Set II Version 1.0 PDF processed with CutePDF evaluation edition www.CutePDF.com PDF processed with CutePDF evaluation edition www.CutePDF.com
1. Which of the following is not the feature of a project? A. Constrained by limited resources
B. Planned Executed and controlled
C. Creates Unique Product or Service
D. May be ongoing and repetitive
2. Which of the following statements about a Project Plan is inaccurate? A. Project Plan is a formal document used to manage project execution.
B. Project plan includes several other subsidiary plans
C. Project plan can change over time as more information becomes available
D. Project plan changes intermittently as a response to an approved scope of work change
3. All the following are tools to Estimate Cost except: A. Analogous Estimating
B. Parametric Modeling
C. Computerized tools
D. Alternatives Identification
4. You recently took over a large project from another project manager who had to leave for a personal emergency. You want to understand what kind of information should be provided to different stakeholders, and the what methods should be used to provide this information. You will find this information in the : A. Communications Management Plan
B. Performance Reports
C. Project Records
D. Communication Plan A.
5. You are considering whether to buy or make a software product. If you buy, the cost is $ 80,000 and the cost of procurement and integrating in your company is $ 1000 If you want to build yourself, the product will require 7 software engineers working 3 months. Salary of each software engineer is $ 4,000 per month. The overhead costs apportioned to the project will be $ 2,000. Which option will you choose? A. Buy
B. Build
C. Neither build nor Buy
D. Need more information about the suppliers before making a decision
6. Creating a WBS is essential for successful completion of a project. An intangible benefit of the processes involved in creating the WBS is that it: A. Ensures shared ownership for the project
B. Improves confidence level of the sponsor and customer
C. Clearly illustrates time-dependencies between the tasks
D. Helps in finding out the Critical Path
7. To Plan Quality, you are going to use Design of Experiments to determine which factors might influence specific variables. What variable(s) can be used in your analysis? A. Dollars
B. Kilograms
C. Weight
D. Pounds
8. All the following statements about risk are true except: A. Risk is an uncertain event or condition
B. Risks have to be identified and properly managed
C. Risk Management should be done throughout the project
D. Risk has only negative impact on the project objective
9. In your new company, you realize that some of the financial statements of the company do not follow US GAAP Accounting Standards and are hence inaccurate. In this case, what should you do first? A. Inform the US government agencies of the inaccurate accounting practices in the company
B. Talk to your finance managers about why you think that they may be violating the standard accounting standards
C. Since you are new to the company, you assume that finance standards are different in the company - hence do not do anything about the issue
D. Talk with finance manager in your previous company to get expert opinion about accounting standards in the new company
10. The difference of a milestone chart as compared with a bar chart when making presentation to top management is that unlike bar charts, milestones: A. Show activity start and end dates
B. Show dependencies among tasks
C. Only identify the scheduled start or completion of a major deliverables, and not all the tasks
D. Show supporting details
11. Develop Project Team is a very critical component of Human Resource Management. All the following are inputs to Develop Project Team except: A. Project Management Plan
B. Project Staff Assignments
C. Staffing pool description
D. Resource Calendars
12. The following are advantages of a Projectized organization except: A. Loyalty of the project team towards to the project
B. Home for the team-members after the project is completed
C. More effective communication between the team members
D. Efficient Project organization
13. You are the Project Manager for a company doing research on alternative fuels for automobiles. In your project, which of the following is a valid assumption: A. Cost of the project is $ 5 Million
B. The project scope is to develop alternative fuels only for automobile vehicles weighing less than 10 tons.
C. Gasoline fuels will become very expensive and less readily available after 10 years
D. The project has to be completed within 2 years
14. Your project uses project costs as a component for a reward and recognition system. For the reward and recognition system to be effective, A. Direct and Indirect costs must be measured for each project
B. Controllable and Uncontrollable costs must be budgeted separately
C. Project Life Cycle Costs should be maximized
D. The project with the highest NPV should be given to the most competent project managers.
15. In a sender-receiver model, all the following are true except: A. Sender is responsible for making information clear, unambiguous and complete
B. Sender confirms that information is understood
C. Receiver is responsible for making sure that the information is completely received and understood
D. All the statement above are true
16. Which is the best thing to do during the Conduct Procurement process? A. Determine whether a product should be outsourced or manufactured in- house
