank)
—Dhananjay Dwivedi 1071
(ii) CBSE (PMT) 2009 (54th Rank)—Garima Singh 1072
Science Tips 1074

Physics
Editor
MAHENDRA JAIN Sound-III : Stationary Waves, Vibrations of Air Columns
and Stretched Strings 1076
Nuclear Physics-III : Nuclear Energy 1082
Typical Model Paper 1088
Typical Model Paper 1093

Chemistry
Nuclear Chemistry 1099
Typical Model Paper 1107
Typical Model Paper 1110
Typical Model Paper 1113
Editor/Publisher is not responsible for Zoology
views, data, figures etc. expressed in the
articles by the authors. Lymphatic System 1117
—Editor
Biology and Therapy of Cancer 1122
Typical Model Paper 1126
No part of this publication can be
Typical Model Paper 1128
reproduced or transmitted in any form
without the prior written permission from Typical Model Paper 1131
the publishers.
Botany
Diversity of Life : Plant Groups 1134
Pollination 1140
Edited, printed and published by Mahendra Typical Model Paper 1143
Jain for M/s. Pratiyogita Darpan, 2/11A, Typical Model Paper 1146
Swadeshi Bima Nagar, AGRA–2 and
Typical Model Paper 1149
printed by him at Pratiyogita Darpan
Printing Unit, 5 & 6, Bye pass Road, Agra. Solved Paper : CBSE Medical Entrance Exam., 2009 1153
Phone : 4053333, 2531101, 2530966
Fax : (0562) 4053330, 4031570 Other Features
E-mail : publisher@pdgroup.in
Website : www.pdgroup.in Assertion and Reason Type Questions 1170
True or False 1173
Do You Know ? 1177
Branch Office :
CSV Quiz Contest No. 138 1182
4845, Ansari Road,
Daryaganj, New Delhi–110 002 Correct Solution and Prize Winners of CSV Quiz No. 135 1184
Phone : 23251844/66 General Awareness 1185

C.S.V. / November/ 2009 / 1061

 To Our Readers
Dear Readers,
It is a matter of immense pleasure and great satisfaction to us in presenting to
you the November issue of your favourite and frontline magazine ‘Competition
Science Vision’. PMT aspirants generally agree that the utility of each issue of the
magazine is unique and unbeaten. Its flawless presentation in all the subjects of
premedical tests is its special quality rarely found in any other such magazine.
Our experienced authors are trying hard to make its each issue more and more
examination-oriented including in it all the changes of examination pattern. This makes
our readers updated for each year’s tests. We strive to make CSV to meet all your
requirements.
Hard work under proper guidance is a must for success in any examination.
Revision of what you have read is also necessary before you finally take up the
examination. CSV is so designed that it provides you all you need for success.
Read CSV regularly and intelligently. It gives you the power to master
your career and shape your destiny.
With best wishes for your success.
Sincerely yours,
Mahendra Jain
(Editor)

FORTHCOMING COMPETITIVE EXAMS.

2009 Indian Economic Service/Indian Statistical Service
Examination, 2009 (Nov. 21)
Delhi SSSB Trained Graduate Teacher (Social Science) Corporation Bank Probationary Officers Exam. (Nov. 22)
Exam. (Oct. 10)
Rajasthan State Eligibility Test (SET), 2009 (Nov. 22)
UPSC CPF Assistant Commandants Exam., 2009 (Oct. 11)
Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officers Scale-I Examination (Nov. 22)
Reserve Bank of India Officers Grade ‘B’ Examination
(I Stage) (Oct. 11) Triveni Khetriya Gramin Bank Officers Scale-I Exam. (Nov. 22)
Delhi SSSB Trained Graduate Teachers (Sanskrit, Rajasthan Gramin Bank Clerk-cum-Cashier Exam. (Nov. 29)
Hindi, Urdu, Punjabi) Exam. (Oct. 11) Corporation Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (Nov. 29)
Civil Services (Mains) Exam., 2009 (Oct. 22) Triveni Khetriya Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (Nov. 29)
The New India Assurance Company Ltd. Administrative Indian Air Force Airman Selection Test [Group ‘X’
Officer Examination (Oct. 25) (Technical) Trades] (Nov.)
Gurgaon Gramin Bank Officer Scale-I Exam. (Oct. 25) S.S.C. Tax Assistant Examination, 2009 (Dec. 13)
Prathama Bank Officers Scale-I Exam. (Oct. 25)
(Closing Date : 30 Oct., 2009)
Shreyas Gramin Bank Specialist Officers Exam. (Nov. 1)
Rashtriya Military Schools Common Entrance Test
Uttaranchal Gramin Bank Clerk-cum-Cashiers Exam. (Nov. 1)
(Class VI) (Dec. 20)
Gurgaon Gramin Bank Clerk-cum-Cashier Cadre
Examination (Nov. 1) CSIR-UGC National Eligibility Test, 2009
Prathama Bank Office Assistants/Clerks Exam. (Nov. 1) (Science Subjects) (Dec. 20)
Shreyas Gramin Bank Clerk-cum-Cashiers Exam. (Nov. 8) Vijaya Bank Probationary Clerks Exam. (Dec. 20)
Madhya Pradesh Civil Judge (Mains) Examination (Nov. 8) KVS Post Graduate Teachers Exam. (Dec. 26)
National Talent Search Exam., 2009 (For VIII Class (Closing Date : 12 Oct., 2009)
Studying Students) (Nov. 8) Jaipur Thar Gramin Bank Office Assistants Exam. (Dec. 27)
Madhya Pradesh National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship
(Closing Date : 10 Oct., 2009)
Examination, 2009-10 (Nov. 8)
S.B.I. Clerical Cadre Exam., 2009 (Nov. 8 & 15) KVS Trained Graduate Teachers Exam. (Dec. 27)
S.S.C. Auditors and Accountants Exam. (Indian Audit (Closing Date : 12 Oct., 2009)
and Account Deptt.) (Nov. 15) KVS Primary Teachers Exam. (Dec. 28)
Madhya Pradesh State Service (Mains) Exam., 2008 (Nov. 16) (Closing Date : 12 Oct., 2009)

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1062

 O UGHTS FOR THE MON Subscription
TH TH Rates
❥ Nature never did betray the heart that loved her.
❥ Do not jump on a man unless he’s down.
❥ Bottom is bottom even if it is turned upside down. One Copy Rs. 35/-
❥ Where wealth accumulates men decay. One Year Rs. 335/-
❥ Blessed is the man that endureth temptation. Two Years Rs. 630/-
❥ Vituperation taking place of argument is becoming an increasingly
❒ Please send your Member-
painful feature of Indian public life. ship fee by M.O. or Bank
❥ Some people look bright until they speak because light travels faster Draft. Cheques will not be
than sound. accepted.
❥ Beware of the Learned man’s false knowledge : it is more dangerous ❒ Please inform your
than ignorance. Correct Address together
❥ If you understood everything, you must be misinformed. with the period, the month
from which you are
❥ On the highest throne in the world, we still sit only on our own becoming a member.
bottom.
❒ M.O. or Bank Draft will
❥ Men without the minimum restraint, dignity and integrity cannot be be accepted only in the
architects of a new India. name of M/s. Pratiyogita
❥ Prefer a loss to a dishonest gain; the one brings pain at the moment, Darpan, Agra.
the other for all time.
❥ Sooner or later the man who wins is the man who thinks he can. ORDER FORM
❥ Using threats of suspension as a major strategy for maintaining I want to be a regular
discipline does not go a long way. subscriber for Competition
Science Vision. Kindly send
my copy on the following
address :
Name ........................................

If you are appearing at any examination for admission to
MBBS course of AFMC, AIIMS, CPMT, CBSE (Medical) and
any other Medical College/Institute you have a chance to win
an attractive prize.
Address.....................................
..................................................
..................................................
.................................................
Pin
I am sending the M.O./Bank

All that you are to do is to send us the list of multiple Draft for Rs. ...........................
choice objective questions which were asked in that examination Dated ......................................
on the basis of your memory. The questions should be complete Signature
with all the alternatives for answering them. We shall include . .................................................
all the entries in the contest. Participants with maximum number
of correct questions will be awarded. COMPETITION
SCIENCE VISION
M/s. Pratiyogita Darpan
PRIZES
2/11A, Swadeshi Bima Nagar,
(i) First three participants sending maximum number of correct Agra–282 002
questions will receive Rs. 200, 100 and 60 as prize. Phone : 4053333, 2530966, 2531101
(ii) No prize is admissible for less than 75% questions. Fax : (0562) 4053330, 4031570

C.S.V. / November/ 2009 / 1064

 AWARDS/HONOURS
55th National Film Awards
Director Priyadarshan’s off-beat
Tamil Film ‘Kanjeevaram’ won the
best film award, 2007, while southern
actor Prakash Raj has been adjusted
as the best actor for his performance
in the same film.
Renowned Malayalam film
director Adoor Gopalakrishnan is
selected as the best director for
‘Naalu Pennungal’ , while Kannada
actress Uma Shri is declared as the
best actress for ‘Gulabi Takies’.
Bollywood star Aamir Khan’s
directorial debut ‘Taare Zameen Par’
got the best family welfare award and
Prasoon Joshi got the award for the
best lyrics for ‘Maa’ a film about a
dyslexic child. Shankar Mahadevan
received the National Award for the
best playback singer. ‘Chak De India’
won the award for the best picture
providing wholesome entertainment.
Sarswati Samman—Assamese
writer Lakshminandan Bora was
honoured with the ‘Sarswati Samman
2008’ for his significant contributions
to Assamese literature.
Vyas Samman—Hindi writer
Mannu Bhandari was awarded the
‘Vyas Samman 2008’ for her invalu-
able contributions to Hindi literature.
Sarswati Samman and Vyas
Samman are given by K. K. Birla
Foundation for promotion of Indian
literature.
61st Annual Emmy Award
2009—Emmy Awards were given in
Los Angeles (U.S.A.) on September
21, 2009. 30 Rock and Mad Men
were the winners of every category.
30 Rock was named the best
comedy. Mad Men won the best
drama category. Toni Collette won
the Emmy as the best actor in a
comedy. Calenn Close won her
second straight Emmy for best
actress.
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1067 / 2
ICC Awards
England’s Ashes winning captain
Andrew Strauss and Indian opener
Gautam Gambhir are among the four
players who were honoured with the
‘Cricketer of the Year Award’. India’s
captain Mahendra Singh Dhoni and
Australian fast bowler Mitchell
Johnson are other cricketers who
were honoured with the Awards by
International Cricket Council in
Johannesburg, South Africa, on
October 1, 2009.
List of the awardees :
Cricketer of the Year—
Mahendra Singh Dhoni (Ind), Gautam
Gambhir (Ind), Mitchell Johnson
(Aus), Andrew Strauss (Eng).
Test Player of the Year—
Gautam Gambhir (Ind), Mitchell
Johnson (Aus), Thilan Samaraweera
(SL), Andrew Strauss (Eng).
One-Day Player of the Year—
Shivnarine Chanderpal (WI),
Mahendra Singh Dhoni (Ind), Virender
Sehwag (Ind), Yuvraj Singh (Ind).
Emerging Player of the Year—
Ben Hilfenhaus (Aus), Graham Onions
(Eng), Jesse Ryder (NZ), Peter Siddle
(Aus).
Associate and Affiliate Player
of the Year (non-Test nations)—
Rizwan Cheema (Can), Ryan ten
Doeschate (Ned), William Porterfield
(Irl), Edgar Schiferli (Ned).
Twenty-20 International Perfor-
mance of the Year—Shahid Afridi
(Pak)-51 off 34 balls and two for 16
against South Africa in the World
Twenty-20 semi-final in Nottingham
on June 18.
Tillakaratne Dilshan (SL)-96 not
out off 57 balls against the West Indies
in the World Twenty-20 semi-final at
the Oval on June 19.
Chris Gayle (WI)-88 off 50 balls
against Australia in the World Twenty-
20 at the Oval on June 6.
Umar Gul (Pak)-5-6 against New
Zealand in the World Twenty-20 at
the Oval on June 13.
Women’s Cricketer on the
Year—Charlotte Edwards (Eng),
Shelley Nitschke (Aus), Claire Taylor
(Eng).
Umpire of the Year—Aleem Dar
(Pak), Tony Hill (NZ), Asad Rauf
(Pak), Simon Taufel (Aus).
Spirit of Cricket Award—Aus-
tralia, England, New Zealand, Sri
Lanka.
BOOKS
Civil Society and Human Secu-
rity— V. R. Raghavan (The volume
touches upon some very critical
issues and raises many questions
related to human security).
Jammu and Kashmir : The
Cold War and the West— D. N.
Panigrahi —(In this book the author
shows that the Western support to
Pakistan played a key role in shaping
the India-Pakistan contestation on
Jammu and Kashmir. The military
and diplomatic assistance to Pakistan,
sustained its long-running offensive to
take control of the state.)
Reducing Global Poverty :
Patterns of Potential Human Pro-
gress— Bary B. Hughes (This hefty
work, the first in a series of annual
volumes, deals with poverty reduction
issues).
The Corporate Greenhouse—
Yda Schreuder (The book discusses
the role of MNCs in shaping the
implementation of climate change
agreements).
DAYS
October 1—International Day for
Elderly.
October 2—Gandhi Jayanti, Lal
Bahadur Shastri’s Jayanti, World
Vegetation Day.
October 3—World Habitat Day.
October 4—World Animal Wel-
fare Day.
October 8—Indian Air Force Day.
 October 9—World Post Office
Day.
October 11—World Allergy thereafter. A devout Christian, he
Awareness Day.
October 13—UN International
Day for Natural Disaster Reduction.
October 14—World Standards
Day.
October 15—World Sight Day
(Second Thursday of October), World
White Cane Day (Guiding the Blind).
October 16—World Food Day.
October 21—Police Commemo-
ration Day.
October 24—U.N. Day, World
Development Information Day.
October 27—Infants Day.
October 30—World Thrift Day.
October 31—National Integration
Day.
Y. S. R. Reddy (A Talented
leader)—In the heart-rending tragedy Borlaug, who passed away in Dallas,
of Yeduguri Sandinti
Rajasekhara Reddy’s
demise in a heli-
copter crash, Andhra
Pradesh has lost its
most charismatic
leader and the Con-
gress its most politi-
cally talented and Yeduguri Sandinti Mexico in 1950s, where he crossbred
resourceful Chief Rajasekhara
Minister. A medical Reddy
graduate, YSR, as he was widely pesticides, produced for greater
known, was a politician of Pulivendula quantities of seeds than the earlier
in Kadapa district. He became an varieties had done. His discovery was
MLA at the age of 29, a Minister two commercially introduced in Mexico in
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1068
years later, and never lost an
Assembly or Lok Sabha election
made pilgrimages to Bethlehem and
Tirumala with equal piety, showing
his broad mindedness.
The game-changing event was
his 1500 km padayatra in 2003, which
brilliantly tapped into mass unrest
over the agrarian crisis and captured
him to the seat of power a year later.
He tirelessly presented his mission as
the transformation of agriculture and
farmers’ lives and the ending of
agrarian distress. His ‘Jilayagnam’
drive to irrigate ten million acres of
land by 2014, his Agriculture Tech-
nology Mission, his vigorous imple-
mentation and expansion of the
National Rural Employment Guar-
antee Scheme and his schemes to
supply rice at Rs. 2 per kg. to the
poor and provide free power to
farmers, won his enormous credibility
on the ground.
Norman Borlaug—Dr. Norman
Texas on September 13, 2009 at the
age of 95, remains the only recipient
of the Nobel Prize for agriculture,
specifically the Peace prize of 1970.
Possessed of insatiable curiosity
about matters, botanical and blessed
with remarkable energy and scientific
incisiveness, Dr. Borlaug worked in
a ‘dwarf’ strain of wheat. This, when
treated with chemical fertilizers and
1956, and the 1963 harvest was six
times greater than that of 1956.
An Assault on Hunger : Norman E.
Borlaug and his wife Margaret with the
Nobel Peace Prize he was awarded in
1970
Dr. Borlaug had a special place
in the hearts of all Indians as he,
alongwith M. S. Swaminathan, brought
the ‘Green Revolution’ in India mark-
ing a watershed in India’s agrarian
economy and rural development.
At a time in sixties when India
was facing the spectre of severe food
shortages, his introduction of high
yielding varieties of (wheat) seeds set
in motion a technological revolution in
Indian agriculture that led eventually
to the country achieving self-suffi-
ciency in food grains. ‘Green Revolu-
tion’ lifted the spirits of Indian people
and gave them new hope and con-
fidence. He was the father of ‘Green
Revolution’ in India. The ‘grateful
nation’ mourns his death and owes a
debt of gratitude to this greatman.
This greatest hunger-fighter for
all time, made a profound difference
to the lives of hundreds of millions of
people in developing world.
Raj Singh Dungarpur—The
former President of the Board of
Control for Cricket in India (BCCI),
Raj Singh Dungarpur (73), passed
away in Mumbai on September 12,
2009 after prolonged illness. He had
been suffering from alzheimer and did
not recognise his acquaintances. He
was the third son of the former ruler
of Dungarpur, Maharawal Lakshman
Singhji. He graduated from Vikram
University, Ujjain.
He was an excellent cricketer
and played for Rajasthan in Ranji
Trophy and other national tourna-
ments for 16 years, as a medium fast
bowler. He took 206 wickets and
scored 1292 runs in national tourna-
ments. He worked as the national
selector for two terms. He was the
founder-Chairman of National Cricket
Academy, Bangalore.
V. K. Sarswat (New D.G.,
DRDO )—Dr. V.K. Sarswat assumed
office as the Director-General of the
Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) and Scientific
Advisor to the Ministry of Defence. He
would also be the Secretary of Depart-
ment of Defence Research and
Development in the Ministry of
Defence. He succeeded Dr. M.
Natarajan who retired. Earlier Dr.
Sarswat had been Chief Controller,
Research and Development (Missiles
and Strategic Systems), DRDO.
Dr. Sarswat, who has a Ph. D.
degree in combustion engineering,
joined DRDO in 1972. He led the
development of India’s tactical and
strategic missile systems and anti-
missile systems.
K. Rosaiah (New C.M., A.P.)—
Mr. K. Rosaiah (76), the seniormost
member in Y.S. Rajasekhara cabinet,
was sworn-in as the new Chief Minis-
ter of Andhra Pradesh. The State
Governor Mr. N. D. Tiwari adminis-
tered the oath of office collectively to
all the 34 members of Y. S.
Rajasekhara Reddy cabinet also. Mr.
Rosaiah had been a member of
several Congress cabinets in the
past.
Irina Bokova (First Woman to
Head UNESCO)—In what can only
be described as a stunning upset.
Irina Bokova, Bulgaria’s former foreign
minister and currently ambassador to
Paris, became the first woman to
head UNESCO, the Paris-based
United Nations’ agency for education,
science and culture. Ms. Bokova was
elected on September 23, 2009 by
the Organisation’s 58-member
Executive Board winning 31 votes to
defeat her rival, Egypt’s Culture
Minister, Farukh Hosni, who polled
27.
Mr. Bokova also became the first
person from the former Soviet bloc
countries to be elected to this post.
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1069
Y. Hatoyama (New P. M.,
Japan )—Mr. Yukio Hatoyama, on
September 16, 2009,
was appointed as
Japan’s 93rd Prime
Minister following his
party’s landslide
victory in the August
30 general election.
Mr. Hatoyama was
appointed as Prime Yukio Hatoyama
Minister at the plenary session of
both the House of Representatives
and the House of Councillors. He is
the leader of Centre-left coalition. With
his assumption of office, the curtain
came down over a half-century of
conservative rule in Japan.
Mr. Hatoyama’s agenda is spark-
ing a previously unthinkable idea that
the U. S. may have to exit from the
centre-stage of the next big theatre in
global affairs.
Somdev Devvarman (Davis Cup
Hero)—Somdev Devvarman scripted
a spectacular win over South Africa’s
Rik-de-Voest in a high-voltage
marathan five-setter to put India back
Somdev Devvarman
in the elite Davis Cup World Group
after a gap of 11 years, on Septem-
ber 20, 2009 in Johannesburg (South
Africa). The tenacious Somdev won
3–6, 6–7 (3), 7–6 (5), 6–2, 6–4 after
an energy-sapping battle of four
hours and 38 minutes at the Ellis
Park indoor stadium. Down by two
sets, Somdev made an incredible
comeback as he overcame an early
break of serve to break back de-voest
in the fourth game. Somdev wrapped
up the set in the eighth game and it
all boiled down to the fifth and
decisive set.
This win of Davis Cup gave India
an unassailable 3–1 lead over the
Rainbow Nation.
Kochi (The longest rail-bridge)—
Engineers in Kochi (Kerala) are giving
final touches to the 4·62 km long rail
bridge connecting the mainland to the
● The structure has a clearance of 7m
above water and is made of 1 3 4
pillars.
● About 18,000 tonnes of cement and
50,000 metric tonnes of steel have
gone into the structure.
● The initial cost was estimated to be
Rs. 246 cr, which was later revised
to Rs. 298 cr.
proposed international container
trans-shipment terminal on Vallar-
padam island across the Vembanad
lake in Ernakulam district. Due to be
commissioned in November 2009, it
will be the longest rail bridge in India.
Currently, the record is held by the
Nehru Sethu near Dehri-on-Sone,
located on the Kolkata-Delhi line. The
Nehru Sethu is 3·065 km-long.
This bridge is expected to save
exporters of crores of rupees wasted
in trans-shipment of their goods
through other ports. The project is
also set to transform the industrial
environment in the State.
SPORTS
Cricket
Squads for Irani Trophy
and Champions League—Cricket
matches between Ranji Champion,
Mumbai and rest of India for the Irani
Trophy will be held at Nagpur during
October 1 till 5. Squads for the rest of
India for Irani Trophy and Challenger
Series are—
Irani Trophy : Rest of India—
Gautam Gambhir (Capt.), S. Badri-
nath (Vice-Capt.), M. Vijay, Virat
Kohli, Manoj Tiwary, Ravindra Jadeja,
Irfan Pathan, Wriddiman Saha, S.
Sreesanth, Munaf Patel, Pragyan
Ojha, Kedar Jadhav, Abhinav
Mukund, Uday Kaul and Sudeep
Tyagi.
Challenger Series : India Blue —
M. S. Dhoni (Capt.), Sachin Ten-
dulkar, Wasim Jaffer, Jalaj Saxena,
Suresh Kumar, Kedar Jadhav,
Abhishek Nayar, Yusuf Pathan,
Naman Ojha, Harbhajan Singh, S. K.
Trivedi, S. Sreesanth, Ashok Dinda
and A. S. Goswami.
India Red—Yuvraj Singh (Capt.),
M. Vijay, Sunny Sohail, Shikhar
Dhawan, Ishant Jaggi, Ravindra
Jedeja, Bhuvneshwar Kumar, Wriddi-
man Saha, R. Ashwin, Sudeep Tyagi,
Munaf Patel, S. S. Tiwary, Ishant
Sharma and H. Khadiwale.
India Green—Suresh Raina
(Capt.), A. Rahane, Tanmay Srivast-
ava, Ravi Inder Singh, Manoj Tiwary,
S. Badrinath, Chetanya Nanda, Irfan
Pathan, Parthiv Patel, S. K. Jakati, L.
Balaji, Dhawal Kulkarni, Pankaj Singh
and Uday Kaul.
ICC Champions Trophy 2009—
ICC Champions Trophy Tournament
started on September 22, 2009 in
South Africa and final will be played
on October 5, 2009.
ICC Champions Trophy 2009
Schedule
Group A : Australia, India, Pakistan and
West Indies.
Group B : England, New Zealand,
South Africa and Sri Lanka
Oct. 2 Ist Semifinal Centurion
(A1 Vs. B2)
Oct. 3 2nd Semifinal Johannesburg
(B1 Vs. A2)
Oct. 5 Final Centurion
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1070
India Wins Compaq Cup—
Sachin Tendulkar’s century, Har-
bhajan Singh’s five-wicket haul and
the magnitude of the target (320 in 50
overs) ensured that India won the
Compaq Cup final against Sri Lanka
in Colombo on September 15, 2009.
Sachin Tendulkar held centre stage
at the Premdasa Stadium. His 44th
ODI century—his fourth at this ground
and his sixth in tournament finals—
helped India to score 319 for five in
50 overs in the championship match
for the Compaq Cup.
Tennis
U. S. Open—India’s Leander
Paes and Czech Republic’s Lucas
Dlouhy won the U. S. open men’s
doubles title defeating India’s Mahesh
Bhupathi and Mark Knowles of
Bahamas 3–6, 6–3, 6–2 in New York
on September 14, 2009. This was
Paes’ 10th Grand Slam title, including
six men’s doubles and four mixed
doubles crown.
The Results
Prefix denotes seeding
Women Singles Final : Kim
Clijsters (Bel) bt 9-Caroline Wozniacki
(Den) 7–5, 6–3.
Men Singles Final : 6-Juan Martin
del Potro (Arg) bt 1-Roger Federer (Sui)
3–6, 7–6(5), 4–6, 7–6(4), 6–2.
Women Doubles : 4-Serena
Williams & Venus Williams (USA) bt 1-
Cara Black (Zim) and Liezel Huber
(USA) 6–2, 6–2.
Men Doubles Final : 4-Leander
Paes (Ind) & Lukas Dlouhy (Cze) bt 3-
Mahesh Bhupathi (Ind) & Mark Knowles
(Bah) 3–6, 6–3, 6–2.
Junior Singles Boys Final : 3-
Bernard Tomic (Aus) bt Chase
Buchanan (USA) 6–1, 6–3.
Girls Final : 11-Heather Watson
(GBr) bt Yana Buchina (Rus) 6–4, 6–1.
Billiards
IBSF World Professional
Billiards Championship—India’s
Pankaj Advani is 2009 World
(Continued on Page 1184)
 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Inspiring Young Talent ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
‘‘Hardwork, motivation and encouragement of family members and
positive thinking are the main elements of my success in this
examination.’’
[‘Competition Science Vision’ arranged an exclusive interview with Mr. Dhananjay Dwivedi who has
the credit of securing a high position in the list of successful candidates of Uttarakhand PMT, 2009. For his
brilliant success he deserves all praise and our heartiest congratulations. This important interview is
presented here in its original form.]
CSV—Congratulations on your
brilliant success.
Dhananjay—Thanks.
CSV—Before knowing your result
what did you think about those who
achieve top positions ?
Dhananjay—They are like us but
do things differently.
CSV—Achieving top position has
come as surprise to you or were you
confident of achieving it ?
Dhananjay—Not so good but I
was sure that blessings of my parents
and teachers will not fail so I was
expecting under 50th rank.
CSV—What do you think is the
secret of your success ?
Dhananjay—My parents and my
Bhaiya-Bhabhi’s motivating behaviour
which never demoralised me.
CSV—In how many attempts did
you get this success ?
Dhananjay—It was my 3rd
attempt.
CSV—What were the shortcom-
ings in your preparation for earlier
attempts ? How did you make up for
them this time ?
Dhananjay—I was weak in
Biology. But this time my teachers
and friends supported me very much
so I got a position in it also.
CSV—From where did you get
the inspiration of choosing a medical
career ?
Dhananjay—My father and
mother.
CSV—From when did you start
the preparation for it ?
Dhananjay—Just after 12th but I
think it must be right from the 11th
standard to achieve good success in
less time.
CSV—What planning did you
make for preparation ? Please tell
something in detail.
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1071
Topper—Uttarakhand, PMT–2009 (4th Rank)
Dhananjay—From the beginning
of this year, I planned to take more
and more tests, particularly of objec-
tive questions in which material of
CSV, helped me a lot.
—Competition Science Vision
is a landmark in the field of
science magazines for pre-medi-
cal examinations. It gives all
important facts with easily under-
standable short explanations.
—Dhananjay Dwivedi
CSV—How much time did you
devote daily and regularly for Physics,
Chemistry, Zoology and Botany ?
Dhananjay—Initially, in my first
year of preparation, I give almost one
hour for each subject, but in my last
year I always gave more time on my
weak points. Subject not mattering
much.
CSV—Out of the above four
subjects, to which subject did you give
more weightage and why ?
Dhananjay—Certainly Biology
because firstly we are going to
become doctor and the almost in
every entrance exam there are more
questions on Biology. But Chemistry
is very scoring subject.
CSV—Did you make complete
study of all topics or of some selective
topics ?
—Dhananjay Dwivedi
Dhananjay—I always stress
more on those points which my
teachers tell me because being selec-
tive is also the key to success. Don’t
waste time in vain for the less
weightage portion.
CSV—How did you give final
touches to your preparation ?
Dhananjay—After preparing, I
joined one month test series which
was helpful for whole revision and
discussion with the teachers and
classmates was utmost important.
CSV—Did you prepare notes ?
Dhananjay—Yes, I prepared
notes but they were very selective and
short which can be studied at the night
before the examination and without
tension.
CSV—What was your attitude for
solving numerical questions ? What
weightage did you give them ?
Dhananjay—One must concen-
trate on numericals sincerely because
in medical exams they are generally
formula based so we can score good
marks in them.
Bio-Data
Name—Dhananjay Dwivedi
Father’s Name—Sri Brij Bhushan
Dwivedi
Mother’s Name—Smt. Shakuntla
Dwivedi
Educational Qualifications—
H. S. / Std. X—89·4% (P.P.J.
Saraswati Vihar, Nainital), 2004.
Inter/Std. XII—76% (P.P.J. Saras-
wati Vihar, Nainital), 2006.
CSV—How much time is suffi-
cient for preparing for this examina-
tion ?
Dhananjay—Actually planning is
very important because upto my 12th
class I had not planned my career so
I got this success late but I think two
years are sufficient.
(Continued on Page 1092)
 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Inspiring Young Talent ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
‘‘Sustained and scheduled study with guidance of teachers is the
secret of my success.’’
[‘Competition Science Vision’ arranged an exclusive interview with Miss Garima Singh who has the
credit of being successful in CBSE (PMT) and U.P.-CPMT with high ranks. For her brilliant success, she
deserves all praise and our heartiest congratulations. This important interview is presented here in its
original form.]
CSV—Congratulations on your
brilliant success.
Garima—Thank you, Sir.
CSV—Before knowing your result
what did you think about those who
achieve top positions ?
Garima—I thought they must be
some extraordinary persons, much
more studious than myself.
CSV—Achieving top position has
come as surprise to you or were you
confident of achieving it ?
Garima—I was confident of
achieving good rank but was not sure
about such high rank.
CSV—What do you think is the
secret of your success ?
Garima—I think sustained and
scheduled study is the secret of my
success along with the guidance of
the teachers.
CSV—In how many attempts did
you get this success ?
Garima—It was my second
attempt.
CSV—What were the shortcom-
ings in your preparation for earlier
attempts ? How did you make up for
them this time ?
Garima—I was not so much
serious about my study in the first
attempt as in second attempt.
CSV—From where did you get
the inspiration of choosing a medical
career ?
Garima—My mother always told
me that for girls the most respectable
job is to be a doctor.
CSV—From when did you start
the preparation for it ?
Garima—After class X.
CSV—What planning did you
make for preparation ? Please tell
something in detail.
Garima—I used to make a time
table nearly daily for what to do that
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1072
CBSE (PMT) 2009 [General Rank-54, OBC Rank-5]
day. I used to decide subject matters
to study for the day and sleep only
after completing them.
—CSV is a nice magazine and
is very useful for pre-medical
examinations. It contains good
subject matter and quality sample
questions in exhaustive numbers.
—Garima Singh
CSV—How much time did you
devote daily and regularly for Physics,
Chemistry, Zoology and Botany ?
Garima—After 6 hours of
coaching, I devoted 7-8 hours daily
for self study.
CSV—Out of the above four
subjects, to which subject did you give
more weightage and why ?
Garima—I gave weightage to the
subjects according to the toughness
of the lesson which I am going to
read. If it is from Physics then more
weightage for it and if from Botany
then less for it.
CSV—Did you make complete
study of all topics or of some selective
topics ?
Garima—I tried to make com-
plete study of all subjects.
CSV—How did you give final
touches to your preparation ?
Garima—After reading the
lessons, I go to the lesson content at
start and used to make ticks for what
I know I studied. This gave me confi-
dence.
—Garima Singh
CSV—Did you prepare notes ?
Garima—Yes, I prepared short
but comprehensive notes.
CSV—What was your attitude for
solving numerical questions ? What
weightage did you give them ?
Garima—They are very impor-
tant. In PMT’s, the numericals are
generally net very tough and they
assure easy marks. If any numerical
was very long then I solved it at last.
CSV—How much time is suffi-
cient for preparing for this examina-
tion ?
Garima—Two years of deep
study is sufficient.
CSV—From what level of educa-
tion should an aspirant begin pre-
paring for it ?
Garima—From class XI.
Bio-Data
Name—Garima Singh
Father’s Name—Sri Dharmraj Singh
Mother’s Name—Smt. Renu Singh
Educational Qualifications—
H.S./Std. X—90% (Kendriya
Vidyalaya, DLW), 2006.
Inter/Std. XII—89·8% (Kendriya
Vidyalaya, DLW), 2008.
Special Ahievements—
● Also selected in CPMT, 2009
● Selected in National Science
Exhibition (KVS), 2007
● Got 3rd District Rank in Maths
Olympiad one time
CSV—What was your order of
preference for various branches for
which this test is held ?
Garima—Only MBBS.
CSV—Please mention various
books in each subject and magazines
on which you based your preparation.
Garima—NCERT Books for each
subject. Elementary Biology, ABC
Chemistry, Pradeep Physics, H. C.
Verma for Physics and CSV maga-
zine.
 CSV—Did you take coaching in
your preparation ?
Garima—Yes, I took JRS Tuto-
rials, Varanasi. It was very useful. I
was much influenced by its Director
Sir A. K. Jha. He gave equal attention
to each student and taught every
topic in a playing manner.
CSV—What help do the science
magazines render in the preparations
for this examination ?
Garima—They give extra edge in
preparations and provide knowledge
in some currently discovered matters
related to our subject topics.
CSV—What will be your criterion
for selecting a magazine for these
examinations ?
Garima—It must have correct-
ness in its writings and should explain
difficult things in easy way.
Personal Qualities
Hobbies—Listening songs and
playing cricket
Ideal Person—My mother
Strong Point—My confidence
Weak Point—Being nervous at
some events
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1073
CSV—What is your opinion about
our Competition Science Vision ?
How much helpful and useful do you
find it ?
Garima—It is a nice magazine. It
contains subject matter and sample
questions in good amount.
CSV—Please suggest in what
way CSV can be made more useful
for medical aspirants.
Garima—It is already very useful
and can be made more useful by
introducing more diagrams alongwith
questions.
CSV—Please mention your posi-
tion in the merit list as well as the
marks obtained in different subjects.
What were your aggregate percentage
of mraks ?
Garima—I obtained All India rank
5 in OBC category and 54th All India
General rank. In Physics and
Chemistry together I got 66/100. In
Botany and Zoology I got 78/100 in
CBSE Mains subjective examination.
CSV—What books/magazines/
newspapers did you read for G.K.
preparations ?
Garima—I hadn’t read any
specific book for G.K. I got it from the
Internet, Dainik Jagran, The Times of
India and CSV magazine.
CSV—Whom would you like to
give credit for your success ?
Garima—First my parents, then
to my teachers and then myself.
CSV—Please tell us something
about your family.
Garima—My father is a Senior
Section Engineer in DLW. My mother
is an architect Engineer. I have a
sister and a brother who are younger
to me.
CSV—What in your frank opinion
has been the biggest mistake in your
preparation for this test ?
Garima—I don’t find any big
mistake.
CSV—What message would you
like to give for our readers of CSV ?
Garima—They must try to get
their dreams with whole heart, mind
and soul taken together they will
surely be get success.
●●●

Physics
1. For wattless current what should be the value of the
power factor of the circuit ?
➠ Zero
2. For which colour is the critical angle of light, passing
from glass to air, minimum ?
➠ Violet
3. Give an example of application of mutual induction in
any device.
➠ Transformer
4. What is the correct sequence of the semiconductors
silicon, tellunium and germanium in the increasing
order of their energy gap ?
➠ Tellurium, germanium, silicon
5. Which ammeter is used to measure alternating
current ?
➠ Hot wire ammeter
6. What quantity has the ampere-second as its unit ?
➠ Quantity of electricity
7. By seeing a glowing electric bulb can you say if it is
being fed by A.C. or D.C.
➠ No
8. What does the sudden burst of a cycle tyre represent?
➠ Adiabatic process
9. What happens to the velocity and wavelength of light
when it enters a denser medium ?
➠ Both decrease
10. The skylab space station did not have a safe landing.
Why ?
➠ Because its remote control system failed
11. What happens when even a small bird hits a flying
aeroplane ?
➠ It causes heavy damage
12. When does the lunar eclopse occur ?
➠ It occurs when the earth comes in between the
moon and the sun
13. Why is the cooling inside a refrigerator not proper
when a thick layer of ice deposits on the freezer ?
➠ Because ice is a bad conductor of heat
14. Which type of computer is often found in small
business and in homes and classrooms ?
➠ The micro computer. It is the smallest and the
least costly type of computer
15. Out of joule, calorie, kilowatt and electron-volt which
one is not the unit of energy ?
➠ kilowatt
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1074
16. How does the atmospheric pressure vary with height?
➠ Atmospheric pressure P decreases with height
h above sea level. For an ‘ideal’ atmosphere at
constant temperature P = P0 e – kh where k is a
constant and P0 is the pressure at the surface
17. How is r.m.s. velocity of gas molecules related to
absolute temperature of the gas ?
➠ vrms ∝ T
18. What are transducers ?
➠ Devices which change signals from one form to
another (e.g. sound to electrical) are called
transducers
19. Is polarisation the property of all types of waves ?
➠ No, it is property of only transverse waves
20. What is the peculiarity of a NAND gate ?
➠ The output is HIGH if the input is NOT HIGH,
and vice-versa
Chemistry
21. What is Turnbull's blue ?
➠ Fe 4[Fe (CN)6]3
22. An hypothesis tested by experiments is known as
➠ Theory
23. What is magnesia alba ?
➠ Mg (OH)2.Mg CO3.3 H 2O
(used as an antacid)
24. The humidity of air is measured by
➠ Hygrometer
25. What is oleum ?
➠ H2S2O7
Also known as fuming sulphuric acid
26. Vulcanised rubber was invented by
➠ Charles Goodyear (1839)
27. An amino acid which does not contain a chiral
centre.
➠ Glycine [NH2—CH2—COOH]
28. Scientist who perfected the technique for converting
pig iron into steel
➠ Henry Bessemer (1856)
29. When the pH of the blood is lower than the normal
value, this condition is known as
➠ Acidosis
30. The electrolytic method of obtaining aluminium from
bauxite was first developed by
➠ Charles Hall (1886)
31. Which compound possesses characteristic smell like
that of mustard oil ?
➠ Ethyl isothiocyanate [C2H5N = C = S]
32. First solar bettery was developed in the 51. Lack of precision with regard to the third base in
➠ Bell Telephone Laboratory (1954) codon and anticodon is the
33. What is Wilkinson's catalyst ? ➠ Wobble effect
➠ tris (triphenylphosphine) chlororhodium(I) 52. What is called the air spaces present in some of
[RhCl (PPh3)3] cranial and facial bones ?
34. In 1836 the galvanised iron was introduced first in ➠ Sinuses
➠ France 53. The basic monomers used in DNA replication are
35. What is caro's acid ? ➠ DNA nucleotides
➠ Permonosulphuric acid [H2SO5] 54. What is called the smallest strength of stimulus that
36. A porcelain funnel used for filtration by suction is causes muscle contraction ?
known as ➠ Threshold stimulus
➠ Buchner Funnel 55. The form of endocytosis in which specific molecules
37. What is diazomethane ? bind to receptor sites on the external surface of the
+ – membrane is called
➠ [CH2 = N = N or CH2N2]
➠ Pinocytosis
38. A drying chamber, containing chemicals such as
concentrated sulphuric acid or silica gel is known as 56. Where the osteocytes of compact bone are orga-
➠ Desiccator nized?
➠ Around Haversian canals
39. Reforming of a gasoline fraction to increase bran-
ching in presence of AlCl 3 is known as 57. The term humour refers to
➠ Isomerization ➠ Plasma and lymph
40. A condenser consisting of glass tube surrounded by 58. What is gradually lost from bones during aging ?
another glass tube through which cooling water flows ➠ Calcium and phosphate
is known as 59. Most vitamins function as
➠ Liebig condenser ➠ Coenzymes
60. Which enzyme from small intestinal mucosa digests
maltose and sucrose ?
Zoology ➠ Disaccharidase

41. The earliest prokaryotes must have been

➠ Chemoheterotrophs
Botany
42. Which ions are most concentrated outside a resting
neuron ? 61. What are nonseptate fungal hyphae ?
➠ Sodium ➠ Fungi having no cross walls in their hyphae
43. The only arthropods with two pairs of antennae are
62. What is alternation of sexual and asexual reproduc-
the
tion in the life cycle of plants called ?
➠ Crustaceans
➠ Alternation of generation
44. Which type of cartilage is present in rib cage and the
tip of nose ? 63. Why does distinguishing species on the basis of
➠ Hyaline reproductive isolation run into problems ?
45. Most fossils are found in ➠ Because some species hybridize and
➠ Sedimentary rocks reproductive isolation is very
46. Where the Meissner’s corpuscles and Merkel’s disks difficult to observe
are located ? 64. What is a catalytically active complex made up of an
➠ Near the papillae of dermis apoenzyme and a coenzyme called ?
47. To make a karyotype, chromosomes are photogra- ➠ Holoenzyme
phed during 65. What does retrovirus have ?
➠ Mitosis ➠ Ritroviruses are RNA animal viruses
48. Which kind of glands have possible role in communi- that have a DNA stage
cation as scent glands ? 66. What is the first stable product of photosynthesis in
➠ Apocrine glands C4 plants ?
49. Viruses are obligate parasites of ➠ Oxaloacetic acid
➠ Cells 67. What is the chief means of achieving genetic
50. Which kind of bone marrow is present in the interior variation ?
of each epiphysis ? ➠ Mutation
➠ Red bone marrow (Continued on Page 1176)

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1075 / 3

 Stationary Waves Graphical Representation of Stationary
Waves
(i) When two progressive waves of equal wavelength
and amplitude moving in opposite directions in a medium
with the same speed superpose on each other, a new II
I
wave is formed that does not seem to proceed in any
direction. Such a wave is called the stationary wave. t

(ii) A stationary wave does not transmit energy in the II

medium. I
t

Important
I II
Let the wave moving in positive x-direction be represented by
2π t
y1 = a sin λ (vt –x)

and the wave moving in negative x-direction be given by II

2π I
y2 = a sin λ (vt + x) t
Then the resultant wave due to superposition is given by
y = y1 + y2
2πx 2πvt t
= 2a cos λ sin λ
2πvt
= A sin λ

(iii) The amplitude of the stationary wave is given by Characteristics of Stationary Waves
2πx
A = 2a cos (i) Some points of the medium are always stationary
λ i.e., their amplitude is zero. These are called nodes.
(iv) The points where the amplitude of the resultant
(ii) In between the nodes there are points with
wave is maximum are called the antinodes. For anti-
maximum displacements. These are called antinodes.
nodes
λ 3λ (iii) The distance between two consecutive nodes or
x = 0, , λ, , …… nearest antinodes is λ/2· The distance between a node
2 2
and the nearest antinode is λ/4·
and A = ± 2a.
(v) The points where the amplitude of the resultant (iv) Excluding nodes every point of the medium exe-
wave is minimum are called the nodes. For nodes cutes simple harmonic motion about its mean position.

λ 3λ 5λ (v) The amplitudes of all the particles of the medium

x = , , , ……
4 4 4 are not same. Amplitude at the nodes is zero and at
and A = 0. antinodes maximum.

(vi) The distance between two consecutive nodes or
antinodes is λ/2.
(vii) Stationary waves can be produced by the super-
position of both the longitudinal and transverse waves.
(viii) Longitudinal stationary waves are formed in
flutes and air columns.
(vi) All the points occurring between two nodes
vibrate in the same phase. They reach their respective
positions of maximum displacement simultaneously and
also pass through their mean position at the same time.
(vii) Like progressive waves the stationary wave do
not proceed forward.

(ix) Transverse stationary waves are formed in sono- (viii) The variations of pressure and density are maxi-
meter, sitar, gitar and strings. mum at nodes but are minimum at antinodes.

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1076

 Comparison of Progressive and Stationary Waves (iii) In fig. (c), a pulse passes from a heavy spring on
the left to a light spring. Partial reflection and transmission
Progressive Waves Stationary Waves
again occur but the reflected pulse is not turned upside
1. These waves move in 1. These waves do not move down.
medium with a definite in any direction and remain
speed. confined within two boun- (iv) In fig. (d), the left-hand of the long narrow spring
daries. is fastened to a length of a thin string and is in effect free.
2. All the medium particles in 2. All the medium particles in Here almost the whole of the incident pulse is reflected
these waves vibrate with these waves, except the right way up i.e., a crest is reflected as a crest and
equal amplitude and time- nodes, vibrates with equal
no phase change occurs.
period. time-periods but different
amplitudes. Phase Changes in Longitudinal Waves
3. The phase of each particle 3. All the particles between
changes continuously. two consecutive nodes are (i) Phase changes also occur when longitudinal
in same phase but the waves are reflected, as can be shown by sending pulses
particles on the opposite along a slinky spring to ‘denser’ and ‘less dense’ boun-
sides of the node are in daries, i.e. , to fixed and free ends. At a fixed end a
opposite phase. compression is reflected as a compression, at a free it
4. None of the particles is 4. Node particles are perma- is reflected as a rarefaction.
permanently stationary. In nently stationary; the rest
(ii) Similar effects are obtained when sound waves
the position of maximum are momentarily stationary
displacement every parti- in the position of maximum are reflected in pipes with closed and open ends; a com-
cle is momentarily statio- displacement. pression is reflected as a compression at a closed end
nary. and as a rarefaction at an open end.
5. The compressions and 5. Compressions and rarefac-
rarefactions move onward tions produce alternately at Important Points
with a definite speed. definite places.
● When a transverse wave on a spring is reflected at a
6. Same changes of pressure 6. Changes of pressure and
‘denser’ medium, there is a phase change of 180°.
and density occur at all density are maximum at
points of medium. nodes but minimum (zero) ● The phase change occurs in the case of the spring with
at antinodes. one end fixed for example, because there can be no
displacement of the fixed end, it must be a node. The
7. These waves transmit 7. These waves do not trans-
incident and reflected waves, therefore, cause equal and
every in the medium. mit energy in the medium.
opposite displacements at the fixed end so that they
superpose to give resultant zero displacement as shown
Reflection and Phase Changes in Mechanical in the figure below—
Waves Fixed end
Incident wave
The behaviour of a wave at a boundary can be
studied by sending pulses along a long narrow spring as
shown in figure below :

1 Reflected wave
Heavy spring Light spring
Fixed end
2

(a) (c) N N N N N

1 Vibrations of Air Columns

Heavy spring Light spring Light thread Spring
2
(b) (d)
(i) In fig. (a), the left-hand end of the spring is fixed
and a transverse upward pulse travelling towards it is
reflected as a trough. A phase change of 180°° or π rad
has occurred and there is a phase difference of half a
wavelength (λ/2) between the incident and reflected
pulse.
(ii) In fig. (b), the left-hand end of the spring is atta-
ched to a heavier spring and at the boundary the pulse is
partly transmitted and partly reflected, the reflected
pulse being inverted.
(i) An organ pipe is a pipe that sets in vibration the air
enclosed in it when the air is blown into it. As a result
sound is produced in it.
(ii) Organ pipes are of two types—closed end organ
pipe and open end organ pipe.
(iii) A closed end organ pipe has one of its ends
closed and the other open.
(iv) An open end organ pipe has both its ends open.
(v) In a closed end pipe a node is always formed at
the closed end and an antinode is formed at the open
end.
(vi) Longitudinal stationary waves are formed in an
organ pipe.

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1077

 (vii) Various stages of resonance in a closed end This frequency is called the fundamental frequency
organ pipe are represented in the following diagrams : or the fundamental note or the first harmonic.
A A A v v
(xvi) If l = λ2 then n2 = = = 2n1.
λ2 l
N
This frequency is called the second harmonic or
N first overtone.
λ1 3λ2 5λ3 3λ3 2l v 3v
t (xvii) If l = then λ3 = ∴ n3 = = = 3n1
4 4 4 2 3
N λ3 2l
This frequency is called the third harmonic or
second overtone.
(xviii) Both the odd and even harmonics are produced
in an open end organ pipe. That is,
N N N n1 : n2 : n3 : …… : : 1 : 2 : 3 : ……
(viii) If the length of the pipe (xix) The sound emitted by an open end organ pipe is
λ1 musical.
l = then λ1 = 4l
4
v v End Correction
∴ Frequency, n1 = =
λ1 4l (i) In an organ pipe antinode is formed a bit above the
This frequency is called fundamental frequency or open end as shown below by distance e.
fundamental note or first harmonic. e A e A
3λ2 4l
(ix) If l = then λ2 =
4 3
v 3v
∴ Frequency, n2 = = = 3 n1
λ2 4l
This frequency is called third harmonic or first over-
tone.
λ λ
5λ3 4l l l N
(x) If l = then λ3 = 4 2
4 5
v 5v
∴ Frequency, n3 = = = 5n1.
λ3 4l
This frequency is called fifth harmonic or second
overtone.
(xi) Only odd harmonics can be produced in a closed
end organ pipe. That is,
N e A
n1 : n2 : n3 ! …… : : 1 : 3 : 5 : ……
(xii) Longitudinal stationary waves are formed in an (ii) The length of the vibrating air column is a little
open end organ pipe too. greater than the length of the pipe.
(xiii) The antinodes are formed at both the ends of an (iii) The distance from the free end of the pipe to the
open pipe. antinode is called the end-correction represented by e.
(xiv) Various stages of resonance in an open organ (iv) Length of air column in closed end pipe = l + e.
pipe have been represented in the following diagrams : Length of air column in open end pipe = l + 2e.
A A A (v) If r be the radius of pipe then the end-correction
e = 0·6r.
N (vi) Frequency of the fundamental note of closed end
N pipe
A
v
n1 =
λ1 3λ3 4(l + 0·6r )
l N A λ2 N
2 2 and the frequency of the fundamental note of the open
end pipe
A
v
N n2 = ·
2(l + 1·2r )
N
(vii) The frequency of the fundamental note of open
A A A end pipe is not exactly the double of that of the closed end
pipe but is a bit less.
λ1
(xv) If l = then λ1 = 2l Resonance Tube
2
v v (i) Resonance tube is a closed organ pipe with an air
∴ Frequency, n1 = =
λ1 2l column of variable length.

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1078

 (ii) By resonance tube we can determine the speed of (v) If a string of length l vibrates in one loops then
sound in air and the frequency of tuning fork. λ1 = 2l and frequency
(iii) When the frequency of the air column of reso-
v 1 T
nance tube becomes equal to that of the tuning fork, n1 = = ·
2l 2l m
resonance occurs and the amplitude of vibrations of air
column becomes very large. A loud sound is heard in This frequency is called the fundamental note or
such a case. first harmonic.
A A (vi) If the string vibrates in two loops, then
λ v
l λ = l and n2 = = 2n1.
4
N l2 N 3λ l
4
This frequency is called the first overtone or second
harmonic.
N
(vii) If the string vibrates in three loops, then
3λ3 2l
= l ⇒ λ3 =
2 3
(iv) If the lengths of air column at first and second 3v
resonance be l1 and l2 respectively, then ∴ n3 = = 3n1.
2l
λ This frequency is called the second overtone or
l1 + e =
4 third harmonic.
3λ (viii) Both the odd and even harmonics are emitted
and l2 + e =
4 from a stretched string. That is,
∴ λ = 2(l2 – l1) n1 : n2 : n3 : …… : : 1 : 2 : 3 : ……
Speed of sound, v = 2n(l2 – l1)
l2 – 3l1 Laws of Transverse Vibrations in a Stretched
and end-correction, e = String
2
(v) Speed of sound at 0°C is given by v 0 = v t – 0·61t 1
(i) Law of length : n ∝ ; if T and m are constant.
where v t is the speed of sound at t °C. l
(ii) Law of tension : n ∝ T ; if l and m are constant.
Vibrations of Stretched String 1
(iii) Law of mass : n ∝ ; if T and l are constant.
(i) The vibrations of a thin, long and perfectly elastic m
string are transverse stationary. 1
(ii) On both the ends of string there are nodes, and an (iv) Law of radius : n ∝ ; if T, l and the density d
r
antinode is there in the middle. of the string are constant; r being the radius of
(iii) The speed of transverse wave in a stretched string.
string is given by 1
(v) Law of density : n ∝ ; if T, l and r are con-
T d
v = stant.
m
where T and m are respectively the tension and mass per Melde’s Experiment
unit length of the string.
(iv) Modes of vibration in a stretched string are as (i) Melde’s experiment is a simple and beautiful
under : example for the demonstration of stationary waves and
l the harmonics of their transverse vibrations.
(ii) Melde’s experiment is performed by two methods.
A
N N (iii) Transverse arrangement of vibrations :

λ λ1 (a) In this arrangement the tuning fork is held such

2 2 that the direction of its vibration is perpendicular
to the direction of length of string.
N A A N
N (b) In this arrangement the frequencies of the tuning
fork and the string are equal.
λ λ
= λ2
2 2 (c) If the tension T in the string is adjusted such that
p loops are produced in the string of length l, then
N A A A N
N N p 2T = 4n 2l 2m = Constant,
λ λ λ 3λ3 where m is the mass per unit length of the string.
2 2 2 2 This is Melde’s law.

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1079

 (iv) Longitudinal arrangement of vibrations : (b) In this arrangement p 2T = n 2l 2m = Constants.
(a) In this arrangement the tuning fork is held such (c) Here the frequency of string is half the frequency
that the direction of its vibration is along the
length of the string. of tuning fork.

SOME IMPORTANT SOLVED EXAMPLES

Example 1. An open end organ pipe emits a note

of frequency 256 Hz which its fundamental. What
would be the smallest frequency produced by a
closed end pipe of the same length ?
Solution :

Example 5. The length of the sonometer wire bet-

ween two fixed ends is 100 cm. Where should the two
bridges be placed to divide the wire into three seg-
ments whose frequencies are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3 ?

Example 2. An air column with a tuning fork of Solution :

frequency 256 Hz gives resonance at column lengths
33·4 cm and 101·8 cm. Deduce (i) the end correction,
and (ii) the speed of sound in air.

Solution :

Example 6. A tuning fork and an air column at

51°° C produce 4 beats in one second when sounded
together. The same tuning produces 1 beat per second
when the temperature of the air column is reduced to
16°° C. Determine the frequency of the tuning fork.
Example 3. A pipe 30 cm long is open at both
ends. Which harmonic mode of the pipe is resonantly Solution :
excited by a 1·1 kHz source ?
(Given speed of sound = 330 ms–1)
Solution :

Example 4. A wire is under tension of 32N and

length between the two bridges is 1 m. A 10 m length
of the sample of the wire has mass of 2g. Deduce the
speed of transverse waves on the wire and frequency
of the fundamental.
Solution :

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1080


1. The length of an organ pipe open
at both ends is 0·5 m. Calculate
the fundamental frequency of the
pipe if the speed of sound in air
is 350 m/s. If one end of the pipe
is closed, then what will be its
fundamental frequency ?
(A) 175 Hz, 350 Hz
(B) 300 Hz, 150 Hz
(C) 350 Hz, 175 Hz
(D) 150 Hz, 350 Hz
2. A resonance tube is resonated
with a tuning fork of frequency
512 s –1. Two successive lengths
of the resonated air-column are
16·0 cm and 51·0 cm. The
experiment is performed at room
temperature 40°C. Calculate the
speed of sound and end-correc-
tion at 0°C—
(A) 334 ms –1, 1·5 cm
(B) 334 ms –1, 2·1 cm
(C) 350 ms –1, 1·5 cm
(D) 350 ms –1, 2·1 cm
3. A wire of length 1·5 m under
tension emits a fundamental note
of frequency 120 Hz. (a) What
would be its fundamental fre-
quency if the length is increased
by half its length under the same
tension (b) By how much should
the length be shortened so that
the frequency is increased three-
fold ?
(A) 90 Hz, 1·0 m
(B) 80 Hz, 1·0 m
(C) 80 Hz, 0·5 m
(D) 100 Hz, 0·5 m
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1081
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
4. A string A has thrice the length,
thrice the diameter, thrice the
tension and thrice the density of
another wire B. Which overtone of
A will have the same frequency
as the fundamental of B ?
(A) 9th (B) 8th
(C) 6th (D) 10th
5. A steel rod 100 cm long is
clamped at its middle. The funda-
mental frequency of longitudinal
vibrations of the rod is given to
be 2·53 kHz. What is the speed
of sound in steel ?
(A) 2·53 km/s
(B) 253 km/s
(C) 5·06 km/s
(D) None of these
6. A pipe 20 cm long is closed at
one end. Which harmonic mode
of the pipe is resonantly excited
by a 425 Hz source ? Will this
same source be in resonance
with the pipe if both ends are
open ?
(Speed of sound = 340 ms–1)
(A) First harmonic, No
(B) Second harmonic, No
(C) Third harmonic, No
(D) None of these
7. The pitch of the fundamental tone
of an open organ pipe 66 cm long
is the same as that of a stretched
string 20 cm long vibrating trans-
versely. If the mass per unit of
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
the string is 0·01 kg/m. Find the
tension in the string in kg-wt—
(Speed of sound in air = 330 ms–1)
(A) 100 kg-wt (B) 102 kg-wt
(C) 15·0 kg-wt (D) 10·2 kg-wt
8. Two perfectly identical wires are
in unison. When the tension in
one wire is increased by 1%, then
on sounding together, 3 beats are
heard in 2 second. What is the
frequency of each wire ?
(A) 350 Hz (B) 256 Hz
(C) 300 Hz (D) None of these
9. Two tuning forks A and B when
sounded together give 4 beats/s.
A is unison with the note emitted
by a 0·96 m length of a sono-
meter wire under a certain
tension. B is in unison with 0·97
m length of the same wire under
the same tension. Calculate the
frequency of the fork—
(A) 388 Hz (B) 512 Hz
(C) 256 Hz (D) 540 Hz
10. Two tuning forks A and B when
sounded together give 8 beats/
sec. Fork A resonates with a
closed column of air 16 cm long
and B with an open column 32·5
cm long. Calculate their frequen-
cies—
(A) 520 Hz, 512 Hz
(B) 512 Hz, 504 Hz
(C) 256 Hz, 248 Hz
(D) None of these
(Continued on Page 1098)
Important Concepts
Einstein’s mass energy equivalence relation—
Einstein on the basis of his relativity theory has proved
that if a substance loses an amount Δm of its mass, an
equivalent amount ΔE of energy is produced where
ΔE = (Δ m) × c2
where c is the speed of light.
This is called Einsteins mass-energy relation.
In view of this the laws of conservation of mass and
the conservation of energy have been unified into a single
law which states that the total (mass + energy) of the
universe is conserved.
Atomic mass unit (amu)—The unit chosen to
express extremely small masses of atoms, nuclei and
fundamental particles (electrons, protons, neutrons etc.) is
called ‘atomic mass unit’ (amu).
1 amu is defined as one-twelfth part of the mass
of carbon (6C12) atom. This definition makes the mass of
12
6C atom exactly equal to 12·00000…amu.
The mass of 1 gm-atom of carbon is 12 gm and it
contains N = 6·02 × 1023 atoms.
1 and neutrons combine to form the nucleus, an amount of
∴ 1 amu = (mass of 1 carbon atom)
12
1 12
= ×
12 N
1
= gram
N
1
= to separate the constituent nucleons to large distances.
6·02 × 1023
= 1·66 × 10–24 gram
= 1·66 × 10–27 kg.
Unit electron volt—Electron volt is the unit of energy.
1 electron volt is the energy which an electron
acquires when it is accelerated through a potential
difference of 1 volt.
1 eV = (1·6 × 10–19 coulomb) × 1 volt
= 1·6 × 10–19 joule
Larger units are kilo electron volt (keV), million elec-
tron volt (MeV) and billion electron volt (BeV).
1 keV = 103 eV = 1·6 × 10–16 joule
1 MeV = 106 eV = 1·6 × 10–13 joule
1 BeV = 109 eV = 1·6 × 10–10 joule
Energy equivalent to 1 amu mass—
ΔE = (Δ m) × c2
= (1·66 × 10–27) × (3·0 × 108)2
= 1·49 × 10–10 joule
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1082
But
1·6 × 10–19 joule = 1 electron volt (eV)
1·49 × 10–10
∴ ΔE = eV
1·6 × 10–19
= 0·931 × 109 eV
= 931 MeV (million electron volt)
∴ 1 amu = 931 MeV
Mass defect—The mass of the atomic nucleus is
slightly less than the sum of the masses of the
nucleons (i.e. protons and neutrons) present in the
nucleus. This mass difference is called mass-defect
(Δ m).
Thus Δm = (Mass of protons + Mass of neutrons)
– Mass of the nucleus
For an atom ZXA
Δ m = [Zmp + (A – Z)mn] – mN
where mN is the mass of the nucleus.
The significance of mass defect is that when protons
mass Δm disappears and an equivalent amount of energy
(Δ m) × c2 is liberated. It is due to this energy that protons
and neutrons remain bound in the nucleus.
Binding energy—The nucleons are bound together
in a nucleus and energy must be supplied to the nucleus
The amount of energy needed to do this is called the
binding energy of the nucleus. Thus, the binding energy
of a nucleus is the energy required to take its
nucleons away from one another.
Physical Constants
Mass of proton, mp = 1·673 × 10–27 kg
= 1·00728 amu
Mass of neutron, mn = 1·675 × 10–27 kg
= 1·00867 amu
1 amu = 931 MeV
Mass defect for α-particle (2He4)
= 0·03040 amu
Binding energy of α-particle
= 28·3 MeV
= 7·07 MeV per nucleon
Binding energy of deuteron (nucleus of deuterium 1H2)
= 2·25 MeV
= 1·12 MeV per nucleon
 The binding energy of a nucleus is generally expres-
sed as binding energy per nucleon. It is a measure of the
stability of nucleus. Higher the binding energy per nuc-
leon, more stable is the nucleus.
Binding energy curve—A graph between the bind-
ing energy per nucleon and the mass number of nuclei is
called the binding energy curve. This is shown in the
figure below :
9.0
Binding energy per nucleon (MeV)
O16 56
8.0 C12
Fe
4 F18
He N14 U238
7.0
6.0
7 about 5 × 10 23 MeV. So much energy is obtained from explo-
5.0 Li
4.0
3.0
2.0
H2
1.0
0.0
0 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180 200 220 240
Mass number (A)
Important Conclusions
1. The nuclei having mass number around 60 (for
example Fe with A = 56) have maximum binding energy
per nucleon (≈ 8·7 MeV). These nuclei are most stable.
2. For heavier nuclei, the binding energy per nucleon
gradually decreases. For uranium A = 238 it is about 7·6
MeV.
3. For nuclei having mass number below 56 also, the
binding energy decreases and below A = 20, it decreases
very rapidly. For example, for heavy hydrogen (A = 2) it is
only 1 MeV. It shows that nuclei of A < 20 are relatively
less stable.
4. The special positions of He4, C12 and O16 on the
curve indicate that these nuclei are more stable than their
neighbouring nuclei.
5. The binding energy per nucleon of very light and
very heavy nuclei is generally less than that of the nuclei
in the middle. Thus if a very heavy nucleus (e.g.,
uranium) is broken into comparatively lighter nuclei,
then the binding energy per nucleon will increase.
Hence a large quantity of energy will be liberated in this
process. This phenomenon is called ‘nuclear fission’.
6. Similarly, if two or more very light nuclei (e.g.,
nuclei of 1H2) are combined into a relatively heavier
nucleus (e.g. , 2He 4), then also the binding-energy per
nucleon will increase. In this process also energy is
liberated. The phenomenon is called ‘nuclear fusion’.
Nuclear fission—It is the process in which a heavy
unstable nucleus breaks into two nuclei of nearly same
mass with the liberation of energy. Nuclear fission was
discovered by two German scientists Otto-Hahn and
Strassman.
92 U
235 + 0n1 → (92U236) → 56Ba141 + 36Kr92 + 3(0n1)
It is not necessary that the fission products are Ba
and Kr. Other nuclei may also be produced.
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1083
Important Features of Nuclear Fission
1. The mass of the compound nucleus must be greater
than the sum of masses of fission products.
2. The binding energy per nucleon for compound nucleus
must be less than that of the fission products.
3. Energy liberated is equivalent to difference in masses
of the nuclei before and after fission.
4. The energy release in the fission of U235 is estimated
to be about 200 MeV per fission (or about 0·9 MeV per
nucleon).
5. The energy obtained by fission of 1 gm of uranium is
sion of 20 tones of T.N.T. From this energy about 2 × 10 4
kWh electrical energy can be produced.
6. 92U238 is fissionable only by fast neutrons (1·2 MeV
energy) whereas 92U235 is fissionable by slow neutrons
(1 eV) or thermal neutrons (0·025 eV) as well as fast neutrons.
7. Each of the three neutrons carries an energy of about 2
MeV. The fast neutrons will escape and will not cause the
fission of U235 nuclei. In order to utilise them to cause fission
of three other nuclei of U235, these neutrons have to be
slowed down.
8. On an average 2·5 neutrons are emitted per fission.
9. Energy is released in the form of kinetic energy of
fission fragments. Some of the energy is also released in the
form of γ-rays, heat energy, sound energy and light energy.
10. The pressure and temperature are very high in the
fission process.
11. The elements formed lie nearly in the middle of the
periodic table.
12. Fission fragments are radioactive and they decay to
stable products by emitting α-, β- and γ-rays.
Chain reaction in nuclear fission—In the nuclear
fission of each uranium nucleus 2 or 3 fresh neutrons are
liberated which under favourable conditions fission other
uranium nuclei. This establishes a chain of nuclear fission
which continues until the whole uranium is consumed. In
the chain reaction, the number of nuclei undergoing
fission increases very fast producing tremendous amount
of energy.
Difficulties in chain reaction—(i) The major part of
natural uranium is the isotope U238 the isotope U235 is
very little (only 0·7%). U 238 can be fissioned only by fast-
neutrons (energy more than 1 MeV). The neutrons of
energy less than this are absorbed by U 238 . U235 can be
fissioned with slow as well as fast neutrons. Though the
low-energy neutrons can fission U235, but the probability
of their absorption by U238 is much more. Thus the fresh
neutrons released in the fission of ordinary uranium are
not able to continue the chain reaction.
(ii) The second difficulty in the maintenance of chain
reaction is that the fast neutrons liberated by the fission of
U235 nucleus travel a distance of about 10 cm in the subs-
tance before they are slowed down and fission other
nuclei. If the uranium block to be fissioned is of small size,
the most of the neutrons will escape before fissioning any
nucleus, and the chain reaction will stop. Therefore, to
continue the chain-reaction, the size of the fissionable
substance should be bigger than a certain critical size.
 Removal of diffculties—There are two ways to over- a very short time as a violent explosion. This happens in a
come the above difficulties : nuclear bomb.
(i) The first is to separate the lighter isotope U235 from In controlled chain-reaction, the fission is so con-
the ordinary uranium by diffusion method and to carry out trolled by artificial means that only one of the neutrons
the fission of U235 . The fission of U235 is possible by neu- produced in each fission is able to cause further fission.
trons of any energy (very high or very low). In this case The rate of reaction remains constant. Thus the rate of
the chain reaction will continue. But this process is very fission is kept constant. Therefore, this process is slow
expensive and cumbersome. and the energy release is steady which can be utilised for
useful purposes. Nuclear reactors are based on this pro-
(ii) The second method is to slow down the neutrons
cess.
so that their energy remains about 0·03 eV. Then the
probability of their absorption by U238 becomes very low
while the probability of their fissioning U 235 becomes high. Parts of a Modern Nuclear Reactor
This slowing down of the neutrons is achieved by use of
moderators. Fuel—It is the substance used for fission. U 235 or Pu 239
is used for this purpose.
(iii) The second difficulty mentioned above is removed
Moderator—It is used to slow down neutrons. Heavy
by taking the critical size of the fissionable substance. water, graphite or beryllium-oxide is used for this purpose.
Critical size—Suppose, Heavy water is best moderator.
r = radius of the fissionable piece Coolant—Heat energy released in reactor is removed by
coolant. For this purpose air, water or CO2 is flown in the
N = Number of neutrons produced by primary fission.
reactor. Heat removed is utilised in producing steam which is
A = Number of neutrons absorbed by the substance used to drive turbines to produce electricity.
without causing fission. Controller—It controls the rate of fission in a reactor.
L = Number of neutrons escaping the substance. Cadmium rods are used for this purpose. These rods are
fixed in reactor-walls. When they are pushed into the reactor,
Then obviously the fission rate decreases and when they are pulled out, the
N ∝ r 3 = k 1r 3, A ∝ r 3 = k 2r 3, L ∝ r 2 = k 3r 2 fission grows. Cadmium is a very good absorber of neu-
trons.
N–A
Case I. If N < A + L or <1 Shield—To protect the workers from the injurious radia-
L
tion emitted in the reactor, thick concrete walls are erected
There will be no fission and the chain reaction will around the reactor.
stop.
N–A Breeder reactors—The reactors in which energy is
Case II. If N > A + L or > 1.
L produced by fission of U235 by slow neutrons are called
Then fission will continue and the chain reaction will ‘thermal reactors’. Since the major part in ordinary uranium
be maintained. is of U238 (U235 is only 0·7%), therefore, the fission of U235
N–A k 1 r3 – k 2 r3 is very costly. This will also lead to an early depletion of
Now, = uranium reserves.
L k 3 r2
k1 – k2 It is known that besides U235, Pu 239 is also a fission-
= × r = kr able substance. But Pu239 is not a naturally occurring
k3
where k is a new constant. isotope. It is produced from U 238 .
Hence for chain reaction to continue. β β
92 U
238 + n ⎯→ 92U239 ⎯→ 93 Np
239 ⎯→
94 Pu
239
N–A
> 1
L If more than one neutron can be absorbed by U238
or kr > 1 per fission, then we produce more fuel than what we
1 consume. Thus apart from nuclear energy these reactors
⇒ r > give us fresh nuclear fuel which often exceeds the nuclear
k
Hence for the chain-reaction to continue, the size (r ) fuel used. Hence they are called ‘Breeder reactors’.
of the substance to be fissioned should be larger than a Note—In these reactors, in addition to Pu239 , U233
critical value ()1
k
. The value ()
1
k
is called the ‘critical (fissionable fuel) is also produced from Th232 .
Nuclear fusion—When two lighter nuclei moving
size’ of the substance. If the size of the substance is even
at very high speeds fuse together to form a single
slightly less than the critical size, the chain-reaction shall
stop. heavier nucleus, then this phenomenon is called
nuclear fusion. The mass of the nucleus obtained after
Uncontrolled and controlled chain-reactions—In
uncontrolled chain-reaction, more than one of the neu- fusion is less than the sum of the masses of the nuclei
trons produced in fission cause further fissions so that the which are fused together. The lost mass is obtained in the
number of fissions increases very rapidly. Thus this is a form of energy.
very fast reaction and the whole substance is fissioned in Hydrogen bomb is based on phenomenon of nuclear
a few moments liberating a huge quantity of energy within fusion.

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1084

 As an example, in the fusion of two nuclei of deute- At a Glance
rium (heavy hydrogen), following reactions take place
Nuclear Fission Nuclear Fusion
1H
2 + 1H2 ⎯→ 1H3 + 1H1 + 4·0 MeV (energy)
1. Neutrons are required for Protons are required for it.
The nucleus of tritium (1H3) so formed can again fuse
it.
with a deuterium nucleus :
2. It is possible at normal It is possible at extremely high
1H
3 + 1H2 ⎯→ 2He 4 + 0n1 + 17·6 MeV (energy) temperature and pressure. temperature and pressure.
The net result of these two reactions is that 3 deute- 3. For this the energy relea- For this the energy released
rium nuclei fuse together to form a helium nucleus and sed per nucleon per nucleon
liberate 21·6 MeV energy. ΔE 200 ΔE 27
A = 235 ≈ 0·8 MeV A = 4 = 6·75 MeV
Source of solar energy—The sun is continuously
4. Fissionable materials are The materials used in it are
emitting huge amount of energy since millions of years.
expensive. cheap ( e.g., hydrogen)
Emission of such a large amount of energy by chemical
reactions is not possible. The source of huge solar Nuclear Fission Radioactive
energy is the fusion of lighter nuclei. At present, it is Disintegration
believed that proton-porton cycle is more probable in the
1. Fission is not a spontane- It is a spontaneous process. It
sun (instead of carbon cycle). In this cycle (also),
ous process. It is produ- cannot be started, stopped,
hydrogen nuclei fuse together to form of helium nucleus
ced by bombarding the accelerated or retarded by
through the following reactions :
nuclei of fissionable mate- any chemical or physical pro-
2[ 1H1 + 1H1 → 1H
2 + +1β0 + υ + 0·4 MeV] rial by neutrons. cess.
2[ 1H1 + 1H2 → 2He
3 + 5·5 MeV] 2. In this process a heavy In radioactive decay the un-
He 3 + 3 → He 4 + 2(1H1) + 12·9 MeV unstable nucleus breaks stable nuclei spontaneously
2 2He 2
into two nuclei of almost emit light particle (α- and β-)
Adding we get
same mass. Energy is and energy is obtained in the
4(1H1) → 2He
4 + 2(+1β0) + 2υ + 24·7 MeV obtained in the form of form of γ-rays.
In full cycle 24·7 MeV energy is liberated. kinetic energy of these
fragments, heat, light and
sound.
At a Glance
3. Tremendous amount of Energy obtained in radio-
Uses of Nuclear Reactor energy is obtained in fis- active disintegration is very
1. To generate electricity. sion process. less.

2. To produce Pu239. Fast Breeder Test Thermal Reactor

3. To produce a neutron beam of high energy for neutron Reactor
bombardment.
1. In this liquid sodium is In this water is used as coo-
4. To produce artificially radioactive isotopes for medical,
used as coolant. lant.
industrial and biological uses.
2. The fuel used is a mixture The fuel used is natural ura-
5. To generate power for driving the engines and the propul-
sion of ships, submarines and air crafts, thus replacing of plutonium and natural nium.
steam, coal and petrol. uranium.
3. 60–70% fraction of natural Only 1·2% fraction of natural
Research Atomic Reactors uranium is used. uranium is used.

1. Apsara—This is 1MW reactor situated in Mumbai. An 4. The chain reaction is The chain reaction is main-
alloy of uranium and aluminium is used as fuel in it. This is maintained by fast neu- tained by slow neutrons.
also known as swimming pool type reactor. trons.
2. Cirus—It is a 40MW reactor, made in collaboration with 5. Number of neutrons pro- The number of neutrons pro-
Canada and is used to produce radioactive isotopes. duced per fission is more. duced per fission is less.
3. Zerlina—0 MW reactor. Atom Bomb Hydrogen Bomb
4. Purnima—0 MW reactor.
1. It is based on fission pro- It is based on fusion process.
cess.
Power Reactors
2. In it critical size is impor- There is no limit to size.
1. Tarapur (Maharashtra) 400 MW tant.
2. Rana Pratap Sagar (Rajasthan) 400 MW 3. In this, explosion is possi- In this extremely high tempe-
3. Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu) 220 MW ble at normal temperature rature and pressure is requi-
4. Narora (U.P.) 200 MW and pressure. red to explode it.
5. Kaiga (Karnataka) 200 MW 4. In this, harmful radiations In this harmful radiations are
6. Kakarapar (Gujarat) 200 MW are produced. not produced.

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1085

 SOME TYPICAL SOLVED EXAMPLES

Example 1. Find the binding energy per nucleon Given the binding energy per nucleon of 1H2 and
for 3Li7 if mass of 3Li7 is 7·01653 amu 2 He 4is 1·125 MeV and 7·2 MeV respectively.
[Given : mp = 1·00759 amu, mn = 1·00898 amu] Solution :
Solution :

Example 5. If 200 MeV energy is released in the

Example 2. If the mass defect in the formation of fission of a single nucleus of 92U235, how many fission
helium from hydrogen is 0·5%, then find the energy must occur per second to produce a power of 1 kW ?
obtained in kWh, in forming helium from 1 kg of
Solution :
hydrogen.
Solution :

Example 6. The energy supplied to a city by state

Example 3. The mass of helium nucleus is less
than that of its constituent particles by 0·03 amu. Find
the binding energy per nucleon of 2He 4 nucleus.
Solution :
electricity board is 40 million kilowatt-hour. If this
energy could be obtained by the conversion of matter,
how much mass would have to be annihilated ?
Solution :

Example 4. How much energy is released in the

following reaction ?
2 + 1H2 = 4
1H 2He

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. m , mn and mp are the masses of 2. An element A is converted to C 3. The nucleus with maximum bind-
A
ZX nucleus, neutron and proton through following reactions : ing energy per nucleon out of the
respectively. If the nucleus is following is—
A ⎯→ B + 2He 4
broken into its constituents, (A) 92U238 (B) 2He 4
then— B ⎯→ C + 2e– (C) 8O16 (D) 26Fe 56
(A) m > [(A – Z)mn + Zmp] Then— 4. The following nuclear reaction
(A) A and C are isobars represents
(B) m < [(A – Z)mn + Zmp]
7N + 1H ⎯→ 8 O
(B) A and C are isotopes 14 1 15 + 7·3 MeV
(C) m = [(A – Z)mn + Zmp] (C) A and B are isobars (A) Nuclear fusion
(D) m = [Zmn + (A – Z)mp] (D) A and B are isotopes (B) Nuclear fission

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1086

 (C) Scattering of particles
(D) Element transformation
5. The binding energies per nuc-
leon of deuterium and helium are
1·1 MeV and 7 MeV respectively.
When two deuterons fuse to form
a helium nucleus, the amount of
energy released will be—
(A) 23·6 MeV (B) 7 MeV
(C) 6 MeV (D) 200 MeV
6. The most suitable material for
moderator in a nuclear reactor
is—
(A) D2O (B) Cd
(C) B (D) 92U235
7. The energy of thermal neutrons
is nearly—
(A) 0·25 MeV (B) 0·025 MeV
(C) 200 MeV (D) 0·025 joule
8. The first atomic reactor was
made by—
(A) Hahn (B) Strassma
(C) Fermi (D) Bethe
9. The fissionable material used in
the bomb dropped at the city of
Nagasaki of Japan was—
(A) Plutonium (B) Uranium
(C) Thorium (D) Neptunium
10. When the number of nucleons in
the nucleus increases, the bind-
ing energy per nucleon—
(A) Decreases continuously with
A the number of neutrons
(B) Increases continuously with
A down the speed of neutrons
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1087
(C) Remains constant with A
(D) First increases with A and
then decreases
11. The source of solar energy is—
(A) Fission of helium
(B) Chemical reaction
(C) Burning of carbon
(D) Fusion of hydrogen nuclei
12. Average binding energy of nuc-
leons is—
(A) 8 eV (B) 8 MeV
(C) 8 BeV (D) 8 joule
13. The energy equivalent to 1 kg of
matter is about—
(A) 1011 joule (B) 1014 joule
(C) 1017 joule (D) 1020 joule
14. The controller rods in the nuclear
reactor are made of—
(A) Cadmium (B) Uranium
(C) Graphite (D) Plutonium
15. Which of the following is the
main source of energy emission
in the stars ?
(A) Chemical reaction
(B) Fusion of heavy nuclei
(C) Fission of heavy nuclei
(D) Fusion of lighter nuclei
16. In a nuclear reactor—
(A) Moderator is used to control
(B) Moderator is used to slow
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
(C) Controller rods are used to
slow down the speed of
neutrons
(D) Coolant is used to control
the number of neutrons
17. The equation
4(1H1) ⎯→ 2He
4 + 2e– + 26 MeV
represents—
(A) β-decay (B) γ-decay
(C) Fusion (D) Fission
18. The mass defect in a nuclear
fusion reaction is 0·3 per cent.
What amount of energy will be
liberated in one kg fusion reac-
tion ?
(A) 5·2 × 1014 joule
(B) 2·7 × 1014 joule
(C) 2·7 × 1014 kWh
(D) None of these
19. Enriched uranium is better fuel
for a reactor because it has grea-
ter proportion of—
(A) Slow neutrons
(B) Fast neutrons
(C) 92U235
(D) 92U238
20. In a nuclear reactor—
(A) Rate of reaction may be
controlled by boron steel
rods
(B) Fast neutrons are slowed
down by cadmium rods
(C) Plutonium is used as coolant
(D) Hydrogen is used as fuel
●●●
Useful for Various Competitive Exams.
By : Dr. Lal, Mishra & Kumar
Code No. 1624 Rs. 250/-
UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
E-mail : publisher@upkar.in
Website : www.upkar.in

1. Which of the following is India’s
first geostationary satellite ?
(A) Apple
(B) INSAT-B
(C) Aryabhatta
(D) Rohini
2. A body is rolling down an inclined
plane. Its translational and rota-
tional kinetic energies are equal.
The body is a—
(A) Solid sphere
(B) Hollow sphere
(C) Solid cylinder
(D) Hollow cylinder
3. Which of the following is the
main source of electricity in our
country ?
(A) Nuclear energy
(B) Hydro electricity
(C) Thermal energy
(D) Geothermal energy
4. A combination of two thin convex
lenses of focal length 0·3 m and
0·1 m will have minimum sphe-
rical and chromatic aberrations if
the distance between them is—
(A) 0·1 m (B) 0·2 m
(C) 0·3 m (D) 0·4 m
5. A free-floating astronaut ‘P’
pushes another free-floating
astronaut ‘Q’ in space. The mass
of P is greater than that of Q.
The force exerted by astronaut P
on astronaut Q will be—
(A) Equal to zero
(B) Equal to force exerted by Q
on P
(C) Greater than the forces
exerted by Q on P
(D) Less than the force exerted
by Q on P.
6. When 92U235 is bombarded with
one neutron, fission occurs and
the products are three neutron,
94
36 Kr , and—
(A) 141
56 Ba (B) 54 Xe
(C) 139 142
56 Ba (D) 53 I
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1088
7. Scratch pad memory is used to—
(A) Support main programme
(B) Store small amounts of infor-
mation that can be fetched
when needed
(C) Store redundant data
(D) Store flexible data
8. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen
atom, which of the following pairs
of quantities are quantized ?
(A) Energy and linear momen-
tum
(B) Linear and angular momen-
tum
(C) Energy and angular momen-
tum
(D) None of the above
9. The activity of a sample of a
radioactive material is A 1 at time
t 1 and A2 at time t2 ; (t2 > t 1). Its
mean life is T. Then—
(A) A1t 1 = A2t 2
A1 – A2
(B) = Constant
t2 – t1
(C) A2 = A1 e (t1 – t2)/T
t1
t2 T
(D) A2 = A1 e
10. The output of a NAND gate is 0—
(A) If both inputs are 0
(B) If one input is 0 and the
other input is 1
(C) If both inputs are 1
(D) Either if both inputs are 1 or
if one of the inputs is 1 and
the other 0
11. The maximum frequency ν of
continuous X-ray is related to the
applied potential difference V
as—
(A) ν ∝ V (B) ν ∝ V
(C) ν ∝ V3/2 (D) ν ∝ V2
12. An electron, a proton, a deuteron
and an alpha particle, each
having the same speed are in a
region of constant magnetic field
139
perpendicular to the direction of
the velocities of the particles. The
radius of the circular orbits of
these particles are respectively
Re , Rp , Rd and Rα. It follow that—
(A) Re = Rp (B) Rp = Rd
(C) Rd = Rα (D) Rp = Rα
13. A body of mass m slides down a
rough plane of inclination α. If μ
be the coefficient of friction, the
acceleration of the body will be—
(A) g sin α
(B) g μ cos α
(C) g (sin α – μ cos α)
(D) g (cos α – μ sin α)
14. Spherical aberration in a lens—
(A) Is minimum when most of
the deviation is at the first
surface
(B) Is minimum when most of
the deviation is at the second
surface
(C) Is minimum when the total
deviation is equally distribu-
ted over the two surfaces
(D) Does not depend on the
above considerations
15. In the given arrangement of
springs, the time-period of verti-
cal oscillations of the mass m
is—
m
(A) T = 2π
k1 + k 2
k1 + k2
(B) T = 2π
m
m(k 1 + k 2)
(C) T = 2π
k 1k 2
mg
(D) T = 2π
k1 + k2
16. Kepler’s second law (law of
areas) is nothing but a statement
of—
(A) Work-energy theorem
(B) Conservation of linear mo-
mentum
(C) Conservation of angular mo-
mentum
(D) Conservation of energy
17. The kinetic energy Ek of a
photoelectron varies with the
frequency ν of the incident radia-
tion as which of the following
graph ?
18. The equation of a travelling wave
is given by
y = 0·5 sin (20x – 400 t)
where x and y are in metre and t
is in second. The velocity of the
wave is—
(A) 10 m/s (B) 20 m/s
(C) 200 m/s (D) 400 m/s
19. APT is used—
(A) In inventory management
(B) In CAM for NC machine
tools
(C) In teaching of the beginners
(D) In Cobol
20. The radiation energy density per
unit wavelength at a temperature
T has a maximum at a wave-
length λ0. At temperature 2T, it
will have a maximum at a wave-
length—
(A) 4λ0 (B) 2λ0
(C) λ0/2 (D) λ0/4
21. A magnetising field of 1600 Am –1
produces a magnetic flux of
2·4 × 10–5 Wb in an iron bar of
cross-section area 0·2 m2. The
succeptibility of bar is—
(A) 596 (B) 1192
(C) 298 (D) 1788
22. A short bar magnet, placed with
its axis at 30° with an external
magnetic field of 0·16 T, expe-
riences a torque of magnitude
0·032 J. The magnetic moment
of the bar magnet is (in units of
J/T)—
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 0·5 (D) 0·4
23. An iron tore supports N turns. If
a current i produces a magnetic
flux across the tore’s cross-
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1089
section equal to φ , then the
magnetic field energy is—
1 depending upon his weight
(A) N i φ (B) N φ i
2
(C) N2 i φ (D) N i 2 φ
24. A circular metal plate of radius R
is rotating with a uniform angular
velocity ω with its plane perpen-
dicular to a uniform magnetic
field B. Then the e.m.f. developed
between the centre and the rim
of the plate is—
(A) πωBR2 (B) ωBR2
(C) πωBR2/2 (D) ωBR2/2
25. The magnetic field inside a
toroidal solenoid of radius R is B.
If the current through it is
doubled and the radius is also
doubled keeping the number of
turns per unit length the same,
the magnetic field produced by it
will be—
(A) 4 B (B) 2 B
B B
(C) (D)
2 4
26. A water tank, open to the atmos-
phere, has a leak in it in the form
of a circular hole, located at a
height h below the open surface
of water. The velocity of the
water coming out of the hole is—
(A) gh/2 (B) gh
(C) 2gh (D) 2 gh
27. The amplitude of an oscillating
simple pendulum is 10 cm and
its period is 4 sec. Its speed 1
second after it passes its equili-
brium position is—
(A) Zero (B) 0·157 m/s
(C) 0·212 m/s (D) 0·32 m/s
28. A wave is represented by the
equation y = a cos (kx + ωt) is
superposed with another wave to
form a stationary wave such that
the point x = 0 is a node. The
equation of the other wave is—
(A) a sin (kx + ωt )
(B) –a sin ( kx – ωt )
(C) –a cos (kx + ωt )
(D) – a cos (kx – ωt )
29. A person sitting in a rotating
merry-go-round will feel—
(A) An inward force
(B) An outward force
(C) No force
(D) An inward or outward force
and the velocity of rotation of
the merry-go-round
30. In Young’s double slit experiment,
the separation between the slits
is halved and the distance bet-
ween the slits and screen is
doubled. The fringe-width will—
(A) Be halved
(B) Be doubled
(C) Be quadrupled
(D) Remain unchanged
31. A temperature of 4K on the
Fahrenheit scale will be nearly—
(A) 36° F (B) 39°F
(C) – 237°F (D) – 452°F
32. A square of side ‘a’ has charge Q
at its centre and charge ‘q’ at one
of the corners. The work required
to be done in moving the charge
‘q ’ from the corner to the diago-
nally opposite corner is—
Qq
(A) Zero (B)
4πε0a
Qq 2 Qq
(C) (D)
4πε0 a 2πε0 a
33. If the rms speed of the mole-
cules of a gas at 27°C is 141·4
m/s, the rms speed at 327°C will
be nearly—
(A) 1697 m/s (B) 565·6 m/s
(C) 282·8 m/s (D) 200 m/s
34. The magnetic susceptibility of
any paramagnetic material chan-
ges with absolute temperature T
as—
(A) Directly proportional to T
(B) Remains constant
(C) Inversely proportional to T
(D) Exponentially decaying with T
35. Hot incandescent liquids and
solids produce a…… spectrum.
(A) Line
(B) Band
(C) Continuous
(D) None of the above
→
36. An electric dipole of moment p
placed in a uniform electric field
→
E has minimum potential energy
 → range at constant volume is (Gas
when the angle between p and
→
E is—
π (C) 50 calories (D) 30 calories
(A) Zero (B)
2 (C) 1·68 eV
3π
(C) π (D)
2
37. The intensity of different order
maxima is nearly the same in—
(A) Young’s double slit experi-
ment
(B) Single slit diffraction pattern
(C) Double slit diffraction pattern
(D) All the above
38. X-rays are produced by accelera-
ting electrons by voltage V and
letting them strike a metal of
atomic number Z. The highest
frequency of X-rays produced is
proportional to—
(A) V (B) Z
(C) (Z – 1) (D) (Z – 1)2
39. Canal rays is the name given to
a beam of—
(A) Electrons
(B) Protons
(C) Neutrons
(D) Positively charged ions
40. 70 calories of heat is required to
raise the temperature of 2 moles
of an ideal gas from 30 °C to
35°C while the pressure of the
gas is kept constant. The amount
of heat required to raise the
temperature of the same gas
through the same temperature
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1090
constant R = 2 cal/mol-K)—
(A) 70 calories (B) 60 calories
41. The amount of U235 in a sample
of 20 g of naturally occurring
uranium will be nearly—
(A) 10 g (B) 14 g
(C) 3·36 g (D) 0·14 g
42. A body is thrown vertically
upwards with a velocity u . The
distance travelled by it in the fifth
and the sixth seconds are equal.
The velocity u is given by—
(g = 9·8 m/s2)
(A) 24·5 m/s (B) 49·0 m/s
(C) 73·5 m/s (D) 98·0 m/s
43. The ionic crystals are not
usually—
(A) Poor conductors
(B) Opaque to visible radiation
(C) Of high melting points
(D) Very stable
44. A coil of N = 100 turns carries a
current I = 5A and creates a
magnetic flux φ = 10– 5 Tm2 per
turn. The value of its inductance
L will be—
(A) 0·05 mH (B) 0·10 mH
(C) 0·15 mH (D) 0·20 mH
45. The amplitude of a particle in
S.H.M. decreases from 20 cm to
15 cm in 2 minutes. Its energy
decreases by nearly—
(A) 44% (B) 25%
(C) 22·5% (D) 12·5%
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
46. The kinetic energy of an electron
with de-Broglie wavelength of 0·3
nanometer is—
(A) 0·168 eV (B) 16·8 eV
(D) 2·5 eV
47. The intensity of sound waves in
a medium is directly proportional
to—
(A) Square root of wave speed
(B) Square of the density of the
medium
(C) Amplitude of the wave
(D) Square of the frequency
48. The approximate nuclear radius
is proportional to (A is the mass
number and Z the atomic num-
ber)—
(A) A (B) A1/3
(C) Z (D) Z1/3
49. The brightness of a bulb will be
reduced if a resistance is con-
nected in—
(A) Series with it
(B) Parallel with it
(C) Series or parallel with it
(D) None of the above cases
50. A molecule with a dipole moment
p is placed in an electric field of
strength E. Initially the dipole is
aligned parallel to the field. If the
dipole is to be rotated to be anti-
parallel to the field, the work
required to be done by an exter-
nal agency is—
(A) –2p E (B) – p E
(C) p E (D) 2p E