B. Ensure that prospective sellers clearly understand the technical and contract requirements
C. Clarify on the structure and requirements of the contract, before sign-off
D. Prepare an independent estimate to check the proposed price of the different sellers
17. Work Breakdown Structure is: A. Developed in the Scope Planning Phase
B. A deliverable oriented grouping of project components.
C. Similar to the chart of accounts
D. Depicts work elements assigned to different organizational units
18. Risk Management Plan may typically include: A. Budgeting, Timing, Thresholds, Methodology
B. Risks, Triggers, Inputs to other processes
C. Avoided, Transferred, Mitigated and Accepted Risks
D. Risk Response Audits, Earned Value Analysis, Technical Performance Measurement
19. You are the project manager for an automobile company. Because of change in Government regulations, the emission norms for automobile vehicles have been made stricter. As a project manager, you are concerned that your project will not satisfy the required quality standards. This could be done through:- A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Plan Quality
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Modifications to Quality Management Plan
20. You had worked as a project manager in a firm specializing in making semiconductor chips. Now that you are working with a competitor, A. You should not be using the knowledge gained in the first company to improve the competitors product
B. You can use the knowledge gained in the first company to improve the competitors product
C. Before doing anything which may adversely impact prospects of the first company, you should get their approval
D. You should do nothing which provides competition to or undermines the products of the first company
21. Please refer to the diagram given below: (all units are in days)
What is the project float if management wants to do this project within 10 days? A. 0 days
B. - 4 days
C. 2 days
D. Cannot be determined because information in the question is inconsistent
22. In the last project status meeting, there was a team member who was criticized some of his other team members and decreased the status of work done by them. The role that was played by the person was that of: A. Aggressor
B. Conflict Maxi miser
C. Devils advocate
D. Recognition Seeker
23. Which of the following statement(s) about project customer and project sponsor is (are) correct? A. Along with the customer, the sponsor threshold for risks should be taken into account
B. Along with the customer, this sponsor may provide key events, milestones, and deliverable due dates
C. Along with the customer, the sponsor formally accepts the product of the project.
D. All of the above.
24. Which of the following is not an example of project integration management? A. Integrating the work of the project with the ongoing operations of the performing organization.
B. Making tradeoffs between competing objectives and alternatives to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations.
C. Integrating product scope and project scope
D. For change in scope of the project, figuring out what the impact will be to the project from a cost and schedule perspective
25. Project cost management must consider the effect of project decisions on the cost of the product created by the project. Your objective to reduce cost and time, improve quality and performance, and optimize decision making can be facilitated using tools like: (select best answer) A. Value Engineering
B. Life Cycle Costing
C. Payback Period
D. Value Engineering and Life Cycle Costing
26. All the following statements about Close Project or Phase are correct except A. Close Project or Phase formalizes acceptance of the product of the project
B. Close Project or Phase should be done at the end of the project
C. Close Project or Phase involves collection of project records and ensuring that they reflect final specifications.
D. Project Reports and Project Presentations are some tools used for Close Project or Phase
27. Receipt of bids or proposals and application of the evaluation criteria to select a provider should be done as part of : A. Plan Procurement
B. Close Procurements
C. Conduct Procurements
D. Source Selection Criteria
28. Which of the following documents provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities? A. Resource Authorization Document
B. Work Breakdown Structure
C. Project Charter
D. Project Scope Statement
29. To identify which quality standards are relevant to a project, and determine how to satisfy them, you will do: A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Plan Quality
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Project Quality Management
30. As part of Risk Management process, you have already created a Risk Management Plan, and identified risks, triggers and inputs to other processes. What should you be doing next? A. Assessing the impact and likelihood of identified risks
B. Analyzing numerically the probability of each risk and its impact on the project objectives
C. Determining actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives
D. Keeping track of identified risks and ensuring execution of risk plans
31. You have been informed by the project sponsor that there has been a revaluation of projects within your company and your project will not be getting any additional funding. In this case, you should: A. Stop Work Immediately and release all resources
B. Close Project or Phase
C. Decrease team size
D. Remove non-critical tasks to decrease cost
32. As a project manager, you are responsible for meeting the project schedule deadlines. If there is some delay in the project schedule, you should: (choose the most appropriate answer) A. Increase the timeline for the project
B. Fast track or Crash the project, and let management know about the impacts of these actions
C. Ask resources to work overtime and extra hours to meet the project deadlines.
D. None of the above
33. An organization chart which shows the organizational units responsible for specific work packages is also called : A. Organizational breakdown structure