●●●
(Continued from Page 1071)
CSV—From what level of educa-
tion should an aspirant begin pre-
paring for it ?
Dhananjay—After 10th standard.
Personal Qualities
Hobbies—Driving, Basket ball
Ideal Person—My father
Strong Point—My parents support-
ing behaviour
Weak Point—Really I don’t give
sufficient time for studies
CSV—What was your order of
preference for various branches for
which this test is held ?
Dhananjay—Firstly M.B.B.S.
then B.D.S.
CSV—What help do the science
magazines render in the preparations
for this examination ?
Dhananjay—They give us the
latest information and many other
necessary facts to crack exams like
AIIMS, MGIMS etc.
CSV—What will be your criterion
for selecting a magazine for these
examination ?
Dhananjay—A good magazine
should be precise and full of easy
formulae and tricks.
CSV—What is your opinion about
our Competition Science Vision ? How
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1092
much helpful and useful do you find
it ?
Dhananjay—CSV is a landmark
in the field of science magazines. It
gives all important facts with easily
understandable short explanations.
CSV—Please suggest in what
way CSV can be made more useful
for medical aspirants.
Dhananjay—By providing more
model papers with Assertion and
Reason type questions.
CSV—Please mention your posi-
tion in the merit list as well as the
marks obtained in different subjects.
What was your aggregate percentage
of marks ?
Dhananjay—4th rank
Physics—35/50
Chemistry—43/50
Zoology—41/50
Botany—41/50
Total—160
CSV—What books/magazines/
newspapers did you read for G. K.
preparations ?
Dhananjay—Newspapers and
T.V. News.
CSV—Whom would you like to
give the credit for your success ?
Dhananjay—My respected
mother and father and my Bhaiya-
Bhabhi also helped me a lot and
unforgettable support of my teachers
and classmates.
CSV—Please tell us something
about your family.
Dhananjay—My father is a
lecturer in Electronics Engg. Deptt.
M. G. Polytechnic Hathras, my mother
is a house-wife. I have only one elder
brother who is sales engineer in Delhi
and Bhabhi house-wife.
CSV—What in your frank opinion
has been the biggest mistake in your
preparation for this test ?
Dhananjay—I had no planning in
my mind about the career which is
very-very important because in
medical stream time has very much
importance.
CSV—What message would you
like to give for our readers of CSV ?
Dhananjay—Belief in God and
firm determination and Blessings of
your parents and teachers are
something which do more than the
hardwork.
●●●
 (C) Acceleration
(D) Momentum
12. The translational degree of free-
dom of an ant moving in a plane
is—
(A) 0 (B) 1
→ → T2 denote the tensions in other (C) 2 (D) 3
1. Two vectors A and B are in-
strings. The value of F is— 13. In a surface tension experiment
clined to each other at an angle
(A) 2 N (B) 3 N with a capillary tube water rises
θ. Which of the following is the upto 0·1 m. If the same experi-
(C) 5 N (D) 10 N
unit vector perpendicular to both ment is repeated in an artificial
→ → 6. The kinetic energy acquired by a
satellite, which is revolving
A and B ? mass (m ) in travelling distance
around the earth; water will rise
→ → → ^ (s ) starting from rest under the
in the capillary tube upto a height
(A × B ) A ×B action of a constant force is
of—
(A) (B) directly proportional to—
→ → AB sin θ (A) 0·1 m
A . B 1
(A) (B) m (B) 0·2 m
^ ^ ^ → ⎯m
√ (C) 0·98 m
A ×B A×B (D) Full length of tube
(C) (D) (C) ⎯m
√ (D) m0
sin θ AB sin θ 14. A thermodynamic process is
7. A metal ball of mass 2 kg moving
2. The dimension of RC is— shown in the figure. The pres-
with a velocity of 36 km/h has a
sures and volumes correspond-
(A) Time head on collision with a statio-
ing to some points in the figure
nary ball of mass 3 kg. If after
(B) Inverse time are
the collision, the two balls move
(C) Square of time together, the loss in kinetic PA = 3 × 104 N/m2,
(D) Square of inverse time energy due to collision is— VA = 2 × 10– 3 m3
3. A number of bullets are fired in
(A) 40 J (B) 60 J PB = 8 × 104 N/m2,
all possible directions with the (C) 100 J (D) 140 J VB = 5 × 10– 3 m3
same initial velocity u. The maxi- 8. The escape velocity from the
mum area of ground covered by surface of the earth is v e. The
bullets is— escape velocity from the surface
2 2 of a planet whose mass and
(A) π ( )
u2
g
(B) π ( )u2
2g radius are three times those of
the earth, will be—
2 2
(C) π ()u
g
(D) π () u
2g
(A) v e (B) 3 ve
1
(C) 9 ve (D) ve
4. Two particles having mass M 3
and m are moving in a circular 9. A disc revolves in horizontal
In the process AB, 600 J heat is
path having radius R and r. If plane at a steady rate of 3 rev/s.
added to the system and in the
their periods are same, the ratio A coin just remains on the disc if
process BC, 200 J of heat is
of angular velocity will be— kept at a distance of 2 cm from
added to the system. The change
r R the axis of rotation. What is the
(A) (B) in internal energy of the system
R r coefficient of friction between the
in process AC would be—
coin and the disc ?
R (A) 800 J (B) 600 J
(C) 1 (D) (A) 0·5 (B) 0·65
r (C) 640 J (D) 560 J
(C) 0·7 (D) 0·75
5. Three blocks of masses 2 kg, 3 15. One poise is—
10. A ring of mass m and radius r
kg and 5 kg are connected to
rotates about an axis passing (A) 1 dyne sec/cm2
one another with light strings and (B) 1/98·1 kgf sec/m2
through the centre and perpendi-
are then placed on a smooth (C) 10–1 kg/m-sec
cular to its plane with angular
1m/sec2 velocity ω. Its kinetic energy is— (D) Any of the above
T1 T2
F 3kg 5kg (A) mr ω 2 (B) mr 2ω 2 16. A particle executes simple har-
2kg
1 1 monic motion with a frequency f.
(C) mr ω 2 (D) mr 2ω 2
2 2 The frequency with which its
frictionless horizontal surface.
11. The dimension of gravitational kinetic energy oscillates is—
The system is pulled with a force
F from the side of the lightest field is same as that of— f
(A) (B) f
mass so that it moves with an 2
(A) Force
acceleration of 1 ms–2 . T1 and (C) 2f (D) 4f
(B) Velocity
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1093
17. We plot the graph having tempe- (C) Reflection only 29. The intensity ratio of two cohe-
rature in °C on x -axis and in °F (D) Diffraction and dispersion rent sources of light is P. They
on y -axis. If the graph is straight are interfering in some region and
23. The displacement of particles in produce interference pattern.
line, then the correct statement
a string in x -direction is repre- Then the fringe visibility is—
is—
sented by y. Among the following
(A) The line intercepts the posi- 1+P 2 P
expression for y , that describing (A) (B)
tive x-axis 2 P 1+P
wave motion is—
(B) The line intercepts the posi-
(A) cos kx sin ωt P 2P
tive y-axis (C) (D)
1+P 1+P
(C) The line passes through (B) k 2x 2 – ω2t 2
origin 30. Work done in carrying a charge
(C) cos (k 2x 2 – ω2t 2) q1 once round a circle of radius R
(D) The line intercepts the nega-
tive axis of both x and y axis (D) cos2 (kx + ωt) with a charge q2 at the centre
is—
18. Two waves having equation 24. Which of the following pheno-
q1 q2
x 1 = a sin (ω t + φ1) mena is not explained by (A) (B) Zero
Huygen’s construction of wave- 4πε0R2
and x 2 = a sin (ω t + φ2)
front ? q1 q2
superimpose. If in the resultant (C) (D) Infinite
wave the frequency and ampli- (A) Reflection 4πε0R
tude remain equal to those of (B) Origin of spectra 31. In the figure, the image is formed
superimposing waves, then (C) Refraction ahead of retina, the eye has—
phase difference between them (D) Diffraction
is—
π 2π 25. In a good tuning fork—
(A) (B) (A) Only the first overtone along
6 3
π π with the fundamental mode (A) Myopia
(C) (D) is excited
4 3 (B) Hypermetropia
(B) Only the fundamental mode
19. A 10 kg iron bar (specific heat (C) Astigmatism
is excited
0·11 cal/gm °C) at 80°C is (D) Colour Blindness
(C) Only the first overtone is
placed on a block of ice. How
excited 32. The energy and capacity of a
much ice melts ?
(D) Only the first two overtone charged parallel plate condenser
(A) 1·1 kg (B) 10 kg
are excited (PPC) are E and C respectively.
(C) 16 kg (D) 60 kg
Now a dielectric slab of εr = 6 is
20. With the propagation of a longi- 26. A luminous object is placed at a
inserted in it. Assuming that the
tudinal wave through a material distance of 30 cm from a convex
charge on the plate remains cons-
medium the quantities transmit- lens of focal length 20 cm. On
tant, the energy and capacity
ted are— the other side of the lens, at what
become—
distance from the lens a convex
(A) Energy (A) 6E, 6C (B) E, C
mirror of radius of curvature 10
(B) Energy and linear momen-
cm should be placed in order to (C) E/6, 6C (D) E, 6C
tum
have an upright image of the →
(C) Energy, momentum and object coincident with it ? 33. An electric dipole of moment P
mass is placed at the origin along the
(A) 12 cm (B) 30 cm
(D) Energy and mass x- axis. The electric field at a
(C) 50 cm (D) 60 cm
21. Two cylinders A and B fitted with point P, whose position vector
pistons contain equal amounts of 27. For a converging lens forming a makes an angle θ with the x-
an ideal diatomic gas at 300 K. real image, the object distance axis, will make an angle with x-
The piston of A is free to move may be stated as p = a + f and axis equal to—
while that of B is held fixed. The the image distance as q = f + b. 1
The focal length of lens will be— (where tan α = 2 tan θ)
same amount of heat is given to
the gas in each cylinder. If the (A) a/b (B) ab
rise in temperature of the gas in
(C) (a + b) (D) a–b
A is 30 K, then the rise in tempe-
rature of the gas in B is— 28. Eight equal charged drops are
(A) 30 K (B) 18 K combined to form a big drop. If
(C) 50 K (D) 42 K the potential on each drop is 10
22. Rainbow is formed due to— V, then the potential of big drop
will be—
(A) Scattering and refraction
(A) 40 V (B) 10 V (A) α (B) θ
(B) Total internal reflection and
dispersion (C) 30 V (D) 20 V (C) θ + α (D) 2θ + α

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1094

34. In an A. C. circuit the value of → years, if the number of radio-
current is 39. A dipole of moment P is placed active nuclei changes by a factor
→ f, then—
(
i = 5 sin 100 t –
π
) in a uniform electric field E . The
and A. C. potential
2
→
force on the dipole is F and the
(A) f = e × p( ) –
1
2
V = 200 sin (100 t ) →
what will be the power consump- torque is τ — (B) f = ( )
1
2
tion in the circuit ? → → → → (C) f = loge 2
(A) 0 W (B) 1000 W (A) F = 0, τ = P × E
1
(C) 40 W (D) 0·025 W → → → (D) f =
loge 2
(B) F = | P | E
35. In an A.C. sub circuit the resis-
→ → → → 46. An element A breaks into C by a
tance R = 0·2 Ω. At a certain (C) F = 0, | τ | = P . E two step process
instant (VA – VB ) = 0·5 volt, I = 0·5
amp. and (ΔI/Δ t ) = 8 A/s. Find A → B + 2He 4 and B → C + 2e
the inductance of the coil— (D) None of these Then—
L R (A) A and C are isotopes
A B 40. Faraday’s laws of electromag-
netic induction is related to— (B) A and C are isobars
(A) 0·01 H (B) 0·02 H
(A) Law of conservation of (C) A and B are isotopes
(C) 0·05 H (D) 0·5 H
energy
(D) A and B are isobars
36. A current carrying coil is sub-
(B) Law of conservation of
jected to a uniform magnetic 47. The acceleration of the electron
charge
field. The coil will orient so that in first Bohr orbit in hydrogen
its plane becomes— (C) Newton’s third law of motion atom is—
(A) Parallel to the magnetic field (D) Conservation of angular (where a0 = Bohr’s radius;
(B) Perpendicular to the magne- momentum
m = mass of electron; h–l = h )
tic field 2π
(C) Inclined at 45° to the mag- 41. The plate current in a triode will –
lh2 –
lh2m 2
netic field become zero if the amplitude of (A) (B)
m 2a 30 a 30
(D) Inclined at an arbitrary angle the negative voltage applied on
–l – a 3
h
2
to the magnetic field the grid is— 0
(C) (D) None of these
(A) Vp /μ (B) μVp m2
37. A vertical ring of radius r and
resistance R falls vertically. It is (C) Vp × μ (D) Vp / rp 48. Which of the following gates will
in contact with two vertical rails have the output 1 ?
which are joined at the top. The 42. The total K.E. of an electron is
rails are without friction and 3·555 MeV, then its K.E., is—
resistance. There P Q (A) 3·545 MeV
is a horizontal × ×
uniform magnetic (B) 3·045 MeV
field of magnitude × × (C) 3·5 MeV
B perpendicular
(D) None of these 49. A point P lies on the axis of a flat
to the plane of
the ring and the × × 43. Which one among the following coil carrying a current. The mag-
rails. When the speed of the ring exhibits particle picture of light ? netic moment of the coil is μ. The
is v the current in the section PQ distance of P from the coil is d,
(A) Interference
is— which is large compared to the
(B) Refraction radius of the coil. The magnetic
(A) Zero (B) 2 B rv/R
(C) Photoelectric effect field at P has magnitude—
4 B rv Brv
(C) (D) 8

38. A
R
bar
magnet of magnetic
R (D) Diffraction
44. Atomic weight of boron is 10·81
(A)
μ0
2π ( )
μ
d3
(B)
μ0
4π ( )
μ
d3
→
moment M is placed in a field of
and it has two isotopes 5B10 and
11
5B . The ratio of 5B
10 to B11 in
5
(C)
μ0
2π ( )
μ
d2
(D)
μ0
4π ( )
μ
d2
→ nature would be—
strength B , the torque acting on 50. Which one of the following is the
it is— (A) 19 : 81 (B) 81 : 19 weakest kind of bonding in
→ → → → (C) 15 : 16 (D) 10 : 11 solids ?
(A) M . B (B) – M . B
45. The half-life of a radioactive (A) Metallic (B) Covalent
→ → → →
(C) M × B (D) B × M sample is 1600 years. After 800 (C) Ionic (D) Vander Waals

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1095

Introduction
● The French physicist, Henri Becquerel, in 1896
observed that a photographic plate, wrapped in a thick
black paper, which had been placed, by chance, in the
same drawer which contained certain uranium salt,
had become affected or fogged.
● Becquerel concluded that uranium salts emitted
certain rays which had penetrating properties similar to
X-rays. He called these rays as radioactive rays and
property of giving out these rays as radioactivity.
● A year later, Marie Curie and her husband, Pierre
Curie, discovered the element, Polonium, which was
many times more radioactive than uranium. Two years
later they discovered another element, Radium which
was found to be three million times more radioactive
than uranium.
● In fact, it is now known that elements having atomic
number greater than 83 are all radioactive. The nuclei
Properties α-Rays
1. Nature Stream of doubly + vely
charged helium atoms
2. Charge +2e (+ 3·2 × 10–19 C)
3. Mass 4 times that of proton
4. Velocity About 107 m/sec
5. Relative ionizing power Maximum (10‚000)
6. Relative penetrating power Minimum (1)
7. Fluorescence Can cause
of these elements are unstable and decompose or
disintegrate spontaneously with the emission of radia-
tions.
● The radioactivity is a nuclear phenomenon and is not
affected by variation in temperature, pressure,
electrical and the magnetic field. It was also found that
radioactivity of a material was completely unaffected
by physical or chemical changes in the material.
Characteristics of Radioactive Rays
● Photographic plates are fogged by these radiations.
● They ionize the gases, if passed through gases.
● They penetrate through thin metallic plates.
● They cause fluorescence on zinc sulphide, barium
platinocyanide, cadmium tungstate etc.
● Types of radioactive rays—When radioactive rays
are passed through electrical or magnetic fields, they
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1099
behave in three different ways and consequently,
three kinds of radiations are postulated.
(i) α) rays—These rays are deflected towards
Alpha (α
the negative plate in the electrical field. Hence
they carry positive charge.
These rays are made up of nuclei of helium atoms,
i.e ., each α-particle is doubly positive charged
helium atom.
β) rays—These rays are deflected towards
(ii) Beta (β
the positive plate in the electrical field. Hence
these are supposed to be made up of negatively
charged particles, known as β-particles.
(iii) Gamma (γγ ) rays—These rays are not deflected in
electrical or magnetic field. It means they are not
made up of charged particles. They are electro-
magnetic rays of high frequency.
● The comparative properties of α, β and γ rays are
summarised as—
β-Rays γ -Rays
Stream of fast moving elec- Photons, electromagnetic radia-
trons ( –1 e0) tor of short wavelengths
–e(–1·6 × 10–19 C) Zero
1 Zero (rest mass)
1836 times that of a proton
Upto 97% speed of light Equal to speed of light
Less than α-rays (100) Less than β-rays (1)
More than α-rays (100) More than β-rays (10‚000)
Can cause Can cause
Theory of Radioactive Disintegration
This theory was propounded by Rutherford and
Soddy. According to this theory—
● Radioactive disintegration is a nuclear phenomenon.
● Radioactive substances emit α, β and γ rays and they
undergo disintegration accordingly to produce new
substances.
● α -ray decay change—It can be represented by
following mechanism—
–α
A ⎯→
ZX Z – 2Y
A–4 or ZXA ⎯→ 2He 4 + Z – 2YA – 4
● Following are consequences of emission of one α-
particle from an unstable nucleus—
(a) Mass number decreases by four units or atomic
weight is reduced by four units. In other words the
number of neutrons is decreased by two units and the
number of protons is also decreased by two units.
 (b) Atomic number decreases by two units. In other The daughter element occupies its position in
words the nuclear charge is decreased by two units. periodic table one group right to the position of
(c) The daughter element occupies its position in parent element. For example—
14 ⎯→ 14 + 0
periodic table two groups left to the position of parent 6C 7N –1e
element. For example— IVA group VA group

88 Ra 226 ⎯→ 86 Rn 222 + 2He

4
● γ -ray decay change—They do not bring about any
Parent Daughter change in the number of nucleons as they are charge-
element element less and massless. Therefore, mass number and
II group Zero group atomic number remain unchanged.
● Heavy nuclides having mass number greater than 210
● Rate law of radioactive disintegration—Radio-
decay by α-emission in order to achieve stability. active disintegration is independent of temperature,
● β-ray decay change—It is represented by following pressure or state of the element and depends upon
mechanism— the concentration of the radioactive element. The rate
–β of disintegration (decay) follows the first order kine-
ZX
A ⎯→ Z + 1Y
A or ZXA ⎯→ Z + 1YA + –1e0
tics.
● Following are the consequences of emission of a β- ● The rate of radioactive disintegration is directly propor-
particle from an unstable nucleus— tional to the number of atoms of radioactive element.
(a) Mass number or atomic mass remains unchanged. d Nt d Nt
(b) Number of neutrons is reduced by one unit. – ∝ Nt or – = k Nt
dt dt
(c) Atomic number increases by one unit or the nuc- d Nt N0
lear charge increases by one unit or the number of – = kt or –kt = ln
Nt Nt
protons increases by one unit.
(d) The nuclei having excess of neutrons, i. e., having Nt
= e–kt or Nt = N0 e–kt
high n/p ratio tend to decrease this ratio or tend to N0
achieve stability by emitting β-particles. ● In the above expressions :
dN
(i) is rate of disintegration and negative sign,
Key Points dt
● Some nuclides also disintegrate by emission of positron means the rate is decreasing with increase in
(β+ or +1e0) time.
–β+ (ii) k is disintegration constant and its value is not
ZX
A ⎯→ Z – 1YA or Z XA ⎯→ Z – 1YA + +1 e0
affected by initial concentration, temperature,
The nuclei having excess protons are found to decay by
positron emission. This tends to increase n/p ratio. This
pressure and chemical state.
kind of disintegration is mostly found in artificial radio- The disintegration constant (k ) is that fraction of
active isotopes. total number of atoms which decays in one
● Any radioactive decay with one α followed by two β- second.
particles emission produces isotopes. In general if the (iii) This expression shows that radioactive decay is
ratio of α and β emissions is 1 : 2, then the obtained exponential form. Here Nt is the number of atoms
element will be isotope of parent element. left after time ‘ t ’ and N0 is initial number of atoms
● After a β-decay the daughter nuclide is an isobar of of radioactive substance.
parent nuclide.
dN
● Emission of γ-rays is a secondary effect of radioactive If N = 1, then – = k
change and after γ-decay the daughter nuclide is isomer dt
of parent nuclide. dN
If dt = 1, then = k
● The group displacement law was postulated by Soddy- N
Fajan. The decay constant ‘k ’ is given by expression.
● β-particle is not present in the nucleus, even then it is N0 2·303
2·303 a
emitted from the nucleus. A neutron first breaks down to a k= log = log
t Nt t (a – x )
proton and an electron as
0n ⎯→ 1p + –1e
1 1 0 where ‘a ’ = Initial amount and x = Amount that has
The proton is retained by nucleus while electron is emitted disintegrated in time ‘t ’. The unit of k is time–1.
as β-particle. ● Following is the graphical representation of above
● The determination of number of α- and β-particles in a exponential equation—
nuclear reaction :
a A ⎯→ c B
b d Exponential decay
(i) First write the reaction as : N Nt = N0e–kt
b d 4 0
aA ⎯→ c B + x (2α ) + y (–1 β )
(ii) Then b = d + 4x + 0 y
and a = c+2x–y
Solve for x and y.
t

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1100

● Half-life—The total decay period of a radioactive t 1/2 = 0·693 × Average-life (τ)
element is infinity. So it is meaningless to use total
∴ t 1/2 = 0·693 × τ
decay period. The half-life is a characteristic of a
radioactive substance. t 1/2
τ = = 1·44 × t1/2
Thus half-life is the time in which half of the original 0·693
amount of the radioactive substance disintegrates. i.e ., τ > t 1/2
0·693
Half-life period (t1/2) = ‚ k = Decay constant Units of Radioactivity
k
● The S.I. unit of radioactivity is Becquerel (Bq) which
Key Points corresponds to one disintegration per second (dps).
● Curie (ci) is an earlier unit of radioactivity which is
● Since ‘k ’ is the decay constant, the half-life period of a
particular radioactive substance is independent of the
defined as the amount of any radioactive substance
initial concentration of the substance. which gives 3·7 × 101 0 disintegrations per second.
● Half-life period is the measure of radioactivity of a This much activity is shown by one gram of radium.
substance. Shorter the half-life period of an element, 1 ci = 3·7 × 1010 dps
greater is the number of disintegrating atoms per unit time
and greater is its radioactivity. = 3·7 × 1010 Bq
● The radioactivity left in an element can be correlated with ● Milli Curie (mci) = 1 × 10–3 ci
1
half-life of radioactive substance. For example if 16 of = 3·7 × 107 dps
original activity is left then = 3·7 × 107 Bq
1 1 n
16 = () 2 (Here n = total number of half-lives) μci) = 1 × 10–6 ci
● Micro Curie (μ
1 1 4 = 3·7 × 104 dps
16 = () 2
= 3·7 × 104 Bq
Therefore, the number of half-lives elapsed during the
period of disintegration is 4. Suppose half-life of ● 1ci = 103 m ci = 106 μci
substance under question is 5 years then total time ● Rutherford (rd) is yet another unit of radioactivity.
1
required to reduce to 16 th will be = 5 × 4 = 20 years. This is defined as the amount of radioactive substance
● Following formulae be remembered. which undergoes 10 6 dps i.e.,
Total time (T) = n × t1/2 1 rd = 106 dps
t1/2 = n
T = 106 Bq

n = t
T Radioactive Equilibrium
1/2
T ● Suppose a radioactive element disintegrates to give B
1 n 1 t 1/2 which in turn disintegrates to still another element C.
()
Nt = N0 2 = N 0 2 () A ⎯→ B ⎯→ C
Here Nt = Amount left after time ‘t ’ and
A stage is reached when the rate of disintegration of A
N0 = Original amount of radioactive substance.
to B is equal to that of B to C, with the result the
● The radioisotopes having low half-life period, have more amount of B remains constant. Under these conditions
probability of finding in nature. The intensity of radiations
B is said to be in equilibrium with A.
is also low in these cases.
● There is no difference in radioactive property of Na and ● It is important to note that the term equilibrium is used
Na+ as radioactivity depends upon the composition of for reversible reactions but radioactive reactions are
nucleus. irreversible, hence it is preferred to say that B is in
steady state rather than in equilibrium state. It is,
● Average-life period—The average-life period is therefore, known as secular equilibrium.
inverse of disintegration constant (k ). ● Thus at steady state
1
Average-life period (τ) = or k–1 Rate of disintegration of A = Rate of disintegration of B
k
d NA d NB
0·693 =
We know that k = dt dt
t 1/2

Hence average-life (τ) =

1
=
t 1/2
0·693 0·693
= 1·44 × t1/2
k A × NA = k B × N B
∴ dN
dt [
= kN ]
t 1/2 NA k B τ A
⎡⎢ ∴ τ = 1 ⎤⎥
∴ = = ⎢ k ⎥
● Remember following relations :
NB k A τ B ⎢⎣ τ = Average life⎥⎦
0·693 ● In terms of half-life period
t 1/2 =
k
NA (t1/2)A
1 =
= 0·693 × NB (t1/2)B
k

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1101

● At the steady state, the amounts of different elements ● 4 n + 1 series starts from plutonium (Pu), but com-
present in the reaction series are directly proportional monly known as neptunium series because neptunium
to their half-life and also average life or inversely (Np) is longest lived member of the series. The same
proportional to disintegration constant. principle of nomenclature is applied to 4 n + 3 series
which actually starts from uranium (92U235) but known
Nuclear Isomers as actinium series.
● Nuclear isomers (isomeric nuclei) are the atoms of
same element having same atomic number and the
Significance of Radioactivity
same mass number but different radioactive properties. ● Carbon-14 dating (Archaeological dating)—Carbon-
● Nuclear isomers have same number of electrons,
14 is an unstable isotope of carbon. Its half-life is
protons and neutrons. The examples of nuclear about 5700 years. It is a valuable isotope in estimating
isomers are uranium-X (half-life 1·4 min.) and uranium- the date of origin of old samples of wood. The
Z (half-life 6·7 hours). technique was developed by Willard Libby.
● Example—A piece of wood found in an excavation
● The reason for nuclear isomerism is the different
has 25·6% as much as C14 as ordinary wood today
energy states of the two isomeric nuclei. One may be has. When did the piece get burried ? (t1/2 of C 14
in the ground state whereas the other in an excited
= 5760 years).
state. The nucleus under excited state will evidently
have different half-life. Solution :
N0 = 100, Nt = 25·6 and t1/2 of C14 = 5760 years
● Now-a-days as many as more than 70 pairs of nuclear
0·693
isomers have been found. Some examples are— k=
5760
69 Zn 69 Zn
2·303 100
( t1/2 = 13·8 hour) ( t1/2 = 57 min.) Also k = log
t 25·6
80 Br 80 Br 0·693 2·303 100
∴ = log
( t1/2 = 4·4 hour) ( t1/2 = 18 min.) 5760 t 25·6
2·303 × 5760 100
Disintegration Series ∴ t = log
0·693 25·6
● The phenomenon of natural radioactivity continues till = 11330 years.
stable nucleus is formed. All the nuclei from the initial
● Uranium-Lead dating (Geological dating)—This is a
element to final stable element form a series, known
valuable method for estimating the ages of old
as disintegration series.
geological formations, rocks and minerals.
● The mass numbers of all the elements in a series will
● The age of the earth has been determined by uranium-
fit into one of the following formulae—
lead dating technique. The samples of uranium ore are
4n, 4n + 1, 4n + 2 and 4 n + 3 found to contain 82Pb206 as result of series of α- and
Hence there can be maximum four disintegration β-decays. It is assumed that the ore sample contained
series. no lead at the moment of its formation and if none of
● The number indicates that in a particular series the the lead formed from U238 is lost, then the measure-
mass numbers of all the elements are either divisible ment of Pb206/U238 ratio will give the value of time of
by four (4n series) or divisible by four with remainder the mineral.
of 1(4n + 1), 2(4n + 2) or 3(4n + 3). ‘n ’ being an ● Example—92U238 by successive radioactive decays
integer. changes to 82Pb206 . A sample of uranium ore was
Name of Starting Final Particles Lost analysed and found to contain 1·0 gm of uranium and
0·1 gm of 82Pb206 . Find out the age of ore. (t1/2 of U238
Series Nuclide Nuclide α β
4n 232 208 = 4·5 × 109 years).
90 Th 82 Pb 6 4
(Thorium ( n = 58) ( n = 52) Solution : The amount of uranium decayed
series) ∴
4n + 1 ( 94 Pu241) 209 206 gm Pb is obtained from 238 gm of uranium-238
83 Bi 8 5
(Neptunium 93 Np
237 ( n = 52) ∴ 0·1 gm Pb will be obtained from
series) ( n = 60) 238 × 0·1
4n + 2 238 206 =
92 U 82 Pb 8 6 206
(Uranium ( n = 59) ( n = 51) = 0·1155 gm of U 238
series)
Hence initial amount of uranium-238
4n + 3 ( 92 U235) 82 Pb
207 7 4
(Actinium 227 ( n = 51)
= 1·0 + 0·1155 gm of U238
89 Ac
series) ( n = 58)
0·693
We know that, k =
t 1/2
● 4n + 1 series is an artificial series while rest three are 0·693
natural series. The end product in 4 n + 1 series is =
4·5 × 109 years
bismuth (83Bi209 ) while in rest three a stable isotope of
lead is the end product. = 0·154 × 10–9 year–1

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1102

 2·303 N0 ● Since α-particles, protons and deuterons are positively
t = log
k Nt charged, they are repelled by the nucleus and hence
2·303 1·1155 are not good projectiles. On other hand, neutrons
= log
0·154 × 10–9 1 which do not carry any charge are the best projectiles.
t = 7·099 × 108 years ● The positively charged particles are made more effec-
tive if they are imparted with high velocity. The
● Tritium dating—Tritium (1H3) is an unstable isotope
cyclotron is most important device for accelerating
of hydrogen with half-life 12·5 years. It is used for these particle. A more recent accelerating instrument
shorter-range-dating. Such as finding the age of water called synchrotron or bevatron makes use of the
and wine. induced current or force exerted on electron in a
Nuclear Reactions changing magnetic field.
● Artificial transmutation of elements—This type of
● The nuclear reaction is one which proceeds with a
change in the composition of nucleus resulting in the nuclear reaction was discovered by Rutherford in
formation of an atom of a new element. The new ele- 1919. The first artificial transmutation of nitrogen was
ment is known as daughter element. brought about by Rutherford (1919) when nitrogen
nucleus was bombarded with fast α-particles.
● In contrasts a chemical reaction, where only rear-
14 + 2 He 4 ⎯→ 8O17 + 1H 1
rangement of electrons takes place, the nuclear reac- 7N
tions involve the redistribution of protons and neutrons (Non-radioactive)
(nucleons) present in the nucleus of parent atom. This transformation is expressed as
14 17
However, the total number of protons and neutrons in 7 N (α, p) 8O .
the reactant and product side remains the same. ● The transmutation nuclear reactions are classified
Consequently, the sum of the mass number and according to the nature of bombarding particle
atomic number on two sides of the reaction must be
(projectile) and ejected particle.
equal (mass is conserved + charge is conserved). 9 4 12 1
4 Be + 2 He ⎯→ 6 C + 0n
● A nuclear reaction may be expressed as— (α, n)
14 4 ⎯→ 17 1 39 1 36 + He 4
7N + 2He 8O + 1H 19 K + 1 H ⎯→ 18 Ar 2
α-projectile Proton (ejected particle) ( p, α)
23 + 1 H2 ⎯→ 10 Ne 21 + 2He 4
or 14
7 N (α, p)8O
17 or [(α, p) type of nuclear reaction] 11 Na
( d, α)
● Artificial radioactivity or induced-radioactivity—
6 C + 1 H ⎯→ 7 N + 0γ
12 1 13 0
Artificial radioactivity was discovered by Frederic
( p, γ)
Joliot and Irene Curie (Son-in-law and daughter of
Marie Curie) in 1934. They were awarded Nobel prize ● Nuclear fission—This was discovered by Otto Hahn
for discovery of artificial radioactivity. and Strassmann. In this process, when U235 is hit by
slow moving neutrons, it splits up into two fragments of
● The natural radioactivity is found in isotopes of some nearly equal mass with the release of large amount of
heavy elements such as uranium, thorium, radium etc. energy. The cause of release of energy is the loss of
while artificial radioactivity is the process whereby a mass and conversion of lost mass into energy
stable nucleus is made radioactive by bombarding it according to Einstein’s mass-energy relation, E = mc 2.
with some high speed particles like α, protons, neu- Two or three neutrons are produced by fission of each
trons or deuterons. nucleus.
24 ● The uncontrolled nuclear fission leads to the pro-
12 Mg + 2 He 4 ⎯→ 14Si27 + 0n 1
duction of atom bomb whereas controlled nuclear
(Radioactive)
fission leads to the construction of nuclear reactor.
→

27 + +1e 0 ● Some of the released neutrons do not participate in

13 Al
(Positron) the chain reaction as these escape from the surface
B10 4 13 1 without being utilised. Thus in order to sustain the
5 + 2 He ⎯→ 7 N + 0n
(Radioactive) chain reaction, a sufficient amount of fissionable
material (U235) is needed. Thus, the minimum mass of
→

6C
13 + +1e 0 fissionable material is required to support the self-
sustaining chain reaction under given set of conditions.
● The radioisotope 6C14 is produced by bombardment of This minimum mass of fissionable material is known
nitrogen of atmosphere with neutrons (from cosmic as critical mass. The critical mass of U235 is 1 kg.
rays).
14 1 14 1 ● Atom-bomb—The principle of atom bomb is based on
7 N + 0 n ⎯→ 6 C + 1H the process of nuclear chain reaction in which no
(Radioactive) secondary neutrons escape of fissionable material
→

without striking. The size of the fissionable material

14 + –1e 0 (U235) or Pu239 should not be less than the critical
7N
(β-particle) mass.

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1103

● Nuclear-reactor—It is the device in which nuclear
fission is carried out in a controlled manner and the
energy released is utilised for peaceful purposes. Its
main components are—
(a) Fuel rods : (U235 or Pu239 )
(b) Control rods : These absorb excess electrons.
These are made of boron or cadmium steel.
(c) Moderator : It slows down the fast moving neu-
trons. Heavy water or graphite is used as mode-
rator.
(d) Coolant and
(e) Protective shield.
● Research-reactors of India—Five research reactors
are—
Purnima, Zerlina, Dhruva, Cirus, Apsara
● Nuclear power stations are—
Tarapur Atomic Power Station, Maharashtra
Rajasthan Atomic Power Station, Kota
Narora Atomic Power Station, U.P.
Indira Gandhi Centre of Research at Kalpakkam,
Tamilnadu.
Kakrapar, Gujarat
Rawatbhatta, Rajasthan.
● Breeder-reactor—Natural uranium contains only
0·7% of fissionable U235 and rest being non-
fissionable U238 . In addition to U235 , Plutonium-239
and Uranium-233 have also been found fissionable.
They are produced by bombardment of naturally
occurring and abundantly available U238 and Th 232
with neutrons.
● Such reactors in which the neutrons produced from
U235 are partly used for carrying the fission of U 235
and partly to produce Pu239 are named as breeder
reactors.
● For producing Pu239
from U238
excess neutrons
obtained in fission chain reaction of U235 are utilised.
Thus the materials which undergoes fission are called
fissile such as U235 , Pu 239, U 233 etc. On the other-
hand the materials which do not undergo fission easily
but may be fissionable by bombarding with neutrons
are called fertile such as U238. Thus in breeder reac-
tors fertile fuel is made fissile fuel.
● Nuclear fusion—It is the process in which lighter
nuclei are fused together to form heavier nuclei. The
heavier nuclei have slightly less mass than the total
mass of fused nuclei. This decrease in mass is con-
verted to energy.
● Since fusion reactions always occur at a very high
temperature, therefore, they are known as thermo
nuclear reactions. Hydrogen bomb is based on this
principle.
2 3 4 + 0n 1 + 17·6 MeV
1 H + 1 H ⎯→ 2 He
Tritium (1 H3) is generated as :
6 20·41 × 109
3 Li + 0 n 1 ⎯→ 1H
3+
2He
4
● Source of energy at sun and stars is also fusion of
hydrogen nuclei.
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1104
Points to Remember
● Radioisotopes—When atoms of normally stable elements
are made radioactive by artificial nuclear transformation,
they are called radioisotopes. They are used in almost
every field of science and industries.
● Cobalt-60 is used in the treatment of cancerous growth
and Iodine-131 is used as a medicine to determine thyroid
disorders. Na-24 is used for diagnosis of restricted
circulation of blood and P32 is used for locating cancer and
curing blood diseases.
● A number of devices, such as ionization chamber,
Geiger-Muller counter, Scintillation counter, Wilson
cloud chamber etc. have been used to detect and
measure radioactivity.
● The radioactivity or activity of a radioactive nucleus is
inversely proportional to half-life or average-life period.
● Isodiapheres—Nuclei having the same difference of neu-
trons and protons or same isotopic number, are known as
isodiapheres. For example, the nucleide and its decay pro-
duct after an α-emission are isodiapheres.
238 ⎯→ 234 + He4
92 U 90 Th 2
92 U
238 No. of p = 92
} n–p =
: No. of n = 238 – 92 = 146 146 – 92 = 54
No. of n = 234 – 90 = 144} 144 – 90 = 54
234 No. of p = 90 n–p =
90 Th :
● The first nuclear reactor was assembled by Fermi in 1942
and in India the first nuclear reactor was put into operation
in 1952 in Trombay.
● Beryllium has been found to be the best moderator as it
occupies small space and has low absorption cross-
section.
● Electron capture or k-capture involves the capture of elec-
trons by nucleus of one of the atoms during the nuclear
reactions. This is followed by conversion of a proton to a
neutron and emission of neutrino. The orbital electron that
is usually captured is from k-shell. For example—
195 EC
79 Au ⎯→ 78Pt 195 + 0n 0
(Neutrino)
● W.F. Libby was awarded Nobel prize for discovering the
technique of carbon-14 dating or radiocarbon dating.
● The machines like cyclotron and linear accelerator etc.
have been constructed for accelerating α-particles or
protons, so that they could be given momenta large
enough to counteract coulombic repulsion of atomic nuclei.
Cyclotron was designed by E. O. Lawrence.
● Spallation nuclear reactions are those nuclear reactions in
which high speed projectile chops off a fragment of the
nucleus leaving behind a smaller nucleus.
63 4 37 + 14 H1 + 16 n 1
29 Cu + 2 He ⎯→ 17Cl 1 0
● The half-life of a radioactive substance is independent
of physical or chemical state of radioactive substance. For
example t 1/2 of C1 4 is same whether it is on CO2 or
cellulose or solid coal.
● In the process of nuclear fission of U235 , 3·5 × 10 –11J of
energy is produced per U235 nucleus.
Or
The fission of an atom of U235 releases 211·5 MeV of
energy.
● The energy released from 1 mole of U 235
= 20·41 × 109 kJ
and from 1 gm of U235 = 235
= 8·68 × 107 kJ
 OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following does not 4·52 × 10 23 helium atoms will 16. For the nuclear fission
contain material particles ? accumulate in the container in— 235 + n 1 → Fission products
92 U 0
(A) Alpha rays (A) 4·52 min. (B) 940 min. + neutrons + 19·293 × 109 kJ/
(B) Beta rays (C) 10·00 min. (D) 20·0 min. mole, the energy released when
(C) Gamma rays 1 gm of U235 undergoes fission
9. The equipment used to carry out
(D) Canal rays is—
nuclear reactions in a controlled
2. The phenomenon of radioactivity manner is called— (A) 12·75 × 108 kJ
is due to— (A) Breeder reactor (B) 18·60 × 109 kJ
(A) Stable electronic configura- (B) Nuclear reactor (C) 8·20 × 107 kJ
tion (C) Thermo nuclear fission (D) 6·55 × 106 kJ
(B) Stable nucleus (D) Cyclotron
(C) Unstable electronic confi- 17. One gm of a radioactive element
10. Which of the following substances reduces to 125 mg in 24 hours.
guration
is used as neutron absorber in The half-life of the isotope is—
(D) Unstable nucleus the nuclear reactor ?
(A) 4 hours (B) 8 hours
3. In the nuclear reaction, (A) Heavy water
(C) 6 hours (D) 12 hours
7N
14 + 1H1 → 8O15 + X (B) Deuterium
The ‘X’ is— (C) Cadmium 18. A radioactive element has half-
(A) 0n 1 (B) e0 (D) Graphite life of 60 minutes. The amount
–1
left after 3 hours is—
(C) +1 e0 (D) γ 11. The change,
(A) 25% of original amount
4. From the nuclear reaction, 15 P
30 → 14Si30
(B) 50% of original amount
84 Po
210 → 82Pb206 + 2He 4 requires the emission of—
(C) 12·5% of original amount
deduce the group of polonium in (A) α-particle (B) β-particle
(D) 17·5% of original amount
periodic table (Pb belongs to (C) Neutron (D) Positron
group 14)— 19. Parent atom will be an isobar of
12. An element X loses one α- and daughter nuclide when parent
(A) 2 (B) 14
two β-particles in three succes- nuclide emits—
(C) 6 (D) 16
sive stages. The resulting ele- (A) One α-particle
5. A radioactive isotope decays at ment will be—
such a rate that after 96 min. (B) One β-particle
(A) An isobar of X
1 (C) One α-particle and one β-
only th of the original amount (B) An isotope of X
8
(C) An isotone of X particle
remains. The value of t 1/2 of this
nuclide is— (D) X itself (D) 2α-particles and 1 β-particle
(A) 16·0 min. (B) 24·0 min. 13. The half-life of a radioactive 20. The activity of a radioactive
(C) 32·0 min. (D) 48·0 min. substance is 60 min. During 3 nuclide, X 100 is 6·023 curie. If
hours, the fraction of total number the disintegration constant is
6. In the nuclear reaction,
of atoms that have decayed 3·7 × 104 sec–1, the mass of X in
92 U
238 → 82Pb206 would be— gm will be—
the number of α and β particles (A) 12·5% (B) 87·5%
(A) 5 × 10–2 gm
emitted is— (C) 8·5% (D) 25%
(B) 10–6 gm
(A) 6α, 4β (B) 4α, 6β 14. Which of the following is used as
(C) 10–15 gm
(C) 8α, 6β (D) 7α, 5β moderator ?
(D) 10–3 gm
7. The reaction, (A) Heavy water
(B) Graphite 21. The half-life of a radioactive iso-
1D
2 + 1T3 → 2He 4 + 0n 1 tope is 3 hours. If the initial mass
(C) Boron
is an example of— of the isotope was 300 gm, the
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Nuclear fission mass which remained unde-
(B) Nuclear fusion 15. After two hours, a radioactive cayed in 18 hours will be—
1 (A) 2·34 gm (B) 1·17 gm
(C) Artificial radioactivity substance remains th of origi-
16
(D) Radioactive disintegration nal amount. The half-life in (C) 4·68 gm (D) 9·36 gm
8. 1 mole of an alpha emitting minute is— 22. A radioactive element X emits
nuclide ZXA (half-life 10 min.) (A) 15 min. (B) 30 min. 3α, 1β and 1γ particles and forms
was kept in a sealed container. 225 . The element X is—
(C) 60 min. (D) 120 min. 76 Y

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1105

 (A) 236 237
81 X (B) 81 X (C) Change slightly
237 236
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
(C) 80 X (D) 80 X (D) Remain unchanged
23. Which element is the end product 32. The artificial radioactivity was
of every natural radioactive discovered by—
series ? (A) Madame and Pierre Curie
(A) Bismuth (B) Irene Curie and F. Joliot
(B) Lead
(C) Soddy-Rutherford
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Soddy-Fajan
(D) None of these
33. Which is used in dating archaeo-
24. Which one of the following logical objects ?
notations does not represent the
(A) 92U235 (B) 6C14
products correctly ?
(C) 238 (D) 6C12
(A) 14Si28 (d, n ) 15P29 92 U

(B) 14 (n, p ) 6C14

7N 34. Which of the following is used for
estimating the age of rocks ?
(C) 5 B10 (α, n), N 13
242 243
(A) C14 (B) U238
(D) 96 Cm (α, 2n) 97 Bk
(C) P32 (D) Co 60
25. The end product of (4 n + 2)
35. The half-life of a radioactive
disintegration series is— element is t 1/2 years. The time
(A) 82Pb204 (B) 82Pb208 required for its complete decay
(C) 206 209
82 Pb (D) 83 Bi is—

26. The number of neutrons in a (A) t 1/2 years (B) 2 × t1/2 years
parent nucleus, X which yields t 1/2
14 after two successive β- (C) years (D) ∞
7N 2
emissions are—
36. Which of the following nuclei is
(A) 6 (B) 7 most unstable ?
(C) 8 (D) 9 (A) 5B10 (B) 4Be10
(C) 7N 14 (D) 8O16
27. Which is not emitted by a radio-
active substance ? 37. Group displacement law was
(A) α-rays (B) β-rays given by—
(C) Positron (D) Proton (A) Rutherford
(B) Mendeleef
28. The neutrino can be detected
(C) Soddy-Fajan
during the emission of—
(D) None of these
(A) α-rays (B) β-particles
38. By removing a positron from the
(C) Protons (D) X-rays
nucleus of a radioactive element,
29. In the decay series, the atomic number—
–α –β –β (A) Increases by one
A ⎯→ B ⎯→ C ⎯→ D
(B) Decreases by one
(A) A and B are isobars
(C) Does not change
(B) A and C are isobars
(D) Decreases by two
(C) A and D are isotopes
(D) B and C are isotopes 39. According to nuclear reaction
4Be + 2He 4 → 6C12 + 0n 1
30. Bismuth is the end product of
radioactive disintegration series the mass number of Be atom
known as— is—
(A) 4n (B) 4n + 1 (A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 4n + 2 (D) 4n + 3 (C) 6 (D) 9

31. If a radioactive element is kept in 40. The symbol x in the following

a evacuated container its rate of equation is—
disintegration will— 11 Na
23 + 1H1 → 12Mg23 + x
(A) Increase (A) A positron (B) A proton
(B) Decrease (C) A neutron (D) A deuteron (Continued on Page 1133)

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1106

 13. The oxidation number of Cr in
CrO2Cl2 is—
(A) + 2 (B) + 3
(C) + 4 (D) + 6
14. The internal energy of one mole
of a gas is—
1. Velocities of four molecules in a 6. For the given electrolyte Ax By , the 3 KT
(A) RT (B)
container are 1, 2, 2, 4 units res- degree of dissociation ‘α’ and ‘i ’ 2 2
pectively. What is the value of are related as— RT 3 KT
(C) (D)
root mean square velocity ? 2 2
i–1
(A) 2·5 unit (B) 2·25 unit (A) α = 15. Wohler used this compound with
(x + y – 1)
(NH4)2SO4 to get urea—
(C) 9 unit (D) Zero (B) i = (1 – α) + x α + y α
(A) Potassium chloride
2. Mark the correct statement about 1–i
(C) α = (B) Potassium cyanide
given graph— (1 – x – y )
(C) Potassium sulphate
(D) All of these are correct (D) Potassium cyanate
7. The solubility of Ca 3(PO4)2 is ‘s ’ 16. The edge length of face centred
moles per litre. The solubility pro- unit cube cell is 508 pm. If the
duct of it is— radius of the cation is 110 pm,
(A) 72s 5 (B) 108s 5 the radius of the anion is—
(C) 9s 2 (D) 8s 3 (A) 288 pm (B) 398 pm
(C) 144 pm (D) 618 pm
8. For the hydrolysis of esters in
alkaline medium rate expression 17. The number of σ and π bonds in
(A) X is threshold energy level is; CH2 —
— CH—CH — — CH2
d [Ester] (A) 8σ and 2π bonds
(B) Y and Z are energy of acti- – = K [Ester] [Alkali]
dt
vation for forward and back- (B) 9σ and 1π bond
ward reactions respectively In case alkali used is in excess,
(C) 9σ and 3π bonds
then the overall order of the
(C) Q is heat of reaction and reaction is— (D) 9σ and 2π bonds
reaction is exothermic
(A) Zero (B) First 18. Pitchblende is the main source
(D) All of the above (C) Same (D) Third of—
3. “Electrons are filled in energy (A) U (B) Ce
9. Which of the following is buffer ?
orbitals, in increasing order of (C) Th (D) Mg
(A) NH4OH + CH3COONH4
energy.” This statement is 19. Which one of the following is
(B) NaOH + Na2SO4
related to— freon ?
(C) NaOH + CH3COONa (A) CCl4 (B) CF4
(A) Planck’s rule
(D) K2SO4 + H2SO4 (C) CCl2F2 (D) CH2Cl2
(B) Hund’s rule
10. ΔG° for the reaction X + Y Z 20. If a person is injured by the shot
(C) Pauli’s rule
is – 4·606 k cal. The equilibrium of a gun and all the pellets could
(D) Aufbau principle not be removed, it may cause
constant for the reaction at 227°C
4. A substance ‘A’ is more soluble is— poisoning by—
in chloroform than water. The (A) 100 (B) 10 (A) Hg (B) Pb
amount of ‘A’ left unextracted (C) Fe (D) As
(C) 2 (D) 0·01
in water would be maximum 21. Which one will form primary alco-
when the extraction is done with 11. At 25°C the solubility of spa- hol on reaction with CH3Mgl ?
100 ml of chloroform in— ringly soluble binary salt AgCl is (A) Ethyl acetate
1·25 × 10– 5 mole/litre. What will (B) Ethylene oxide
(A) 4 lots each of 25 ml
be the value of Ksp at same tem- (C) Methyl cyanide
(B) 1 lot of 100 ml perature ? (D) Acetone
(C) 2 lots each of 50 ml (A) 1·25 × 10– 5
22. In the following chemical change
(D) 5 lots each of 20 ml (B) 1·56 × 10– 10 what are X and Y ?
Δ
5. 2 moles of PCl5 is heated in one (C) 1 × 10– 10 (MnO2) + K2CO3 + Air ⎯→
litre vessel. At equilibrium 0·4 (D) 1·44 × 10– 10 X (green)
mole Cl2 is formed. The value of
12. An aqueous solution of 0·1 M X + Cl2 ⎯→ Y (pink)
equilibrium constant will be—
NH4Cl will have a pH closer to— X and Y are—
(A) 1 × 10– 3 (B) 1 × 10– 2 (A) K2Cr2O7, KMnO 7
(A) 9·1 (B) 8·1
(C) 2 × 10– 1 (D) 1 × 10– 1 (C) 7·1 (D) 5·1 (B) K2MnO4, KMnO 4

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1107 / 5

 (C) KMnO 4, K2MnO 30. Magenta is— 38. In a reaction involving ring subs-
(D) None of these (A) Alkaline phenolphthalein titution of C6H5Y, the major pro-
duct is meta-isomer. The group Y
23. The product (B) Red litmus
can be—
CH3—C —CHCl2 (C) P-rosaniline hydrochloride
(A) —NH2 (B) —COOH
|| (D) Methyl red
O (C) —CH3 (D) —Cl
31. When ethyl amine reacts with
is formed when HOCl reacts 39. The element of largest atomic
sodium metal, the gas evolved
with— size is—
is—
(A) CH3—CH2—C — —
— CH
(A) H2 (B) C2H2 (A) Li (B) Be
(B) CH —C — — CH
—
3 (C) N2 (D) NH3 (C) B (D) C
(C) CH3—C —
—
— C—CH3 32. The decreasing order of solubility 40. Wax used in gramophone records
— CH
(D) CH —
— of methanal (a), propanaldehyde is—
(b), benzaldehyde (c) and ace- (A) Paraffin wax
24. The reaction, tophenone (d) in water is—
(CH3COO)2 Cu (B) Bees wax
2 RC ≡ CCu ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ (A) a > b > c > d
Pyridine (C) Carnauba wax
(B) d > c > b > a
R—C ≡ C—C ≡ C—R (D) None of these
(C) d > a > b > c
is called—
(D) b > a > c > d 41. The correct increasing order of
(A) Eglinton’s reaction
electron affinity is—
(B) Glaser reaction 33. 2, 4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine does
not react with— (A) Be, B, N, C (B) C, N, B, Be
(C) Gomberg-Beckmann’s reac-
tion (A) CH3—C —CH3 (C) Be, N, B, C (D) Be, B, C, N
(D) Leuckart reaction ||
O 42. During destructive distillation of
25. 3-hydroxybutanol is formed by (B) CH3—C —OC2H5 bituminous coal at 1000–1400 °C,
the reaction of ethanol and alkali. || what per cent of coal-tar is left
The reaction is— O behind ?
(A) Aldol condensation (C) CH3—C — —O (A) 70% (B) 17%
(B) Claisen condensation |
H (C) 8–10% (D) 4–5%
(C) Polymerisation
(D) HCHO 43. Alkaline dilute KMnO4 solution is
(D) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
34. Which acid forms Zwitter ions ? called—
26. The correct order of melting and
boiling points of the primary (1°), (A) CH3COOH (A) Etard reagent
secondary (2°) and tertiary (3°) (B) Salicylic acid (B) Benedict reagent
alkyl halides is— (C) Phthalic acid (C) Mulliken’s reagent
(A) P > S > T (B) T > S > P (D) Sulphanilic acid (D) Baeyer’s reagent
(C) S > T > P (D) T > P > S 35. The outer electronic configura- 44. When cyclohexane is poured on
27. Phenol is condensed with phtha- tion of transitional element is— water, it floats because—
lic anhydride. The compound for- (A) (n – 1) s 2nd 1 – 5
med is— (A) Cyclohexane is in ‘boat’ form
(B) (n + 1)s 2nd 1 – 5
(A) Cyclohexanol (B) Cyclohexane is in ‘chair’ form
(C) (n – 1)s 2p 6nd 1 – 10, ns 2
(B) Isophthalic acid (D) ns 2 (n + 1) d 1 – 10 (C) Cyclohexane is in ‘crown’
(C) Phenolphthalein form
36. The given structural formula
(D) Phthalic acid (D) Cyclohexane is less dense
refers to—
28. Rectified spirit contains— than water
(A) 75·0% alcohol Cl
45. Cryolite is the ore of—
(B) 85·5% alcohol C—CCl3
| (A) Fe (B) Cu
(C) 95·6% alcohol Cl H (C) Ag (D) Al
(D) 100·0% alcohol
(A) BHC (B) DNA 46. Sequence of increasing screening
29. Which one of the following is
picric acid ? (C) DDT (D) RNA effect is—
(A) 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol 37. Which one of the following is the (A) s < p < d < f
(B) 2, 4, 6-trinitrobenzoic acid largest size ? (B) s < p > d < f
(C) o-nitrophenol (A) I – (B) I (C) s > p > d > f
(D) 2, 4 dinitrophenol (C) Cl (D) Br (D) s > p > d < f

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1108

47. The silver is extracted by Parke’s 48. Which species are aromatic in (B) Fe(OH)3
process. The basis of this nature ? (C) Fe 2O3. x H2O
method is— ⊕ (D) Fe 2O3
(A) Silver is immiscible is molten (A) (B)
Zn 50. Which is used as an anaesthetic ?
(B) Ag is miscible in NaCN ⊕
(A) CH3OCH3
(C) Ag is more miscible in mol- (C) (D)
ten Zn than in molten Pb (B) C2H5OC2H5
(D) Ag is more miscible in mol- (C) CH3OC2H5
ten Pb in comparison to mol- 49. The formula of rust is—
ten Zn (A) FeO.5 H2O (D) C3H7OC2H5

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

●●●

UPKAR’S DELHI
METRO RAIL CORPORATION
(Technical Cadre)
For–
● Station Controller ● Train Operator ● Section Engineer
● Junior Engineer ● Junior Station Controller
Including Previous Years’ Solved Papers
By : Dr. Lal & Jain Code No. 971 Price : Rs. 299/-
E-mail : publisher@upkar.in
UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA–2 Website : www.upkar.in

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1109

 17. The work of expansion for a
system is 500 cal. The heat
given to the system is 80 cal.
The change in internal energy in
the process will be—
(A) 80 cal (B) 500 cal
1. Isodiapheres have— (C) Weak acid weak base (C) – 420 cal (D) 420 cal
(A) The same number of neu- (D) Strong acid strong base 18. Conjugated double bond is pre-
trons but different number of sent in—
10. Strongest base is—
protons
(A) RbOH (B) LiOH (A) Butylene (B) Butadiene
(B) The same number of pro-
(C) KOH (D) NaOH (C) Isobutylene (D) Propylene
tons-electrons
(C) The same radius of nucleus 11. A solution of 1M acetic acid
19. Which of the following is less
sphere contains 0·1 M HCl. What would
than zero during adsorption ?
(D) The same number of neu- be the value of CH 3COO– ion
concentration. pKa = 5 ? (A) ΔG (B) ΔS
trons-protons
(A) 10– 4 (B) 10– 5 (C) ΔH (D) All of these
2. The quantum number which is – 6
(C) 10 (D) 10– 3 20. The active species in reaction
responsible for the size of elec-
tron cloud is— 12. When solid potassium cyanide is between methane and chlorine,
(A) Spin (B) Azimuthal added in water then— to get chloromethane is—
(C) Principal (D) Magnetic (A) Electrical conductivity will (A) Cl2 (B) Cl°
1 2 3 4 5 not change
(C) Cl– (D) Cl+
3. HC ≡ C—CH — — CH—CH3 (B) pH is reduced
Which carbon atom will show (C) pH is increased 21. The most convenient method to
minimum electronegativity ? (D) pH will remain the same protect the bottom of ship made
(A) Fifth (B) Third of iron is—
13. Electrochemical equivalent of an
(C) Second (D) First element is— (A) Coating it with red lead
oxide
4. The maximum values of m for Atomic wt. × Valency
l = 2 is— (A) (B) White tin plating
96500
(A) 0, ± 1 (B) ± 1, ± 2 Atomic wt. × 96500
(C) Connecting it with Mg block
(C) 0, ± 1, ± 2 (D) 0, ± 2 (B) (D) Connecting it with Pb block
Valency
5. In which of the following com- Atomic wt. 22. C2H5OH and H 2SO4 at 170° C
(C)
pounds chromium shows maxi- Valency × 96500 from—
mum radius ? Valency × 96500 (A) C2H4 (B) CH3CHO
(A) K2Cr2O7 (B) CrO2Cl2 (D)
Atomic wt. (C) CH3COOH (D) CH3COCH3
(C) Cr2(SO4)3 (D) CrCl2
14. The IUPAC name of :
6. Which one is not Lewis acid ? (CH3)3C—CH = CH2 23. The metal with least density is—
(A) NH3 (B) Cu 2+ (A) Be (B) B
(A) Vinyl trimethyl methane
(C) ZnCl2 (D) BF 3
(B) 2, 2-dimethyl-3-butene (C) Li (D) Al
7. At 444°C HI is 20% dissociated, (C) Tertiary butyl ethene 24. If the ozonolysis products of
if initially 3 mole of HI are taken, (D) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-butene hydrocarbon are
what is the number of moles of
HI at equilibrium ? 15. Osmotic pressure is 0·0821 CH3—C —CH3
atmosphere at temperature 27°C. ||
(A) 0·6 (B) 4·8
O
(C) 2·4 (D) 5·4 Find the concentration of solu-
tion in mole/litre— and CH 3CHO, then the formula
8. The pH of an aqueous solution is of parent hydrocarbon will be—
4·7. Then H+ concentration will (A) 0·033 (B) 0·066
(C) 0·0033 (D) 3 CH3—C — — C— — CH3
be— (A) | |
(A) 3 × 10– 6 (B) 3 × 10– 5 16. Friedel-Crafts reaction is— CH3 CH3
(C) 2 × 10– 5 (D) 5 × 10– 5 (A) C2H5OH + Zn → C2H6 + ZnO CH3—C —
— CH—CH3
(B) C6H6 + CH3COCl (B) |
9. A– + H2O HA + OH–
Anhyd. CH3
represents the hydrolysis reac- ⎯⎯⎯→ C6H5COCH3 + HCl
AlCl 3 CH3—C —
— CH—CH2—CHO
tion. This indicates that the salt is
(C) C6H5Br + 2 Na + CH 3Br (C) |
made up of—
Dry ether CH3
(A) Strong acid weak base ⎯⎯⎯→ C6H5CH3
(B) Strong base weak acid (D) None of these (D) CH3—C —
—
— C—CH3

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1110

25. Tempering of steel is done as—
(A) Steel is made red hot and
dipped in water
(B) Steel is made red hot and
cooled slowly
(C) Steel is heated at much low
temperature and cooled
slowly
33. By the action of conc. H 2SO4 (C) Benzene
phosphorus changes to— (D) Cyclohexane
(A) Phosphorus acid 42. Which of the following is not a
(B) Metaphosphoric acid member of 3 d transition series ?
(C) Orthophosphoric acid (A) Fe (B) Co
(D) Pyrophosphoric acid (C) Au (D) Cu
34. Nitrobenzene, on reaction with O
fuming nitric acid at 90°C, the 43. CH3—CH2—N

↓
(D) Steel is made red hot and product is— O
dipped in oil OH
NO2 NO2
CH3—CH — —N
NO2

↓
26. Gaseous formaldehyde at room O
(A) (B) is the example of—
temperature polymerises to—
(A) Paraformaldehyde NO2 (A) Geometrical isomerism
(B) Optical isomerism
(B) Metaldehyde NO2 NO2 (C) Tautomerism
(C) Trioxy methylene NO2 (D) None of these
(C) (D)
(D) Paraldehyde 44. Malachite is the ore of—
27. Mg ribbon after heating in an (A) Cu (B) Ni
NO2 NO2 (C) Au (D) Hg
atmosphere of nitrogen when
dipped in cold water produces a 35. Iodine is liberated from KI 45. The order of reactivity of alcohols
gas which is— solution when treated with— with respect to acid catalysed
(A) NH3 (B) H2 (A) ZnSO 4 (B) CuSO 4 elimination will be—
(C) NiSO4 (D) FeSO 4 (a) (CH3)3 C—OH
(C) O2 (D) N2
(b) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2OH
36. The most electronegative ele-
28. If nitrobenzene is reduced in pre- (c) CH3 CHCH2CH3
ment in periodic table is—
sence of Zn + NH4 Cl then the |
(A) Fr (B) F OH
product will be—
(C) He (D) N code is—
(A) p-amino phenol (A) a > b > c (B) a > c > b
37. The first noble gas compound
(B) Phenyl hydroxylamine (C) b > a > c (D) b > c > a
obtained was—
(C) Aniline (A) XeF 2 (B) XeF 4 46. The purest form of iron is—
(C) Xe Pt F6 (D) XeOF 4 (A) Wrought iron
(D) Azobenzene
(B) Cast iron
29. Microcosmic salt is— 38. The highest magnetic moment (C) Iron turning
will be shown by— (D) Stainless steel
(A) Na (NH4) HPO4.4 H 2O
(A) Ni (B) Co
(B) Na (NH4).H2O 47. Suitable reagent to obtain ethan-
(C) Fe (D) Zn ethiol from bromoethane is—
(C) Na (NH3) HPO4.4 H 2O 39. For which of the following com- (A) Sodium hydrogen sulphide
(D) K (NH4) HPO3.2 H 2O pound, the Lassaigne’s test for N (B) Sodium sulphide
will fail— (C) Potassium sulphide
30. Which enzyme is effective in the (D) Sodium sulphate
(A) NH2NH2.2 HCl
following reaction ?
(B) NH2.CO.NH2 48. Blue vitriol is—
C6H12O6 → 2 C2H5OH + 2 CO2 (A) MnSO 4.7 H 2O
(C) NH2CO NH NH2HCl
(A) Invertase (B) Zymase (D) C6H5N —— N–C6H5 (B) CuSO 4.5 H 2O
(C) Maltase (D) Diastase (C) FeSO 4.7 H 2O
40. If 19 is the atomic number of an (D) NiSO4.6 H 2O
31. An excess of AgNO3 is added to
element then this element will
100 ml of 0·01 M solution of 49. Both HCHO and CH3CHO give
be—
dichloro tetraaquo chromium(III) similar reactions with all the
(A) A metal with + 3 oxidation reagents except—
chloride. The number of moles of
state (A) Schiff’s reagent
AgCl precipitated would be—
(B) A metal with + 1 oxidation (B) Ammoniacal AgNO 3
(A) 0·001 (B) 0·002 state (C) Fehling solution
(C) 0·003 (D) 0·01 (C) An inert gas (D) Ammonia
32. What is the product of the reac- (D) A metal with – 3 oxidation 50. Tischenko reaction proceeds in
tion of ethyl amine and HNO2 ? state presence of—
(A) Zn and ZnCl 2
(A) Ethene 41. 3° carbon is present in the com- (B) Al powder
(B) Primary alcohol pound— (C) Al (OC2H5)3 and anhydrous
(C) Ethyl nitrile (A) Cyclopropane AlCl3
(D) Nitrosoethane (B) Toluene (D) FeCl3

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1111

 (C) m-nitrophenol
(D) 2, 4-dinitrophenol
16. Which of the following aqueous
solutions has the highest boiling
point ?
(A) 0·1 M KNO 3
1. How many molecules are con- 8. In the reaction (B) 0·1 M Na 3PO4
tained in 3·5 g of CO at 0°C and 2Ag + 2H2SO4 → (C) 0·1 M BaCl 2
760 mm pressure ?
Ag2SO4 + 2H2O + SO2, (D) 0·1 M K2SO4
(A) 3·5 × 6·02 × 10 23
sulphuric acid acts as— 17. Mercury(II) forms a complex
(B) 28 × 6·02 × 1023 (A) An oxidizing agent with—
(C) 7·525 × 1022 (B) A reducing agent (A) H2S (B) SnCl 2
(D) None of these (C) A catalyst (C) KI (D) NaOH

2. The nucleus of an electrically (D) An acid as well as an oxidant 18. During adsorption—
neutral atom undergoes radio- 9. An anhydride of HClO 4 is— (A) TΔS is positive
active decay. It will remain neutral (A) Cl2O (B) ClO2 (B) ΔH-TΔS is negative
after the decay if the process is
(C) Cl2O6 (D) Cl2O7 (C) ΔH is positive
a— (D) TΔS and ΔG become zero
10. How many mL of 0·1 M H2SO4
(A) β–-decay 19. Oxidation of NH3 by CuO yields a
must be added to 50 mL of
(B) β+-decay 0·1 M NaOH to give a solution molecule in which oxidation state
that has a concentration of 0·05 of nitrogen is—
(C) γ-decay
M in H2SO4 ? (A) + 6 (B) + 3
(D) Neutron decay (A) 400 mL (B) 50 mL (C) 0 (D) + 4
3. Total number of possible isomers (C) 200 mL (D) 100 mL 20. Ozone is powerful oxidizing agent.
of formula C7H7NO 2 having a 11. Which of the following will reduce It is—
benzene ring is— acidic K 2Cr2O7 solution ? (A) Less oxidizing than F 2
(A) White vitriol (B) More oxidizing than F2
(A) 6 (B) 8
(B) Mohr’s salt (C) Less oxidizing than O2
(C) 10 (D) 15 (D) Less oxidizing than H 2O2
(C) Chile salt petre
4. The density of nitrogen is maxi- (D) Potash alum 21. Epsom salt is—
mum at— 12. In the equilibrium (A) CuSO 4.5 H 2O
(A) STP 1 (B) ZnSO 4.7 H 2O
H2O(g) H2(g) + O ,
2 2(g) (C) FeSO 4.7 H 2O
(B) 273 K and 2 atm
the extent of dissociation of water (D) MgSO 4.7 H 2O
(C) 546 K and 1 atm when P = 1 atm and K = 2·08 × 22. Which of the following statements
(D) 546 K and 4 atm 10– 3 is approximately— is incorrect ?
(A) 2% (B) 0·2% (A) Boron carbide is used as an
5. Which metal has maximum ten-
dency to get oxidised ? (C) 20% (D) 1% abrasive
(A) Mg (B) Zn 13. The IUPAC name of (B) Boron is used to increase the
hardenability of steel
(C) Cu (D) Ag
is— (C) Boron oxide (B2O3) is used in
6. What would be the weight of the (A) Trans-3-methyl pent-2-ene the manufacture of borosili-
slaked lime required to decom- (B) (Z)-3-methyl pent-2-ene cate glass
pose 8·0 g of ammonium chlo- (C) Trans-2-ethyl but-2-ene (D) Orthoboric acid undergoes
ride ? intramolecular hydrogen
(D) (E)-3-methyl pent-2-ene
bonding
(A) 5·53 g (B) 2·12 g 14. A given weak acid (0·01 M) has
(C) 15·52 g (D) 7·62 g 23. Which of the following gives
pK a = 6. The pH of the solution
methane on reaction with water ?
is—
7. Which of the following is not a (A) Al4C3 (B) Mg2C3
colligative property ? (A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6 (C) CaC2 (D) CaH2
(A) Osmotic pressure
15. Which of the following is stron- 24. Which of the following molecules
(B) Vapour pressure is not a donor ?
gest acid ?
(C) Elevation of b.p. (A) Phenol (A) (C2H5)2NH (B) (C2H5)3N
(D) Depression of f. p. (B) o-nitrophenol (C) (SiH3)3N (D) C2H5OH

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1113

25. Sugar of lead is— 35. Acidic solution of a salt produced COOH
(A) PbSO4 deep blue colour with starch and
(B)
(B) Pb (CH3COO)2.3H2O KI. The salt is—
(C) PbCl 2 (A) Chloride (B) Nitrite O2N COOH
(D) PbCO 3 (C) Acetate (D) Bromide
COOH
26. The number of S—S bonds in the 36. Which of the following ions dis-
cyclic trimer of sulphur trioxide proportionates in water ?
(A) Au3+ (B) [Au (CN)4] – (C)
is—
(C) [AuCl4] – (D) Au+ COOH
(A) Three (B) Two
NO2
(C) One (D) Zero 37. Which of the following elements
shows allotropy ? COOH
27. PCl5 is prepared by the action of
(A) Zn (B) Sn NO2
Cl2 on—
(C) Mg (D) Cs (D)
(A) P2O3 (B) P2O5
(C) PCl3 (D) All of these 38. On strong heating, which of the COOH
following produces a mixture SO 2 NO2
28. Which of the following noble and SO 3 ?
gases is the least polarised ? (A) Fe 2(SO4)3.9H2O 45. The maximum number of 3d -
(A) Radon (B) Krypton (B) (NH4)2SO4.Fe2(SO4)3.24H2O electrons having spin quantum
(C) Xenon (D) Helium (C) FeSO 4.7H2O number, s = + 1/2 is—
29. Which of the following hydrides is (D) FeS 2 (A) 10 (B) 5
most stable ? 39. Which of the following expres- (C) 2 (D) 1
(A) CH4 (B) PbH 4 sion does not give root mean
(C) SiH4 (D) SnH 4 square velocity ? 46. Which of the following will give
only one monosubstituted pro-
30. The least melting metal among
the following is—
(A) ( )
3RT 1/2
M
(B)
DM ( )
3P 1/2
duct ?
(A) o-dinitrobenzene
( ) ( )
3P 1/2 3PV 1/2
(A) Tin (B) Carbon (C) (D)
D M (B) m-dinitrobenzene
(C) Germanium (D) Lead
40. NaCl and Na2SO4 can be distin- (C) p-dinitrobenzene
31. Select the rate law that corres-
ponds to the data shown for the guished by— (D) None of these
following reaction : (A) Gutzeit’s test
47. Which of the following is laevoro-
A+B→C (B) Marsh’s test
(C) The flame test tatory ?
Exp. [A]0 [B]0 Initial (D) The chromyl chloride test (A) Glucose (B) Sucrose
Rate
41. Which of the following does not (C) Fructose (D) Galactose
1 0·012 0·035 0·10 adopt hcp structure ?
2 0·024 0·070 0·80 (A) Be (B) Mg 48. The product of addition polymeri-
3 0·024 0·035 0·10 (C) Fe (D) Mo zation reaction is—
4 0·012 0·070 0·80 42. Which is the most stable confor- (A) PVC (B) Nylon
(A) Rate = K [B]3 mation of cyclohexane ?
(C) Terylene (D) Polyamide
(B) Rate = K [B]4 (A) Chair (B) Twist
(C) Rate = K [A] [B]3 (C) Boat (D) Staggered 49. Which of the following reagents
(D) Rate = K [A]2 [B] 2 43. Which of the following contains can be safely used to convert
32. Which vitamin contains N, S and maximum number of electrons in — CHCHO →
CH2 —
Cl elements ? the antibonding molecular orbi-
tals ? CH2 —
— CHCOOH
(A) Thiamine
(A) O2 (B) O22 –
(B) Cyanocobalamin – (A) Cold alk. KMnO4 solution
(C) O2 (D) O2+
(C) Ergocalciferol
44. The major product obtained in the (B) Diamine Silver(I) Hydroxide
(D) Adermin
reaction (C) Cold dil. Cl2/NaOH solution
33. Eight grams of a radioactive subs-
tance are reduced to 0·5 g after 1 COOH (D) Br2 in CCl4
hour. The half-life period of radio- HNO
active substance is— ⎯⎯→
3 50. The unit of Q (reaction quotient)
H2SO 4 is—
(A) 15 min (B) 30 min COOH
(C) 45 min (D) 10 min is— (A) (Concentration)Δn
COOH (B) (Atmosphere)Δn
34. Purple of Classius is a colloidal
solution of— NO2 (C) Pressure and temperature
(A) Silver (B) Gold (A) dependent
(C) Copper (D) Platinum COOH (D) Does not have a unit

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1114

Introduction The Lymphatic Vessels
● The lymphatic system helps to maintain the proper ● Lymphatic vessels commence as a network of closed
fluid balance in the tissues and the blood, to conserve microscopic vessels-capillaries whose walls consists
protein and to remove bacteria and other particles from essentially of a single layer of cells, the endothelium.
the tissues. ● The lymphatic vessels are quite extensive, most
● It consists of a network of fluid-filled vessels that open regions of the body are richly supplied with lymphatic
into the blood-vessel system, together with masses capillaries. The construction of the larger lymphatic
lymphoid tissue. vessels is similar to that of cardio-vascular veins,
● The lymphoid tissue is, in part, intimately associated including the presence of valves.
with the network of vessels, as in the lymph nodes or ● The movement of lymph within these vessels is depen-
glands, is less intimately associated with the vessels, dent upon skeletal muscle contraction. When the
as in the tonsils and thymus, or has no obvious con- muscle contract, the lymph is squeezed past a valve
nection with the vessel network, as in the spleen. that closes, preventing the lymph from flowing back-
● The fluid in the lymphatic vessels, called lymph, is as wards.
a rule clear, or faintly opalescent, except the lymph
called chyle, which comes from the intestine. Chyle at Differences between Blood and Lymph
times may be white and milky in appearance because
of the minute globules of fat that it contains. The thin Blood Lymph
walled vessels through which chyle flows are referred 1. It is a red fluid tissue. 1. It is a colourless fluid
to as lacteals because of their milky appearance. tissue.
The Lymphocytes 2. It starts from the heart 2. It starts from the tissue-
and flowing through the spaces and flowing
● Of the variety of cells in the lymph nodes, the most
arteries, capillaries and through the lymphatic
numerous are lymphocytes, which are also found in
veins returns to the capillaries and vessels
the lymph, in blood and elsewhere.
heart. enters the subclavian
● Lymphocytes vary in size, but the smallest are about veins.
the size of red blood cells and consists almost entirely
3. It consists of plasma, 3. It consists of plasma
of nucleus with very little cytoplasm.
erythrocytes, leucocytes and leucocytes only.
● Lymphocytes are capable of active movement and can
and platelets.
migrate through the walls of blood vessels and through
4. It contains more plasma 4. It contains fewer plasma
the various tissues.
proteins and more cal- proteins and less cal-
● Lymphocytes exist in number of places : the spleen,
cium and phosphorus. cium and phosphorus.
the lymphoepithelial tissues, the thymus and bone
marrow, and large numbers of cells are scattered 5. It has haemoglobin in 5. It lacks haemoglobin
throughout the connective tissues of the body. erythrocytes, hence, red containing erythrocytes
● The lymphoepithelial tissues are masses of lympho- in colour. hence colourless.
cytes in close relation to the epithelium (covering) of 6. Its flow is fairly rapid. 6. Its flow is very slow.
the alimentary canal. 7. It mainly transports 7. It mainly conveys mate-
● At upper end they form both the tonsils and the tissues materials from one rials from the tissue
at the back of the nose that when enlarged are called organ to another in the cells into the blood.
adenoids. body.
● The appendix is made up largely of lympho epithelial
● Lymphatic system is a one-way system that begins
tissue; and throughout the intestine there are lymphoid
with lymphatic capillaries. These capillaries take-up
nodules, arranged either singly or in groups, known as
fluid that has diffused from blood capillaries.
Peyer’s patches.
● The thymus is a lymphoid organ that is particularly well ● The lymphatic capillaries join to form progressively
developed at birth and during the growth period. After larger vessels whose walls become somewhat thicker
puberty it undergoes progressive atrophy. because of their small amounts of muscle and elastic
● The bone marrow contains a large population of tissue.
lymphocytes scattered among its other cells and not ● These larger collecting vessels usually accompany
arranged in dense nodules. veins and possess valves. The compression of valved
● A considerable number lymphocytes are to be found in lymphatic trunks by surrounding muscles is an impor-
connective tissues all over the body. tant factor in the propulsion of lymph.

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1117

● At the points at which valves are attached, the walls of Lymph Nodes
lymphatic trunks are thicker than elsewhere, and con- ● Lymph nodes are relatively evolutionary development
sequently, distended lymph trunks usually have a
and in their characteristic form are present only in
beaded appearance.
mammals, though a rudimentary type of lymph node is
● The intermediate vessels join to form a series of main found in birds.
lymph trunks. The main lymph trunk draining the lower ● Lymph nodes are found in both superficial and deep
limbs, enters the abdomen after passing through situations.
lymph nodes in the lumbar region, known as lumbar ● There is well marked node or nodes at the back of the
trunk.
knee, while there are a number of both superficial and
● Lumbar trunk enters the cirterna chyli. Cirterna chyli is deep nodes in the region of groin. There are large
a dilated sac lying at the back of the abdomen oppo- collection of nodes are present in the armpit and
site the first lumbar vertebra and from its upper end the numerous nodes in the thorax and abdomen are found
thoracic ascends through the chest. It inclines slightly especially in the mesentery.
to the left and ends at the base of the neck by entering ● It is distinctive of humans and primates that lymph
the left innominate vein formed by the junction of the passes through chains of several small nymph nodes
great veins draining the left side of the head and neck instead of through one or two large nodes as in other
and the left arm. mammals.
● The thoracic duct is much larger duct and returns to ● The human lymph node is enclosed in a fibrous
the blood stream, the lymph from both legs, pelvis and capsule, in the interior are masses of cells, mainly
abdomen and from greater part of the left body. lymphocytes.
● Lymph from the right side of the body returns to the ● The groups of lymph nodes found in the region of groin
blood through the right lymph duct, which opens into are called inguinal nodes, while in the armpits are
the great veins at the base of the neck on the right called axillary nodes.
side. ● Vessels bringing lymph to the lymph node are termed
● There are valves in both the thoracic duct and the right afferent, while draining lymph away from lymph node
lymph duct. are termed efferent.
● Freshly formed lymph that has not passed through a
Differences between Blood Capillaries node is called peripheral lymph. Lymph that has
and Lymphatic Capillaries passed through only one node is called intermediate
lymph. The lymph that has passed through all the
Lymphatic Capillaries Blood Capillaries nodes that is going to traverse and is on its way to the
blood without further interruption is termed central
1. Are colourless and 1. Are reddish and easy to lymph.
difficult to observe. observe.
● Peripheral lymph contains a small number of lympho-
2. Are free at one end 2. Are joined to arterioles
cytes, whereas the central lymph contains many more.
and joined to lymphatic at one end and to ● Lymphocytes that reach the blood via the lymph
vessels at the other venules at the other
stream are termed indirect-entery lymphocytes as
end. end.
opposed to the direct-entery lymphocytes that obtain
3. Free end is blind and 3. Have no free end. access to the bloodstream directly by migrating
expanded into a knob. through the walls of blood vessels in lymphoid tissue
4. Are wider than blood 4. Are narrower than lym- without first entering the lymph. Considerable numbers
capillaries. phatic capillaries. of lymphocytes are of the direct-entery variety. The few
5. Do not have uniform 5. Have a uniform dia- cells reaching the node via peripheral lymph are
diameter. meter. derived from the blood passing first from the blood
6. Wall formed of highly 6. Wall formed of normal capillaries into connective tissue then into peripheral
attenuated endothe- endothelium and base- lymph. The steady drift of a small number of lympho-
lium and a poorly ment membrane. cytes through the connective tissues of the body may
developed basement possess much greater importance than the numbers
membrane. suggest.
● Furthermore, under abnormal conditions, the number
7. Carry a colourless 7. Carry red blood
lymph received by received from arterioles
of lymphocytes in peripheral lymph may be greatly
diffusion from tissue to the venules.
increased.
spaces to lymphatic Lymphoid Organs
vessels.
● Spleen is the largest mass of lymphoid tissue. It is soft
8. Have a relatively low 8. Have relatively high spongy organ lying in upper left portion of abdominal
pressure. pressure. cavity just beneath the diaphragm.
9. Mark the beginning of 9. Join arterial and ● A dense connective tissue with scattered smooth
the lymphatic system. venous systems. muscle cells cover the surface of spleen. Outer con-
10. Absorb tissue fluid from 10. Add tissue into inter- nective tissue divides the spleen into lobules, which
intercellular spaces. cellular spaces. contain sinuses.

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1118

 Fig. : The lymphoid organs. The lymphoid organs include the lymph nodes, the thymus gland, the spleen,
and the bone marrow, which all contain lymphocytes.
● In the spleen, the sinuses are filled with blood instead
of lymph. The blood vessels of the spleen can expand,
and this enhances the carrying capacity of this organ
to serve as the blood reservoir and to make blood
available in times of low pressure or when the body
needs extra oxygen carrying capacity.
● Internally, there are two distinct masses of tissue : the
white and the red pulp. The white pulp is packed with
lymphocytes which can generate a specific immune
response against foreign substances in the blood.
● The red pulp filters and stores blood. As a filter, it
contains phagocytic cells which remove damaged,
worn out red blood cells and platelets.
● Filtered blood is stored in the red pulp as a reserve
blood volume. When there is blood loss from an injury,
the smooth muscle cells in the capsule contract to
squeeze out the reserve blood and increase the
circulating blood volume.
● Tonsils are clusters of lymphatic tissue that contain
lymphocytes and are embedded in the mucous mem-
brane that lines the throat. Five tonsils are arranged in
a ring at the junction of the nasal and oral cavities
where the pharynx begins. Their job is to provide
lymphocytes and immune chemicals to guard against
infection entering through the mouth and nose.
● Thymus gland is located along the trachea behind the
sternum in the upper thoracic cavity. This gland varies
in size, and is larger in children than in adults; may
disappear completely in old age.
● Thymus is divided into lobules by connective tissue.
The T-lymphocytes mature in these lobules. The
interior of the lobule consists mostly of epithelial cells.
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1119
● Red bone marrow is the site of origination of all types
of blood cells including the five types of white blood
cells.
● Red bone marrow contains stem cells that are capable
of dividing and producing cells that go on to diffe-
rentiate into the various types of blood cells.
● In a child, most bones have red bone marrow but in
adults it is present only in the bones of the skull, ster-
num, ribs, clavicle, pelvic bones and the vertebral
column.
● The red bone marrow consists of a network of con-
nective tissue fibres, called reticular fibres, which are
produced by cells called reticular cells.
Composition of Lymph
● Lymph contains all the protein fractions present in the
blood plasma but at a lower level. The protein content
of lymph varies in different regions.
● Liver lymph contains the highest percentage of protein,
whereas lymph from the skin and subcutaneous
tissues usually contains the lowest.
● Antibodies are associated with serum globulins and it
is the globulin content of lymph that is more reduced in
relation to blood plasma than the albumin content.
● Hence as a rule, lymph contains less antibodies than
blood plasma.
● Apart from proteins, lymph, especially intestinal lymph
contains appreciable amounts of fat after a fatty meal.
● Electrolytes (calcium, sodium, potassium, chloride) in
lymph are found in virtually the same concentration as
in blood plasma. The same is basically true of glucose
and urea.
Formation of Lymph
● Lymph is derived from the blood by a process that
begins with filtration through the wall of the blood capil-
lary. This primary filtrate then undergoes some modifi-
cations as it passes through the tissues that it finally
leaves by entering the lymphatics.
● The amount of tissue fluid at any time represents an
equilibrium between the amount of fluid leaving the
blood capillary and the amount entering the lymphatic
capillary.
● Compared with the blood vascular system, the lym-
phatic vessels can transport relatively small amounts
of fluid, hence, they can deal with only a moderate
increase in lymph flow. Beyond this point lymph accu-
mulates in the tissues which become waterlogged and
said to develop edema.
● Most commonly a rise in the venous pressure is reflec-
ted almost at once by a rise in the capillary pressure
and a corresponding increase in lymph formation.
Functions of Lymphatic System
● This system is closely associated with cardiovascular
system and has three main functions :
1. Lymphatic vessels take up excess tissue fluid and
protein, return them to the blood stream.
2. Lymphatic capillaries absorb fats at the intestinal
villi and transport them to the blood stream.
3. The lymphatic system helps to defend the body
against diseases.
Review at a Glance
● The mammalian lymphatic system consists of lym-
phatic vessels and lymphoid organs.
● Lymph flows one way from a capillary to ever-larger
lymphatic vessels and finally to a lymphatic duct,
which enters a subclavian vein.
● Lymph nodule called Peyer’s patches are found within
the intestinal wall.
● Lymph is clear fluid within lymphatic vessels and deri-
ved from tissue fluid.
● Lymph present in the vessels between the intestine
after a meal is generally milky due to presence of
chylomicrons.
● Lymphocytes are produced in primary lymphoid tissue
(thymus, embryonic liver, adult bone marrow) and
migrate to secondary lymphoid tissue (spleen, lymph
nodes, unencapsulated lymphoid regions of gut
submucosa, respiratory and urogenital regions).
● Lymphoma is tumour composed of lymph tissue.
● Hodgkin’s disease is a malignant lymphoma of
reticuloendothelial cells in lymph nodes and other
lymphoid tissues.
● Lymph contains less antibodies than blood plasma.
● Even a minor interference in the removal of tissue
fluid will be noticed as tissue swelling, a condition
called edema.
● Lymphatic vessels have one-way valves along their
length to prevent the backflow of lymph.
● Lymph is moved by the action of skeletal muscles.
● The process of squeezing of leucocytes out of
capillaries is called Diapedesis.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Blood and lymph differ in— (C) Both (A) and (B) 8. Pericardial fluid is basically—
(A) Blood has RBCs which are (D) None of these (A) Plasma
absent in lymph 4. The process of squeezing of (B) Serum
(B) Blood has WBCs which are leucocytes out of capillaries is (C) Lymph
absent in lymph called— (D) None of the above
(C) Blood has cells while lymph (A) Exocytosis
is without cells 9. Which of the following statement
(B) Diapedesis
(D) Blood has several inorganic is correct regarding lymph ?
(C) Exosmosis
substances which are absent (A) It consists of plasma and
(D) Chemotaxis
in lymph leucocytes only
5. Lymphocytes are produced in—
2. Lymph flows in the lymph ves- (B) It lacks haemoglobin, hence
(A) Thymus
sels due to— colourless
(B) Embryonic liver
(A) Pressure of valves in their (C) It contains fewer blood pro-
(C) Adult bone marrow
walls teins and less Ca and P
(D) All the above
(B) Contraction and dilation of (D) All the above are correct
heart 6. Largest lymphoid organ is—
(C) Pressure exerted by the (A) Liver 10. Lymph consists of—
contraction of surrounding (B) Spleen (A) Plasma
muscles (C) Tonsils (B) Leucocytes
(D) All the above (D) Peyer’s patches (C) Erythrocytes
3. A dilated sac into which empties 7. Which organ of the body filters (D) Both (A) and (B)
the intestinal, two lumbar and the blood ?
two descending lymphatic trunks (A) Bone marrow ANSWERS
is— (B) Liver
(A) Cisterna chyle (C) Lymph vessels
(B) Thoracic duct (D) Spleen ●●●

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1121

● Cancers are a result of uncontrolled cell division. The
type of nuclear division involved is mitosis. The
problem is caused by mutations or abnormal activation
of the genes which control cell division.
● When the genes are abnormal they are called
oncogenes. About 100 of these have been discove-
red. A single faulty cell may divide to form a clone of
identical cells. Eventually an irregular mass of relatively
undifferentiated cells called a tumour is formed.
● Tumour cells can break away and spread to other
parts of the body, particularly in the bloodstream or
lymphatic system, causing secondary tumours or
metastases. This process is called metastasis.
● Tumours that spread and eventually cause ill health
and death are described as malignant. The majority of
tumours, such as common warts, do not spread and
are described as benign.
How Cancer Cells Differ from Normal Cells
● Cell division is a highly regulated process, with a
balance being maintained between production of new
cells and cell death in most of the tissues and organs.
● Mature and differentiated normal cells have a finite life
span. They are usually replaced by new cells genera-
ted by cell division and differentiation.
● Normally, the production of new cells is regulated in
such a manner that at any given time, the number of a
given cell type remains nearly constant. Normal cells
live in a complex interdependent manner, regulating
one another's proliferation.
● Occasionally, some cells may arise, which do not
respond to normal growth control mechanisms. These
cells proliferate in an unregulated manner and give rise
to clones of cells that can expand to a considerable
size; this growth is called tumour or neoplasm.
● All tumours are not malignant. Noncancerous tumours,
commonly called benign tumours, remain confined to
their original location and are incapable of indefinite
Normal epithelial cells
Basement membrane
(a)
Invasive cancer
in Situ cancer
(b)
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1122
Primary tumour
Invasive tumour cell
(c)
Secondary tumour site
Tumour cell
adhering
to capillary
(d)
Fig. : Stages in development of cancer (a) to (d). Primary
tumour may become metastatic and get trans-
formed into secondary tumour.
growth, e.g., warts. However, cancerous or malignant
tumours grow rapidly with infinite life span of the
proliferating cells and become progressively invasive.
Only the malignant tumours are properly referred to as
true cancer.
Properties of Cancer Cells
● Cancer cells exhibit some features which distinguish
them from normal cells. They show uncontrolled proli-
ferative ability, with a reduced requirement for extra-
cellular growth factors.
● They acquire the ability to invade new sites, a
phenomenon designated as Metastasis. Cancer cells
exhibit a number of alterations on cell surface, in the
cytoplasm and in their genes; these features are used
for the identification of cancers. The ability of cancer
cells to resist induction of cell death promotes the
development of tumours.
● The nucleus of cancer cells are usually enlarged and
have irregularly distributed chromatin. The inter-
chromatin and perichromatin granules, which are
formed of RNA and proteins are more abundant in the
nucleus of cancer cells. The nucleolus of cancer cells
displays hypertrophy. It becomes more irregular and
enlarged. Sometimes several nucleoli may be present
in the nucleus of cancer cells.
● The ergastoplasm and ribosomes are more abundant
in cancer cells. Formation of polysomes by the union
 of various ribosomes is more frequent. This is associ-
ated with rapid growth of cancer cells.
● The normal cells have a cytoskeleton of microtubules
and microfilaments arranged in some regular fashion
and help in coordinated cell movement. In cancer cells,
the cytoskeleton undergoes depolymerization and
disintegration, thus cells become independent and
their movements uncoordinated.
● Normal cells exhibit stickness or adhesiveness and
their is specificity in adhesion because cells of one
type stick to the cells of same type. Cancer cells have
decreased adhesiveness and these do not exhibit
specificity in adhesion. If skin cancer cells are mixed
with normal kidney cells, the aggregates formed
contain both kidney and skin cells mixed together. This
is why, the cell from malignant tumour can invade
normal body organs.
● Because of loss of contact and decreased adhesive-
ness, cancer cells are able to dissociate themselves
from neighbouring cells and can invade other tissues
and organs. The invasion is brought about by changes
in the plasma membrane or by proteases released by
cancer cells.
Normal cells
Controlled growth
Contact inhibition
One organized layer
Differentiated cells
Cancer cells
Uncontrolled growth
No contact inhibition
Disorganized,
multilayered
Non-differentiated cells
Abnormal nuclei
Fig. : Cancer cells differ from normal cells in the ways noted.
Types of Cancer
● Cancers can be classified on the basis of the original
tissue from where they arose. Most of the cancers fall
into one of the following categories :
1. Carcinomas—Cancers of this type arise from
epithelial tissues, such as skin or the epithelial
lining of internal organs or glands.
2. Melanomas—These are cancerous growths of
melanocytes (a type of skin cells).
3. Sarcomas—These are derived from tissues of
mesodermal origin, e.g., bone and cartilage.
4. Leukemias and lymphomas—These are tumours
of the haematopoietic cells.
Causes of Cancer
● Changes in genes are called mutations and any factor
bringing about a mutation is called a mutagen. An
agent which causes cancer is called a carcinogen.
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1123
● It is believed that development of a malignant cancer
cell involves several steps and is usually caused by
more than one factor operating over several years
rather than a single factor. More than one mutation to
the genes may occur. Upto 20% of the cancer
worldwide may be caused by viruses.
● Evidence that cancers are genetic in origin was
provided by work with retroviruses. Retroviruses are
RNA viruses which, when they invade animal cells,
use the enzyme reverse transcriptase (a viral coat
protein) to make DNA copies of the viral RNA.
● The DNA is inserted into the host DNA where it may
stay and be replicated for generations of cells.
● Some retroviruses are harmless. However, HIV is a
harmful retrovirus and other retroviruses cause cancer.
These contain a gene which alters host cell division
genes, switching them on and causing the cell to
become malignant. The genes become oncogenes.
The advantage to the virus is that the cell makes many
copies of itself and, therefore, of the virus.
● DNA viruses contain DNA as their hereditary material.
Some contain their own oncogenes which can cause
uncontrolled cell division of host cells. In humans,
papilloma viruses cause warts.
● Some papilloma viruses have been implicated in some
forms of cervical cancer, making this a sexually trans-
mitted disease. The Epstein-Barr virus may cause
one form of Burkitt’s lymphoma which is common in
Africa.
Hereditary Predisposition
● About 5% of human cancers show a strong genetic
predisposition, in other words they tend to run in
families. More than 40 types of cancer, including
cancer of breast, ovary and colon, come into this
category.
● Genes responsible may be oncogenes, or genes which
lead to failure and cannot kill cancer cells. In most
cases other factors are required, but in a few cases,
such as retinoblastoma, a single faulty gene is res-
ponsible. Retinoblastoma starts in the eye and spreads
to the brain, causing death if untreated. It is caused by
a dominant gene.
● Two breast cancer genes have been identified and
named BRCA1 and BRCA2. BRCA1 was cloned in
1994 and codes for a protein involved in transcription.
Ionising Radiation
● Ionising radiation includes X-rays, γ-rays and particles
from the decay of radioactive elements. Cancers were
caused in workers with X-rays at the beginning of the
twentieth century and factory workers painting the dials
of watches with luminous paint containing radioactive
radium and thorium.
● The radiation causes the formation of chemically active
and damaging ions inside cells which can break DNA
strands or cause mutations. The types of cancers
linked with ionising radiation include skin cancer, bone
marrow cancer, lung cancer and breast cancer.
Medical and dental X-rays also expose patients to
ionising radiation.
Ultraviolet Light Proto-oncogenes code
for a growth factor, a
● Ultraviolet light is the most common form of carcino- receptor, or a signalling
protein in a regulatory
genic radiation and is non-ionising. DNA absorbs network within the cell.
If a proto-oncogene be-
ultraviolet light and the energy is used in converting comes an oncogene,
the result is active cell
the bases into more reactive forms which react with Growth division.
factor Receptor
surrounding molecules. Sunlight contains ultraviolet
light and prolonged exposure to it can result in skin Regulatory
cancers, including melanoma which is highly malignant network
and commonly causes death through secondary brain
tumours. Depletion of the ozone layer results in a
higher proportion of ultraviolet light reaching the Signalling protein
Earth’s surface. The brown skin pigment melanin
Heredity
offers some protection.
Organic
Radon Gas chemicals
● Radon gas is a natural source of radiation released
Radiation
from certain rocks such as granite. It may accumulate
in houses in areas where these rocks are found. It has Proto-
Viruses oncogene
been linked to the development of leukaemia (blood
cancer), lung, kidney and prostate cancers, although Oncogene Tumour-suppressor
the evidence is inconclusive. gene

Chemical Mutagens
● Many chemicals are now recognised as causing
cancer. The first example was described as soot and These agents can Tumour-suppressor
bring about the genes code for a
coaltar, when chimney sweeps were discovered to activation of onco- signaling protein in a
genes and the in- regulatory network. If
develop cancer of scrotum. activation of tu- a tumour-suppressor
● Later mineral oils were also found to be carcinogenic, mour-suppressor gene is inactivated,
genes. the result is active
when shale oils were used as a lubricant in the cotton- cell division.

spinning mills. The workers developed cancers of
abdominal wall where their clothes had been splashed.
Workers in the synthetic dye industry in the late
nineteenth century developed bladder cancer.
● The list of chemical carcinogens has steadily lengthe-
ned over the last 90 years and now includes, in addition
to the above, inorganic arsenic compounds which
produce skin cancer and asbestos products which
cause lung cancer. Some food additives (flavours,
colourings and stabilisers) have been considered as
possible carcinogens because they cause cancers in
experimental animals.
● Tobacco smoke contains chemicals responsible for
lung cancer. The most important of these are poly-
cyclic hydrocarbons which are converted in the body to
carcinogens.
Cancer and Genes
● Francis Peyton Rous reported a virus, Rous Sarcoma
Virus (RSV), is capable of causing sarcoma, a type of
cancer. He was awarded Nobel prize in 1966. In the
meantime, it was clear that RSV is an RNA virus. After
the virus infects a cell, it inserts a DNA transcript of its
genome, which includes a gene known as src, into the
host chromosome. The src gene is now known to be
an oncogene. In its normal, nonmutated state, it is a
proto-oncogene, a gene that can be transformed into
an oncogene.
Fig. : Causes of cancer. Heredity and environmental
factors cause mutations of proto-oncogenes and
tumour-suppressor genes. A regulatory pathway,
which includes plasma membrane receptors for
growth factors, intracellular reactions and the
genes, is unbalanced. This leads to uncontrolled
growth and a tumour. Cancer still does not develop
unless the immune system fails to respond and
kill these abnormal cells.
● The oncogene most frequently involved in human
cancers belong to the ras gene family. An alteration of
only a single nucleotide pair is sufficient to convert a
normally functioning ras proto-oncogene to an
oncogene.
● The ras oncogene is found in about 25% of lung
cancers, 50% of colon cancers and 90% of pancreatic
cancers. The ras oncogene is associated with
leukaemias (cancer of blood-forming cells) and
lymphomas (cancer of lymphoid tissue) and both ras
oncogenes are frequently found in thyroid cancers.
● Researchers have identified a half-dozen tumour-
suppressor genes. When these genes malfunction, a
tumour results. The RB tumour-suppressor gene was
discovered by Alfred Knudson. When a child receives
only one normal RB tumour-suppressor gene and that
gene mutates, eye tumour develop in the retina by the
age of three. Loss of RB tumour-suppressor gene
through chromosomal deletion is particularly frequent
in a type of lung cancer called small cell lung
carcinoma.
● Another major tumour-suppressor gene is called p53,
agene that is more frequently mutated in human