B. Staffing plan
C. Responsibilities Assignment Matrix
D. Organization Plan
34. Core processes: A. Include Organizational Planning, Resource Planning and Staff Acquisition.
B. have clear dependencies that require them to be performed in essentially the same order
C. Are done only once in any phase of the project.
D. are performed intermittently and as needed during project planning
35. All the following are true about Project Plan Execution except: A. Vast majority of the project budget will be expended in Project Plan Execution
B. Project Manager and her team coordinate the various technical and organizational interfaces
C. Product of the project is created
D. Care is taken to ensure that changes to the product scope are reflected in the project scope
36. Which project will be selected from the following options? A. Internal Rate of Return of 12%, Opportunity cost $ 0
B. Internal Rate of Return of - 2%, Opportunity Cost of $ 20,000
C. Benefit cost ratio of 0.5, Payback Period of 6 months
D. Internal Rate of Return of 0%, Opportunity Cost of $ 200,000
37. You have completed the Distribute Information Process and are now in a position to make needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner. All the following could be outputs from Distribute Information EXCEPT: A. Project Records
B. Project Reports
C. Project Presentations
D. Performance Reports
38. A contract is legally binding in all the following cases EXCEPT: A. Seller is not able to produce goods as part of the contract
B. The signatory for the contract leaves the company
C. Buyer is not able to satisfy financial obligations
D. The contract violates the law of the land
39. Which statement relating to Verify Scope and Perform Quality control is correct? A. Verify Scope is concerned with correctness of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with acceptance of the work results.
B. Verify Scope is concerned with acceptance of the work results while perform quality control is primarily concerned with correctness of the work results.
C. Both are similar
D. Verify Scope and Perform Quality Control are performed sequentially and supplement each other
40. All the following are tools and techniques for Plan Quality except: A. Benefit/Cost Analysis
B. Design of Experiments
C. Quality Audits
D. Flow Charting
41. While doing plan risk response, you realize that there is a very critical risk which may have a high impact on the project completion. So, you create a fallback plan which could include any of the following conditions EXCEPT: A. Subcontracting the project to an outside Vendor
B. Developing Alternative Options
C. Allocation of Contingency Reserves
D. Changing project scope
42. You have been having a lot of heated discussions with your colleague about an issue and this is resulting in a hostile environment. To "cool-off" this hostile situation, you agree to your colleagues point of view. The conflict resolution mode that you are using is: A. Problem Solving
B. Withdrawal
C. Forcing
D. Confrontation
43. All the following are advantages of GERT (Graphical Evaluation and Review Techniques) as compared with PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) except: A. Allows looping
B. Allows for dummy tasks
C. Allows branching
D. Allows multiple project end results
44. As a project manager, you are interested in the personal activities of team- members, other than working with you on the project, the team members love to go out with you for lunch or an occasional game of golf. The power that you have over the team members is: A. Penalty
B. Expert
C. Legitimate
D. Referent
45. As a project manager, you realize that handling Project Stakeholder expectations is an important priority. Which statement regarding project stakeholders is not correct? A. Some key stakeholders include Project Manager, Performing organization, Project team members, Customer and Sponsor.
B. Project stakeholders can be categorized as internal and external, sellers and contractors, individual citizens, government agencies and media outlets etc.
C. Stakeholder expectations may be difficult to manage because stakeholders often have conflicting objectives.
D. Stakeholders are individuals and organizations whose interests are only positively affected because of the project.
46. A restriction (e.g. limited budget) that affects the performance of the project is also called: A. Constraint
B. Assumption
C. Kill points
D. Risk
47. All the following statements related to Benefit Cost Ratio (BCR) are correct Except: A. Projects with BCR > 1 should be considered for selection
B. BCR is the ratio of payback to costs
C. If two projects have positive BCR, select project with higher BCR
D. For any project, Benefits = Profits
48. In critical negotiations about a contract where two parties meet to discuss outstanding issues, you should pay a lot of attention to which form of communication? A. Oral Formal
B. Oral Informal
C. Non Verbal
D. Written Formal
49. Administer Procurements is the process of ensuring that the seller`s performance meets contractual agreements. All the following will facilitate Administer Procurements EXCEPT A. Contract
B. Work Results
C. Change Requests
D. Evaluation Criteria
50. As the complexity of a project increases, the uncertainty in the project scope: A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains same
D. There is no relation between complexity of the project and level of uncertainty involved
51. All the following statements related to Just In Time Manufacturing are correct except: A. It stresses Waste Reduction