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1124

 cancers that any other known gene. It has been found
that the p53 protein acts as a transcription factor and
as such is involved in turning on the expression of a
gene called WAFI or Cipl. The product of this gene is a
cell cycle inhibitor. A number of cell proteins combine
with the p53 protein. When a protein combines with
p53, it is hard to tell whether it is activating p53 or is
being activated by p53. This intricate situation is now
being unravelled.
Detection and Diagnosis
● Cancer diagnosis is based on the characteristic
histological features of malignant cells. Blood tests for
abnormal WBCs and bone marrow biopsy are also
used.
● Non-invasive techniques like X-rays (using injected
dyes), CT scans and MRI scans can be used to detect
cancers of internal organs like kidneys and pancreas.
● Modern techniques monitor and detect the molecular
changes that occur in cancer cells, this enables an
early diagnosis of cancer. Monoclonal antibodies
against cancer-specific antigens are coupled to
appropriate radioisotopes. These antibodies are then
used for detection of cancer.
Therapy of Cancer
● Various approaches have been adapted for the treat-
ment of cancer. Therapeutic strategies vary, depen-
ding on the etiology of each individual cancer. Some of
the common approaches include : (I) Surgery (II) Radi-
ation therapy, (III) Chemotherapy and (IV) Immu-
notherapy. The therapies can be used either singly or
in a suitable combination.
● Surgery—Surgical manipulation/excision of tumour
mass is one of the easiest approaches in the treatment
of cancer. However, surgery does not ensure that all
the cancer cells have been removed. Moreover, not all
tumours are accessible for surgical manipulation.
Surgical reduction of tumour load is also considered
advantageous prior to initiation of other therapeutic
approaches.
● Radiation therapy—This approach focuses on lethally
irradiating cells in a tumour mass. However, this
approach also causes tremendous damage to several
tissues in the vicinity of tumour mass.
● Chemotherapy—Several chemotherapeutic drugs are
used in this strategy to kill tumour cells. Some such
drugs can specifically kill tumour cells; however,
majority of them have a number of side-effects.
● Immunotherapy—One of the recent approaches of
cancer treatment involves augmentation of natural
anticancer immunological defence mechanisms. Mono-
clonal antibodies have been used in various ways,
e.g., radioimmunotherapy etc., for treatment of cancer.
Research is in progress to develop cancer vaccines.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following might (C) Mucosal membrane (C) Angionensis
cause a proto-oncogene to be- (D) Glandular tissues (D) None of these
come an oncogene ? 6. Carcinoma is a cancer of— ANSWERS
(A) Exposure of cell to radiation (A) Bone
(B) Exposure of cell to certain (B) Muscle
chemicals (C) Connective tissue ●●●
(C) Viral infection of the cell (D) Skin
(D) All the above
7. Which of the following metasta-
2. A cell is cancerous. Where might sizes through lymphatic vessel ? Just Released
you find an abnormality ? (A) Sarcoma
(A) Only in nucleus (B) Carcinoma
(B) Only in the plasma mem- (C) Both (A) and (B)
brane receptors (D) None of these
(C) Only in cytoplasmic reactions
8. Which of the following metasta-
(D) In any part of the cell con-
cerned with growth and cell sizes through blood stream ?
division (A) Sarcoma
3. A tumour-suppressor gene— (B) Carcinoma
(A) Inhibits cell division (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Opposes oncogenes (D) None of these (Multiple Choice Questions on
(C) Prevents cancers Computer Fundamental,
9. Which tumour is capsulated ?
(D) All the above Application and Advance Topics)
(A) Benign
4. Blood cancer is known as— (B) Malignant
(A) Sarcoma (C) Both (A) and (B)
Useful for Various Competitive Exams.
(B) Carcinoma (D) None of these By : Dr. Alok Kumar
(C) Leukaemia
(D) None of these 10. Malignant neoplasms which Code No. 1664 Price : Rs. 80/-
develop from mesenchyme are
5. Sarcoma is a cancer of— called— UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
(A) Connective tissue (A) Sarcoma ● E-mail : publisher@upkar.in
● Website : www.upkar.in
(B) Skin (B) Carcinoma

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1125

 15. Which of the following forms part
of complement system of blood
plasma ?
(A) Kinins
(B) Histamine
(C) Prostaglandins
1. When DNA is exchanged via 8. β-oxidation is the process, occur- (D) All the above
cytoplasmic bridges between two ring during— 16. Which of the following does not
Paramecia, the process is (A) Fatty acid oxidation pass across membranes by
called— simple diffusion ?
(B) Protein digestion
(A) Transformation (A) O2 (B) CO2
(C) Carbohydrate oxidation
(B) General transduction (C) H2O (D) H+
(D) Nucleic acid oxidation
(C) Restricted transduction 17. Waterproof nature of feathers of
(D) Conjugation 9. When a mutation is limited to the aquatic birds is due to secretion
substitution of one nucleotide of—
2. Amphiblastula stage is associated pair for another, it is called a—
with— (A) Sudorific glands
(A) Translocation (B) Preen glands
(A) Coelenterates
(B) Point mutation (C) Brunner’s glands
(B) Amphibia
(C) Sugar-phosphate deletion (D) None of these
(C) Porifera
(D) Polychaetes (D) Base inversion 18. Reticulocytes are—
3. A restriction enzyme breaks 10. In matured human females, which (A) WBCs
bonds between the— of the following is released during (B) Immature RBCs
(A) Base pairs of a DNA mole- ovulation ? (C) Blood platelets
cule (A) Primary oocyte (D) Lymphocytes
(B) Base pairs of a DNA-RNA (B) Secondary oocyte 19. Members of a biologic species
hybrid molecule (C) Oogonium are potentially able to—
(C) Sugar and phosphate com- (D) All the above (A) Phyletic evolution
ponents of a nucleic acid (B) Divergent evolution
molecule 11. In chromosomal mutation, if a
section of chromosome is lost (C) Convergent evolution
(D) Exons and introns of a DNA (D) Allopatry
during cell division, it is called—
molecule
(A) Deletion 20. Laennec’s disorder is related
4. Actinic burn is caused by exces- with—
(B) Duplication
sive exposure to— (A) Liver cirrhosis
(A) Thermal energy (C) Translocation
(B) Hepatitis
(B) Chemicals (D) Inversion
(C) Jaundice
(C) Ultraviolet sun rays 12. Describing similarity due to (D) All the above
(D) Electricity common ancestory, called—
21. The goblet cells present in the
5. The males of ants, bees and (A) Patristic intestinal lining are—
wasps are— (B) Homoplasty (A) Holocrine (B) Apocrine
(A) Haploid (B) Polyploid (C) Homostyly (C) Merocrine (D) Endocrine
(C) X/X (D) X/O (D) None of these 22. Desmin is characteristic of—
6. Which of the following is true ? (A) Cardiac muscle cells and
13. Which of the following muscles
(A) DNA is the genetic material help urinary bladder to expel fibres
in most viruses and bacteria urine forcefully ? (B) Lung tissues
(B) RNA is the genetic material (C) Liver tissues
(A) Detrusor muscle
in most viruses and bacteria
(B) Latissimus dorsi muscle (D) None of these
(C) DNA is the genetic material
in all the viruses (C) Hamstring group of muscles 23. What causes Pituitary Nanism ?
(D) RNA is the genetic material (D) None of these (A) Hyposecretion of adreno-
in all the viruses corticotrophic hormone
14. Which layer of heart wall consists
(B) Hypersecretion of adreno-
7. Replicon is related with— cardiac muscles ?
corticotrophic hormone
(A) Amino acids (A) Endocardium
(C) Hyposecretion of somato-
(B) Nucleic acid (B) Epicardium trophic hormone
(C) Blood plasma (C) Myocardium (D) Hypersecretion of somato-
(D) None of these (D) All the above trophic hormone

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1126

24. Lining of intestine and kidneys in
humans is—
(A) Keratinized
(B) Brush border
(C) Ciliated
(D) None of these
25. Irrational fear of disease is
called—
(A) Algophobia
(B) Myophobia
(C) Haematophobia
(D) Pathophobia
26. Stereocilia are non-motile proto-
plasmic projections from free sur-
faces of cells of—
(A) Ductus epididymes
(B) Ductus deferens
(C) Ductus arteriosus
(D) Both (A) and (B)
27. The posterior end of Amoeba is
called—
(A) Plasmalemma
(B) Posterior pseudopodia
(C) Uroid
(D) None of these
28. Which of the following disease in
humans is closely linked to the
dreaded Mad Cow disease ?
(A) Creutzieldt-Jacob disease
(B) Bovine Spongiform Encepha-
lopathy
(C) Transmissible Spongiform
Encephalopathy
(D) None of the above
29. The arms of a starfish will grow
again when cut off, this type of
regeneration is called—
(A) Morphollaxis
(B) Epimorphosis
(C) Autotomy
(D) None of these
30. Any reaction with ΔG negative
is—
(A) Exergonic
(B) Endergonic
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
31. Which of the following is the
function of nuclear organizers ?
(A) Synthesis of t RNA
(B) Synthesis of m RNA
(C) Regeneration of nucleoli after
nuclear division
(D) All the above
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1127
32. In humans, which brain wave (C) Both (A) and (B)
pattern disappears entirely during (D) None of these
sleep ?
40. Striations of actin and myosin
(A) Alpha waves filaments are not found in—
(B) Beta waves (A) Smooth muscles
(C) Theta waves (B) Skeletal muscles
(D) Delta waves (C) Cardiac muscles
33. Which of the following cell (D) All the above
organelles is non-membranous ? 41. Which type of tissue forms the
(A) Glyoxysomes inner lining of a blood vessel ?
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum (A) Epithelial (B) Connective
(C) Ribosomes (C) Muscle (D) None of these
(D) Lysosomes 42. Amphibians are—
(A) Homeothermic
34. Which of the following method
(B) Endothermic
determines the concentration of
protein-bound hormones in blood (C) Ectothermic
plasma ? (D) Both (B) and (C)
(A) Radio-immunoassay 43. Wharton’s duct in humans is
(B) Radiology associated with—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Genital organs
(B) Submandibular salivary
(D) None of these
gland
35. Micro-organisms that can live at (C) Renal gland
temperature below 20°C are (D) None of these
called—
44. Upper round portion of skull
(A) Mesophilic covering the brain is known as—
(B) Thermophilic (A) Crest
(C) Psychrophilic (B) Calvaria
(D) None of these (C) Olfactory capsule
36. A powerful eye irritant present in (D) None of these
smog is— 45. Which of these controls the peri-
(A) Ozone staltic movements of the intes-
(B) Nitric acid tine ?
(A) Auerbach’s plexus
(C) Peroxyacetyl nitrate
(B) Brachial plexus
(D) Sulphur dioxide
(C) Sacral plexus
37. Chromosome with median cen- (D) None of these
tromere and equal arms is
called— 46. Aldosterone causes—
(A) Acrocentric (A) Kidneys to release renin
(B) Submetacentric (B) Kidneys to absorb sodium
(C) Telocentric (C) Blood volume to increase
(D) Metacentric (D) All the above
38. Which of the following shows a 47. Cleidoic egg is characteristic of—
taxonomically close relation ? (A) Reptiles (B) Birds
(A) Sea horse, sea anaemone, (C) Insects (D) All of these
sea urchin 48. Which of the following is genetic
(B) Housefly, dragonfly, butterfly part of the sperm ?
(C) Silver fish, cuttle fish, star fish (A) Head (B) Neck
(C) Middle piece (D) Tail
(D) Earthworm, ringworm, tape-
worm 49. Osmotically inactive stored
39. The toxins produced by tetanus material in human body is—
microbes affects— (A) Protein (B) Glycogen
(A) Voluntary muscles (C) Lipid (D) Phosphogen
(B) Involuntary muscles (Continued on Page 1130)
 (C) Phenylketonuria
(D) Tay-sach disease
18. Periotic bone present in—
(A) Skull (B) Jaw
(C) Sternum (D) None of these

1. The sex of the developing foetus 9. Bursa is sac-like cavity of fibrous 19. Interferons are synthesized in
can be detected by the— tissue which contain a thick lubri- response to—
(A) Twelfth week cating fluid, called— (A) Bacterial infection
(B) Fourteen week (A) Synovial fluid (B) Viral infection
(C) Fifteen week (B) Vitreous fluid (C) Fungal infection
(D) Seventeen week (C) Spinal fluid (D) All the above

2. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics (D) None of these 20. Which of these form part of
is a genetic trait carried in the 10. Nuhn’s glands are related with— complement system of blood
bacterial— plasma ?
(A) Nose (B) Ear
(A) Intron (A) Histamine
(C) Tongue (D) Hairs
(B) Chromosome (B) Kinins
11. Which of the following technolo-
(C) Plasmid (C) Prostaglandins
gies uses radioactive glucose
(D) Centromere and isotopes of carbon to reveal (D) All of these

3. In DNA, which of the following is metabolic activity of tissues ? 21. The cartilage of nasal septum
double-ringed molecule ? (A) CAT (B) PET is—
(A) Adenine (C) MRI (D) None of these (A) Hyaline cartilage
(B) Guanine 12. Bowman’s glands are located (B) Elastic cartilage
(C) Thymine in— (C) Calcified cartilage
(D) Both (A) and (B) (A) Olfactory membrane (D) Fibrous cartilage
(B) Cardiac muscles 22. The wings of a bird and the
4. Lobo’s disease is associated
with— (C) Seminiferous tubules wings of an insect are—
(A) Skin (B) Spleen (D) Pleural membrane (A) Homologous organs
(C) Liver (D) Eyes 13. Which of the extraembryonic (B) Analogous organs
5. The feedback control mechanism membranes forms blood cells in (C) Vestigial organs
is related with— developing embryo ?
(D) Phylogenetic structures
(A) Bile secretion (A) Chorion (B) Yolk sac
(C) Allantois (D) Amnion 23. Chromosome number 2n – 1 is
(B) HCl secretion
an example of—
(C) Hormonal secretion 14. Toothless mammals are included
in— (A) Monosomy (B) Trisomy
(D) Herring-Breuer reflex
(A) Xenarthra (C) Euploidy (D) Polyploidy
6. Enterohepatic circulation is
(B) Rodentia 24. The total collection of genes, at
related with—
(C) Chiroptera any one time, in a unit of evolu-
(A) Bile acids
(D) None of these tion is called the—
(B) Bile pigments
15. Individuals affected by Kline- (A) Genotype
(C) Cholesterol
felter’s syndrome are— (B) Demotype
(D) Cholecystokinin
(A) Males (C) Multiple-allelic group
7. The force generating response of (D) Gene pool
(B) Females
muscle contraction, when muscle
shortens, is called— (C) Eunuchs 25. Linings of human intestine is—
(A) Isometric (D) Both (A) and (B) (A) Ciliated
(B) Isotonic 16. The protein present in the finger- (B) Keratinized
(C) Both (A) and (B) nail is— (C) Brush border
(D) None of the above (A) Actin (B) Myosin (D) None of these
(C) Keratin (D) Globin 26. Liquor amnii is also known as—
8. Diseases communicable from
animals to humans under natural 17. Extra-nuclear inheritance occurs (A) Amniotic fluid
conditions, are called— in— (B) Cerebrospinal fluid
(A) Zoophile (B) Zoonoses (A) Killer strain in Paramecium (C) Vitreous humour
(C) Zoophilism (D) Zoomania (B) Colour blindness (D) None of these

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1128

27. Theory of blood clotting is related 36. Which of the following bones, has (C) Pituitary gland
with— a large opening called foramen (D) None of these
(A) Fuld and Spiro theory magnum ?
47. Which of these is essential for
(B) Cascade theory (A) Occipital bone
normal excitability of cardiac
(C) Hyman theory (B) Sphenoid bone muscles ?
(D) Huxley theory (C) Palatine bone (A) Potassium ions
(D) Zygomatic bone (B) Calcium ions
28. Stripped muscles are—
(A) Syncytial 37. Zonula adherens is a kind of— (C) Magnesium ions
(B) Uninucleate (A) Desmosome (D) All the above
(B) Mesosome
(C) Binucleate 48. Myenteron is—
(C) Filament
(D) None of these (A) Muscular coat of the intestine
(D) Membrane
29. High level of which of the follow- (B) Mesentry
38. Human blood groups are an
ing is found in blood of gout (C) Alveoli of lung
example of—
patients ? (D) None of these
(A) Gradualism
(A) Urea 49. Melanin pigments give colour to
(B) Cline
(B) Uric acid (C) Gradient of diploidy which part of human brain ?
(C) Cholesterol (D) Polymorphism (A) Substantia nigra
(D) All the above (B) Substantia grisa
39. The layer of cells that secrete
30. Which immunoglobin produces enamel of teeth is— (C) Substantia gelatinosa
immunity in infants prior to birth ? (A) Dentoblast (B) Ameloblast (D) Substantia propria
(A) IgA (B) IgD (C) Odontoblast (D) Osteoblast 50. Tusks of elephant are—
(C) IgG (D) IgE 40. Milk teeth in a child of 3-4 years (A) Molar teeth
31. Skin colour in humans is do not include— (B) Canine teeth
believed to be controlled by (A) Canines (B) Incisors (C) Incisor teeth
atleast three genes. This is an (C) Premolars (D) Molars
(D) Premolar teeth
example of— 41. Aquatic larva of mosquito is
(A) Co-dominance known as—
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
(B) Epistasis (A) Floating raft (B) Imago
(C) Multiple alleles (C) Maggot (D) Wriggler
(D) Quantitative inheritance 42. Cleidoic egg is characteristic of—
32. Which of the following essential (A) Aves (B) Reptiles
amino acid is found in low quan- (C) Insects (D) All of these
tity or missing in wheat flour ? 43. The thumb of humans move
(A) Methionine (B) Tryptophan more freely than the other fingers
(C) Lysine (D) Aginine due to the presence of—
(A) Pivotal joint
33. Frequency of an allele in a iso-
lated population may change due (B) Gliding joint
to— (C) Hinge joint
(A) Genetic drift (D) Saddle joint
(B) Gene flow 44. With reference to human diet,
(C) Mutation which one of the following is an
(D) Natural selection essential fatty acid ?
34. Which of the following is super- (A) Butyric acid
ficial calf-muscle ? (B) Linoleic acid
(A) Gastronemius (C) Oleic acid
(B) Trapezius (D) Stearic acid
(C) Latissimus 45. Who introduced the term ‘phylum’
(D) Gluteus in taxonomy ?
35. Arrector pili muscle consists of— (A) Cuvier (B) Huxley
(A) Myoepithelial cells (C) John Ray (D) Aristotle
(B) Smooth fibres 46. Rathke’s pouch forms—
(C) Striated fibres (A) Pineal gland
(D) None of these (B) Thyroid gland

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1129

 ●●●
(Continued from Page 1127)
50. Growth phase prepares oogonia
or spermatozoa for first—
(A) Mitotic division
(B) Meiotic division
(C) Binary fission
(D) Multiple fission

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

●●●

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1130

 14. In mammals the female sec-
ondary sexual characters are
developed by the hormone—
(A) Relaxin
(B) Estrogens
(C) Progesterone
1. Spermatogenesis is under the 7. Which one is not a epithelial (D) Gonadotropins
regulatory influence of— tissue ?
15. Function of Bartholin’s glands in
(A) Vasopressin (A) Simple cuboidal and strati- female rabbit is—
(B) Follicle stimulating hormone fied columnar
(A) Secrete viscid fluid
(C) Luteinizing hormone (B) Bone and cartilage
(B) Help in sperm transfer
(C) Stratified squamous and
(D) Luteotrophic hormone (C) Lubricates the vaginal
simple squamous
2. The epithelium of bronchioles (D) All the above are epithelial passage
is— tissues (D) Both (A) and (C)
(A) Pseudostratified and colum- 8. Which of the following cases 16. The number of foetal membranes
nar results in foetal or serious situa- in humans is—
(B) Squamous and sensory tions ? (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) Cuboidal columnar (A) Rh – male marrying Rh– (C) 4 (D) 5
(D) Pseudostratified and sensory female
(B) Rh – male marrying Rh+ 17. Biometry is the study of—
3. Which hormone stimulates con- female (A) Forests
traction of uterine muscles ?
(C) Rh + male marrying Rh+ (B) Biomass
(A) Luteinizing hormone female (C) Characteristics of popula-
(B) Oxytocin (D) Rh + male marrying Rh– tions
(C) Prolactin female (D) All the above
(D) All of the above 9. In which of the following animals, 18. Chromosome theory of sex deter-
4. Which of the following represent the blood entering the aorta in- mination was propounded by—
the correct sequence of events completely oxygenated ? (A) Bridges
for defence by leucocytes ? (A) Crocodile (B) Chicken (B) Balbiani
(A) Inflammation, diapedesis, (C) Monkey (D) Fish (C) Goldschmidt
chemotaxis, phagocytosis,
10. Archenteron cavity is found in— (D) Mendel
digestion
(A) Blastula (B) Gastrula 19. Both olfactory receptors and
(B) Chemotaxis, inflammation,
phagocytosis, digestion, (C) Morula (D) Planula sound receptors have cilia, and
diapedesis they both—
11. In a population N = 1500, if the
(A) Are chemoreceptors
(C) Diapedesis, digestion, birth rate is 42 per year and the
death rate is 27 per year, the rate (B) Are mechanoreceptors
inflammation, phagocytosis,
chemotaxis of natural increase will be— (C) Initiate nerve impulses
(A) 42% (B) 27% (D) None of the above
(D) Inflammation, chemotaxis,
diapedesis, phagocytosis, (C) 1% (D) 0·1% 20. Lampbrush chromosomes are
digestion special type of chromosomes
12. The phenomenon of nuclear found in—
5. Formation of red blood corpus- fusion of sperm and egg is known
(A) Salivary gland cells of dipter-
cles from bone marrow is stimu- as—
ans
lated by— (A) Karyogamy
(B) Gonadal cells of reptiles
(A) Erythropoietin (B) Vitellogenesis (C) Amphibian oocytes
(B) Secretin (C) Oogenesis (D) Brain stem cells
(C) Stomatin (D) None of these
21. The opening in the vertebrate
(D) Testosterone 13. Which enzyme is responsible for skull through which the spinal
urea formation ? cord passes is—
6. Microlecithal eggs with small
amount of food reserve are found (A) Arginase (A) Foramen magnum
in— (B) Urease (B) Foramen mental
(A) Insects (B) Frog (C) Aminotransferase (C) Foramen lacerum posterius
(C) Humans (D) Fish (D) None of the above (D) Foramen incisive

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1131

22. On the basis of morphology 31. Role of vitamin C is to help in— (C) Collecting duct
twenty three chromosomes in (A) Formation of visual pigment (D) Pelvis
human beings are arranged in— (B) Growth of bones 39. Vestigial structures of man are—
(A) 5 groups (B) 6 groups (C) Treatment of pernicious (A) Wisdom teeth, appendix,
(C) 7 groups (D) 8 groups anaemia ear muscles
23. Elasmobranch is the group of (D) Wound-healing (B) Ear pinnae
fishes that includes— 32. If a man goes from sea coast to (C) Ileum and molars
(A) Bony fishes Everest peak then— (D) Fossa ovalis and canines
(B) Lung fishes (A) His breathing and heart beat
40. Complete colourblindness in
(C) Cartilaginous fishes will increase
humans is called—
(B) His breathing and heart beat
(D) All the above (A) Monochorionic
will decrease
24. The sex chromosomes in females (B) Monochromasy
(C) His respiratory rate will
are— decrease (C) Monochromatism
(A) XX (B) XY (D) His heart beat will decrease (D) None of these
(C) YY (D) XXY 33. Schwann cells are associated 41. Which one represents a connect-
with— ing link ?
25. Spongin fibres are secreted
(A) Axon (B) Dendrites (A) Whale between fishes and
from—
(C) Ciliary body (D) Stapes mammals
(A) Spongioblasts
(B) Archaeopteryx between
(B) Choanocytes 34. Blood vessels leading into
birds and mammals
Bowman’s capsule are called—
(C) Amoebocytes (C) Duckbill platypus between
(A) Renal artery
(D) Pinacocytes reptiles and mammals
(B) Renal vein
(C) Efferent atriole (D) Java ape man between
26. Vitamin C is helpful in the—
modern man and peking
(A) Formation of visual pigment (D) Afferent atriole
man
(B) Growth of bones 35. Which one of the following is
example of spinal reflexes ? 42. The exchange of materials bet-
(C) Treatment of pernicious ween blood and interstitial fluid
anaemia (A) Blinking (B) Sneezing
occurs only at the—
(C) Coughing (D) All of these
(D) Wound healing (A) Veins (B) Capillaries
36. During conduction of nerve (C) Arteries (D) Arterioles
27. Vertebrae of frog are generally
impulse—
procoelus except— 43. Wild life preservation act was
(A) Na + moves into axoplasm
(A) Eight only enacted by Indian Government
(B) Na + moves out of axoplasm in—
(B) Ninth only
(C) K+ moves into axoplasm (A) 1952 (B) 1983
(C) Eight and ninth (D) Ca ++ moves into exoplasm (C) 1972 (D) 1986
(D) Ninth and tenth
37. Placenta is— 44. Which of these enzymes is pro-
28. Secretin hormone stimulates— (A) A cord that connects the duced by infants and not by
(A) Gastric glands foetus with wall of mother’s adults ?
(B) Pancreas uterus (A) Lipase (B) Pepsinogen
(C) Gall bladder (B) A part of mother’s uterine (C) Rennin (D) Trypsin
wall through which ex-
(D) All the above 45. Physiology of blood circulation
change of materials occurs
29. Glenoid cavity is found in— between mother and foetus was first described by—
(A) Pelvic girdle (C) A part of foetus through (A) William Harvey
(B) Skull which exchange of materials (B) Carl Landsteiner
(C) Pectoral girdle takes place between foetus (C) Andreas Vesalius
and mother
(D) Radio-ulna (D) Carl Carrens
(D) Chorional villi of foetus and
30. When the intensity of light is low a part of mother’s uterine 46. Which of the following dietary
during night the light is detected wall through which materials protein is called incomplete
by— exchange between foetus protein ?
(A) Rods and mother occurs (A) Most animal proteins
(B) Cones 38. Renin is released from— (B) Most plant proteins
(C) Lens (A) Juxtaglomerular apparatus (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Both rods and cones (B) Cortical nephron (D) None of these

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1132

47. Heparin is formed by—
(A) Liver cells
(B) Kidney cells
(C) Blood cells
(D) Bone marrow
48. Digestive enzyme pepsin in the
gastric juice begins digestion of—
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Proteins
(C) Fats
(D) Nucleic acids
49. Ratitae are flightless birds which
have— ●●●
(A) Flat breastbones
(Continued from Page 1106)
(B) Weak wing muscles
(C) Strong wing muscles
(D) Both (A) and (B)
50. Non-specialized dentition is found
in—
(A) Carnivores
(B) Herbivores
(C) Omnivores
(D) All the above

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

●●●

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1133

 General Account and
Two Kingdoms Classi-
fication
(i) The living world around us con-
sists of diverse forms of plants
and animals. This extra-ordinary
diversity around us in form of
varied flowering and non-
flowering plants and enormous
types of animals, led the early
biologists to separate the orga-
nisms of the whole living world
into two Kingdoms (the highest
taxonomic rank)-the Plantae and
the Animalia.
(ii) Thus, the plantae represented
the entire Plant Kingdom, while
the animalia represented the
entire Animal Kingdom.
(iii) However, Linnaeus as early as in
1753, on the basis of absence or
presence of flowers, divided
the whole Plant Kingdom into
two sharply contrasting major
groups :
(a) Plants without flowers belong
to
Cryptogam group; and
(b) Plants bearing flowers belong
to Phanerogam group.
(iv) The cryptogams, being flower-
less and hence seedless are
further divided into—
(a) Thallophyta—Plant body is
an undifferentiated thallus.
(b) Bryophyta—Plant body
thalloid or a leafy axis
lacking roots; and
(c) Pteridophyta—Plant body
differentiated into root, stem
(b) Plants bearing closed seeds Plant Kingdom
are called Angiosperms ⏐
Cytologically, the Thallophyta are ↓ ↓
characterised by a dominant gameto- Embryophyta Thallophyta
phytic ( n) phase in the life-cycle. The (With embryo) (No embryo)
sporophytic (2n ) phase comes for a ⏐
very short duration. It is represented ↓ ↓
by the zygote only, which immediately Tracheophyta Bryophyta
goes back to the ( n) phase following (With vascular (No vascular
meiosis. There is no embryo forma- tissue) tissue)
tion.
⏐
However, the transit from Thallo- ↓ ↓
phyta to Bryophyta, then to Pterido- Spermatophyta Pteridophyta
phyta and finally to spermatophyta is (With seed) (No seed)
followed by gradual reduction of the ⏐
gametophytic phase and correspond- ↓ ↓
ing elaboration of the sporophytic
Gymnosperms Angiosperms
phase by repeated mitotic division in
(Naked seed) (Closed seed)
the zygote. It has resulted in the
formation of a multicellular embryo.
Thus, the condition in Spermatophyta Characteristic Features
is just reverse of Thallophyta i.e., (2n)
phase most dominant and the ( n) I. Thallophyta
phase very short lived. 1. The plant body shows no diffe-
rentiation into root, stem and
Coupled with the differentiation
leaves. This is called a thallus.
of sporophyte into root, stem and
2. No vascular tissue in the plant
leaves, there was development of
vascular tissue (xylem and phloem) in body.
pteridophytes, which became more 3. Asexual reproduction by mitotic
elaborate in spermatophyta. spores is common.
On the basis of above features, 4. Sexual reproduction may be iso-
Tippo (1942) divided the plant king- gamous, anisogamous or ooga-
dom as follows : mous.
Plant Kingdom
⏐
↓ ↓
Cryptogams Phanerogams
⎯→

and leaf. ↓ ↓ ↓
(v) The Phanerogams, bearing Thallophyta Bryophyta Pteridophyta Spermatophyta
flowers and hence also Phyco- Myco- n e
n n Phas
known as seed bearing plants phyta phyta e
(Spermatophyta) are divided n Phas
ytic
into—
m e toph
Ga c
hyti 2n
(a) Plants bearing naked seeds
p o rop 2n Gymno- Antho-
are called Gymnosperms; S
2n 2n phyta phyta
and

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1134

5. If present, the sex-organs are
simple and unicellular, occasio-
nally multicellular ( e.g., globule of
Chara).
6. No embryo formation after
gametic union.
7. Mostly the plants are aquatic.
Besides Bacteria and Lichens,
the Thallophyta comprises two main
sub-divisions, the Algae (Phycophyta)
and the Fungi (Mycophyta). Their
differences are given in the following
table :
Algae (Phycophyta)
(a) Presence of chlorophyll
(b) Manufacture their own food
(autotrophs)
(c) Thallus made up of true
parenchyma.
(d) Cell wall made up of
cellulose.
(e) Commonly the reserve food is
starch.
(f) Usually light loving.
(g) Gradual complexity of sexual
apparatus from simple to
higher forms.
II. Bryophyta
1. These are the simplest and most
primitive land plants, mostly
terrestrial, may be aquatic.
2. The gametophytic (n ) phase is
dominant.
3. The gametophytic plant body
may be thalloid or leafy.
4. Roots are absent and their
functions are served by rhizoids.
5. No vascular tissue (although
some sort of conducting tissues
may be present).
6. Sexual reproduction is highly
oogamous i.e. , by means of
multicellular male and female sex
organs called antheridia and
archegonia.
7. The zygote develops into embryo
(sporogonium).
8. The sporophyte is wholly or
partially dependent upon the
green gametophyte for its
nutrition.
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1135
III. Pteridophyta
1. Mostly terrestrial, may be aquatic
e.g. , Marsilea, Salvinia, Azolla
etc.
2. The sporophytic (2 n ) phase is
dominant and independent of the
gametophyte.
3. The sporophyte well differentia-
ted into root, stem and leaves
(except the order psilotales).
4. Vascular tissues present.
Fungi (Mycophyta)
(a) Absence of chlorophyll
(b) Get food from external sources
(heterotrophs)
(c) Thallus made up of false tissue
(interwoven hyphae) called
pseudoparenchyma.
(d) Cell wall made up of chitin.
(e) Commonly the reserve food is
glycogen.
(f) Usually light fearing.
(g) Gradual simplification of sexual
apparatus from lower to higher
forms.
Gymnosperms
(Gymnophyta)
(a) Commonly woody plants.
(b) Vessels and companion cells
absent from xylem and phloem
respectively (except Gnetum,
Ephedra and Welwitschia).
(c) The reproductive organs form
distinct male and female cones.
(d) The cones (= flowers) are
devoid of perianth.
(e) The megasporophylls (= car-
pels) are not differentiated into
stigma, style and ovary.
(f) Ovules are exposed on the
carpels, hence seeds are naked
(no fruit).
(g) Pollination by air only.
(h) Male gametophytes contain
prothallial cells.
(i) Female gemetophytes mainly
monosporic
(j) Male gametes motile or non-
motile.
(k) Double fertilization absent.
(l) Endosperm is haploid (n ) and
develops before fertilization.
5. Homosporous or heterosporous.
6. Sexual reproduction oogamous
i.e. , by antheridia and
archegonia.
7. The zygote develops into embryo
of the sporophyte.
8. The gametophyte is green,
independent and short lived, still
provided with rhizoids.
IV. Spermatophyta
1. These are the seed bearing spo-
rophytic plants, highly differen-
tiated into root, stem and leaves
and form the dominant terrestrial
flora of the present day.
2. Vascular tissue well developed.
3. Always heterosporous.
4. The embryo is well organized.
5. The gametophyte is non-green
and represents a highly reduced
phase of the life cycle.
The spermatophyta are further
divided into Gymnosperms (Gymno-
phyta) and Angiosperms (Antho-
phyta), which differ in the following
respects :
Angiosperms
(Anthophyta)
(a) May be woody or herbaceous.
(b) Vessels and companion cells
present in xylem and phloem
respectively.
(c) The reproductive organs form
uni or bisexual flowers.
(d) The flowers are mostly provided
with perianth.
(e) The carpels are differentiated
into stigma, style and ovary.
(f) Ovules are enclosed within the
ovary, hence seeds are closed
with the fruit.
(g) Pollination by air, water, wind
or different animals.
(h) Prothallial cells are absent
from male gametophytes.
(i) Female gametophytes, mono,
bi or tetrasporic, without arche-
gonia.
(j) Always non-motile.
(k) Double fertilization present.
(l) Endosperm triploid (3n ) and
developed after fertilization.
 The angiosperms are further divided into dicotyledons and
monocotyledons, which are as follows :
Dicotyledons
(a) Embryo with two cotyledons.
(b) Tap root system.
(c) Leaves show reticulate venation.
(exception is calophyllum
having parallel venation)
(d) Vascular bundles collateral and
open, arranged in a ring.
(e) Flowers usually pentamerous
sometimes may be tetramerous.
Remarks :
01. Sometimes the two groups of
organisms may, however, be
found together in associations for
their symbiotic or mutual benefits
e.g.,
(a) Mycorrhizae–associations of
fungi with the roots or other
underground parts of vas-
cular plant.
(b) Lichens–symbiotic associa-
tion of algae and fungi.
02. The archegonium is a common
female reproductive organ of
Bryophytes, Pteridophytes and
Gymnosperm which are collecti-
vely known as archegoniate.
03. While thallophytes and bryophy-
tes constitute the non-vascular
cryptogams, the pteridophytes
alone are known as vascular
cryptogams.
04. Likewise, bryophytes constitute
the non-vascular archegoniate,
whereas pteridophytes and
gymnosperms together form the
group called vascular archego-
niate.
05. The gymnosperms, containing
‘plants with unprotected seeds’
have rightly been called by
Goeble (1930) as the ‘phanero-
gams without ovary’.
06. Following are some of the homo-
logies between the reproductive
organs of heterosporous pterido-
phytes and gymnosperms as well
as the angiosperms :
Heterosporous Pteridophytes
and Gymnosperms
(i) Microsporophylls
(ii) Microsporangium
(iii) Microspores
(iv) Male gametophytes
(v) Megasporophylls
(vi) Megasporangium
(vii) Megaspore
(viii) Female gametophyte
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1136
Monocotyledons
(a) Embryo with only one cotyledon.
(b) Adventitious root system.
(c) Parallel as well as reticulate
(rarely)
(d) Vascular bundles collateral and
closed, scattered.
(e) Flowers trimerous.
Copeland’s (1956) Four
Kingdoms Classification
The groups of plants described
above are all cellular organisms
having a well organized cytoplasm.
However, in the scheme of classi-
fication described above, no mention
has been made about the viruses
which do not have any cytoplasm or
organized cell and are called
acellular. In view of the above, the
revised scheme of classification
stands as follows :
O rganisms
⏐ sent i.e.,
↓ ↓
Protobiota Cytobiota
(Acellular organisms (All the cellular
e.g., viruses) organisms)
The cytobiota, on the basis of
absence or presence of a well
organized (true) nucleus have been
further divided into two major
categories namely ‘prokaryotes’ and
‘eukaryotes’ respectively as detailed
below :
Cytobiota
⏐ (vi) Cells divide mitotically
↓ ↓
Prokaryotes Eukaryotes
(e.g., bacteria and (e.g., all other
cyanobacteria) plants and all
animals)
Angiosperms
Stamens
Pollen-sac
Pollen grains
Germinating pollen grains
Carpels
Nucellus of ovule
Embryosac mother cell
Embryosac
Prokaryotes
(i) Well organized nucleus ab-
sent i.e.,
(a) Nuclear membrane ab-
sent
(b) Nucleolus absent
(c) Chromatin devoid of
histone protein
(d) Spindle apparatus ab-
sent
(ii) Membrane bound cell-orga-
nelles like chloroplast, mito-
chondria, E. R. Golgi body
etc. absent
(iii) Diaminopimelic acid (an
amino acid) present in cell
wall
(iv) Flagella, if present lack 9 + 2
arrangement
(v) Ribosomes of 70s type
(vi) Cells divide amitotically
(vii) Sexual reproduction absent,
if present, it does not involve
meiosis and meiotically
produced gametes
Eukaryotes
(i) Well organized nucleus pre-
(a) Nuclear membrane
present
(b) Nucleolus present
(c) Chromatin with histone
protein
(d) Spindle apparatus pre-
sent
(ii) Membrane bound cell or-
ganelles present
(iii) Diaminopimelic acid absent
(iv) Flagella, when present
show 9 + 2 arrangement
(v) Ribosomes of 80s type
(vii) Sexual reproduction essen-
tially involves meiosis and
meiotically produced ga-
metes
The above concept led Copeland
(1956) to establish an alternate sys-
tem of classification of the ‘living
world as a whole’ into following 4
major taxonomic groups :
1. Monera : This term was
introduced by Haeckel. It in-
cludes all the prokaryotes.
2. Protista : This includes sim-
pler eukaryotes and may
be :
 (a) autotrophic protista—
e.g., All algae except the
blue green (cyanobacte-
ria)
(b) heterotrophic protista—
e.g., Fungi, Slime moulds
and Protozoa.
3. Metaphyta : It consists of
multicellular plants i.e., all the
archegoniate (bryophytes,
pteridophytes and gymno-
sperms) as well as all angio-
sperms.
4. Metazoa : It includes the
entire animal kingdom, ex-
cept protozoa.
Whittaker’s (1969) Five
Kingdoms Classification
In the system of classification
presented by Copeland, as discussed
above, a very important modification
was subsequently affected by
Whittaker in the year 1969. He sepa-
rated the whole of the fungi from rest
of the plants (Plantae) on the basis of
their heterotrophic mode of nutrition,
as compared to other plants which
largely possessed a photosynthetic
mode of nutrition. This separation of
fungi resulted in the creation of a
separate Kingdom-Fungi and there-
by leading to the establishment of the
following 5 Kingdoms in the entire
living world–
I. Monera : This kingdom includes
all the prokaryotic forms, in which
the cells are strictly devoid of a
true nucleus, plastids, mito-
chondria and other membrane
bound cell organelles. Mode of
nutrition may vary from hetero-
trophic to photosynthetic to even
chemosynthetic one. The modes
of reproduction are predominantly
vegetative or asexual. Even if
some of them show sexual
process–the act of gametic
fusion and meiosis is completely
lacking. This kingdom includes–
Cyanobacteria (Blue-green
algae), Actinomycetes and the
true bacteria (Eubacteria).
II. Protista—This kingdom consists
primarily of the unicellular but
also the colonial forms of eu-
karyotic organisms. The modes
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1137
of nutrition are either by photo-
synthesis or by ingestion. The
modes of reproduction include
both asexual and sexual.
This kingdom includes–unicellu-
lar and colonial algae, Diatoms
(Bacillariophyta) as well as slime
moulds (Myxomycetes) and
Protozoa.
III. Plantae : This kingdom consists
strictly of the multicellular eu-
karyotic plants, having predomi-
nantly a cellulosic cell wall and
photosynthetic mode of nutrition.
Mode of reproduction varies
from asexual to sexual.
However, the sexual mode of
reproduction is predominant and
more elaborate. This kingdom
includes multicellular algae
belonging to classes–
Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae,
Rhodophyceae as well as the
Bryophytes and Tracheophytes
(Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms
and Angiosperms). The tissue
differentiation varies from simple
to complex one.
IV. Fungi : This kingdom consists
basically of the multicellular
organisms, having chitinous cell-
wall and the cells absolutely
3 4
Plantae
Multicell Plants Fungi
↑ ↑
Photosynthesis Absorption
↑
Protista
2
Unicell Eukaryotes
↑
1 Monera
The Prokaryotes
↑
The First
Living Object
Whittaker’s concept of five kingdom classification and diversification
devoid of chloroplasts. Naturally,
the mode of nutrition is hetero-
trophic (absorptive). The tissue
differentiation is almost nil or
totally absent. Reproductive
modes include both a sexual as
well as sexual. This kingdom
includes—alga fungi (Phyco-
mycetes). Sac fungi (Ascomy-
cetes), Club fungi (Basidiomy-
cetes) and the imperfect fungi
(Deuteromycetes). However,
sexuality is totally lacking among
the deuteromycetes.
V. Animalia : This kingdom con-
sists of the wallless, multicellular
eukaryotic organisms. The prin-
cipal mode of nutrition is inges-
tion. The ingested food is di-
gested internally in the intestinal
cavity (holozoic nutrition). The
somatic built up shows a very
complex and advanced type of
tissue differentiation and the
predominant mode of reproduc-
tion is sexual. This kingdom
includes all the multicellular ani-
mals. The general plan of evolu-
tion and divergence of the mem-
bers of above five kingdoms,
suggested by Whittaker has been
summarized below :
5
Animalia
Multicell animals
↑
Ingestion
 OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. The cryptogams include— 9. In which of the following groups (C) Bryophytes only
(A) Thallophyta only of plants, embryo formation is (D) All of the above
(B) Bryophyta only entirely absent ?
17. The term ‘Protista’ signifies—
(C) Pteridophyta only (A) Thallophyta
(A) All protozoans
(D) All of the above (B) Bryophyta
(B) All eukaryotic unicellular
2. The group of plants included (C) Pteridophyta
algae
under ‘phycophyta’ may alter- (D) Anthophyta
(C) All slime moulds
natively be called as—
10. Which of the following is not (D) All of these
(A) Heterotrophic thallophytes included within trachaeophyta ?
(B) Non-vascular archegoniate 18. The stamen in angiosperms is
(A) Anthophyta
(C) Autotrophic thallophytes homologous to—
(B) Gymnophyta
(D) Vascular archegoniatae (A) Megasporophyll
(C) Bryophyta
3. A fully mature plant body, un- (B) Microsporangium
(D) Pteridophyta
differentiated into root, stem and (C) Microsporophyll
leaf is technically known as— 11. A pteridophyta differs from a (D) Embryosac mother cell
(A) Callus (B) Thallus bryophyte in having—
19. The microsporangium corres-
(C) Annulus (D) Herbaceous (A) An independent gameto-
ponds to which of the following
phyte
4. Which of the following groups of parts of angiosperms ?
(B) An independent sporophyte
plants produce seeds but have (A) Pollen sac
no fruits ? (C) Archegonia
(B) Male gametophyte
(A) Gymnosperms (D) Antheridia
(C) Pollen grain
(B) Bryophytes 12. Conducting tissues, other than (D) Carpel
(C) Fungi the xylem and phloem are found
in— 20. The embryophyta alongwith
(D) Pteridophytes thallophyta constitute—
(A) Algae
5. The division of the plant king- (A) Bryophyta only
(B) Fungi
dom, forming dominant terres- (B) Pteridophyta only
trial flora of the present day is— (C) Bryophytes
(C) Spermatophyta only
(A) Pteridophyta (D) None of these
(D) The entire plant kingdom
(B) Spermatophyta 13. Which one of the following is a
(C) Thallophyta prokaryote ? 21. Which of the following groups of
(D) Bryophyta plants have vascular tissue and
(A) Chlorella (B) Rivularia
reproduce asexually by spores
6. The chlorophyllous thallophytes (C) Gnetum (D) Fungi but are devoid of seeds ?
have been grouped under—
14. Which one of the following is an (A) Gymnosperms
(A) Schizophyta
acellular organism ? (B) Algae
(B) Mycophyta
(C) Phycophyta (A) Cyanobacteria (C) Bryophytes
(D) Anthophyta (B) Viruses (D) Pteridophytes

7. The chlorophyllous thallophytes (C) Bacteria 22. The chlorophyllous thallophytes

have been grouped under— (D) Ephedra are represented by—
(A) Algae (A) Fungi
15. The term ‘Monera’ was intro-
(B) Fungi duced by— (B) Algae
(C) Bryophytes (C) Mosses
(A) Theophrastus
(D) Angiosperms (D) Liverworts
(B) Weismann
8. In which of the following res- (C) Oparin 23. The symbiotic association of a
pects, the angiosperms resemble fungus with the roots of higher
(D) Haeckel
the gymnosperms ? plants is known as—
(A) Presence of ovule 16. The ‘non-vascular cryptogams’ (A) Lichens
(B) Nature of endosperm includes— (B) Nodules
(C) Presence of vessels in wood (A) Algae only (C) Mycorrhiza
(D) Mode of fertilization (B) Fungi only (D) None of these

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1138

24. Which one of the following is (B) Absence of double fertiliza- Codes :
neither a prokaryote nor an tion (a) (b) (c) (d)
eukaryote ? (C) Haploid nature of the endo- (A) 4 2 5 1
(A) Virus sperm (B) 3 2 1 5
(B) Bacteria (D) All of the above (C) 4 2 1 3
(C) Blue-green algae 32. Which of the following has the (D) 2 4 1 5
(D) Bryophytes largest gametophyte ? 37. Consider the following state-
(A) Pinus ments :
25. Which of the followings are
known as ‘phanerogams without (B) Funaria (1) Prokaryotes have well
ovary’ ? (C) Selaginella organized spindle apparatus
(D) Cycas (2) Prokaryotes have chromatin
(A) Pteridophytes
devoid of histone-proteins
(B) Gymnosperms 33. The female gametophyte of (3) Prokaryotes include bacteria
(C) Thallophytes angiosperms is represented by only
(D) Bryophytes the— (4) Diaminopimelic acid is
(A) Nucellus of the ovule present in the cell wall of
26. The plants bearing both anthe-
ridia and archegonia are said to (B) Embryosac mother cell prokaryotes.
be— (C) Embryosac Of the above statements :
(A) Autoecious (D) Germinating pollen grain (A) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(B) Heteroecious 34. Which one of the following state-
(C) Only 2 and 4 are correct
(C) Monoecious ments is correct ?
(D) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(D) Dioecious (A) Vascular cryptogams are all
heterosporous 38. Which one of the following
27. In which of the following groups nomenclatures is correct as per
of plants, the gametophytic (B) Vascular cryptogams are all
Whittaker’s 5 kingdoms classifi-
generation is dominant over the homosporous
cation ?
sporophytic one ? (C) Archegoniates are all homos- (A) Protobiota, Cytobiota,
porous Metaphyta, Metazoa and
(A) Thallophytes
(D) Spermatophytes are all Plantae
(B) Pteridophytes
heterosporous (B) Metaphyta, Plantae, Anima-
(C) Bryophytes lia, Protista and Fungi
35. Vessels and companion cells are
(D) More than one (C) Monera, Protista, Plantae,
absent in—
28. The simplest and highly reduced Fungi and Animalia
(A) All angiosperms
form of archegonium is to be (D) Monera, Protista, Cytobiota,
(B) All gymnosperms
found in— Fungi and Animalia
(C) All angiosperms including
(A) Bryophytes 39. The four kingdom classification
Gnetum, Ephedra and
(B) Gymnosperms of organism was proposed by—
Welwitschia
(A) Copeland (B) Whittaker
(C) Pteridophytes (D) All gymnosperms excluding
(C) Linnaeus (D) Hooker
(D) None of these Gnetum, Ephedra and Wel-
witschia 40. A multicellular, eukaryotic and
29. Which of the following is an non-chlorophyllous body organi-
aquatic pteridophyte ? 36. Match List-I with List -II and pick zation coupled with ingestion as
(A) Pteris up the correct choice from the the mode of nutrition is charac-
underassigned codes : teristic of—
(B) Lycopodium
List-I (A) Fungi (B) Animalia
(C) Marsilea
(a) Thallophyta (C) Protista (D) Monera
(D) Selaginella
(b) Embryophyta
30. Diaminopimelic acid is the cha- (c) Bryophyta ANSWERS
racteristic amino acid confined
(d) Tracheophyta
to—
List- II
(A) All the moneras
(1) Embryophyta excluding tra-
(B) All the protistas
cheophyta
(C) All the metaphytes (2) Bryophyta and tracheophyta
(D) All the metazoans (3) Phycophyta and mycophyta
31. Which one is a feature typical to (4) Bryophyta and pteridophyta
the gymnosperms ? (5) Pteridophyta and spermato-
(A) Pollination by air only phyta ●●●

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1139

Definition and Occurrence Disadvantages of Self-Pollination
Pollination is a process by which pollen grains of 1. Hybrids or varieties are not formed.
an anther transfer on the stigma of a gynoecium.
2. New characters are not incorporated into the genome
The phenomenon of pollination is a characteristic of offsprings.
feature of spermatophytes. It is direct in gymnosperms as
the ovules are exposed and the pollen grains are deposited 3. The seeds are of low quality, lower resistance level
directly on them. In angiosperms, pollination is indirect in and are usually prone to environmental factors.
the sense that the pollen grains are transferred on the 4. Better quality plants are not formed.
stigma instead of ovules directly.
Advantages of Cross-Pollination
Types of Pollination 1. It produces good quality seeds with a better germi-
The transference of pollen grain during pollination, nation percentage and a greater yield.
from the anther to the stigma, may be of the same flower 2. Cross-pollination may give rise to variation in the
or of a different flowers. If a stigma be pollinated by the population.
pollen of the same flower, it is called self-pollination or
3. Hybrids are created by this process.
autogamy. When the pollen of a flower located on a
different plant, pollinates the stigma of another flower, it is 4. Cross-pollination avoids the harmful effects of in-
called cross-pollination or allogamy. Allogamy is again breeding.
divided into geitonogamy and xenogamy. Geitonogamy
is the deposition of pollen on the stigma of another Disadvantages of Cross-Pollination
flower but on the same plant Xenogamy is the deposi- 1. It is fully dependent on agents.
tion of pollens on the stigma of flower on another plant 2. Wastage of pollens in huge amount takes place.
of the same species. 3. Low percentage of fertilization occurs after polli-
nation.
Self-Pollination Cross-Pollination 4. Cross-pollination cannot maintain the genomic cons-
titution of a species.
1. The pollen of a flower 1. Pollen of a flower polli-
pollinates the stigma of nates the stigma of
the same flower. another flower. Contrivances for Cross-Pollination
2. Occurs in bisexual flower. 2. Occurs in both bisexual
1. Dicliny/Unisexuality—When flowers are unisexual only
and unisexual flowers.
allogamy is possible.
3. The anther and carpel of 3. The anther and carpel
(a) Monoecism—Male and female flowers are on the
flower mature at the same mature at different time.
same plant, e.g., Cocos.
time.
4. Wastage of pollen grains 4. Wastage of pollen grains (b) Dioecism—Male and female flowers are on different
is comparatively lower. is comparatively higher. plants, e.g., Vallisnaria.