B. Eliminates costs related to material handling, storage, paperwork and inspection.
C. Stresses on short term relationships with suppliers which lasts until the delivery is received.
D. Reduces inventory to zero
52. Based on past estimates, there is 25% probability for a particular event to happen every year. If a project lasts for 3 years, what is the probability that the activity will happen in the 3rd year? A. 15.625 %
B. 6.25 %
C. 25%
D. 75%
53. You are aware that an employee in your project may potentially get a promotion - however, there is a possibility that he may get transferred after his promotion, thus impacting your project. In this situation, you should: A. Give a bad recommendation about the person so as to delay the promotion of the person until project is over
B. Inform the employee about the potential promotion, and ask him to transition his responsibilities to another person
C. After the employee gets the promotion and is told of the transfer, you ask him to prepare a transition plan
D. Hire another resource who can replace the person after he gets the promotion
54. You are in the test phase of your software project and the project sponsor has requested a Definitive measure of when your project will be completed. The estimated duration (Most Likely is 30 days). What will be an appropriate estimate to give your sponsor A. 29 - 31 days
B. 24 - 36 days
C. 20 - 40 days
D. 15 - 45 days
55. All direct or indirect training costs should generally be the responsibility of the: A. Program Office of the Project
B. Project budget (hence paid from the project sizing)
C. Performing organization
D. Project Sponsor and Business partner
56. Which of the following processes belong to planning phase? A. Define Scope, Develop Schedule, Plan Risk Management, Project Plan Development
B. Initiation, Plan Quality, Plan Procurements, Plan Risk Response
C. Perform Quality Assurance, Develop Project Team, Distribute Information, Plan Risk Management
D. Verify Scope, Control Scope, Control Schedule, Control Costs
57. The organization of the project is very important for successful implementation. Which factor does not have an impact of design of the project organization? A. Environmental Forces
B. Schedule Limitations
C. Strategic Choices
D. Technological Factors
58. Which of the following is an output from Control Costs? A. Activity Cost Estimates
B. Cost Performance Baseline
C. Scope Baseline
D. Resource Requirements
59. You are interviewing for the position of project manager in the company. What is the most important characteristic you should be looking for in the project manager? A. Technical Knowledge about the Business
B. Negotiating and convincing skills
C. Communication Skills
D. Experience in your organization
60. Which is the most important thing to do during the Source Selection? A. Determine whether a product should be outsourced or manufactured in- house
B. Ensure that prospective sellers clearly understand the technical and contract requirements
C. Place advertisements in publications
D. Prepare an independent estimate to check the proposed price of the different sellers
61. A scope change control systems defines the procedures by which project scope may be changed. It includes all the following except: A. Paperwork
B. Tracking Systems
C. Approval Levels
D. Rejection criteria
62. Benchmarking is a common tool used for: A. Design of Experiments
B. Plan Quality
C. Quality Control Measurements
D. Quality analysis
63. In your project, there is: 50% probability for $ 40,000 profit 50% probability for $ 25,000 loss What is the Expected profit in your project? A. $ 32,500
B. $ 25,000
C. $ 7,500
D. - $ 7,500 (i.e. loss of $ 7,500)
64. There have been too many disagreements within two team-members in your project regarding the design of a particular product. You would like to incorporate the best features of the two designs - and want to create an environment which avoids conflicts and emphasis similarities. The conflict handling mode you would like to emphasize is: A. Smoothing
B. Compromising
C. Confrontation
D. Withdrawal
65. There has been a short delay in your project schedule because of change in scope. To make changes to the start and finish dates, you will require: A. A Revision
B. Project rebaselining
C. Variance Analysis
D. Corrective Action
66. All the following tools and techniques can be used for staff acquisition except: A. Negotiations
B. Contractual agreements with unions or other employee groups
C. Preassignment of staff through a competitive proposal
D. Staff assignment as defined in the project charter
67. Inputs to Develop Project Team include all except: A. Team Performance Assessment
B. Project staff assignment
C .Project Management Plan
D. Resource Availability
68. Which of the following statement relating to Assumptions is inaccurate? A. They are factors which are considered to be true, real or certain.
B. They affect all aspects of project planning,
C. They are progressively elaborated
D. They limit the project teams options
69. There are three projects: Project A has a payback period of 3 years and NPV of $ 300,000 Project B has a payback period of 2 years and NPV of $ 200,000 Project C has a payback period of 1 years and NPV of $ 100,000 Which project should be selected if Net Present Value criteria is used for selection? A. Project A
B. Project B
C. Project C
D. Project A, B or C can be selected because all of them have equal value
70. Confirmation that the project has met all customer requirements for the product of the project is provided as part of: A. Perform Quality Assurances
B. Administer Procurements
C. Close project or phase
D. Performance Reporting
71. If the scope of the project is not well defined, which type of contract helps in minimizing buyer risk?
A. Fixed Price
B. Fixed Price with Incentive Fee
C. Cost plus Fixed Fee
D. Cost plus Percentage of Cost
72. Your company is constructing a dam and your project (which is being performed under a contract) mandates that you should be paying compensation to any person displaced because of the project. What kind of constraint is this? A. Social
B. Legal
C. Environmental
D. Humanity
73. All the following are tools of Perform Quality Control except: A. Inspection
B. Control Charts
C. Flow-charting
D. Quality Audits
74. Which of the following are Information Gathering Techniques required for Risk Identification? A. Brainstorming, Delphi Technique, SWOT Analysis
B. Brainstorming, Cause and Effect Diagrams, Influence Diagrams
C. Delphi Technique, SWOT Analysis, Influence Diagrams
D. SWOT Analysis, Cause and Effect Diagrams, Influence Diagrams
75. You are doing some work under contract, when the buyer requests you to add some additional requirements which were not defined in the original contract. Since satisfying the buyer is of paramount interest, you go ahead and incorporate the requirements as part of the project. You are violating which Code of Professional Conduct: A. Responsibility to maintain and satisfy the scope and objectives
B. Responsibility to ensure that a conflict of interest does not compromise legitimate interests
C. Responsibility to provide accurate and truthful representations
D. No Code of Professional Conduct is violated
76. In schedule development, mathematical analysis often produces a preliminary early-start schedule that shows peaks and valleys in the resource requirements. Resource Leveling done to take care of this issue may result in all the following except: A. Increase in project duration
B. Utilization of weekends, extended hours or multiple shifts
C. Productivity increases by using different technologies and/or methodologies
D. Reduction in project cost
77. According to Herzbergs theory, the absence of hygiene factors can create job dissatisfaction, but their presence do not motivate or create satisfaction. Which of the following can be categorized as a hygiene factor? A. Recognition
B. Responsibility
C. Advancement in career
D. Interpersonal relations
78. You are one of ten full-time project managers in your organization. You all share two administrative persons. There are generally 30 - 40 projects per year that involve about 30% of the organization employees - however, these employees do not report to you. Your organization can best be classified as: A. Projectized
B. Balanced
C. Strong Matrix
D. Weak Matrix
79. Because of the change in scope of your project, you may have to do all the following except: A. Co-ordinate changes across knowledge areas
B. Do Scope Planning
C. Make changes to the project baselines
D. Perform Configuration Management
80. If there is a change to the approved cost baseline, the project manager must: A. Issue a Budget Update
B. Perform Rebaselining
C. Issue a Revised Cost Estimate
D. Take Corrective Action
81. For a project, the number of communication channels : A. Increases in direct proportion to number of people
B. Decreases in inverse proportion to number of people
C. Increases in exponential proportion when number of people increases
D. Decreases in exponential proportion when number of people increases
82. While obtaining responses from prospective sellers, you mention that you will "Require certified PMPs as project managers for the project." This is an example of: A. Objective Evaluation Criteria
B. Subjective Evaluation Criteria
C. Procurement Documents
D. Statement of Work
83. All the following tools are used for Product Analysis except: A. Value Engineering
B. Value Analysis
C. Quality Function Deployment
D. Benefit/Cost Analysis
84. Modern Quality Management means: A. Meeting or exceeding customer expectations
B. Conformance to requirements and fitness for use
C. Decreasing total cost of ownership of the project
D. None of the above
85. The output of Plan Risk Management is: A. Risk Management Plan
B. Identify Risks
C. Revised project plan
D. Plan Risk Responses
86. While implementing your project, a team member brings to your notice, a risk that was not mentioned in the Risk Register. In this case, you should: A. Accept the risk
B. Perform Additional Risk Response Planning to control the risk
C. Inform the project sponsor