5. The rate of pollen germi- 5. The rate of pollen germi- 2. Monocliny/Bisexuality—Flowers are bisexual and some
nation is lower. nation is higher. special devices are present for preventing self pollination.
6. New genetic characters are 6. Variation is always possi- (a) Dichogamy—Flowers are bisexual but anther and
not formed; so, variation is ble. stigma mature at different times.
not possible. (i) Protandry—In these flowers stamen matures
7. Quality reduces from gene- 7. Quality gradually increases earlier than the stigma, e.g., Clerodendron.
ration to generation. from generation to gene- (ii) Protogyny—In these flowers stigma matures
ration. earlier than the stamen, e.g. , Magnolia, Michelia.
(b) Herkogamy—Flowers are bisexual but the essential
Advantages of Self-Pollination organs, i.e., stamen and stigma are arranged in such
1. This process is more easy and gives better results. a way that self-pollination becomes mechanically
impossible, e.g. , Hibiscus, Gloriosa.
2. Newly born plant bears the same genetic factors.
(c) Heterostyly—Flowers are similar except in the
3. Self-pollination is not dependent on any agents. essential organs, i.e., the androecium and gynoecium
4. Resulting seeds on germination give rise to geneti- are reciprocally different in length and are so adapted
cally similar plants. that the stamens pollinate stigmas of the same length.

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1140

 Contrivances for Self-Pollination
1. Cleistogamy—In this case the flowers never open and as a result self-pollination is carried out within the closed bud. Some
common examples of cleistogamous flowers are Commelina benghalensis, Viola, etc.
2. Homogamy—Homogamy means that the stamens and carpels of a flower mature at the same time. So there is a greater
chance of self pollination although that is not obligatory. Some homogamous flowers, however, show special mechanisms for
self-pollination. In Mirabilis jalapa, mature stamens show recoiling which brings the anther near to the stigma; so that when they
burst self-pollination is achieved. Somewhat similar adaptations are seen in Argemone mexicana.
3. Incomplete dichogamy—Some flowers place their anthers at the mouth of the corolla tube. As the stigma elongates from
below, it pushes out through these anthers which are already ripe and are pollinated in so doing. Incomplete dichogamy
is found in Ixora.
Pollen

Petal

(a) (b)

Fig. : (a-d) Incomplete dichogamy in Ixora.

4. Safety mechanism—Many flowers are normally adapted for cross-pollination. But they also have provisions for self-pollination.
In Asteraceae, the flowers are protandrous and normally adapted for cross-pollination. But when cross-pollination fails, the
stigmatic lobes curl back and catch up its own pollen which results self-pollination.

Stigma

Anthers

Filament Petal

Pappus
(a) Ovary

(b)
Fig. : (a-c) Pollination in Asteraceae.

Agents of Pollination 3. Generally the flowers are unisexual, inconspicuous,

Pollination involves the transference of pollen from
the stamen to the stigma and several external agents
are employed in pollination. The usual agents are wind,
animals and water, although the chief among them are
insects.
(A) Anemophily
When the pollinating agent is wind, it is called
anemophily or anemogamy. The wind pollinated flowers
are called anemophilous.
Characteristics of Anemophilous Flowers
1. Plants that are grown in wind-exposed regions are
generally wind pollinated, rather than those which are
confined to sheltered places.
2. The flowers occur in pendulous or catkin-type of inflo-
rescence, e.g., Coryllus avellama, Betula verrucosa
or may be of pendent type, e.g., Acalypha sanguiana,
Casuarina equisetifolia.
non-nectariferous, dull and destitute of colour.
4. The stamens are protruding with long filaments, e.g.,
Clerodendron.
5. Anthers are versatile, moving with the direction of the
wind, e.g., Poa.
What is Sulphur Shower
In Pinus pollination takes place about in March-April in
the Eastern Himalaya. Pinus pollens are yellow in colour,
winged and are carried on by wind. The amount of pollens
liberated by the pine forests at this time is prolific so that
the air gets saturated with them and there is a yellow deposit
of pollens on the forest floor. This phenomenon is known
as sulphur shower or flowers of sulphur. Naturally, most
of the pollens are wasted and only a small amount reach the
female cone for fertilization.
6. Pollen grains are light-weight, small, smooth, dry and
powdery; pollens are produced in large number
allowing for the huge wastage, e.g., Pinus .

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1141

 7. Anemophilous flowers have their stigmas long and
feathery, as in Poa, to catch up the pollen grains
floating in the air.
(B) Hydrophily
When the pollinating agent is water, it is called
hydrophily. The flowers pollinated with the help of water
are known as hydrophilous.
Hydrophily is subdivided into two categories on the
basis of the occurrence of pollination. When pollination
takes place completely underwater, it is called hypo-
hydrogamy and is found in genera like Naias, Cerato-
phyllum, etc. On the other hand, when pollination takes
place on the surface of water, it is known as epihydro-
gamy and is found in common water-weeds like Vallis-
neria, Hydrilla, Elodea, Ruppia, etc.
Characteristics of Hydrophilous Flowers
1. Plants that are grown in water are generally hydro-
philous.
2. Flowers are generally unisexual, inconspicuous, dull
and smaller in size.
3. Pollens are heavy as these are carried by water
currents.
4. Pollination occurs either underwater or on the water
surface.
(C) Zoophily
When the pollinating agent is animal, it is called
zoophily. The animal pollinated flower is known as
zoophilous.
Pollination by animals represents the highest stage in
the pollination mechanism of angiosperms. The agents
concerned primarily with zoophily are birds, bats, snails,
insects and even human beings. However, insects are the
chief pollinating agents in this regard. On the basis of the
types of agents, zoophily can be subdivided into following
categories :
(i) Ornithophily—The pollinating agent here is bird.
Ornithophily may be direct or indirect in that the birds
may visit the flowers for the ants already harboured by
the flowers, and indirectly carry out the pollination. Honey
thruses and humming birds pollinate Bignonia capreo-
lata ; honey birds pollinate Strelitzia raginae whereas
crows and mynas pollinate Bombax ceiba ; the pollinating
agent in Butea monosperma is parrot.
(ii) Chiropteriphily—Here the pollinating agent is bat.
Bats pollinate a few flowers like Bauhinia megalandra,
Eperua falcata, Anthocephalus cadamba, etc.
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. A pollen grain is— 2. If a stigma be pollinated by the
(A) First a haploid and then a pollen of the same flower, it is
diploid structure called—
(B) First a diploid and then a (A) Geitonogamy (B) Xenogamy
haploid structure (C) Allogamy
(C) A haploid structure 3. The process of transfer of
(D) A diploid structure pollens on the stigma of another
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1142
(iii) Malacophily—When pollination takes place
through slugs and snails, it is called malacophily, e.g.,
Lemna, Colocasia, Alocasia, etc.
(iv) Entomophily—When the pollinating agent is
insect, it is called entomophily. The insect pollinated
flowers are called entomophilous.
Insects are the chief and most important pollinating
agents and the majority of angiosperms are adapted to
entomophily. It is supposed to be the most advanced
method and is found mainly in advanced angiospermous
flowers.
Characteristics of Entomophilous Flowers
There are a number of ways by which a flower may
attract and induce insects to visit it. Some such instances
are as follows :
(1) Conspicuousness and colour—A flower may be
conspicuous by the bright colour of its petals or perianth.
Sometimes bracts, sepals or even stamens may become
petaloid and serve the same function. The conspicuous-
ness may be due to the individual flower or to the aggre-
gation of flowers forming such inflorescences as capitula.
It is found that certain insects prefer a particular colour.
Such as, bees seem to prefer blue flowers, butterflies
prefer red and so on.
(2) Scent—Generally flowers with scent are usually
night-blooming, and colourless or white. Sweet scent or
nauseous odour attracts insects and as a result they
pollinate the flower.
(3) Food—Flowers attract insects to offer them foods
which may be nectar, edible pollen or sap. Nectar is a
watery fluid containing about 25% sugar. Some insects like
bees, pollinate the flower, carrying the pollen adhered to
their legs or mouth parts from anthers to stigmas,
during the period of collecting nectars from flower, e.g.,
Ixora . Bees collect a large amount of pollens for eating
purposes to nourish their youngs, e.g., in Cassia
marylandica the flowers are visited by the humble
bees. Some flowers like Orchis morio secrete an edible
sap which attract insects to carry out pollination.
Some Special Floral Mechanism for Cross
Pollination
1. Piston mechanism : Sesbania (Papilionaceae)
2. Lever mechanism : Salvia (Lamiaceae)
3. Trap mechanism : Aristolochia (Aristolochiaceae)
4. Pit-fall mechanism : Arum maculatum (Araceae)
5. Clip-mechanism : Asclepias cornutii (Asclepiadaceae)
flower on another plant of the
same species, is called—
(A) Xenogamy
(B) Autogamy
(D) Autogamy (C) Geitonogamy
(D) All of the above
(Continued on Page 1152)

1. Match Column A (Different
theories) with Column B
(Scientists/discoverers) then
select the correct answer from
the options given below—
Column A
(a) Apical cell theory
(b) Histogen theory
(c) Tunica corpus theory
(d) Stomatal opening theory
Column B
1. Schmidt 2. Fujino
3. Hofmeister 4. Hanstein
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1 (A) Gibberellin to cytokinin
(B) 4 3 2 1 (B) Gibberellin to ethylene
(C) 3 4 1 2 (C) Auxin to cytokinin
(D) 4 2 3 1
2. Mechanisms that control the rate
of mitosis operate at the—
(A) Molecular level
(B) Cellular level
(C) Tissue level
(D) All of the above
3. Substrate-level phosphorylation
occurs in—
(A) EMP-pathway and ETS
(B) EMP-pahtway and Krebs
cycle
(C) Krebs cycle and ETS
(D) ETS and transition reaction
4. Which of the following is capable
of producing itself during the cell
division ?
(A) Protein molecule
(B) Fat molecule
(C) DNA molecule
(D) All of the above
5. The ‘Origin of Species’ of Darwin
was published in the year—
(A) 1859 (B) 1959
(C) 1791 (D) 1900
6. The rate of absorption of ion is
slow at high temperature. It is
due to—
(A) Enzyme inactivation
(B) Low transpiration rate
(C) Low photosynthetic rate
(D) All of the above
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1143
7. Commensalism is—
(A) When both weaker partners
are benefited
(B) When both partners are
benefited
(C) When both partners are
harmed
(D) None of the above
8. Ornithophily refers to the polli-
nation by—
(A) Wind (B) Water
(C) Insects (D) Birds
9. In tissue culture, the callus can
be induced to form shoot or root
by adjusting the ratio of—
(D) Auxin to gibberellin
10. Generally root-cap is absent in—
(A) Lithophytes
(B) Hydrophytes
(C) Mesophytes
(D) Xerophytes
11. The amount by which the water
potential is reduced as a result of
the presence of solute, is termed
as—
(A) Solute potential
(B) Pressure potential
(C) Matric potential
(D) Osmotic pressure
12. In Funaria , reduction division
occurs in—
(A) Zygotic cells
(B) Antheridial cells
(C) Spore mother cells
(D) Archegonial cells
13. A fruit dehiscing by both the
sutures and derived from mono-
carpellary ovary with marginal
placenta is—
(A) Legume (B) Berry
(C) Follicle (D) Siliqua
14. The biological definition of a
species depends on—
(A) Differences in the adapta-
tions of two groups of orga-
nisms
(B) Anatomical and develop-
mental differences between
two groups of organisms
(C) Reproductive isolation of two
groups of organisms
(D) The geographical distribu-
tion of two groups of orga-
nisms
15. The transfer of genetic material
from one cell to another by a
phage is termed—
(A) Transduction
(B) Transformation
(C) Hybridization
(D) Conjugation
16. The production of ATP by utiliz-
ing the energy released when H+
flows through an ATP synthetase
complex in mitochondria and
chloroplast is called—
(A) ETS
(B) Chemosynthesis
(C) Feedback inhibition
(D) Chemiosmotic phosphoryla-
tion
17. Which of the following levels of
organization emphasizes the
structural aspects in terms of
relation and requirements of
organisms ?
(A) Autoecological level
(B) Synecological level
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
18. Enlargement of a tissue or organ
due to an increase in the size of
its cells or fibres is termed as—
(A) Incompressibility
(B) Hypertrophy
(C) Shearing stress
(D) Cytokinesis
19. The upper cortex in heterome-
rous lichens is precisely made up
of—
(A) Plectenchyma
(B) Prosoenchyma
(C) Prosplectenchyma
(D) Parenchyma
20. Disk-shaped region of root apex
containing slowly dividing cells is
called—
(A) Quiscent centre
(B) Meristematic zone
(C) Elongation zone
(D) Tent pole
21. Crop-rotation is carried out for—
(A) Increasing soil fertility
(B) Decreasing soil fertility
(C) Increasing soil acidity
(D) All of the above
22. Which of the following is present (C) Not have chlorophyll 37. The cellular proteins called en-
at the chalazal end of embryo- (D) Not give off oxygen zymes are organic catalysts that
sac ? speed up reactions—
30. What percentage of usable radi-
(A) Egg apparatus (A) Within the cells
ant energy entering a reaction
(B) Egg cell (B) Outside the cells
site of photosynthesis is conver-
(C) Antipodal cell ted to potential energy ? (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Synergids (D) None of the above
(A) 10% (B) 20%
23. The major cause of aneuploidy (C) 35% (D) 42% 38. Which one of the following life
production is— cycles is associated with Mucor ?
(A) Mitosis and meiosis 31. In flowering plant a megaspore
(A) Heteromorphic
(B) Homologous chromosome develops into an embryo sac
(B) Isomorphic
containing—
(C) Aberrant chromosome at (C) Halontic
meiosis (A) 6 cells, one of which is an (D) Diplontic
(D) Aberrant chromosome at egg
39. Polygenic inheritance occurs
mitosis (B) 4 cells, one of which is an when—
24. Stem rot of Jute is caused by— egg (A) Many genes control many
(A) Viruses (C) 8 cells, one of which is an phenotypic traits
(B) Bacteria egg (B) A single gene controls a
(C) Fungi (D) None of the above single phenotypic trait
(D) The deficiency of cobalt and (C) Both (A) and (B)
32. Who called a cell a ‘peculiar little (D) Several separate genes con-
magnesium organism’ ? trol a single phenotypic trait
25. The transformation from a single (A) Schleiden
cell into an adult individual with 40. Which one of the following
(B) Schwann vitamins does not act as a
many different kinds of cells is
called— (C) Leeuwenhoek coenzyme ?
(A) Inheritance (D) Robert Hook (A) Tocopherol (B) Biotin
(B) Development (C) Folic acid (D) Riboflavin
33. A change in the relative abun-
(C) Adaptation 41. Ecotone is characterised by—
dance of an allele (the allelic
(D) Evolution frequency) within a population, (A) Forest ecosystem
26. Meiosis is significant because— over a succession of genera- (B) Transition zone between two
tions, is called— vegetational types
(A) It restores the original
number of chromosomes (C) Zone of transition between
(A) Macroevolution or speciation
water and land sometimes
(B) It occurs only in somatic (B) Polygenetic evolution hydroponics
cells (C) Microevolution or adaptive (D) Terrestrial ecosystem
(C) It produces identical cells evolution
(D) There is doubling of DNA 42. Diffusion of dissolved substances
(D) Coevolution
content in the cell through semipermeable mem-
34. Which one of the following plants brane is called—
27. Mendel started his experiments
does not belong to family (A) Osmosis
with pure strains of peas. A pure
papillionaceae ? (B) Active transport
strain was developed by remov-
ing all— (A) Crotolaria juncea (C) Facilitated diffusion
(A) Male plants (B) Vigna sinensis (D) Dialysis
(B) Female plants (C) Phaseolus mungo 43. Who among the following pro-
(C) Weak plants (D) Bauhinia variegata vided evidence for the synthesis
(D) A typical plants in each of a small amount of DNA during
generation 35. Which of the following factors
zygotene and pachytene in
directly influence the rate of
28. The flagellum of bacterium is Trillium ?
transpiration from the leaves of a
driven out by— flowering plant ? (A) Moses (B) Morgan
(A) ATP (C) Darlington (D) Stern
(A) Humidity
(B) Enzyme 44. Out of the widely known systems
(B) Light
(C) Protonmotive force of classification one remains less
(C) Temperature
(D) All of these phylogenetic and more natural.
(D) All of the above That is of—
29. Cyanobacteria, unlike other
types of bacteria that photosyn- 36. Chromosome appears longer (A) Bentham and Hooker
thesize, do— during— (B) Rendle
(A) Not have a cell wall (A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene (C) Hutchinson
(B) Give off oxygen (C) Diplotene (D) Pachytene (D) Engler and Prantl

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1144

45. Which is an obligate stem para-
site ?
(A) Monotropa
(B) Orobanche
(C) Cuscuta
(D) None of the above
46. All algae have pigments—
(A) Chlorophyll-a and carotenes
(B) Chlorophyll-a and chloro-
phyll-b
(C) Chlorophyll-b and carotenes
(D) Carotenes and phycobilins
47. Molecules like amino acids which
contain both an acid and a basic
part are described as—
(A) Peptide bond
(B) Amphoteric
(C) Hydrophobic interaction
.
(D) None of the above
48. For a low temperature promotion
of flowering in plants, who
among the following used the
term vernalization ?
(A) G. Melchers
(B) Nawaschin
(C) E. Strassburger
(D) T. D. Lysenko
49. A biosensor uses a biological
material like—
(A) A cell
(B) An enzyme
(C) An anitbody
(D) All of the above
50. The change involving inversion
or twisting of xylem strands from
one type of structure to another
is referred to as—
(A) Transition region
(B) Vascular strand
(C) Transitional point
(D) None of the above

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

●●●

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1145


1. In DNA the two chains of double
helix run opposite to each other.
This head to tail arrangement is
called—
(A) Antiparallelism
(B) Semiconservatism
(C) Autoconservatism
(D) Alternation
2. The cellulose of cell wall has
empirical formula—
(A) (C6H12O6)n
(B) (C4H10O5)n
(C) (C6H10O4)n
(D) None of the above
3. Speciation depends upon—
(A) Natural selection
(B) Genetic drift
(C) Mutation
(D) All of the above
4. From which of the following algae
iodine is obtained ?
(A) Chara (B) Spirogyra
(C) Laminaria (D) Polysiphonia
5. Algae are described to possess
heteroecious habit because they
bear—
(A) Prostrate and projecting sys-
tem developed to a variable
length
(B) Short and long hair
(C) Short nodal and long inter-
nodal cells
(D) Short and long lateral bran-
ches
6. Latex vessels are found in—
(A) Papaver
(B) Carica
(C) Argemone
(D) All of the above
7. The difference between NAD+
and NADP + is—
(A) Only NAD+ production requi-
res niacin in the diet
(B) One contains high-energy
phosphate bonds and the
other does not
(C) One carries electrons to ETS
and the other carries them to
synthetic reactions
(D) All of the above are correct
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1146
8. Functional enzymes inside the
cells are called—
(A) Endoenzymes
(B) Apoenzymes
(C) Exoenzymes
(D) Isoenzymes
9. Cytochromes are found in—
(A) Outer wall of mitochondria
(B) Lysosomes
(C) Matrix of mitochondria
(D) Cristae of mitochondria
10. The term ‘osmosis’ refers to the
diffusion of—
(A) Positive electric charge
(B) Glucose
(C) Water
(D) Energy
11. Fruits and milk are dried for
preservation at room tempera-
ture by the process of—
(A) Pasteurization
(B) Dehydration
(C) Vernalization
(D) All of the above
12. All eukaryotic genes contain two
kinds of base sequences, which
of the following do not play role in
protein synthesis ?
(A) Exons
(B) Introns
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
13. Desired improved varieties of
economically useful crops are
raised by—
(A) Mutation
(B) Biomagnification
(C) Natural selection
(D) Hybridization
14. Arrangement of leaves on main
stem or branches is known as—
(A) Inflorescence
(B) Phyllotaxy
(C) Phylogeny
(D) Phytogeography
15. Allopatric but not sympatric
speciation requires—
(A) Prior hybridization
(B) Reproductive isolation
(C) Spontaneous differences in
males and females
(D) Geographic isolation
16. While small to medium sized
molecules cross the plasma
membrane by simple diffusion or
through transport proteins, many
large molecules have to cross by
different technique called—
(A) Exocytosis
(B) Endocytosis
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
17. Which of the following state-
ments is the chief objection to
the ‘atmospheric pressure theory’
regarding ascent of sap ?
(A) Pressure of the free surface
at the lower end of plant is
required for the atmospheric
pressure to operate which is
not found in roots
(B) The atmospheric pressure
can raise water only upto 34
feet
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
18. Food production is most likely to
be improved in the near future by
the development of new—
(A) Pesticides
(B) Energy sources for farm
(C) Plants by genetic engineer-
ing
(D) Plant by cross-breeding
19. Genes which are confined to
differential region of Y-chromo-
some only are called—
(A) Autosomal (B) Mutant
(C) Holandric (D) Barr body
20. When the temperature of the soil
becomes zero, then—
(A) Water absorption decreases
(B) The soil will loose all capillary
water
(C) The water absorption
increases
(D) The water absorption is not
effected by temperature
21. ‘Geranium oil’ is extracted from—
(A) Cymbopogon nardus
(B) Jasminum officinale
(C) Lavandula officinalis
(D) None of the above
22. Kranz anatomy is found in—
(A) C3 plants
(B) C4 plants
(C) Succulent plants
(D) All of the above
23. Which of the following is not a
characteristic of true roots ?
(A) They do not possess root
cap over the apex
(B) They are not susceptible to
the influence of light
(C) They possess endogenous
origin and branching
(D) All of the above
24. ‘Dichasial cyme’ inflorescence is
found in—
(A) Clerodendron
(B) Hamerocallis
(C) Ranunculus
(D) All of the above
25. Which of the following classes of
fungi had for long time been
known as ‘algal-fungi’ ?
(A) Ascomycetes
(B) Phycomycetes
(C) Basidiomycetes
(D) Deuteromycetes
26. Which of the following endoplas-
mic reticulum lacks ribosomes ?
(A) Smooth endoplasmic reticu-
lum
(B) Rough endoplasmic reticu-
lum
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
27. Which of the following is a
specialized organ of sporophyte
for attachment to the gameto-
phyte ?
(A) Foot (B) Stalk
(C) Apophysis (D) Root
28. The correct name of slow viruses
is—
(A) Introns (B) Cistrons
(C) Prions (D) Exons
29. Which of the following groups of
algae produces the ‘carragee-
nin’ ?
(A) Brown algae
(B) Red algae
(C) Blue green algae
(D) Green algae
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1147
30. The crystalline form(s) of plant
globulin(s) is/are—
(A) Edestin
(B) Canavalin
(C) Amandin
(D) All of the above
31. A nucleotide consists of—
(A) A phosphate
(B) A nitrogenous base
(C) A sugar
(D) All of the above
32. A dioecious plant has—
(A) Both X- and Y-chromosomes
(B) Two X-chromosomes
(C) Both sexes in the same indi-
vidual
(D) The two sexes in separate
individuals
33. The part of prokaryotic cell where
the DNA is located is called—
(A) Plasmid
(B) Nucleosome
(C) Nucleoid
(D) Primary constriction
34. The movement of water from one
cell to another cell through the
plasmodesmata is called—
(A) Symplast pathway
(B) Apoplast pathway
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Transmembrane pathway
35. Name the weed belonging to
family compositae, which is a
burning problem in almost all the
states of India—
(A) Parthenium (B) Nicotiana
(C) Barleria (D) Barley
36. A green manure—
(A) Protects soil against erosion
and leaching
(B) Supplies organic matter
(C) Supplies additional nitrogen
(D) All of the above are correct
37. The core particle of nucleosome
is composed of how many
histones ?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
38. The continuous change of a
character within an evolving
lineage is termed as—
(A) Evolutionary trend
(B) Systematics
(C) Cladistics
(D) Physiognomy
39. According to ‘Unit membrane
model’, the thickness of the cell
membrane is about—
(A) 7·5 nm (B) 150 nm
(C) 1·0 nm (D) 2·5 nm
40. Fucus is a/an—
(A) Alga
(B) Bryophyte
(C) Pteridophyte
(D) Gymnosperm
41. Among the following microorga-
nisms, the smallest one is—
(A) Virus
(B) Toxoplasma
(C) Mycoplasma
(D) Rickettsiae
42. A plant requires potassium for—
(A) Synthesizing chlorophyll
(B) Opening and closing of
stomata
(C) Holding its cells together
(D) Synthesizing proteins
43. The membrane-bound enzyme
involved in Krebs cycle in mito-
chondrial inner membrane is—
(A) Cisaconitase
(B) Malate dehydrogenase
(C) Fumarase
(D) Succinate dehydrogenase
44. Which of the following is not an
insectivorous plant ?
(A) Orobanche
(B) Utricularia
(C) Drosera
(D) All of the above
45. The ‘trap centre’ of radiant energy
in photosystem-I is—
(A) P700 (B) P800
(C) P880 (D) Carotene
46. Which of the following statements
show(s) resemblances of Ginkgo
with the cycadales ?
(A) The embryo has two cotyle-
dons
(B) The embryo is endoscopic
(C) The germination is hypogeal
and cotyledons remain
embedded between the
endoderm tissue
(D) All of the above
47. The ferns, in which the entire
sporangium develops from a
single superficial cell of the
sporophyll is known as—
(A) Unisporangiate
(B) Leptosporangiate
 (C) Mesosporangiate
(D) Eusporangiate
48. Dry climates typically occur at—
(A) 30° latitude (B) 60° latitude
(C) 90° latitude (D) 0° latitude

49. Which of the following state-

ments is correct regarding the
origin of long shoots (rhizomes)
of Pteridium aquilinum ?
(A) They grow obliquely upwards
and then run horizontally a
little below
(B) After their origin from parent
axis they grow obliquely
upwards for some distance
and then run horizontally
(C) They arise from the parent
axis and grow in the same
direction, thus, penetrating
deep in the soil
(D) All of the above are corrects
50. One cannot age a tree by its
rings if that tree is located in—
(A) Tropical evergreen forest
(B) Temperate evergreen forest
(C) Tropical deciduous forest
(D) Temperate deciduous forest

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

●●●

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1148

 (C) Sterile soil is converted into
fertile soil
(D) Top fertile soil is protected
against the loss
13. The light-independent reactions
are the—
1. In flowering plants, the diploid 6. The crystals of CaCO3 which (A) First stage of photosynthe-
generation is called— appear like a bunch of grapes in sis
(A) Gametophyte the epidermal cells of leaves of (B) Second stage of photosyn-
(B) Sporophyte certain plants are termed as— thesis
(C) Both A and B (A) Raphides (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Embryony (B) Cystoliths (D) None of the above
2. Match column A (common (C) Sphaerophides 14. About what percentage of the
name of plant) with column B (D) Otoliths solar energy received by the
(botanical name) then select the earth is absorbed by the pig-
7. When a pollen grain matures, it ments and is utilized in photo-
correct answer from the options
contains a nonflagellated sperm synthesis ?
given below :
cells, which travel by way of
(A) 75% (B) 1%
Column A Column B pollen tube to the megagameto-
(C) 99% (D) 90%
(a) Fever nut 1. Caesalpinia phyte, which is called—
crista (A) Nucellus (B) Endosperm 15. We know of about seventy gibbe-
(b) Life plant 2. Calotropis rellins that chemically differ only
procera (C) Embryosac (D) Cotyledon slightly. The most common of
(c) Swallow 3. Bryophyllum 8. In which of the following divi- them is—
wart pinnatum sions, mushrooms are placed ? (A) GA1 (B) GA2
(d) Indian 4. Centella (A) Basidiomycota (C) GA3 (D) GA4
pennywort asiatica
(B) Ascomycota 16. The thread-like body of Nostoc
(a) (b) (c) (d) filament without mucilage sheath
(C) Zygomycota
(A) 3 1 2 4 is known as—
(D) Deuteromycota
(B) 3 1 4 2 (A) Trichome (B) Hyphae
9. The plasma membrane is follo- (C) Mycelium (D) Colony
(C) 2 1 3 4
wed by the colloidal fluid called—
(D) 1 3 2 4 17. The portions of DNA that do not
(A) Matrix
bind to m RNA are called—
3. The central dogma of molecular (B) Cytosol
biology states that— (A) Exons
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Introns
(A) Translation proceeds trans- (D) Endoplasm (C) RNA polymerase
cription
10. In plants enzymes are present (D) DNA polymerase
(B) DNA is a template only for
in— 18. Which one of the following is
DNA replication
(A) All living cells commonly called fallen star ?
(C) DNA is a template for all
(B) Leaves only (A) Pinus (B) Riccia
RNA production
(C) Flowers only (C) Nostoc (D) Spirogyra
(D) All of the above
(D) Storage organs only 19. Which of the following phase is
4. Which of the following is not known as synthesis phage ?
synthesized by DNA ? 11. The rate of storage of organic (A) G1-phase (B) G2-phase
(A) m-RNA synthesis matter in plant tissues in excess
(C) S-phase (D) M-phase
of the respiratory utilization by
(B) Another DNA synthesis 20. Which is responsible for guttation ?
plants during measurement
(C) Protein synthesis period is known as— (A) Transpiration
(D) All of the above (A) Net productivity (B) Osmosis
5. When nucellus and integuments (B) Net primary productivity (C) Photorespiration
lie more or less at right angles to (C) Secondary productivity (D) Root pressure
the funiculus, this type of ovule is (D) Gross primary productivity 21. Vegetative propagation is accom-
known as— plished by use of—
12. Soil conservation is the process
(A) Campylotropous (A) Apomictic seed
whereby—
(B) Hemitropous (A) Soil erosion is allowed (B) Layers and cutting
(C) Anatropous (B) Soil aeration system is well (C) Grafting and budding
(D) Orthotropous defined (D) All of the above

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1149

22. Fertilization in which male game- 29. Match Column A (Common (C) Amino-acyl t-RNA synthe-
tes are carried through pollen english name) with Column B tase
tube is known as— (Botanical name), then select the (D) None of the above
(A) Chalazogamy correct option as your answer
from the options given below— 34. Which of the following is used by
(B) Siphonogamy
CAM plants to carry on carbon
(C) Syngamy Column A Column B dioxide fixation at night ?
(D) Porogamy (A) RuBP carboxylase
(Common (Botanical
23. Splitting of one cell into two name) name) (B) Carboxydismutase
daughter cells serving as asexual (a) Hemp 1. Musa textilis (C) PEPCase
form of reproduction in bacteria (D) All of the above
is termed as— (b) Flax 2. Cannabis
(A) Binary fission
sativus 35. Evolution of the DNA →RNA→
(B) Transduction (c) Manila 3. Crotolaria Protein system was a milestone
hemp juncea because the protocell—
(C) Endogamy
(d) Sunhemp 4. Linum (A) Needed energy to flow
(D) All of the above
usitatissimum (B) Could now reproduce
24. Chilgoza is a fruit obtained from (C) Was a heterotrophic fermen-
a gymnosperm which is— (a) (b) (c) (d)
ter
(A) Cycas revoluta (A) 1 2 4 3
(D) All of the above
(B) Abies balasamiana (B) 1 2 3 4
36. The period of DNA synthesis
(C) Pinus gerardiana (C) 2 4 1 3 when replication occurs is ter-
(D) Pinus roxburghii
(D) 2 4 3 1 med as—
25. m-RNA synthesis in bacteria is (A) M-phase (B) S-phase
initiated at— 30. The tissue of the leaf that lies
(C) G1-phase (D) G2-phase
between the upper and lower
(A) 3' end
epidermis and between the veins 37. In eukaryotes, DNA is associa-
(B) 5' end
in dicotyledonous leaf consists of ted with—
(C) Both (A) and (B) typically thin walled parenchyma (A) Proteins
(D) None of the above is known as— (B) Carbohydrates
26. Zigzag development of inflore- (A) Ground tissue (C) Lipids
scence axis is an example of— (D) Both (B) and (C)
(B) Mesophyll
(A) Scorpoid cyme
(C) Plasmodesmata 38. Guttation occurs only through—
(B) Umbel
(D) Endodermis (A) Hydathodes (B) Lenticels
(C) Verticillaster
(C) Stomata (D) Cuticle
(D) Helicoid cyme 31. Which of the following scientists
placed gymnosperms between 39. In eukaryotes, control of gene
27. Phaseo toxin is produced by—
monocots and dicots as third expression occurs at—
(A) Red algae (A) One level only
taxon ?
(B) Brown algae (B) Two levels
(A) Englar—Prantl
(C) Phaseolus vulgaris (C) Three levels
(D) None of the above (B) Bentham—Hooker
(D) Four levels
28. Match column A (Name of fruit) (C) Hutchinson
40. The function of tracheid is—
with column B (edible part) then (D) Copeland
select the correct answer from (A) Conduction of water
32. The achene fruit develops from— (B) Mechanical support
the options given below—
(A) Monocarpellary inferior ovary (C) Both (A) and (B)
Column A Column B
(Name of fruit) (Edible parts) (B) Monocarpellary superior (D) To form abscission layer
ovary 41. Which of the following functions
(a) Rice 1. Seed
(b) Pea 2. Epicarp (C) Bicarpellary inferior ovary during reproduction in plant ?
and mesocarp (D) Bicarpellary superior ovary (A) Root
(c) Peach 3. Endosperm (B) Stem
33. The RNA which possesses the
and embryo (C) Both (A) and (B)
capacity to combine specifically
(d) Lady's finger 4. Entire fruit with only one amino acid in a (D) Flower
(a) (b) (c) (d) reaction mediated by a set of 42. Enzymes having same function
(A) 3 1 4 2 amino acid specific enzymes but different molecular configura-
(B) 3 1 2 4 called— tion are called—
(C) 2 3 1 4 (A) RNA polymerase (A) Apoenzymes
(D) 2 3 4 1 (B) DNA polymerase (B) Coenzymes

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1150

 (C) Inducible enzymes (C) On old stem from dormant
(D) Isoenzymes buds
43. A collection of simple fruits or (D) On young branches
fruitlets which develop from the 49. Lysosomes are produced by—
multicarpellary, apocarpous ovary (A) Chloroplasts
(free carpels), is known as—
(B) Ribosomes
(A) Multiple fruit
(C) Golgi apparatus
(B) Aggregate fruit
(D) Mitochondria
(C) False fruit
(D) All of the above 50. Photosynthesis in CAM plant is
minimal because of the limited
44. Under more distressing environ-
amount of—
mental conditions the aplano-
spores of algae secrete thicker (A) CO2 fixed at night
walls around them which are (B) CO2 fixed in daylight
called— (C) O2 fixed at night
(A) Hypnospores (D) O2 fixed in daylight
(B) Akinetes
(C) Planospores ANSWERS WITH HINTS
(D) Pseudospores
45. Which one of following plants
have curved hooks for disper-
sal ?
(A) Guava (B) Brinjal
(C) Martynia (D) Fig
46. Of the 36 ATP molecules that are
produced during the complete
breakdown of glucose, most are
due to the action of—
(A) Chemiosmotic phosphoryla-
tion
(B) Electron transport system
(ETS)
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Substrate-level phosphory-
lation
47. Match Column A (fruit type) with
Column B (examples) and select
the correct answer from the
options given below—
Column A Column B
(Fruit type) (Examples)
(a) Drupe 1. Brinjal
(b) Berry 2. Cucumber
(c) Pepo 3. Coconut
(d) Double 4. Acer
samara
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 3 2 1 4
48. Cauliflory is the production of
flowers—
(A) In clusters
(B) From epiphyllous buds

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1151

 5. Pollination occurs when a pollen
grain—
(A) Releases its sperm nuclei
(B) Releases its sperm nuclei
and they fertilize the egg and
polar nuclei
(C) Matures and has three nuclei
(D) Lands on stigma
6. A flower with both stamens and
carpels is said to be—
(A) Perfect
(B) Incomplete and cyclic
(C) Asexual
(D) Dioecious
7. The wind-pollinated flowers are
called—
(A) Entomophilous
(B) Anemophilous
(C) Malacophilous
(D) Hypophilous
8. Incomplete dichogamy is found
in—
(A) Ixora (B) Argemone
(C) Mirabilis (D) Viola

ANSWERS

●●●

Read
ReadUPKAR’S
UPKARS
UPKAR’S

(Through English-Hindi Medium)

●●●
(Continued from Page 1142)
4. Which of the following is/are the
advantage(s) of self-pollination ? By : Dr. B. B. Jain
(A) Newly born plants have the Code No. 1589 Rs. 110/-
same genetic factors
(B) It gives a better result UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
● E-mail : publisher@upkar.in
(C) Not dependent on any agents ● Website : www.upkar.in
(D) All of the above

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1152

 Solved Paper (C) [Cr (NH3)6] 3 +
(D) [Zn (NH3)6] 2 +
CBSE Medical Entrance Exam., 2009 (At. no. Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22,
Cr = 24)

1. Which of the following molecules 7. Which of the following does not 12. Half life period of a first-order
acts as a Lewis acid ? show optical isomerism ? reaction is 1386 second. The spe-
(A) (CH3)3 B (B) (CH3)2 O (A) [CO (en)2Cl2] + cific rate constant of the reaction
(B) [CO (NH3)3Cl3] 0 is—
(C) (CH3)3 P (D) (CH3)3 N
(C) [CO (en)Cl2(NH3)2)]+ (A) 5·0 × 10– 3 s– 1
2. Which of the following reactions is (D) [CO (en)3] 3 + (B) 0·5 × 10– 2 s– 1
an example of nucleophilic subs-
(en = ethylenediamine) (C) 0·5 × 10– 3 s– 1
titution reaction ?
(A) RX + KOH → ROH + KX 8. Which one of the following is (D) 5·0 × 10– 2 s– 1
employed as a tranquilizer ?
(B) 2RX + 2Na → R – R + 2NaX 13. Consider the following reaction :
(A) Equanil
(C) RX + H2 → RH + HX Zn CH Cl
(B) Naproxen Phenol ⎯⎯→ X ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
3 Y
(D) RX + Mg → RMgX (C) Tetracycline dust Anhydrous AlCl 3
(D) Chlorpheninamine Alkaline KMnO 4
3. From the following bond ener- ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Z,
gies : 9. Al2O3 is reduced by electrolysis
the product Z is—
H—H bond energy : 431·37 kJ at low potentials and high cur-
mol– 1 rents. If 4·0 × 104 ampere of cur- (A) Toluene
C== C bond energy : 606·10 kJ rent is passed through molten (B) Benzaldehyde
mol– 1 Al2O3 for 6 hours, what mass of (C) Benzoic acid
C—C bond energy : 336·49 kJ aluminium is produced ? (D) Benzene
mol– 1 (Assume 100% current efficiency,
At. mass of Al = 27g mol– 1) 14. Copper crystallises in a face-
C—H bond energy : 410·50 kJ centred cubic lattice with a unit
mol– 1 (A) 9·0 × 103g (B) 8·1 × 104g
cell length of 361 pm. What is the
Enthalpy for the reaction, (C) 2·4 × 105g (D) 1·3 × 104g radius of copper atom in pm ?
H H H H 10. Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl 3CHO (A) 128 (B) 157
| | | |
C== C + H – H → H—C—C—H reacts with chlorobenzene in pre- (C) 181 (D) 108
| | | | sence of sulphuric acid and pro-
duces— 15. For the reaction A + B ⎯→ Pro-
H H H H
Cl ducts, it is observed that :
will be—
| (1) on doubling the initial con-
(A) 1523·6 kJ mol– 1
(A) Cl— —C— —Cl centration of A only, the rate
(B) – 243·6 kJ mol – 1 | of reaction is also doubled
(C) – 120·0 kJ mol – 1 CH2Cl and
(D) 553·0 kJ mol– 1 Cl (2) on doubling the initial con-
4. Which one of the elements with |
centrations of both A and B,
the following outer orbital confi- there is a change by a factor
gurations may exhibit the largest of 8 in the rate of the reac-
number of oxidation states ? | tion.
(A) 3d 34s 2 (B) 3d 54s 1 (B) Cl— — C— —Cl The rate of this reaction is given
5
(C) 3d 4s 2 (D) 3d 24s 2 | by—
H
5. The ionization constant of ammo- (A) Rate = k [A]2 [B]
OH
nium hydroxide is 1·77 × 10– 5 at | (B) Rate = k [A] [B] 2
298 K. Hydrolysis constant of (C) Cl— —C— —Cl (C) Rate = k [A]2 [B] 2
ammonium chloride is— | (D) Rate = k [A] [B]
(A) 5·65 × 10– 10 Cl
16. According to MO theory which of
(B) 6·50 × 10– 12 (D) Cl— — CH— —Cl the following lists ranks the nitro-
(C) 5·65 × 10– 13 | gen species in terms of increas-
(D) 5·65 × 10– 12 CCl3 ing bond order ?
– 2–
6. Which of the following oxides is 11. Which of the following complex (A) N2 < N2 < N2
not expected to react with sodium ions is expected to absorb visible 2– –
(B) N2 < N2 < N2
hydroxide ? light ?
2– –
(A) B2O3 (B) CaO (A) [Sc (H2O)3 (NH3)3] 3 + (C) N2 < N2 < N2
– 2–
(C) SiO2 (D) BeO (B) [Ti (en)2 (NH3)2] 4 + (D) N2 < N2 < N2