D. Use project contingency
87. Dummy activities have zero duration and are used to show a logical relationship between tasks. They can be used in all these diagrams except: A. CPM
B. PERT
C. ADM (Arrow Diagramming Method)
D. PDM (Precedence Diagrammatic Method)
88. All the following refer to power derived by the position of the Project Manager in the organization except: A. Penalty
B. Expert
C. Legitimate
D. Reward
89. Which of the following are not Project Management Knowledge Areas? A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Procurement Management
C. Project Configuration Management
D. Project Communications Management
90. A Work Breakdown Structure can be used for all the following except: A. Tracking project performance against cost and schedule
B. Creating a network diagram, with task dependencies
C. Creating a project schedule
D. Assigning resources to work on different work elements
91. Which project will you select? A. Project A with sunk cost of $ 4,000; Opportunity cost $ 3,000
B. Project B with Sunk Cost of $ 5,000; Opportunity cost $ 3,000
C. Project C with Sunk Cost of $ 5,000;
D. Cannot be determined from the above choices
92. Plan Communications is used for determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders: who needs what information, when they will need it, and how it will be given. Which of the following is an output from Plan Communications? A. Communication Management Plan
B. Project Records
C. Project Reports
D. Performance Reports
93. Plan Procurements is used for documenting product requirements and identifying potential sources. All the following are outputs from Plan Procurements, EXCEPT: A. Procurement documents
B. Procurement management plan
C. Contract Types
D. Statement of work updates
94. All the following are examples of product documentation except: A. Plans
B. Scope Statement
C. Drawings
D. Specifications
95. All the following are tools and techniques for Plan Quality EXCEPT: A. Flow charting
B. Benefit/Cost Analysis
C. Design of Experiments
D. Quality Audits
96. Risk Register is an output of: A. Plan Risk Management
B. Monitor and control risks
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Identify Risks
97. As a PMP Certified project manager, you are responsible for all the following EXCEPT: A. Confidentiality of sensitive information which you have access to
B. Managing conflict of interest situations in your project
C. Integrity of your team-members
D. Refraining from offering and accepting inappropriate payments, gifts and other forms of communication
98. An Activity has an Optimistic estimate of 10 days, pessimistic estimate of 16 days, most likely estimate of 13 days. What is the PERT Estimate for the task? A. 13 days
B. 10 days
C. 16 days
D. Cannot be determined with available information
99. In your previous project, the project manager gave a lot of autonomy to the team members to do as they deemed fit. At times, this lead to anarchy because the team members were not very sure of what needed to be done. The manager however followed a management style, which was: A. Directing
B. Laissez Faire
C. Delegating
D. Democratic
100. As a Project Manager, you realize that it is very important to be a good leader. Leading involves all the following except: A. Consistently producing key results expected by stakeholders.
B. Establishing direction
C. Aligning people
D. Motivating and Inspiring
101. During Direct and Manage Plan Project Execution, which area wills the Project Manager spends least time on? A. Managing risks
B. Documentation
C. Conflict Resolution
D. Documentation and Planning
102. In your construction project, the CPI is 0.85 and SPI is 1.25. What could be the potential reason? A. A critical resource went on sick leave for a long period of time, which had not been anticipated earlier.
B. The cost of raw materials required for construction increased 10% - you had anticipated a cost increase of 12% in your project plans
C. Anticipating delays, the project had to be crashed to decrease duration
D. There was 4 days waiting time in the curing of cement, and work could not be done during that time.
103. You are collecting and disseminating information to provide stakeholders with information about how resources are being used to achieve project objectives. This is done as part of: A. Plan Communications
B. Distribute information Manage stakeholders expectations
C. Performance Reporting
D. Administer procurements
104. Project procurement management includes the processes required to acquire goods and services, to attain project scope, from outside the performing organization. Which of the following statements related to buyer-seller relationships in Project Procurement Management is not correct? A. Seller manages the work as a project; buyer becomes the customer and is thus a key stakeholder for the seller.
B. Seller`s project management team must be concerned with all the processes of project management
C. Terms and conditions of the contract become a key input to many of the seller`s processes.
D. All the statements above are correct
105. Creating Work Breakdown Structures (WBS) is very helpful in managing the project. The first step in creating a WBS is: A. Identifying the major deliverables for the project.