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1153

17. The state of hybridization of C2, 23. In the case of alkali metals, the 30. Lithium metal crystallises in a
C3, C5 and C6 of the hydrocar- covalent character decreases in body centred cubic crystal. If the
bon, the order— length of the side of the unit cell
CH3 CH3 (A) MCl > MI > MBr > MF of lithium is 351 pm, the atomic
| | (B) MF > MCl > MBr > MI radius of the lithium will be—
CH3—C —CH==CH—CH —C ≡ CH (C) MF > MCl > MI > MBr (A) 240·8 pm (B) 151·8 pm
7 6| 5 4 3 2 1
(D) MI > MBr > MCl > MF (C) 75·5 pm (D) 300·5 pm
CH3
is in the following sequence— 24. Given : 31. The segment of DNA which acts
(1) Cu 2 + + 2e– → Cu; as the instrumental manual for
(A) sp , sp3, sp 2 and sp 3
the synthesis of the protein is—
(B) sp 3, sp 2, sp 2 and sp E0 = 0·337 V
(A) Nucleotide (B) Ribose
(C) sp , sp2, sp 2 and sp 3 (2) Cu 2 + + e– → Cu+;
(C) Gene (D) Nucleoside
(D) sp , sp2, sp 3 and sp 2 E0 = 0·153 V
32. Predict the product—
Electrode potential, E0 for the
18. Among the following which is the
strongest oxidising agent ? reaction, Cu+ + e– ⎯→ Cu, will NHCH3
(A) F2 (B) Br2 be—
(A) 0·52 V (B) 0·90 V
(C) I 2 (D) Cl2 + NaNO2+ HCl ⎯→ Product
(C) 0·30 V (D) 0·38 V
CH3
19. The equivalent conductance of 25. For the reaction,
M |
solution of a weak monobasic N2 + 3H2 ⎯→ 2NH3 (A) N—N=O
32
d [NH3]
acid is 8·0 mhos cm2 and at if = 2 × 10– 4 mol L– 1 s– 1
infinite dilution is 400 mhos cm2. dt CH3
The dissociation constant of this – d [H2]
the value of would be— |
acid is— dt (B) N—NO2
(A) 1·25 × 10– 5 (A) 3 × 10– 4 mol L– 1 s– 1
(B) 4 × 10– 4 mol L– 1 s– 1
(B) 1·25 × 10– 6 NHCH 3
(C) 6 × 10– 4 mol L– 1 s– 1 NHCH3
(C) 6·25 × 10– 4
(D) 1 × 10– 4 mol L– 1 s– 1
(D) 1·25 × 10– 4 (C) NO +
26. What is the [OH– ] in the final
20. Structure of some common poly- solution prepared by mixing 20·0
mers are given. Which one is not mL of 0·050 M HCl with 30·0 mL NO
correctly presented ? of 0·10 M Ba(OH) 2 ? OH
(A) Teflon –CF
( 2 – CF2 –)n (A) 0·10 M (B) 0·40 M |
(B) Neoprene (C) 0·0050 M (D) 0·12 M (D) N—CH3
–CH2– C == CH–CH2–CH2– 27.
2– 3–
Out of TiF6 , COF 6 , Cu2Cl2
| 2–
and NiCl4 (Z of Ti = 22, CO = 27, 33. Which of the following com-
Cl n
Cu = 29, Ni = 28) the colourless pounds will exhibit cis-trans (geo-
(C) Terylene
species are— metrical) isomerism ?
–OC–
( –COOCH2–CH2–O–)n 2– 3– (A) 2-butene (B) Butanol
(A) TiF6 and COF6
2– (C) 2-butyne (D) 2-butenol
(D) Nylon-66 (B) Cu 2Cl2 and NiCl4
2– 34. The values of ΔH and ΔS for the
–NH(CH
[ 2)6NHCO(CH2)4–CO–]2 (C) TiF6 and Cu 2Cl2
3– 2–
reaction, C(graphite) + CO2(g) →
3–
21. Oxidation numbers of P in PO4 , (D) COF6 and NiCl4 2CO (g) are 170 kJ and 170 JK– 1,
2 –
of S in SO4 and that of Cr in 28. Amongst the elements with follo- respectively. This reaction will be
2–
Cr2 O 7 are respectively— wing electronic configurations, spontaneous at—
(A) + 5, + 6 and + 6 which one of them may have the (A) 710 K (B) 910 K
(B) + 3, + 6 and + 5 highest ionization energy ? (C) 1110 K (D) 510 K
(C) + 5, + 3 and + 6 (A) Ne [3 s23p3] 35. H2COH·CH2OH on heating with
(D) – 3, + 6 and + 6 (B) Ne [3 s23p2] periodic acid gives—
22. The IUPAC name of the com- (C) Ar [3d104s 24p3] (A) 2 CO2 (B) 2 HCOOH
pound having the formula (D) Ne [3 s23p1] CHO H
CH ≡ C—CH = CH 2 is— 29. Maximum number of electrons in (C) | (D) 2 C=O
(A) 3-butene-1-yne a subshell of an atom is deter- CHO H
(B) 1-butyn-3-ene mined by the following— 36. The dissociation constants for
(C) but-1-yne-3-ene (A) 4l + 2 (B) 2l + 1 acetic acid and HCN at 25°C are
(D) 1-butene-3-yne (C) 4l – 2 (D) 2n2 1·5 × 10– 5 and 4·5 × 10– 10, res-

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1154

 pectively. The equilibrium cons- 42. The energy absorbed by each 48. Benzene reacts with CH3Cl in the
tant for the equilibrium molecule (A2) of a substance is presence of anhydrous AlCl 3 to
CN– + CH3COOH 4·4 × 10 –19 J and bond energy form—
HCN + CH3COO– per molecule is 4·0 × 10–19 J. The (A) Toluene
kinetic energy of the molecule (B) Chlorobenzene
would be—
per atom will be— (C) Benzylchloride
(A) 3·0 × 105 (B) 3·0 × 10– 5 (A) 2·0 × 10– 20 J (D) Xylene
(C) 3·0 × 10– 4 (D) 3·0 × 104 (B) 2·2 × 10– 19 J
49. Which of the following is not per-
37. Nitrobenzene can be prepared (C) 2·0 × 10– 19 J missible arrangement of electrons
from benzene by using a mixture (D) 4·0 × 10– 20 J in an atom ?
of conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4. 1
In the mixture, nitric acid acts as 43. The straight chain polymer is (A) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = –
2
a/an— formed by—
(A) Hydrolysis of (CH3)3 SiCl fol- 1
(A) Reducing agent (B) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = +
2
lowed by condensation
(B) Acid 1
polymerisation (C) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 3, s = –
(C) Base 2
(B) Hydrolysis of CH3 SiCl3 fol-
(D) Catalyst 1
lowed by condensation (D) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s = –
2
38. In the reaction polymerisation
– – (C) Hydrolysis of (CH 3)4 Si by 50. Propionic acid with Br2 | P yields
BrO3 (aq) + 5Br(aq) + 6H+
addition polymerisation a dibromo product. Its structure
→ 3Br2 (l) + 3H2O(l) would be—
(D) Hydrolysis of (CH3)2 SiCl 2
The rate of appearance of bromine followed by condensation (A) CH2Br—CHBr—COOH
(Br2) is related to rate of disapp-
polymerisation Br
earance of bromide ions as follo- |
wing— 44. The stability of + 1 oxidation state
increases in the sequence— (B) H— C —CH2COOH
d (Br2) 3 d (Br–) |
(A) =– (A) Al < Ga < In < Tl Br
dt 5 dt
(B) Tl < In < Ga < Al
d (Br2) 5 d (Br–) (C) CH2Br—CH2—CO Br
(B) =– (C) In < Tl < Ga < Al
dt 3 dt (D) Ga < In < Al < Tl Br
d (Br2) 5 d (Br–) |
(C) = 45. Consider the following reaction, (D) CH3— C —COOH
dt 3 dt PBr Alc.KOH |
d (Br2) 3 d (Br–) ethanol ⎯⎯→ 3 X ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Y
Br
(D) = (i) H2SO4 room temperature
dt 5 dt ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Z; 51. The bacterium Bacillus thuringi-
39. In which of the following mole- (ii) H2O, heat the product Z is— ensis is widely used in contem-
– –
cules/ions BF3, NO2, NH 2 and (A) CH2=CH2 porary biology as—
H2O, the central atom is sp2 (B) CH3CH2—O—CH2—CH3 (A) Indicator of water pollution
hybridized ? (C) CH3—CH2—O—SO3H (B) Insecticide
– –
(A) NO2 and NH2 (D) CH3CH2OH (C) Agent for production of dairy
–
(B) NH2 and H 2O 46. A 0·0020 m aqueous solution of products
–
(C) NO2 and H 2O an ionic compound Co(NH 3)5 (D) Source of industrial enzyme
– (NO2)Cl freezes at – 0·00732°C.
(D) BF 3 and NO2 52. Chipko movement was launched
Number of moles of ions which for the protection of—
40. Which of the following hormones 1 mol of ionic compound produ-
contains iodine ? (A) Grasslands (B) Forests
ces on being dissolved in water
(A) Insulin (C) Livestock (D) Wet lands
will be— (kf = – 1·86°C/m)
(B) Testosterone (A) 2 (B) 3 53. A health disorder that results
(C) Adrenaline (C) 4 (D) 1 from the deficiency of thyroxine
(D) Thyroxine in adults and characterised by (i)
47. What is the dominant intermole- a low metabolic rate, (ii) increase
41. 10g of hydrogen and 64g of oxy- cular force or bond that must be in body weight and (iii) tendency
gen were filled in a steel vessel overcome in converting liquid to retain water in tissues is—
and exploded. Amount of water CH3OH to a gas ?
produced in this reaction will (A) Hypothyroidism
(A) Hydrogen bonding
be— (B) Dipole-dipole interaction (B) Simple goitre
(A) 2 mol (B) 3 mol (C) Covalent bonds (C) Myxoedema
(C) 4 mol (D) 1 mol (D) London dispersion force (D) Cretinism

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1155

54. Elbow joint is an example of—
(A) Pivot joint
(B) Hinge joint
(C) Gliding joint
(D) Ball and socket joint
55. The correct sequence of plants
in a hydrosere is—
(A) Oak → Lantana → Scirpus
→ Pistia → Hydrilla →
Volvox
(B) Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia
→ Scirpus → Lantana →
Oak
(C) Pistia → Volvox → Scirpus
→ Hydrilla → Oak →
Lantana
(D) Oak → Lantana → Volvox →
Hydrilla → Pistia → Scirpus
56. Mannitol is the stored food in—
(A) Chara (B) Porphyra
(C) Fucus (D) Gracillaria
57. The epithelial tissue present on
the inner surface of bronchioles
and fallopian tubes is—
(A) Cuboidal (B) Glandular
(C) Ciliated (D) Squamous
58. Which one of the following pairs
of food components in humans
reaches the stomach totally undi-
gested ?
(A) Protein and starch
(B) Starch and fat
(C) Fat and cellulose
(D) Starch and cellulose
59. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous
component of the excretory pro-
ducts of—
(A) Man (B) Earthworm
(C) Cockroach (D) Frog
60. Which one of the following groups
of animals is bilaterally symme-
trical and triploblastic ?
(A) Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
(B) Aschelminthes (round worms)
(C) Ctenophores
(D) Sponges
61. Tiger is not a resident in which
one of the following national
park ?
(A) Ranthambhor
(B) Sunderbans
(C) Gir
(D) Jim Corbett
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1156
62. A change in the amount of yolk
and its distribution in the egg will
affect—
(A) Formation of zygote
(B) Pattern of cleavage
(C) Number of blastomeres pro-
duced
(D) Fertilization
63. When breast feeding is replaced
by less nutritive food low in pro-
teins and calories; the infants
below the age of one year are
likely to suffer from—
(A) Marasmus (B) Rickets
(C) Kwashiorkor (D) Pellagra
64. Stroma in the chloroplasts of hig-
her plant contains—
(A) Light-independent reaction
enzymes
(B) Light-dependent reaction
enzymes
(C) Ribosomes
(D) ChlorophyII
65. Which one of the following
correctly describes the location
of some body parts in the earth-
worm Pheretima ?
(A) Two pairs of accessory
glands in 16-18 segments.
(B) Four pairs of spermathecae
in 4-7 segments.
(C) One pair of ovaries attached
at intersegmental septum of
14th and 15th segments.
(D) Two pairs of testes in 10th
and 11th segments.
66. Foetal ejection reflex in human
female is induced by—
(A) Pressure exerted by amniotic
fluid
(B) Release of oxytocin from
pituitary
(C) Fully developed foetus and
placenta
(D) Differentiation of mammary
glands
67. Which one of the following has
haplontic life cycle ?
(A) Funaria (B) Polytrichum
(C) Ustilago (D) Wheat
68. Which of the following plant spe-
cies you would select for the pro-
duction of bioethanol ?
(A) Brassica (B) Zea mays
(C) Pongamia (D) Jatropha
69. Which part of human brain is con-
cerned with the regulation of body
temperature ?
(A) Medulla Oblongata
(B) Cerebellum
(C) Cerebrum
(D) Hypothalamus
70. Which one of the following is
correct pairing of a body part and
the kind of muscle tissue that
moves it ?
(A) Heart wall—Involuntary
unstriated muscle
(B) Biceps of upper arm
—Smooth muscle fibres
(C) Abdominal wall —Smooth
muscle
(D) Iris—Involuntary smooth
muscle
71. In the case of peppered moth
(Biston betularia ) the black-
coloured form became dominant
over the light coloured form in
England during industrial revo-
lution. This is an example of—
(A) Natural selection whereby
the darker forms were
selected
(B) Appearance of the darker
coloured individuals due to
very poor sunlight
(C) Protective mimicry
(D) Inheritance of darker colour
character acquired due to
the darker environment
72. Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs
in—
(A) Chromatium
(B) Oscillatoria
(C) Rhodospirillum
(D) Chlorobium
73. The genetic defect-adenosine
deaminase (ADA) deficiency may
be cured permanently by—
(A) Periodic infusion of geneti-
cally engineered lympho-
cytes having functional ADA
c DNA
(B) Administering adenosine de-
aminase activators
(C) Introducing bone marrow
cells producing ADA into
cells at early embryonic
stages
(D) Enzyme replacement the-
rapy
74. The annular and spirally thick-
ened conducting elements gene-
rally develop in the protoxylem
when the root or stem is—
(A) Maturing
(B) Elongating
(C) Widening
(D) Differentiating
75. In barley stem vascular bundles
are—
(A) Open and scattered
(B) Closed and scattered
(C) Open and in a ring
(D) Closed and radial
76. Sickle cell anemia is—
(A) An autosomal linked domi-
nant trait
(B) Caused by substitution of
valine by glutamic acid in
the beta globin chain of
haemoglobin
(C) Caused by a change in a
single base pair of DNA
(D) Characterized by elongated
sickle like RBCs with a
nucleus
77. If a live earthworm is pricked with
a needle on its outer surface with-
out damaging its gut, the fluid
that comes out is—
(A) Excretory fluid
(B) Coelomic fluid
(C) Haemolymph
(D) Slimy mucus
78. There is no DNA in—
(A) An enucleated ovum
(B) Mature RBCs
(C) A mature spermatozoan
(D) Hair root
79. Point mutation involves—
(A) Insertion
(B) Change in single base pair
(C) Duplication
(D) Deletion
80. Which one of the following has
maximum genetic diversity in
India ?
(A) Teak (B) Mango
(C) Wheat (D) Tea
81. In a standard ECG which one of
the following alphabets is the
correct representation of the
respective activity of the human
heart ?
(A) R-repolarisation of ventricles
(B) S-start of systole
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1157
(C) T-end of diastole
(D) P-depolarisation of the atria
82. Study the pedigree chart given
below—
What does it show ?
(A) Inheritance of a sex-linked
inborn error of metabolism
like phenylketonuria
(B) Inheritance of a condition like
phenylketonuria as an auto-
somal recessive trait
(C) The pedigree chart is wrong
as this is not possible
(D) Inheritance of a recessive
sex-linked disease like
haemophilia
83. Middle lamella is composed
mainly of—
(A) Hemicellulose
(B) Muramic acid
(C) Calcium pectate
(D) Phosphoglycerides
84. Somaclones are obtained by—
(A) Tissue culture
(B) Plant breeding
(C) Irradiation
(D) Genetic engineering
85. Which one of the following plants
is monoecious ?
(A) Marchantia (B) Pinus
(C) Cycas (D) Papaya
86. Which one of the following is the
correct matching of three items
and their grouping category ?
Items Group
(A) Malleus, incus, cochlea
—Ear ossicles
(B) Ilium, ischium, pubis
—Coxal bones of pelvic girdle
(C) Actin, myosin, rhodopsin
—Muscle proteins
(D) Cytosine, uracil, thiamine
—Pyrimidines
87. Plasmodesmata are—
(A) Lignified cemented layers
between cells
(B) Locomotary structures
(C) Membranes connecting the
nucleus with plasmalemma
(D) Connections between adja-
cent cells
88. Which of the following is a pair of
viral diseases ?
(A) Ringworm, AIDS
(B) Common Cold, AIDS
(C) Dysentery, Common Cold
(D) Typhoid, Tuberculosis
89. Aerobic respiratory pathway is
appropriately termed—
(A) Catabolic (B) Parabolic
(C) Amphibolic (D) Anabolic
90. Which of the following is not used
as a biopesticide ?
(A) Bacillus thuringiensis
(B) Trichoderma harzianum
(C) Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus
(NPV)
(D) Xanthomonas campestris
91. Alzhimer disease in humans is
associated with the deficiency
of—
(A) Dopamine
(B) Glutamic acid
(C) Acetylcholine
(D) Gamma aminobutyric acid
(GABA)
92. Cytoskeleton is made up of—
(A) Calcium carbonate granules
(B) Callose deposits
(C) Cellulosic microfibrils
(D) Proteinaceous filaments
93. Compared to blood our lymph
has—
(A) No plasma
(B) Plasma without proteins
(C) More WBCs and no RBCs
(D) More RBCs and less WBCs
94. Which one of the following is the
most likely root cause why men-
struation is not taking place in
regularly cycling human female ?
(A) Fertilisation of the ovum
(B) Maintenance of the hyper-
trophical endometrial lining
(C) Maintenance of high concen-
tration of sex-hormones in
the bloodstream
(D) Retention of well-developed
corpus luteum
95. Given below is a schematic break-
up of the phases/stages of cell
cycle—
Which one of the following is the
correct indication of the stage/
phase in the cell cycle ?
(A) B-Metaphase
(B) C-Karyokinesis
(C) D-Synthetic phase
(D) A-Cytokinesis
96. The floral formula ⊕ O
→
+ K (5) C A
(5) 5
G(2) is that of—
(A) Tulip (B) Soybean
(C) Sunnhemp (D) Tobacco
97. The most popularly known blood
grouping is the ABO grouping. It
is named ABO and not ABC, be-
cause ‘O’ in it refers to having—
(A) Other antigens besides A
and B on RBCs
(B) Overdominance of this type
on the genes for A and B
types
(C) One antibody only-either
anti-A or anti-B on the RBCs
(D) No antigens A and B on
RBCs
98. Which one of the following state- 104. Seminal plasma in humans is rich
ments is true regarding digestion
and absorption of food in
humans ?
(A) Oxyntic cells in our stomach
secrete the proenzyme
pepsinogen.
(B) Fructose and amino acids
are absorbed through intesti-
nal mucosa with the help of
carrier ions like Na+.
(C) Chylomicrons are small 105. Phylogenetic system of classifi-
lipoprotein particles that are
transported from intestine
into blood capillaries.
(D) About 60% of starch is
hydrolysed by salivary
amylase in our mouth.
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1158
99. Anatomically fairly old dicotyle- 106. Synapsis occurs between—
donous root is distinguished from
the dicotyledonous stem by—
(A) Absence of secondary xylem
(B) Absence of secondary
phloem
(C) Presence of cortex
(D) Position of protoxylem
100. Manganese is required in—
(A) Nucleic acid synthesis
(B) Plant cell wall formation
(C) Photolysis of water during
photosynthesis
(D) Chlorophyll synthesis
101. Which one of the following is com- 108. Select the incorrect statement
monly used in transfer of foreign
DNA into crop plants ?
(A) Trichoderma harzianum
(B) Meloidogyne incognita
(C) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(D) Penicillium expansum
102. Removal of introns and joining
the exons in a defined order in a
transcription unit is called—
(A) Splicing
(B) Tailing
(C) Transformation
(D) Capping
103. Whose experiments cracked the
DNA and discovered unequivo-
cally that a genetic code is a
‘triplet’ ?
(A) Nirenberg and Mathaei
(B) Hershey and Chase
(C) Morgan and Sturtevant
(D) Beadle and Tatum
in—
(A) Fructose, calcium and certain
enzymes
(B) Fructose and calcium but
has no enzymes
(C) Glucose and certain enzy-
mes but has no calcium
(D) Fructose and certain enzy-
mes but poor in calcium
cation is based on—
(A) Evolutionary relationships
(B) Morphological features
(C) Chemical constituents
(D) Floral characters
(A) A male and a female gamete
(B) mRNA and ribosomes
(C) Spindle fibres and centro-
mere
(D) Two homologous chromo-
somes
107. Which one of the following pairs
of animals comprises ‘jawless
fishes’ ?
(A) Lampreys and eels
(B) Mackerals and Rohu
(C) Lampreys and hag fishes
(D) Guppies and hag fishes
from the following—
(A) Linkage is a exception to the
principle of independent
assortment in heredity
(B) Galactosemia is an inborn
error of metabolism
(C) Small population size results
in random genetic drift in a
population
(D) Baldness is a sex-limited
trait
109. The cell junctions called tight,
adhering and gap junctions are
found in—
(A) Muscular tissue
(B) Connective tissue
(C) Epithelial tissue
(D) Neural tissue
110. Which one of the following types
of organisms occupy more than
one trophic level in a pond eco-
system ?
(A) Phytoplankton (B) Fish
(C) Zooplankton (D) Frog
111. Use of anti-histamines and ste-
roids give a quick relief from—
(A) Allergy (B) Nausea
(C) Cough (D) Headache
112. Which one is the wrong pairing
for the disease and its causal
organism ?
(A) Late blight of potato
—Alternaria solani
(B) Black rust of wheat
—Puccinia graminis
(C) Loose smut of wheat
—Ustilago nuda
(D) Root-knot of vegetables
— Meloidogyne sp
113. Given below is a diagrammatic
sketch of a portion of human male
reproductive system. Select the
correct set of the names of the
parts labelled 1, 2, 3, 4—
(1) ureter, prostate, seminal
vesicle, bulbourethral gland.
(2) vas deferens, seminal
vesicle, prostate, bulbouret-
hral gland.
(3) vas deferens, seminal
vesicle, bulbourethral gland,
prostate.
(4) ureter, seminal vesicle,
prostate, bulbourethral gland.
(A) (1) (B) (2)
(C) (3) (D) (4)
114. Vegetative propagation in mint
occurs by—
(A) Runner (B) Offset
(C) Rhizome (D) Sucker
115. What will happen if the stretch
receptors of the urinary bladder
wall are totally removed ?
(A) Urine will not collect in the
bladder
(B) Micturition will continue
(C) Urine will continue to collect 119. What is true about Bt toxin ?
normally in the bladder
(D) There will be no micturition
116. One of the synthetic auxin is—
(A) NAA (B) IAA
(C) GA (D) IBA
117. A country with a high rate of
population growth took measures
to reduce it. The figure below
shows age-sex pyramids of popu-
lations A and B twently years
apart. Select the correct inter- 120. The kind of tissue that forms the
pretation about them—
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1159
Interpretations—
(A) ‘A’ is more recent and shows
slight reduction in the growth
rate.
(B) ‘B’ is earlier pyramid and
shows stabilised growth rate.
(C) ‘B’ is more recent showing
that population is very young.
(D) ‘A’ is the earlier pyramid and
no change has occurred in
the growth rate.
118. The correct sequence of sper-
matogenetic stages leading to
the formation of sperms in a
mature human testis is—
(A) Spermatocyte—spermatogo-
nia—spermatid—sperms 124. Montreal Protocol aims at—
(B) Spermatogonia—spermato-
cyte—spermatid—sperms
(C) Spermatid—spermatocyte—
spermatogonia—sperms
(D) Spermatogonia—spermatid-
spermatocyte—sperms
125. Which one of the following acids
(A) The inactive protoxin gets
converted into active form in
the insect gut.
(B) Bt protein exists as active
toxin in the Bacillus.
(C) The activated toxin enters
the ovaries of the pest to
126. Guard cells help in—
sterilise it and thus prevent
its multiplication.
(D) The concerned Bacillus has
antitoxins.
supportive structure in our pinna
(external ears) is also found in— 127. Palisade parenchyma is absent
(A) Vertebrae
(B) Nails
(C) Ear ossicles
(D) Tip of the nose 128. Cotyledons and testa respecti-
121. DDT residues are rapidly passed
through food chain causing bio-
magnification because DDT is—
(A) Lipo soluble
(B) Moderately toxic
(C) Non-toxic to aquatic animals
(D) Water soluble
122. Which one of the following is a
vascular cryptogam ?
(A) Equisetum (B) Ginkgo
(C) Marchantia (D) Cedrus
123. Steps taken by the Government
of India to control air pollution
include—
(A) Compulsory mixing of 20%
ethyl alcohol with petrol and
20% biodiesel with diesel.
(B) Compulsory PUC (Pollution
Under Control) certification of
petrol driven vehicles which
tests for carbon monoxide
and hydrocarbons.
(C) Permission to use only pure
diesel with a maximum of
500 ppm sulphur as fuel for
vehicles.
(D) Use of non-polluting Com-
pressed Natural Gas (CNG)
only as fuel by all buses and
trucks.
(A) Reduction of ozone deplet-
ing substances
(B) Biodiversity conservation
(C) Control of water pollution
(D) Control of CO2 emission
is a derivative of carotenoids ?
(A) Indole butyric acid
(B) Indole-3-acetic acid
(C) Gibberellic acid
(D) Abscisic acid
(A) Protection against grazing
(B) Transpiration
(C) Guttation
(D) Fighting against infection
in leaves of—
(A) Sorghum (B) Mustard
(C) Soybean (D) Gram
vely are edible parts in—
(A) Groundnut and pomegranate
(B) Walnut and tamarind
(C) French bean and coconut
(D) Cashew nut and litchi
129. Which one of the following is con-
sidered important in the develop-
ment of seed habit ?
(A) Dependent sporophyte
(B) Heterospory
(C) Haplontic life cycle
(D) Free-living gametophyte
130. T.O. Diener discovered a—
(A) Free infectious RNA 136.
(B) Free infectious DNA
(C) Infectious protein
(D) Bacteriophage
131. Polyethylene glycol method is
used for—
(A) Gene transfer without a 137.
vector
(B) Biodiesel production
(C) Seedless fruit production
(D) Energy production from
sewage
132. Which one of the following pairs
is wrongly matched ?
(A) Detergents—lipase
(B) Alcohol—nitrogenase
(C) Fruit juice—pectinase 138.
(D) Textile—amylase
133. A person likely to develop teta-
nus is immunised by adminis-
tering— 139.
(A) Dead germs
(B) Preformed antibodies
(C) Wide spectrum antibiotics
(D) Weakened germs
140.
134. Biochemical Oxygen Demand
(BOD) in a river water—
(A) Remains unchanged when
algal bloom occurs.
(B) Has no relationship with con-
centration of oxygen in the
water 141.
(C) Gives a measure of salmo-
nella in the water
(D) Increases when sewage gets
mixed with river water.
135. Which one of the following is the
correct matching of the events
occurring during menstrual
cycle ?
(A) Ovulation
—LH and FSH attain peak
level and sharp fall in the
secretion of progesterone.
(B) Proliferative phase 142. A fruit developed
— Rapid regeneration of
myometrium and maturation
of Graafian follicle.
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1160
(C) Development of corpus 143. Which one of the following state-
luteum
—Secretory phase and incre-
ased secretion of proges-
terone
(D) Menstruation
—Breakdown of myometrium
and ovum not fertilised
Cyclic photophosphorylation re-
sults in the formation of—
(A) NADPH
(B) ATP and NADPH
(C) ATP, NADPH and O2
(D) ATP
Globulins contained in human
blood plasma are primarily invo-
lved in—
(A) Defence mechanisms of
body
(B) Osmotic balance of body
fluids
(C) Oxygen transport in the blood
(D) Clotting of blood
Which of the following is a symbi-
otic nitrogen fixer ?
(A) Glomus (B) Azotobacter
(C) Frankia (D) Azolla
An example of axile placentation
is—
(A) Argemone (B) Dianthus
(C) Lemon (D) Marigold
Semiconservative replication of
DNA was first demonstrated in—
(A) Drosophila melanogaster
(B) Escherichia coli
(C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(D) Salmonella typhimurium
A young infant may be feeding
entirely on mother’s milk which is
white in colour but the stools
which the infant passes out is
quite yellowish. What is this
yellow colour due to ? 148. An example of a seed with endo-
(A) Intestinal juice
(B) Bile pigments passed thro-
ugh bile juice
(C) Undigested milk protein
casein 149. What is not true for genetic
(D) Pancreatic juice poured into
duodenum
from hypantho-
dium inflorescence is called—
(A) Hesperidium (B) Sorosis
(C) Syconus (D) Caryopsis
ments is correct ?
(A) Patients who have under-
gone surgery are given
cannabinoids to relieve pain.
(B) Benign tumours show the
property of metastasis.
(C) Heroin accelerates body fun-
ctions
(D) Malignant tumours may ex-
hibit metastasis
144. Transgenic plants are the ones—
(A) Produced by a somatic em-
bryo in artificial medium
(B) Generated by introducing
foreign DNA in to a cell and
regenerating a plant from
that cell.
(C) Produced after protoplast
fusion in artificial medium.
(D) Grown in artificial medium
after hybridization in the
field.
145. The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers
to—
(A) Thyroid (B) Thalamus
(C) Tonsil (D) Thymus
146. Global agreement in specific
control strategies to reduce the
release of ozone depleting subs-
tances, was adopted by—
(A) Rio de Janeiro Conference
(B) The Montreal Protocol
(C) The Koyoto Protocol
(D) The Vienna Convention
147. Reduction in vascular tissue,
mechanical tissue and cuticle is
characteristic of—
(A) Xerophytes
(B) Mesophytes
(C) Epiphytes
(D) Hydrophytes
sperm, perisperm and caruncle
is—
(A) Cotton (B) Coffee
(C) Lily (D) Castor
code ?
(A) A codon in m RNA is read in
a non-contiguous fashion
(B) It is nearly universal
(C) It is degenerate
(D) It is unambiguous
150. Peripatus is a connnecting link
between—
(A) Ctenophora and Platyhel-
minthis
(B) Mollusca and Echinoder-
mata
(C) Annnelida and Arthropoda
(D) Coelenterata and Porifera
151. An explosion blows a rock into
three parts. Two parts go off at
right angles to each other. These
two are, 1 kg first part moving
with a velocity of 12 ms–1 and 2 157. Under the influence of a uniform
kg second part moving with a
velocity of 8 ms–1. If the third part
flies off with a velocity of 4 ms– 1,
its mass would be—
(A) 5 kg (B) 7 kg
(C) 17 kg (D) 3 kg
152. A conducting circular loop is
placed in a uniform magnetic
field 0·04 T with its plane
perpendicular to the magnetic
field. The radius of the loop starts 158. A wave in a string has an
shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced
emf in the loop when the radius
is 2 cm is—
(A) 3·2 π μ V (B) 4·8 π μ V
(C) 0·8 π μ V (D) 1·6 π μ V
153. If the dimensions of a physical
quantity are given by MaLbTc,
then the physical quantity will
be—
(A) Pressure if
a = 1, b = – 1, c = – 2
(B) Velocity if
a = 1, b = 0, c = – 1
(C) Acceleration if
a = 1, b = 1, c = – 2
(D) Force if
a = 0, b = – 1, c = – 2
154. In the nuclear decay given
below :
A A A–4 A–4
Z X → Z+1 Y → Z–1 B* → Z–1 B,
the particles emitted in the sequ-
ence are—
(A) β, α, γ (B) γ, β, α
(C) β, γ, α (D) α, β, γ
155. Three concentric spherical shells
have radii a, b and c (a < b < c )
and have surface charge densi-
ties σ, – σ and σ respectively. If
VA , V B and VC denote the poten-
tials of the three shells, then, for
c = a + b, we have—
(A) VC = VA ≠ VB
(B) VC = VB ≠ VA
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1161
(C) VC ≠ VB ≠ VA 161. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown
(D) VC = VB = VA upwards with a velocity 20 m/s. It
momentarily comes to rest after
156. A bus is moving with a speed of attaining a height of 18m. How
10 ms – 1 on a straight road. A
much energy is lost due to air
scooterist wishes to overtake the friction ? (g = 10 m/s2)
bus in 100s. If the bus is at a (A) 20 J (B) 30 J
distance of 1 km from the scoo-
(C) 40 J (D) 10 J
terist, with what speed should the
scooterist chase the bus ? 162. The symbolic representation of
(A) 20 ms –1 (B) 40 ms –1 four logic gates are given below :
–1 –1 (i)
(C) 25 ms (D) 10 ms
(ii)
magnetic field, a charged particle
moves with constant speed v in a (iii)
circle of radius R. The time
period of rotation of the particle— (iv)
(A) Depends on v and not on R The logic symbols for OR, NOT
and NAND gates are respecti-
(B) Depends on R and not on v
vely—
(C) Is independent of both V and
(A) (iii), (iv), (ii) (B) (iv), (i), (iii)
R
(C) (iv), (ii), (i) (D) (i), (iii), (Iv)
(D) Depends on both v and R
163. A particle is displaced from posi-
^ ^
tion 3 i + 2 j metre to another
amplitude of 2 cm. The wave ^ ^
travels in the + ve direction of x position 14 i + 13 j metre by
axis with a speed of 128 m/sec ^ ^
applying a force 4 i + j newton.
and it is noted that 5 complete Work done by the force will be—
waves fit in 4 m length of the (A) 110 J (B) 55 J
string. The equation describing (C) 27·5 J (D) None of these
the wave is—
164. If a diamagnetic substance is
(A) y = (0·02)m sin (7·85x brought near the north or the
+ 1005t) south pole of a bar magnet, it is—
(B) y = (0·02)m sin (15·7x (A) Repelled by both the poles
– 2010 t) (B) Repelled by the north pole
and attracted by the south
(C) y = (0·02)m sin (15·7x pole
+ 2010t) (C) Attracted by the north pole
(D) y = (0·02)m sin (7·85x and repelled by the south
pole
– 1005 t)
(D) Attracted by both the poles
159. A simple pendulum performs
165. The mass of a lift is 2000 kg.
simple harmonic motion about
When the tension in the sup-
x = 0 with an amplitude a and
time period T. The speed of the
porting cable is 28000 N, then its
a acceleration is—
pendulum at x = will be— (A) 30 ms – 2 downwards
2
(B) 4 ms– 2 upwards
πa 3 πa
(A) (B) (C) 4 ms– 2 downwards
2T T (D) 14 ms – 2 upwards
3π 2 a π a 3
(C) (D) 166. The number of beta particles
T T emitted by a radioactive subs-
tance is twice the number of
160. A p-n photodiode is fabricated
alpha particles emitted by it. The
from a semiconductor with a band
resulting daughter is an—
gap of 2·5 eV. It can detect a
signal of wavelength— (A) Isobar of parent
(B) Isomer of parent
°
(A) 6000 A (B) 4000 nm
(C) Isotone of parent
(C) 6000 nm (D) 4000 A ° (D) Isotope of parent
167. A rectangular, a square, a circu- 171. A thin circular ring of mass M
lar and an elliptical loop, all in the
(x – y) plane, are moving out of a
uniform magnetic field with a
→ ^
constant velocity, v = v i . The
magnetic field is directed along
the negative z axis direction. The
induced emf, during the passage
of these loops, out of the field
region, will not remain constant
for—
(A) The rectangular, circular and
ellliptical loops
(B) The circular and the elliptical
loops
(C) Only the elliptical loop
(D) Any of the four loops
168. A particle starts its motion from
rest under the action of a cons-
tant force. If the distance covered
in first 10 second is S1 and that
covered in the first 20 second is
S2,then—
(A) S2 = 2S1 (B) S2 = 3S1
(C) S2 = 4S1 (D) S2 = S1
169. A wire of resistance 12 ohm per
metre is bent to form a complete
circle of radius 10 cm. The resis-
tance between its two diametri-
cally opposite
points, A and B A
B potential difference (V) of a cell
as shown in the
figure, is—
(A) 0·6 π Ω (B) 3Ω
(C) 6 π Ω (D) 6Ω
170. The electric field parts of an elec-
tromagnetic wave in a medium is
represented by—
Ex = 0;
Ey = 2·5 N/C cos [(2π × 106 rad/m)
t – (π × 10 rad/s)x];
– 2
Ez = 0. The wave is—
(A) Moving along y direction
with frequency 2π × 106 Hz
and wavelength 200 m.
(B) Moving along x direction 176. The internal energy change in a 182. Which one of the following equa-
with frequency 106 Hz and
wavelength 100 m.
(C) Moving along x direction with
frequency 106 Hz and wave-
length 200 m.
(D) Moving along – x direction 177. An engine pumps water continu-
6
with frequency 10 Hz and
wavelength 200 m.
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1162
and m is the mass per unit length
and radius R is rotating in a of the water jet. What is the rate
horizontal plane about an axis at which kinetic energy is impar-
vertical to its plane with a ted to water ?
constant angular velocity ω . If 1
(A) mv 3 (B) mv 3
two objects each of mass m be 2
1 1
attached gently to the opposite (C) mv 2 (D) m2v 2
2 2
ends of a diameter of the ring,
the ring will then rotate with an 178. The driver of a car travelling with
angular velocity— speed 30 m/sec towards a hill
ω (M – 2m ) ωM sounds a horn of frequency 600
(A) (B) Hz. If the velocity of sound in air
M + 2m M + 2m
is 330 m/s, the frequency of
ω(M + 2m) ωM
(C) (D) reflected sound as heard by
M M+m
driver is—
172. A transistor is operated in (A) 550 Hz (B) 555·5 Hz
common-emitter configuration at (C) 720 Hz (D) 500 Hz
Vc = 2V such that a change in
179. In a Rutherford scattering experi-
the base current from 100 μA to ment when a projectile of charge
200 μA produces a change in the Z1 and mass M1 approaches a
collector current from 5 mA to 10 target nucleus of charge Z2 and
mA. The current gain is— mass M2, the distance of closest
(A) 75 (B) 100 approach is r0. The energy of the
(C) 150 (D) 50 projectile is—
(A) Directly proportional to
173. A black body at 227°C radiates
M1 × M2
heat at the rate of 7 cal/cm2 s. At
(B) Directly proportional to Z1Z2
a temperature of 727°C, the rate
(C) Inversely proportional to Z1
of heat radiated in the same units
(D) Directly proportional to mass
will be—
M1
(A) 60 (B) 50
(C) 112 (D) 80 180. Three capacitors each of capaci-
tance C and of breakdown voltage
174. A student measures the terminal V are joined in series. The capa-
citance and breakdown voltage
(of emf E and internal resistance of the combination will be—
r) as a function of the current (I) C V V
flowing through it. The slope, and (A) , (B) 3C,
3 3 3
intercept, of the graph between V C
and I, then, respectively, equal— (C) , 3V (D) 3C, 3V
3
(A) E and – r (B) – r and E
181. The magnetic force acting on a
(C) r and – E (D) – E and r
charged particle of charge – 2μc
175. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg in a magnetic field of 2T acting in
^ ^ ^ y direction, when the particle
have position vectors i + 2 j + k
^ ^ ^ ^ ^
and – 3 i – 2 j + k , rspectively. velocity is (2i + 3 j ) × 10 6 ms– 1,
The centre of mass of this sys- is—
tem has a position vector— (A) 8N in – z direction
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ (B) 4N in z direction
(A) – 2 i + 2k (B) – 2 i – j + k
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ (C) 8N in y direction
(C) 2 i – j – 2k (D) – i + j + k (D) 8N in z direction
system that has absorbed 2 k cal tions of motion represents simple
of heat and done 500 J of work harmonic motion ?
is— (A) Acceleration = – k0x + k1x 2
(A) 8900 J (B) 6400 J (B) Acceleration = – k(x + a)
(C) 5400 J (D) 7900 J (C) Acceleration = k(x + a)
(D) Acceleration = kx
ously through a hose. Water where k, k0, k1 and a are all posi-
leaves the hose with a velocity v tive.
183. Monochromatic light of wave- 186. The electric potential at a point 190. See the electrical circuit shown in
length 667 nm is produced by a
helium neon laser. The power
emitted is 9 mW. The number of
photons arriving per sec on the
average at a target irradiated by
this beam is—
(A) 9 × 1017 (B) 3 × 10 16
(C) 9 × 1015 (D) 3 × 1019
184. The figure shows a plot of photo
current versus anode potential
for a photo sensitive surface for
three different radiations. Which
one of the following is a correct
statement ?
(A) Curves (a) and (b) represent
incident radiations of different
frequencies and different
intensities.
(B) Curves (a) and (b) represent
incident radiations of same
frequency but of different
intensities.
(C) Curves (b) and (c) represent
incident radiations of different
frequencies and different
intensities.
(D) Curves (b) and (c) represent
incident radiations of same
frequencies having same
intensities.
185. Power dissipated in an LCR
series circuit connected to an a.c.
source of emf E is—
E2R
(A) 2
[ (
R2 + Lω – )]
Cω
1
(x, y, z) is given by : this figure. Which of the following
V = – x2y – xz3 + 4 equations is a correct equation
→ for it ?
The electric field E at that point
is—
→ ^ ^
(A) E = i (2xy + z3) + j x2
^
+ k 3 xz2
→ ^ ^
(B) E = i 2 xy + j (x2 + y2)
^
+ k (3xz – y2)
→ ^ ^ ^ (A) E1 – (i1 + i2) R – i1r1 = 0
(C) E = i z3 + j xyz + k z2 (B) E2 – i2 r2 – E1 – i1 r1 = 0
→ ^ ^
(D) E = i (2xy – z 3) + j xy2 (C) – E 2 – (i1 + i2) R+ i2r2 = 0
^ (D) E1 – (i1 + i2) R + i1r1 = 0
+ k 3 z2x
191. A conductor with a cross-section
187. A bar magnet having a magnetic
of 10 –4 m 2 carries an electric
moment of 2 × 10 4 JT– 1 is free to
current of 1·2A. If the number of
rotate in a horizontal plane. A
free electrons be 5 × 102 8/m3,
horizontal magnetic field B = 6 ×
then the electron drift velocity will
10 – 4 T exists in the space. The be—
work done in taking the magnet
(A) 1·5 × 106 ms–1
slowly from a direction parallel to
(B) 3·0 × 106 ms–1
the field to a direction 60° from
(C) 1·5 × 10–6 ms–1
the field is—
(A) 0·6 J (B) 12 J (D) 3·0 × 10–6 ms–1
(C) 6 J (D) 2 J 192. The number of photo electrons
188. A galvanometer having a coil emitted for light of a frequency υ
resistance of 60 Ω shows full (higher than the threshold fre-
scale deflection when a current of quency υ0) is proportional to—
1·0 amp passes through it. It can (A) υ – υ0
be converted into an ammeter to (B) Threshold frequency (υ0)
read currents upto 5·0 amp by—
(C) Intensity of light
(A) Putting in parallel a resis-
(D) Frequency of light (υ)
tance of 240 Ω
(B) Putting in series a resistance 193. Each of the two strings of length
of 15 Ω 51·6 cm and 49·1 cm are ten-
sioned separately by 20 N force.
(C) Putting in series a resistance Mass per unit length of both the
of 240 Ω strings is same and equal to
1g/m. When both the strings
(D) Putting in parallel a resis-
tance of 15 Ω vibrate simultaneously the num-
ber of beats is—
189. The two ends of a rod of length (A) 5 (B) 7
L and a uniform cross-sectional (C) 8 (D) 3
area A are kept at two tempera-
tures T1 and T2 (T1 > T 2). The rate 194. The ionization energy of the

of heat transfer,
dQ
, through the
electron in the hydrogen atom in
its ground state is 13·6 eV. The
2 dt

(B)
E2 ( )
R2 + Lω –
1
Cω
rod in a steady state is given
by—
atoms are excited to higher
energy levels to emit radiations of
6 wavelengths. Maximum wave-
R d Q k L(T1 – T 2)
2 (A) = length of emitted radiation corre-

(C)
[ (
E2 R2 + Lω –
1
Cω )] (B)
dt A
d Q k (T1 – T 2)
=
sponds to the transition bet-
ween—
R dt LA
(A) n = 3 to n = 2 states
dQ
E2R (C) = k L A (T1 – T 2) (B) n = 3 to n = 1 states
(D) dt
2

(
R2 + Lω –
Cω
1
) (D)
d Q k A(T1 – T 2)
dt
=
L
(C) n = 2 to n = 1 states
(D) n = 4 to n = 3 states

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1163

195. Four identical thin rods each of 197. The figure shows elliptical orbit of 199. A block of mass M is attached to
mass M and length L, form a a planet m about the sun S. The the lower end of a vertical spring.
square frame. Moment of inertia shaded area SCD is twice the The spring is hung from a ceiling
of this frame about an axis shaded area SAB. If t1 is the time and has force constant value k .
through the centre of the square for the planet to move from C to The mass is released from rest
and perpendicular to its plane D and t2 is the time to move from with the spring initially unstretc-
is— A to B then— hed. The maximum extension
4 2 2 2 produced in the length of the
(A) ML (B) ML
3 3 spring will be—
13 1 Mg 2Mg
(C) ML2 (D) ML2 (A) (B)
3 3 k k
196. In thermodynamic processes 4M g M g
(C) (D)
which of the following statements k 2k
in not true ? 200. A body, under the action of a
(A) In an adiabatic process the →
(A) t 1 > t2 (B) t 1 = 4t2 ^ ^ ^
system is insulated from the force F = 6 i – 8 j + 10k , acqui-
surroundings (C) t 1 = 2t2 (D) t 1 = t2
res an acceleration of 1m/s2. The
(B) In an isochoric process pres- 198. Sodium has body centred pack- mass of this body must be—
sure remains constant ing. Distance between two near-
(C) In an isothermal process the (A) 2 10 kg
est atoms is 3·7 Å. The lattice
temperature remains cons- parameter is— (B) 10 kg
tant
(A) 6·8 A° (B) 4·3 A° (C) 20 kg
(D) In an adiabatic process PV γ
(C) 3·0 A° (D) 8·6 A° (D) 10 2 kg
= constant

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1164

 In each of the following ques- 5. Assertion (A) : The calorimeters 12. Assertion (A) : Many endo-
tions, a statement of Assertion (A) are made of metal. thermic reactions which are non-
is given and a corresponding state- Reason (R) : Metals have good spontaneous at room tempera-
ment of Reason (R) is given just thermal conductivity and low ture become spontaneous on
below it. Of the statements, mark specific heat. raising temperature.
the correct answer as— (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Reason (R) : Endothermic reac-
(A) If both A and R are true tions become spontaneous when
6. Assertion (A) : A null vector is
and R is the correct expla- ΔS is positive and TΔS > ΔH.
also called a proper vector.
nation of A (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Reason (R) : A null vector has a
(B) If both A and R are true but
definite magnitude and a definite 13. Assertion (A) : The number of
R is not the correct expla- unpaired electrons in Ni(CO)4 is
direction.
nation of A
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) zero.
(C) If A is true but R is false
7. Assertion (A) : The density of Reason (R) : 4 s electrons of
(D) If both A and R are false nickel atom enter the inner d
water is maximum at 4°C.
(E) If A is false but R is true
Reason (R) : The volume of orbitals to facilitate the sp 3
water decreases while heating hybridisation in Ni atom.
PHYSICS (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
from 0°C to 4°C.
1. Assertion (A) : While passing (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 14. Assertion (A) : The dipole mo-
round the corners the light 8. Assertion (A) : The collisions ment of carbon tetrafluoride
spreads out to some extent into between atomic and subatomic molecule will be greater than that
the region of the geometrical particles are considered to be of carbon tetrachloride.
shadow. perfectly elastic. Reason (R) : C—F bond is more
Reason (R) : The bending is Reason (R) : In collisions of tiny polar than C—Cl bond.
greater for light of longer wave- particles both the momentum and (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
lengths and less for shorter energy are conserved.
15. Assertion (A) : Unlike the chlo-
wavelengths. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
ride ion, the fluoride ion cannot
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 9. Assertion (A) : Pressure cooker be quantitatively estimated with
is useful at high mountains. the help of AgNO3 solution.
2. Assertion (A) : A transistor is Reason (R) : Due to low
preferred to a triode when used Reason (R) : Silver fluoride is
atmospheric pressure on high
as an amplifier. considerably soluble in water.
mountains the water boils at less
Reason (R) : No heating of fila- than 100°C. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
ment is needed in the case of a (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 16. Assertion (A) : Molecule CH3
transistor. ≡ N: can act both as electrophile
10. Assertion (A) : Illuminance is the
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) luminous flux per unit surface as well as nucleophile.
3. Assertion (A) : An ammeter is area, when the area is held nor- Reason (R) : Carbon atom in the
connected in series in the electric mal to the beam of light. molecule is electron deficient and
circuit and it should have a low Reason (R) : The luminous nitrogen atom is electron suffi-
resistance. intensity is the radiant flux per cient.
unit angle in that direction. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Reason (R) : The introduction of
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
the ammeter must not affect the 17. Assertion (A) : A lanthanide ele-
main current. CHEMISTRY ment with oxidation number + 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) acts as a good oxidising agent.
11. Assertion (A) : The bond order Reason (R) : The common
4. Assertion (A) : In any relation in both H2+ and H2– is same that oxidation number of lanthanide
between some physical quanti- 1
is , but H 2– is slightly less stable elements is + 3.
ties, the dimensions on either 2
side of the equation must be the (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
than H 2+.
same. 18. Assertion (A) : The rate equa-
Reason (R) : Since the bond
Reason (R) : Dimensions are the order is the same, the bond tion for a general chemical reac-
powers raised to fundamental dissociation energy must strictly tion, a A + b B c C + d D can
units in a dimensional equation. be the same. be expressed as :
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Rate = k [A]x [B] y

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1170

 Reason (R) : The exponents x
and y in rate equation are neces-
sarily equal to coefficients a and
b respectively.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
19. Assertion (A) : Ethyl bromide
and alcoholic silver nitrite react to
give nitroethane as a major
product.
Reason (R) : Nitrite ion (NO 2–) is
an ambidented nucleophile.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
20. Assertion (A) : The reactivity of
anions of ionic compounds is
greater in a polar aprotic solvent,
like dimethyl sulphoxide (DMSO)
than in a protic solvent like etha-
nol.
Reason (R) : Polar aprotic sol-
vents shield the anion effectively
from cation so that ion-pairing
does not occur, thus cation
remains considerably free.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
ZOOLOGY
21. Assertion (A) : Food intake is
regulated by an area of the brain
called hypothalamus.
Reason (R) : In the hypotha-
lamus, a region called the hunger
centre regulates the need to eat
and a satiety centre indicates
when to stop eating.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
22. Assertion (A) : Degenerative
diseases are usually associated
with aging, when tissues break
down more rapidly than they can
be repaired.
Reason (R) : Osteoarthritis is a
painful and chronic joint inflam-
mation that involves a progres-
sive degeneration of the hyaline
cartilage over the bone surfaces
in movable joints.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
23. Assertion (A) : The release of
ADH from the pituitary gland is
controlled by special cells in the
hypothalamus of the brain that
monitor water concentration of
the blood.
Reason (R) : Alcohol inhibits the
release of ADH, and caffeine
interferes with ADH action and
sodium absorption, thus both
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1171
cause artificially dilute urine to be
produced.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
24. Assertion (A) : Immunization is
the process of rendering an ani-
mal less susceptible to infection
by pathogens and toxins.
Reason (R) : This involve use of
vaccine to induce passive immu-
nity through injection of appro-
priate antibodies.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
25. Assertion (A) : Most skeletal
bones begin as a cartilage model
and consists of hyaline cartilage.
Reason (R) : This model does
not change into bone, instead, it
is gradually dissolved and re-
placed by bone.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
26. Assertion (A) : 5-hydroxytrypta-
mine is tryptophan derived neu-
rotransmitter of vertebrate brain,
especially of pons, and of pineal
gland.
Reason (R) : It hyperpolarizes
postsynaptic membranes and
activates phospho fructokinase in
liver, both mediated via cyclic
AMP.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
27. Assertion (A) : An action
potential (or impulse) develops
when a stimulus alters the
resting membrane potential.
Reason (R) : The resting
membrane potential of a neuron
results from an uneven distribu-
tion of ions across its plasma
membrane.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
28. Assertion (A) : Clone is group of
organisms of identical genotype,
produced by some kind of
asexual reproduction and some
sexual processes such as haploid
selfing, or inbreeding a comple-
tely homozygous line.
Reason (R) : Nuclear transplan-
tation techniques introducing
genetically identical nuclei into
enucleated eggs can also pro-
duce clones in some animals.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
29. Assertion (A) : The pitch of
sound is perceived by the posi-
tion of the phonoreceptors in the
cochlear duct.
Reason (R) : The loudness of
the sound is encoded in freq-
uency of action potentials and
the number of phonoreceptors
stimulated.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
30. Assertion (A) : DDT and aldrin
are contact insecticides and their
fat-solubility (often needed to
penetrate waxy epicuticle) result-
ing in accumulation in fat
reserves of animals in higher
trophic levels.
Reason (R) : The mode of entry
of contact insecticides to the
body is via the cuticle rather than
the gut.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
BOTANY
31. Assertion (A) : Within the anther
pollen sacs, spore mother cells
form 4 haploid pollen grains.
Reason (R) : Spore mother cells
(SMCs) divide meiotically to form
4 haploid pollen grains.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
32. Assertion (A) : A food web helps
to understand who is eating
whom, and an energy pyramid to
appreciate the actual amount of
energy and organic matter pass-
ing from producers to consumers.
Reason (R) : Cycling of nutrients
and flow of energy through the
various populations in a natural
community produces a food web.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
33. Assertion (A) : Every tissue and
organ has its special require-
ments for optimal growth.
Reason (R) : Auxins, gibberellins
and cytokinins can not be added
in the medium.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
34. Assertion (A) : The energy
stored in carbohydrate molecules
during photosynthesis is relea-
sed during cellular oxidation of
carbohydrates into CO2 and H2O.
This process is called respiration.
Reason (R) : During respiration,
the oxidation of various organic
food substances like carbohy-
drate, fat, protein, etc., may take
place.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
35. Assertion (A) : Chromatid is one 37. Assertion (A) : Oparin reasoned 39. Assertion (A) : Zoospore fungus
of a pair of replicated chromo- that methane, ammonia, water produces spores within sporan-
somes found during the prophase and hydrogen gas might have gia.
of meiosis and mitosis. been the raw materials for the
Reason (R) : During sexual
Reason (R) : Chromatin is formation of nucleic acids and
classified as euchromatin or reproduction, a zoospore forms
nucleotides.
heterochromatin on the basis of prior to meiosis and production of
Reason (R) : Oparin realized
staining properties. spores.
that to build large molecules from
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) small ones requires energy. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
36. Assertion (A) : The energy cap- (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
turing portion of photosynthesis 40. Assertion (A) : The direction of
occurs in thylakoids membrane 38. Assertion (A) : Welwitschias are
strange gnetophytes that are maturation of flower in racemose
and can not proceed without
found only in deserts. inflorescence is acropetal or cen-
solar energy.
Reason (R) : The synthetic por- Reason (R) : Gnetophyte is one tripetal.
tion of photosynthesis occurs in of a small group of plants that
Reason (R) : Sieve-tube cells
stroma and does not directly grow in deserts and tropical
contain nuclei in their cytoplasm.
require solar energy. forests.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

(Continued on Page 1184)

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1172

 15. A lorry and a car moving with the same kinetic energy
Physics are brought to rest by application of brakes which
provide equal retarding force. Both come to rest in
1. When an object is placed at the focus of a convex equal distance.
mirror, it is imaged at infinity. —T/F
—T/F
2. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of an electron and Chemistry
a proton moving with same kinetic energy is 1840 .
—T/F 16. A compound having composition 4KCN.Fe(CN) 2 is a
double salt and gives the test of Fe 2 + and CN– ions.
3. A bullet is fired from a rifle. If the rifle recoils freely, the
kinetic energy of the rifle is less than that of the bullet. —T/F
17. Atoms of an element having different number of
—T/F
neutrons are known as isotones.
4. Coloured glass appears white after being crushed
—T/F
into fine powder.
18. The equilibrium Cr2O72– CrO42– will exist in
—T/F
acidic medium.
5. Pressure exerted by one mole of oxygen is equal to
—T/F
that by one mole of hydrogen when their temperature
and volume are same. 19. The formal charge on each hydrogen atom in ammo-
nium ion (NH4+) is equal to zero.
—T/F
—T/F
6. The laser is a source of ultrasound.
20. The decreasing order of acidic strength of boron
—T/F halides is as
7. In an electrolyte solution, the electric current is mainly BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
due to the movement of free electrons. —T/F
—T/F 21. Ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH) is a covalent molecule and
8. A body can describe a vertical circle with any velocity. hence it is insoluble in water.
—T/F —T/F
9. According to Kepler’s second law, the radius vector to →
22. R—C ≡ N and R—N — — C constitute a pair of com-
a planet from the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal
pounds which are tautomeric to each other.
intervals of time. This law is a consequence of con-
servation of linear momentum. —T/F
—T/F 23. The coordinate covalent bond formed between two
atoms is always non-polar in nature.
10. If two slits in Young’s double slit experiment are illu-
minated by two identical monochromatic sources of —T/F
light emitting the same wavelength, no interference 24. Photochemical chlorination of alkanes starts with the
pattern will be observed. homolytic fission of Cl—Cl bond.
—T/F —T/F
11. The ratio of the velocity of sound in hydrogen (γ = 7/5) 25. The metal ions whose chlorides have high values of
to that in helium (γ = 5/3) at the same temperature is solubility products (Ksp) are kept in first group of
qualitative analysis of basic radicals.
21/5.
—T/F
—T/F
26. Ethyne is more acidic than propyne.
12. X-rays are deflected by magnetic field.
—T/F
—T/F
27. Methanoic acid gives silver mirror test with Tollen’s
13. 300 gram of water at 25°C is added to 100 gram of reagent and ethanoic acid does not respond to this
ice at 0°C. The final temperature of the mixture is test.
– 1·25°C. —T/F
—T/F 28. T-shape geometry is possible if a molecule or ion has
14. On refraction the frequency of light gets changed. three bond pairs and two lone pairs of electrons.
—T/F —T/F

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1173

29. Both ethanol and ethanal undergo a haloform reaction crosslinking of proteins, development of autoimmu-
when treated with a solution of iodine in NaOH. nity, and the presence of an internal biological clock.
—T/F —T/F
30. The dipole moment of NH 3 molecule is higher than 45. In the wall of caecum and colon, the longitudinal mus-
that of NF 3. cular layer is thickened along three lines forming the
—T/F taeniae.
—T/F
Zoology
Botany
31. Granules of calcium carbonate in vertebrate macula is
called otolith. 46. Doubling of chromosomes during S-phase of inter-
—T/F phase occurs which is accomplished by doubling of
32. The right cerebral hemisphere in humans is used for DNA.
language, speech and mathematical calculations. —T/F
—T/F 47. Eukaryotic cells are far larger and more complex than
33. Tumours of muscles are called osteofibroma. the prokaryotic cells.
—T/F —T/F
34. Age-related memory loss affects short-term memory 48. The free-energy change for ATP hydrolysis is small
more than long-term memory. and negative.
—T/F —T/F
35. The statocysts in invertebrates perceive the direction 49. The antherozoid of Funaria is nonciliated, because it
of the force of gravity and function as the organ of is nonmotile.
orientation and equilibrium. —T/F
—T/F 50. In sequential reactions of glycolysis, there occurs four
36. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) chemical transformations.
analysis is performed on body tissue or fluid samples —T/F
to match suspect and victim in a crime. 51. In lysogenic cycle, the viral nucleic acid is incorpo-
—T/F rated into the host DNA.
37. Sutures are the fusion lines of junctions between —T/F
adjacent bones of the skull. 52. During photosynthesis, oxygen comes from water
—T/F was proved by Kamen and Ruben.
—T/F
38. Recessive alleles are expressed in heterozygous
condition, while dominant alleles are expressed in the 53. The part of the embryo of grasses that lies next to the
homozygous condition. endosperm is called coleoptile.
—T/F
—T/F
54. Monotropa is an obligate saprophyte.
39. Fraternal twins are developed as a result of fertiliza-
—T/F
tion of a single ovum.
55. The bivalents, during metaphase-I, become arranged
—T/F in the plane of the equator to form equatorial plate.
40. The first humans were Homo habilis, appeared about —T/F
1·5 million years ago. 56. In a hypogynous flower the ovary occupies the
—T/F highest position on the thalamus.
41. Digestion within a digestive tract of humans is extra- —T/F
cellular. 57. Natural selection does not maintain favourable genes
within a population.
—T/F
—T/F
42. Fibroblasts secrete a living matrix which contains
58. Mycorrhiza is the symbiotic relationship between
collagen, reticular, or elastic fibres.
roots of higher plants and fungi.
—T/F —T/F
43. The breathing centre in the brain responds to changes 59. The tegmens of seeds develop from inner integument.
in the carbon dioxide concentration of the blood. —T/F
—T/F 60. Porphyrins are important part of chlorophylls and
44. Aging may result from an accumulation of genetic cytochromes.
mutations, free radicals, or waste products as well as —T/F

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1174

 70. What is naturally occurring group of individuals of the
same genotype called ?
➠ Biotype
71. What causes black necrosis of stem and root ?
➠ Deficiency of boron
72. Which part of plant— Autumn crocens —is used for
the extraction of colchicine ?
➠ Root
73. What does dendrochronology determine ?
➠ Age of tree by radiocarbon dating
74. What is called the protein part of an enzyme ?
➠ Apoenzyme
75. What does primary lysosome mean ?
➠ Lysosomes containing inactive enzymes
76. What is Morchel commonly called ?
➠ Sponge mushroom
77. Who proposed the ‘Operon model’ of gene regulation
and organization in prokaryotes ?
➠ Jacob and Monad
78. What is the shape of chloroplast in Ulothrix ?
➠ Girdle-shaped
79. Why does plant’s life require a vascular system on
land ?
➠ Because plants must transport water
and minerals
80. What is the name of most edible mushroom most
often seen on the tables of restaurants ?
➠ Agaricus compestris
●●●
(Continued from Page 1169)

●●●
(Continued from Page 1075)
68. What are those movements in which whole of the
plant body or the cell or cytoplasm moves from one
place to another called ?
➠ Movements of locomotion
69. What is the arrangement of bundles in dicot her-
baceous stem ?
➠ Bundles are arranged in a distinct
ring that separates the cortex
from the central pith ●●●

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1176

 Physics
Q. Why radio transistors do not
work satisfactorily when used
inside a railway carriage ?
☞ The railway carriage is made
of iron. Iron acts as a magnetic screen.
So, the carriage does not permit elec-
tromagnetic waves from the radio-
broadcasting station to enter the
carriage. Thus, the radio transistors
do not work satisfactorily when used
inside a railway carriage.
Q. Do you know how PNP and
NPN transistors are separated
symbolically ?
☞ observer looks at the source of light.
(a) PNP-Transistor
(b) NPN-Transistor
Q. Do you know why there is no
magnetic field near a conductor
when no current is flowing through
it ?
☞ When no current is flowing in
a conductor, the free electrons in the
conductor move randomly on account
of their thermal energy. The motion of
each electron produces a magnetic
field. But since the motion is random,
the magnetic fields due to individual
electrons cancel out. Thus there is no
net magnetic field near a conductor in
which no current is flowing.
Q. What do you know about the
path of a charged particle projected
with velocity v into a uniform mag-
netic field at an angle θ other than
0°° or 90°° ?
☞ The velocity v of the charged
particle can be resolved into two com-
ponents v cos θ (in the direction of the
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1177
magnetic field) and v sin θ (perpen-
dicular to the direction of the magnetic
field). Due to component v sin θ the
charged particle follows a circular
path. Due to component v cos θ, the
charged particle follows a linear path
in the direction of the magnetic field.
Thus, the charged particle will follow a
helical path under the combined effect
of two component velocities.
Q. What are laevorotatory subs-
tances ?
☞ Laevorotatory substances are
those substances which rotate the
plane of polarisation towards left or in
the anti-clockwise direction when the
Q. Stokes’ formula for viscous
drag is not really valid for oil drops
of extremely minute sizes. Explain
why ?
☞ Stokes’ formula is valid for
motion through a homogeneous con-
tinuous medium. The size of the drops
should be much larger than the inter-
molecular separation in the medium
for this assumption to be valid, other-
wise the drop ‘sees’ inhomogeneities
in the medium (concentrated mass
density in molecules and holes in
between them).
→ →
Q. Why E and B are kept
perpendicular in Thomson’s experi-
ment ?
☞ The force due to the electric
field is in the plane of the field. In
order to balance this force, the force
due to magnetic field should also act
in the plane of the electric field. This is
possible only if the magnetic field acts
perpendicular to the direction of the
electric field.
Q. Are matter waves electro-
magnetic ?
☞ No. This is because electro-
magnetic waves are produced by
accelerated charge. On the other
hand, the de-Broglie wave (matter
wave) is independent of charge of a
particle.
Q. What is the difference bet-
ween the frictional force and gravi-
tational force ?
☞ Frictional forces are passive.
It means they come into play only
when there is tendency of relative
motion between two solid surfaces in
contact. While gravitational forces
continue to act all the time. Further
frictional forces are nonconservative
while gravitational force is conserva-
tive in nature.
Q. What factors affect the
elasticity of a material ?
☞ Hammering, rolling and
annealing affect the elasticity of a
material. An addition of impurity in a
material also affects the elasticity. On
changing the temperature of a subs-
tance its elasticity changes. However,
there is no change in the elasticity on
changing the temperature of invar
(invariable) steel.
Q. What are logic gates ?
Explain.
☞ The manipulation of binary
information is done by logic circuits
called gates. A gate is a digital circuit
that follows a certain logical relation-
ship between the input and output
voltages. They are, therefore, called
logic gates. Various logic gates are
commonly found in digital computer
system. There are three basic gates
called OR, AND, NOT. Each gate is
indicated by a graphic symbol and its
operation is described by means of
an Boolean algebra function. The
input-output relationship of the binary
variables for each gate is represented
in tabular form in a truth table.
Q. Compare Gauss’s law and
Ampere’s law.
⎡⎢ → → q ⎤⎥
☞ Gauss’s law ⎢⎣ E . ds = ε ⎥⎦
0
involves the surface integral and
helps to determine the charge q.
→ →
Ampere’s law [ B . dl = μ 0I]
involves the line integral and helps to
determine the current I, i.e., rate of
flow of charge.
Q. What is meant by ‘inferior
mirage’ and ‘superior mirage’ ?
☞ The optical illusion that water
is present at some distant place is
called inferior mirage. This generally
occurs on very hot summer days.
This is due to total internal reflection.
The optical illusion of objects
floating in air is called superior
mirage. It is also known as looming.
This occurs in very cold regions. This
is also due to total internal reflection.
Q. What is the rms value of an
A.C.?
☞ The rms value of an alter-
nating current (also called the effec-
tive value) is the steady direct current
which converts electrical energy to
other forms of energy in a given
resistance at the same rate as the
A.C.
Chemistry
Q. What will be the solubility of
AgCl in 0·2 M AgNO3 solution ?
(Ksp for AgCl = 1 × 10–10)
☞ For AgCl in aqueous solution
following equilibrium exists :
AgCl Ag+ + Cl–
Ksp = [Ag +] [Cl–]
= 1 × 10 –10
Let [Cl–] = x
Then [Ag +] = 0·2 + x ≈ 0·2
Hence 0·2 x = 1 × 10– 10
x = 5 × 10– 10 M
Thus, solubility of AgCl in 0·2 M
AgNO 3 will be 5 × 10– 10 M.
Q. Would H2O2 behave as
oxidant or reductant with respect to
couple Fe3+/Fe2+ at standard con-
centration ?
☞ We know that H2O2 can act
both as oxidant and reductant. Follow-
ing reactions occur with respect to
Fe 3+/Fe2+ couple.
Fe 3+ + e – → Fe 2+ ;
E° = 0·771 V
2Fe 3+ + H2O2 → 2Fe 2+ + O2 + 2H +; ties and hard bases have diminished
E° = 0·02 V nucleophilicites.
Fe 2+ → Fe 3+ + e –;
E° = – 0·771 V base (strong nucleophiles)
2 Fe2+ + H2O2 + 2H+
→ 2Fe3+ + 2H2O; E° = 1·00 V
Since both potentials are positive, bases (weak nucleophiles)
H2O2 will act as an oxidant and reduc-
tant.
In fact, iron(II) or iron(III) salts butene (0·3 D) ?
catalyse self-oxidation-reduction of
H2O2.
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1178
Q. Why do cyanic acid and iso-
cyanic acid have the same conju-
gate base ?
☞ N ≡ C—OH is cyanic acid and
HN = C —
— O is isocyanic acid.
The conjugate bases of each acid
are contributing structures of same
resonance hybrid, i.e., the resonance
structures of both conjugate bases of
both acids have same hybrid struc-
ture.
.. – H+
H:N — —C— — O ⎯→
.–. .. ..
:N— — O ←→ N ≡ C—O
—C— . .:
– and 3 carbon atoms of 1-butene. This
..
H:O. . —C ≡ N
– H+ .–. ..
⎯→ : O . . —C ≡ N ←→ O —
— C = N: –
Both have hybrid structure
δ– δ–
:N —
˙˙˙
— C˙˙˙
—.O. :
Hence conjugate base is same in
both cases.
Q. What is the carbamic acid ?
☞ This acid is not known in free
state, but the salts and esters of this
acid exist. It may be represented by
chemical formula H2NCOOH. Ammo-
nium carbamate is formed by the
reaction of dry CO 2 and dry NH 3. The
urethanes, widely used in plastic
industry, are the esters of carbamic
acid. A commercial sample of ammo-
nium carbonate, contains an appre-
ciable amount of ammonium car-
bamate.
Q. What are soft and hard
bases ?
☞ Soft bases have larger and
more polarizable basic site atoms
(examples : I, Br, S, P etc.) Hard
bases have smaller and weakly polari-
zable sites (Examples : N, O, F etc.).
Soft bases have strong nucleophilici-
.. .. ..
: .I . : –, : Br – –
. . : , H.S. : , : PH3 etc. are soft
.. ..
: NH3 , H 2O :, : .F. : – etc. are hard
Q. Why is the dipole moment of
1-butyne larger (0·8 D) than 1-
☞ Two compounds have follow-
ing molecular formulae :
H H H H
| 3| 2| |
H—C—C—C — — C
| | sp 2 |
H H H
1-butene
H H
| |3 2
H—C—C—C ≡ C—H
| | sp
H H
1-butyne
The bond between 2 and 3
carbon atoms in 1-butyne (C—C sp) is
more polarised than bond between 2
is because sp carbon in 1-butyne has
more s -character and high electro-
negativity than sp 2 carbon in 1-butene.
Q. What is fluoridation ?
☞ Fluoride ions present in drink-
ing water, tooth pastes or other
sources, can react with the hydro-
xyapatite [Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2] present
in tooth enamel to form fluoroapatite
[Ca10(PO4)6F2]. This mineral in which
F– has replaced OH–, is much more
resistant to attack of acids because
F– ion is a much weaker base than
OH– ions.
About 80% of all tooth pastes
contain fluoride compounds at the
level of 0·1% fluoride by mass. The
most common compounds in tooth
pastes are stannous fluoride (SnF2),
Sodium monofluoro phosphate
(Na2PO3F) and sodium fluoride (NaF).
Because fluoride ion is so effec-
tive in preventing cavities, it is added
to public water supply in many places
to give a concentration of 1 mg/L
(1ppm). The compounds added may
be NaF or NaSiF6. The latter com-
pounds gives fluoride ions by follow-
ing reaction :
2–
SiF6(aq) + 2H2O(l)
– +
→ 6F(aq) + 4H(aq) + SiO2(s)
Q. How Teflon helped develop-
ment of first atomic bomb ?
☞ Uranium hexafluoride (UF6),
which was used to separate fission-
able U 235 by gaseous diffusion, in an
extremely corrosive material. Teflon
was used as a gasket material in the
gaseous diffusion plant. It is now
used in variety of applications from
non-sticks cookwares to space-suits.
In 1938 a scientist at Du Pont named
Roy J. Plunkett made an accidental
discovery of teflon. This was formed
by addition polymerisation of tetra-
fluoroethylene.
Q. What are the plasticisers ?
☞ Polymers like PVC, are extre-
mely hard and brittle resins difficult to
be processed. These can be made
flexible and easy to handle by adding
some low molecular weight chemicals
called plasticisers during their forma-
tion.
For example Bis 2-ethyl hexylph-
thalate is one of the compounds
added to polyvinyl chloride as a plas-
ticiser; which provides it a tough
leathery and rubber like texture, easy
to be moulded into garden pipes, rain
coats, seat covers, sheets and electri-
cal insulators.
Q. Who first predicted that
chlorofluorocarbons would deplete
the ozone shield ?
☞ In 1974, Molina and Rowland
pointed out that chlorofluorocarbons
(CFCl3 and CF 2Cl2) which had been
used in refrigerants and as propel-
lants in aerosol cans were beginning
to accumulate in atmosphere. In the
atmosphere, at altitude of 10 to 50 km
above the earth’s surface, chloro-
fluorocarbons decompose to form Cl
and ClO free radicals. These react
with ozone and oxygen atoms.
O3 + Cl → ClO + O2
ClO + O → Cl + O2
Zoology
Q. What is Ubiquitin ?
☞ Ubiquitin is highly conserved
protein (uniform amino acid sequence),
apparently present in all eukaryotic
cells. Free or covalently bound to a
variety of nuclear and cytoplasmic
proteins, some integral to membranes.
Binding to a protein may initiate the
protein’s selective degradation. May
act as a protein modulator, possibly of
certain histones in chromatin
Q. What is Pribnow Box ?
☞ Pribnow box is nucleotide
sequence in prokaryote promotor
regions, located about six bases
upstream of a transcribed region.
Contains the sequence TATAATG.
Also called a (– 10) region, because of
the invariant T residue at base 10
upstream from the start of the tran-
scribed region. However, many pro-
C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1179
motors whose expression is controlled
by sigma factor other than the normal
vegetative one have different consen-
sus sequences in different positions
upstream of the actual transcription
start point.
Q. What is lymphoid tissue ?
☞ Lymphoid tissue is vertebrate
tissue in which lymphocytes develop
(e.g., Bursa of Fabricius in birds,
thymus in mammals). Lymphocytes
are produced in primary lymphoid
tissue (thymus, embryonic liver, adult
bone marrow) and migrate to secon-
dary lymphoid tissue (spleen, lymph
nodes, unencapsulated lymphoid
regions of gut submucosa, respiratory
and urogenital regions), where anti-
gen-presenting cells and mature T-
cells and B-cells occur. The kidney is
a major secondary lymphoid organ in
lower vertebrates. Tissue in animals
without close chordate affinities may
nonetheless form regional aggregates
of phagocytes which are loosely
termed lymphoid.
Q. How light is focussed in
human eye to form images ?
☞ Light reflected from an object
can be focussed by the lens of eye to
form an image of that object on
retina. The curvature of the cornea
and the lens causes light rays from
an object more than 20 feet away to
converge on the retina, forming a
clear image. However, if the object is
closer than 20 feet, the light rays do
not converge on the retina, and a
clear image is not formed. To focus
an image of a near object on the
ratina, the lens must change shape,
becoming more round. The lens
shape is changed by contraction of
muscles in the ciliary body. Long
periods of close-up work such as
reading can cause eyestrain because
prolonged contraction fatigues the
ciliary muscle cells. To focus on
objects 20 feet or more away, the
ciliary smoth muscles relax and the
lens assumes a more flattened
shape.
Q. What are gel electrophore-
sis and DNA probes ?
☞ Gel electrophoresis allows the
separation of different sized DNA
fragments. A DNA probe has a nuc-
leotide sequence complementary to a
desired DNA fragment and allows
that fragment to be extracted from a
mixture.
Gel electrophoresis separates
DNA fragments by causing them to
migrate through a porous gel under
the influence of an electrical field.
Differently sized fragments of DNA
contain differents amounts of nega-
tive charges. Therefore, these frag-
ments migrate to different locations in
the gel when they are placed in an
electrical field. Such migration sepa-
rates different fragments. When sepa-
ration is complete, the gel can be
bathed with dyes or fluorescent
chemicals to identify DNA fragments
as bands on the gel. A band contain-
ing a fragment of interest can be cut
out of the gel, and the DNA can be
washed from the band for use in gene
cloning and recombinant DNA forma-
tion.
DNA probes are single-stranded
nucleotide sequences that are com-
plementary to and thus able to bind
with a desired DNA fragment or gene.
DNA probes can be synthesized in a
test tube by linking either DNA or
RNA nucleotides in a specified
sequence. Radioactive atoms are
often incorporated in the probe to
help locate it, after it binds to a
complementary DNA fragment. After
the electrophoretic separation, a DNA
probe and help locate the precise
fragment of interest.
Q. What changes occur in
epidermis and dermis due to
growing age ?
☞ As humans grow older, kerati-
nocytes in the epidermis adhere less
strongly to each other. As a result,
the epidermis becomes more vulne-
rable to penetration by disease caus-
ing microorganisms. In addition, there
is a decrease in the production of
new cells by the basal stratum. This
slows wound healing and enhances
the chance of developing an infection.
After age of 30, the number of
melanocytes in the epidermis dec-
rease by about 20 per cent each
decade, making painful sunburn. The
melanocytes that remain become
larger and gradually cluster more
closely together, producing dark
spots on the skin, often called ‘liver
spots’.
Below the epidermis, the dermis
also changes with age, becoming
thinner and less elastic. Less active
fibroblast cells decrease the amount
of collagen and elastic fibres in the
extracellular matrix. This substantially
reduces the flexibility and elasticity of
skin. The nubmer of blood vessels in
the dermis also declines with age,
and there is a general reduction in
blood flow. The remaining vessels
become less permeable, and the
exchange of nutrients, O2, CO2,
water, and wastes are reduced.
Fewer white blood cells migrate into
the tissues to fight infections and
remove debris. The inflammation and
blood-clotting responses are slowed,
and in the elderly even a slight bump
produces significant bruising and
discolouration. The reduced flow of
blood to the dermis also reduces
service to epidermis, which has no
vessels and relies on diffusion to and
from the dermis. Because of the
reduced blood flow, older skin is paler
in colour and functions less effectively
in temperature regulation. Difficulty in
maintaining body temperature is
associated with a decrease in the
thickness of the body’s layer of fatty
insulation in the hypodermis. As
people age, fat storage shifts from the
skin to the body cavities. This reduc-
tion in fat content below the skin,
together with abnormal cross-linkage
between collagen proteins, contri-
butes to skin wrinkling. In some indi-
viduals changes in fat distribution
may even alter body proportions.
is free to move under the influence of
gravity.
The position of the water table is
shown by the level at which water
stands in wells penetrating an uncon-
fined water-bearing formation. Where
a well penetrates only impermeable
material, there is no water table and
the well is dry. But if the well passes
through impermeable rocks into water-
bearing material whose hydrostatic
head is higher than the level of the
bottom of the impermeable rock, water
will rise approximately to the level it
would have assumed if the whole
column of rock penetrated had been
permeable. This is called artesian
water.
Q. What is lethal gene ? When
dominant and recessive lethal
genes are expressed ?
☞ A gene which brings about
death of the organism carrying it, is
called lethal gene. Lethal genes
constitute the most common class of
mutations and the reflections of the
fact that the fundamental function of
gene is the control of processes
essential to the growth and develop-
ment of organisms. Dominant lethals,
expressed in heterozygotes, are
rapidly eliminated and thus rarely
detected. Recessive zygotic lethals
are retained with considerable fre-
Q. What is mosaicism and how
it is caused ?
☞ The coexistence of two or
more genetically distinct cell popula-
tions derived originally from a single
zygote, is termed as mosaicism
(mosaic). Mosaics may arise at any
stage of development, from the two-
cell stage onward, or in any tissue
which actively proliferates thereafter.
Mosaicism is commonly observed
in many species of animals and
plants and may be caused by somatic
mutation or chromosomal nondisjunc-
tion. Chromosome non-disjunction is
probably the principal cause of
chromosomal aberration, which in
turn may lead to the development of
mosaicism. Somatic crossing-over
leads to the production of a recom-
binant mosaic where chromosome
segments, with their corresponding
blocks of genes, are exchanged bet-
ween homologous chromosomes dur-
ing mitosis. The occurrence of this
process leads to mosaicism, mostly
manifested as spots (clones of variant
cells) on the cuticle of insects or on
leaves, petals, or stamen hairs.
●●●
New Release

Botany
quency in natural populations of
cross-fertilizing organisms, whereas
Mathematical
gametic lethals are subject to stringent
selection and are accordingly rare. In
Formulae
Q. What do you mean by
benthic microorganisms ?
higher diploid forms lethals are (Useful for Various Competitive Examinations)
usually recessive and expressed only
☞ The microbial inhabitants of Compiled by : Dr. N. K. Singh
in homozygotes.
the bottom region of a body of water Q. What is mucilage ? How is it
reservoir are referred to as benthic
Code No. 1642

formed inside the plant ?

microorganisms. The richest region
☞ Mucilage is a naturally
Rs. 65/-

of an aquatic system in terms of

numbers and types of organisms is
the benthic region. Various aquatic
microorganisms inhabit the gut of
marine animals. The lowermost region
of a freshwater or marine profile in
which the benthos resides, is known
as benthic zone.
Q. What do you mean by water
table ? How is water table shown ?
☞ Water table is the upper
surface of the zone of saturation in
permeable rocks not confined by
impermeable rocks. It may also be
defined as the surface underground at
which the water is at atmospheric
pressure. Below the water table, water
occurring, high molecular weight
(about 200,000), organic plant pro-
duct of unknown detailed structure.
Chemically, mucilage is closely allied
to gums and pectins but differ in
certain physical properties. In water,
mucilages form slippery and aqueous
HINDI
colloidal dispersions. EDITION
Mucilages are formed in normal
plant growth within the plant by
mucilage-secreting hairs, sacs and
canals, but they are not found on the Code 248
surface as exudates as a result of Rs. 76/-
bacterial or fungus action after
mechanical injury, as are gums. The
Upkar Prakashan, AGRA-2
chief industiral sources of mucilages ● E-mail : publisher@upkar.in ● Website : www.upkar.in
are Icelandic and Irish moss.

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1180

1. A weight of 290 N and another of (A) 0·33 A (B) 0·5 A 14. Stuart power factor of blood
200 N are suspended by a rope (C) 0·67 A (D) 0·17 A clotting is—
on either side of a frictionless (A) Factor XIII (B) Factor X
6. What is the IUPAC name of
pulley. The acceleration of each (C) Factor IX (D) Factor III
(CH3)2CHCH2CH3 ?
weight is—
(A) 2-methyl butane 15. Dartos tunic muscle fibres occur
(A) 1·5 ms–2 (B) 1·8 ms–2
(B) Dimethyl propane in—
(C) 2·2 ms–2 (D) 2·5 ms–2
(C) Trimethyl ethane (A) Abdominal wall
2. The potential energy of a particle (D) Tetra-2-methyl ethane
in a certain field is given by (B) Uterine wall
a b 7. The speed of electron in the first
U = 2 – where a and b are (C) Urethral wall
r r orbit of hydrogen atom in the
ground state is about— (D) Scrotal wall
positive constants and r is the
distance from the centre of the (c = Velocity of light) 16. Mutation at one base of the
field. The distance of particle in c c codon of a gene yields a non-
(A) (B)
the stable equilibrium position 13·7 137 functional protein; such a
is— c c mutation is called—
(C) (D)
a a 1·37 1370
(A) (B) – (A) Nonsense mutation
b b 8. Which of the following has maxi-
2a 2a (B) Missense mutation
(C) (D) – mum flocculation value ?
b b (C) Frame-shift mutation
(A) Cl– (B) SO42–
3. A solid sphere (density ρ and (D) Reverse mutation
(C) [Fe(CN6)4–] (D) PO43–
specific heat capacity c) of radius
17. The primitive atmosphere of the
r at an initial temperature 200 K 9. Diketones are classified accord-
is suspended inside a chamber earth was—
ing to the—
whose walls are at almost 0 K. (A) Normal (B) Neutral
(A) O-atom (B) C-atom
The time required (in μs) for the (C) —CO-atom (D) —CO2-atom (C) Oxidizing (D) Reducing
temperature of the sphere to drop
to 100 K is— 10. Which of the following is a direct 18. Proteins are diverse in nature
72 r ρc 7 r ρc method for the production of because of—
(A) (B) aromatic aldehydes by the oxida- (A) Complexity of amino acids
7 σ 72 σ
tion of the methylated homo-
27 r ρc 7 r ρc (B) Different molecular weight of
(C) (D) logues of benzene by chromyl
7 σ 27 σ amino acids
chloride, Cr2OCl2 ?
(A) Grignard’s reaction (C) Different molecular nature of
4. A metallic sphere having inner
amino acids
and outer radii a and b respec- (B) Green acid
tively has thermal conductivity (C) Grothus-Draper law (D) Different arrangement of
k0 amino acids
k = 2 (a ≤ r ≤ b) (D) Etard’s reaction
r 19. The pyrenoid of Spirogyra,
The thermal resistance between 11. Lamina propria is associated
with— belonging to a green alga, is
inner surface and outer surface
(A) Acinus of pancreas specially meant for—
is—
b–a b 2 – a2 (B) Gut mucosa (A) Starch synthesis
(A) (B)
4πk0 4πk0ab (C) Graffian follicle (B) Amino acid synthesis
4πk0 (D) Liver (C) Protein synthesis
(C) (D) None of these 12. The arm of a starfish will grow (D) None of the above
b–a
5. In the following circuit current I again after being cut off, this type
20. Geothermal energy is repre-
drawn from 5V source will be— of regeneration is called—
sented by—
(A) Autotomy
10 Ω (A) Non-renewable and non-
5Ω 10 Ω 20 Ω (B) Epimorphosis conventional
(C) Morphollaxis (B) Renewable and non-conven-
(D) Cyclosis tional
I 10 Ω 13. The males of ants, bees and (C) Non-renewable and conven-
wasps are— tional
+ (D) All of the above
(A) X/X (B) X/O
5V (C) Haploid (D) Polyploid ●●●

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1182

 Rules for taking part in Quiz Contest
of Competition Science Vision

1. All students or those appearing in competitive

examinations can take part in this contest.
2. Candidates taking part in quiz contest will necessarily
have to send their entries by a fixed date. Entries are
to be sent by ordinary post. Please mark your
envelope 'Quiz–Competition Science Vision' on
the top left hand side.
3. Answers given only on the form of the magazine will Solution to Quiz No. 138
be admissible.
4. In the form there are four squares against each Competition Science Vision
question number. Contestants should put a cross (×)
in the square for the answer they think is correct.
Last date for sending 28th November, 2009
Giving more than one answer to a question will
disqualify it. Name Mr./Miss/Mrs. ...........................….........................
5. Contestants should essentially write the number of
questions they have solved.
Full Address ...................................…..........................
6. Marks will be deducted for wrong answers. .............................................................…………………
7. The candidate sending the maximum number of ............................................................…………………
correct answers will be given Rs. 600 as first prize.
Next two candidates after that will get Rs. 400 and State .......................Pin Code No.
Rs. 300 as second and third prize respectively. If
there are more than one candidate eligible for a
prize, the amount will be equally distributed among Age.................. Academic Qualification........................
them. Competition examination for which preparing
8. The decision of the editor will be final and binding in
....................................................................................
all cases, and will not be a matter for consideration
of any court. I have read and understood the rules of quiz con-
test of Competition Science Vision issued by Pratiyogita
Darpan and agree to abide by them.
New ...................................
Release (Signature)

RESULT
No. of questions attempted..........................................

SALES/FINANCIAL No. of correct answers.................................................

No. of wrong answers...................................................

EXECUTIVES Marks obtained.............................................................

ANSWER FORM

TEST Q. No. A
1.
2.
B C D Q. No. A
11.
12.
B C D

By : Dr. Lal & Jain Code 1666 Price : Rs. 195/-

3. 13.
This book contains 4. 14.
☞ Reasoning 5. 15.
☞ Numerical Ability 6. 16.
☞ General Knowledge 7. 17.
Hindi Edition 8. 18.
Code No. 1478 Price : Rs. 160/-
9. 19.
● E-mail : publisher@upkar.in
UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2 ● Website : www.upkar.in 10. 20.

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1183

 According to the rules of the CSV
Quiz, all entry forms were examined.
As a result, the following participants
have qualified for various prizes. CSV
sends them greetings and good
wishes for their bright future. It also
places on record its appreciation for
their inquisitive nature and expresses
obligation for their co-operation.

PRIZE WINNERS
First Prize
Gagandeep Singh
C/o Dayaram Verma
L–971, Shastri Nagar, Meerut
U.P.–250 004
●●●
Second Prize
Manita Kumari (Continued from Page 1172)
C/o Pawan Kumar Pal, Patna
Bihar–800 007
Third Prize
Ravi Jaiswal
C/o Gaurav Jaiswal
Room No. 88, A. N. Jha Hostel,
University of Allahabad, Allahabad
U.P.–211 002

●●●
(Continued from Page 1070)
Professional Billiards Champion. In a
surprising one-sided five-hour final in
Leeds (England) on September 7,
2009, the 24-year-old outclassed the
41-year-old Mike Russell 2031–1253
to end a remarkable domination by
the Englishman who now lives in and
represents Qatar.
Russell has won the title a record
nine times and had been in the finals
17 times.
Advani, who won the World
amateur snooker championship in
China six years ago and the World
amateur billiards championship in
Malta four years back, is the second
after Malta’s Paul Mifsud to bag both
the amateur billiards and world
snooker titles.
●●●

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1184

1. The language spoken by the (C) Bahadur Shah Zafar 14. The most short-lived of all the
largest number of people in the (D) Faiz Ahmad Faiz Britain’s Constitutional experi-
world is— ments in India was the—
8. Which of the following is not
(A) Hindi (B) English (A) Indian Councils Act 1861
correctly matched ?
(C) Mandarin (D) Spanish (B) Indian Councils Act of 1892
Article Provision
2. The Constitution of India recog- (A) Article 20 (C) Indian Councils Act of 1909
nises— —Protection against arrest and (D) Government of India Act of
(A) Only religious minorities detention in certain cases 1919
(B) Only linguistic minorities (B) Article 21(A) 15. ‘Vilnius’ is the capital of—
(C) Religious and linguistic —Right to Education of Children (A) Estonia (B) Macedonia
minorities of the age 6 to 14 years (C) Eriterea (D) Lithuania
(D) Religious linguistic and (C) Article 24
16. Malaysia’s currency is—
ethnic minorities —Prohibition of Employment of
(A) Peso (B) Rupiah
3. The Sikh Guru who was put to Children below 14 in factories (C) Ringgit (D) Zloty
death by the order of Aurangzeb (D) Article 26
17. Which of the following is not the
was— —Freedom to Manage Religious
warm wind ?
(A) Guru Angad Affairs
(A) Zonda (B) Khamsin
(B) Guru Teg Bahadur 9. For which one of the following is (C) Mistral (D) Samun
(C) Guru Govind Singh capillarity not the only reason ?
(D) None of the above 18. The largest river of Europe Volga
(A) Blotting of Ink
rises/originates from—
4. After the death of Aurangzeb in (B) Rising of underground water
(A) Altai Mountains
1707, which of the following (C) Spread of water drop on a
ascended the throne by assuming (B) Valdai Plateau
cotton cloth
the title of Bahadur Shah I ? (C) Baikal Mountains
(D) Rising of water from the
(A) Azam roots of a plant to its foliage (D) None of the above
(B) Kam Baksh
10. Which of the following is not 19. The great River Mekong does
(C) Muazzam not pass through—
correctly matched ?
(D) None of the above (A) Malaysia (B) China
Substance Element
5. Which of the following is incor- (C) Thailand (D) Laos
(A) Diamond Carbon
rectly matched ?
(B) Marble Calcium 20. Which of the following is not
State Founder correctly matched ?
(A) Avadh Burhanul Mulk (C) Sand Silicon
Railway ZoneHeadquarters
Saadat Khan (D) Ruby Magnesium
(A) East Central
(B) Hyderabad Chin Qulich 11. The term ‘Aryan’ denotes— Railway Hajipur
Khan (A) An ethnic group (B) West Central
(C) Bengal Murshid Quli (B) A nomadic group Railway Jabalpur
Khan (C) A superior race (C) North Central
(D) Rohilakhand Shuja-Ud- (D) A speech group Railway Allahabad
Daula 12. In eye donation, which of the (D) South Central
6. Which Maratha Peshwa is known following parts of donor’s eye is Railway Hyderabad
by the title–Nana Sahib ? utilized ?
21. The territorial jurisdiction of
(A) Balaji Baji Rao (A) Iris (B) Lens
Guwahati High Court does not
(B) Baji Rao I (C) Cornea (D) Retina cover—
(C) Balaji Vishwanath 13. In which one of the following does (A) Assam
(D) Madhav Rao low temperatures (Cryogenics) (B) Manipur
7. The first writer to use Urdu as the not find application ? (C) Sikkim
medium of poetic expression (A) Space Travel (D) Arunachal Pradesh
was— (B) Magnetic levitation 22. Which of the following is not one
(A) Amir Khusro (C) Telemetry of the Fundamental Duties as
(B) Mirza Ghalib (D) Surgery enshrined in Article 51-A (Part

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1185

 IV-A) of the Constitution of 27. The real founder of Portugese
India ? power in India was—
(A) To value and preserve the (A) Francisco de-Almeida
rich heritage of our Com- (B) Alfonso-de-Albuquerque
posite Culture (C) D. J. Castro
(B) To develop the scientific (D) Vasco-da-Gama
temper, humanism, spirit of
28. The first French factory in India
enquiry and reform
was established in—
(C) To safeguard public pro- (A) Masulipattanam
perty and to abjure violence
(B) Kolkata
(D) To build public opinion to root (C) Surat
out social evils
(D) Ahmedabad
23. Who among the following was 29. Arya Samaj was founded by—
the speaker of the Lok Sabha
(A) Swami Vivekanand
before he became the President
(B) Swami Dayanand
of India ?
(C) Ram Krishna Parmahansa
(A) Shankar Dayal Sharma
(D) None of the above
(B) R. Venkataraman
30. In regard to revolt of 1857, which
(C) Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
of the following is incorrectly
(D) B.D. Jatti matched ?
24. Under which Article of the Cons- Revolt Centre Leader
titution of India, has it been (A) Bareilly Ali Mohammad
provided that the Vice-President Khan
shall be an ex-officio Chairman (B) Bihar Vir Kunwar Singh
of the Council of States ? (C) Allahabad Liyakat Ali
(A) Article 62 (B) Article 64 (D) Kanpur Nana Sahib
(C) Article 65 (D) Article 67 31. The river which makes the
World’s longest estuary is—
25. Under the Constitution (Forty-
(A) Lena River
second Amendment) Act 1976,
(B) Ob River
which of the following clauses/
(C) Amazon River
provisions was not added to the
(D) Yellow River
Constitution of India ?
32. Which of the following is incor-
(A) Ideals of socialism, secu- rectly matched ?
larism and the integrity of
City River
the nation were inserted
(A) Paris Danube
(B) A new chapter on Funda- (B) Karachi Indus
mental Duties was inserted (C) Stalingrad Volga
(C) Provision of Administrative (D) Yangoon Irrawdy
and Other Tribunal was 33. The old name of ‘Burkina Faso’
made is—
(D) The right to property as a (A) Lower Volta
Fundamental Right was (B) Upper Volta
omitted (C) Gold Coast
(D) None of the above
26. In order to win the Grand Slam in
34. A person of mixed European and
Tennis, a player must win which
Indian blood in Latin America is
one of the following groups of called—
tournaments ? (A) Mulatto (B) Mestizo
(A) Australian Open, French (C) Meiji (D) Mau Mau
Open, Wimbledon Open,
35. Endoscopy, a technique used to
U.S. Open explore the stomach or other
(B) Wimbledon, French Open, inner parts of the body is based
U.S. Open on the phenomenon of—
(C) Wimbledon, French Open, (A) Total internal reflection
Paegas Czech, U.S. Open (B) Interference
(D) Davis Cup, Wimbledon, (C) Diffraction
French Open (D) Polarization ●●●

C.S.V. / November / 2009 / 1186