B. Determining the constituent components of the WBS.
C. Assigning responsibility for each task in the WBS.
D. Creating the cost and time estimates for each activity in the project.
106. You are the project manager for a manufacturing company involved with making components for Internal Combustion Engines required for the automobile industry. In the past couple of days, there have been too many defects, and you would like to find out whether unusual events are occurring in your manufacturing process whose causes must be identified and corrected? For this purpose, you should use: A. Inspection
B. Pareto Charts
C. Control Charts
D. Statistical Sampling
107. Risk identification helps in determining which risks might affect the project and documenting their characteristics. All the following are tools and techniques to Identify Risks EXCEPT: A. Documentation Reviews
B. Checklist Analysis
C. Risk Probability and Impact
D. Assumptions Analysis
108. In a project management context, all the following are Constructive Roles EXCEPT: A. Information Seeker
B. Recognition Seeker
C. Consensus Taker
D. Information Giver
109. As a project manager of a construction company, you always prefer to do concrete curing during the weekend holiday, because no work can be done on the building for 2 days while the concrete curing is being done. This helps you decrease the: A. Waiting Time
B. Elapsed Time
C. Project Schedule
D. Critical Path
110. In your software project, you have a programmer who constantly professes to know all about project management, and keeps challenging his superiors. The programmer is playing the role of a (an): A. Aggressor
B. Conflict Maxi miser
C. Devils advocate
D. Dominator
111. All the following are examples of projects EXCEPT: A. Developing a new product of service
B. Changing the password of one user used for logging into a bank web-site
C. Running a campaign for political office
D. Implementing a new business procedure or process
112. Which process is an output from Develop project management plan? A. Work Results
B. Project Management Plan Updates
C. Corrective Action
D. Project management Plan
113. All the following are tools and techniques of Develop Human Resource Plan EXCEPT? A. Networking
B. Organizational Theory
C. Parametric Modeling
D. Organizational Charts
114. As part of Distribute Information, you are involved with creation of information retrieval systems which helps in sharing information by team members and stakeholders. What will you be doing next? A. Create a communications management plan
B. Do stakeholder analysis to develop a methodical and logical view of information needs
C. Determine methods for accessing information between scheduled communications
D. Conduct performance reviews to assess project status and/or progress
115. All the following statements related to Fixed Price, Cost Reimbursable and Time and Material contract are correct EXCEPT: A. In a Fixed Price contract, the product is well defined
B. In a Cost reimbursable contract, the risk of seller is low
C. In a time and material contract, the risk of buyer is low
D. In a time and material contract, the type of payment is unit rates for work done. The unit rate for work done is fixed but the total cost increases with time
116. All the following are examples of Constrained Optimization except: A. Economic Models
B. Multi Objective Programming
C. Decision Trees
D. Logical Framework Analysis
117. You recently joined as a project manager for an existing project which is being implemented (the previous project manager had to take 2 months personal time- off). You are happy that the project is under budget and ahead of schedule. You also notice that some features have been included which are not explicitly mentioned in the project scope. While discussing with team-members, you were informed that they thought the added features would be appreciated by the customer and were hence included as part of the project. In this situation, you are: A. concerned because the project team is gold-plating
B. happy because the project will "Exceed Customer Expectations"
C. going to increase the sizing for the project, because it is delivering more than what the customer had asked for
D. increase the quality metrics for the project, since you are delivering better quality
118. As a project manager, you understand that risk ratings and prioritization may change during the life of the project. So, you make project risk an agenda at all team meetings and schedule regular: A. Project risk response audits
B. Project risk reviews
C. Earned value analysis
D. Additional risk response planning
119. In your organization, you are the project manager of the engineering department. But if questions related to manufacturing arise, they are passed up to the engineering department head, who consults with the head of the manufacturing department. Once the manufacturing head gets the answers, he passes it the engineering department head, who in turn passes answer back down to you. The organization structure you are working on is A. Weak Matrix
B. Matrix
C. Strong Matrix
D. Functional
120. Which of the following parameter will help in determining probability of getting a result? A. PERT Value
B. CPM
C. Standard Deviation
D. Variance
121. As a project manager, you realize the importance of team development for Project human resource management. Team Development helps in developing individual and group competencies to enhance project performance. All the following are inputs to Develop Project Team EXCEPT: A. Project Management Plan
B. Project staff assignments
C. Project interfaces
D. Resource Calendars
122. Which of the following statement related to Standards and Regulations is not correct? A. Standard is a document approved by a recognized body - there can be multiple standards for one product.
B. Regulations are mandatory but Standards are not mandatory.
C. Standards after widespread adoption may become de facto regulations.
D. The influence of standards and regulations for a project is always known
123. Which of the following is not a process for Project Integration Management A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Direct and Manage Plan Project Execution
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Project Initiation
124. If a property depreciates by the same amount every year, it is called: A. Sum of the Year Digits
B. Accelerated Depreciation
C. Straight Line Depreciation
D. Double Declining Balance
125. You had 4 people in your project, one more person will be joining next week. You know that once the new person joins, the number of communication channels will increase by: A. No change in number of communication channels
B. 4
C. 8
D. 10
126. Organizations performing projects will usually divide each project into several project phases to improve management control and provide for links to the ongoing operations of the performing organization. Collectively, project phases are also called: A. Program Life Cycle
B. Portfolio Management Life Cycle
C. Project Life Cycle
D. Phase-Exit Gates
127. You are the project manager for a project which is being done under contract. You are informed by the buyer that government regulations will necessitate some changes in the project. What should you do first? A. Talk with team members to understand implication of the change
B. Communicate the change to Management to get their inputs
C. Open up a Change Control
D. Do sizing for the change and communicate to customer
128. Which of the following techniques to estimate cost is the least expensive? A. Top-down Estimating
B. Parametric Modeling
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Vendor Bid Analysis
129. A conflict resolution technique that results in a win-lose situation i.e. one party wins at the expense of another is : A. Confronting
B. Compromising
C. Forcing
D. Accomodating
130. In a bidder conference that you just attended, you tried to provide a clear, common understanding of the procurement (technical requirements, contract requirements etc.) Responses to questions posed by sellers were incorporated into the procurement documents as amendments. What will you do next? A. Use Standard forms required to Conduct Procurements
B. Use a make-or-buy analysis to determine whether the product can be produced cost-effectively by performing organization
C. Determine what type of contract should be used (i.e. fixed price, cost reimbursable or time and material contract)
D. Use a screening system to determine minimum requirements of performance for one or more of the evaluation criteria
131. A WBS can be used for : A. Determining the project schedule
B. Developing common understanding of project scope
C. Getting approval of the scope of the project
D. Managing changes to the project scope
132. Your project has been selected for a Quality Audit. Several of your team members are nervous because they do not have exposure to audits and do not understand what is expected from them. You explain to your team members that the primary objective of a quality audit is to: A. Identify how well the project compares with other projects in the organization
B. Determine if the project is following all the requirements of the quality management plan
C. Identify lessons learned that can improve performance of this project or of other projects within the performing organization
D. Record quality control testing and measurements in a format for comparison and analysis
133. As a project manager, you put a lot of emphasis on Risk Management. You just completed Probability Impact Matrix to perform qualitative risk analysis. What could be a next step? A. Perform a structured review of project plans and assumptions, both at the total project and detailed scope levels
B. Develop checklists for identifying risks based on historical information and knowledge that has been accumulated from previous similar projects
C. Conduct planning meetings to develop the risk management plan
D. Categorize Risks
134. Quality Audits, Reward and Recognition Systems and Information Retrieval Systems are tools for : A. Executing
B. Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
135. Please refer to the diagram below:
Task1 -> Task3 -> Task4 -> Task5 is the critical path. What is the late Finish Date for Task2? A. 15
B. 17
C. 13
D. 3
136. Identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships is done as part of: A. Staff Acquisition
B. Organizational Planning
C. Team Development
D. Project interfaces
137. In a Balanced Matrix Organization, A. Project Manager reports to Functional Manager
B. Project Manager position does not exist
C. Project Manager reports to Manager of Project Managers
D. Project Manager reports to Program Manager
138. The causes of variances and the reasoning behind the corrective action chosen should be documented so that they become part of the historical database of the performing organization. This is documented as part of: A. Project plan updates
B. Corrective Action
C. Lessons Learned
D. Performance Measurement
139. Determine Budget involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work activities or work packages. One output from Determine Budget process is: A. Cost Performance Baseline
B. Cost aggregation
C. Resource calendars
D. Basis of Estimates
140. In your project, you are presently involved with collecting project records; ensuring that they reflect final specifications; analyzing project success, effectiveness, and lessons learned; and archiving such information for future use. This is done as part of : A. Close Project or phase
B. Administer Procurements
C. Close Procurements
D. Project archives
141. You are in the process of documenting project requirements and identifying potential sources for Project Procurement Management. You understand the benefits of PMP Certification, and as part of Plan Procurements, you specify having a "PMP Certified" project manager will be an advantage for the seller. This is an example of : A. Procurement Document
B. Subjective Evaluation Criteria
C. Objective Evaluation Criteria
D. Statement of Work
142. A change request can be all the following except: A. Written or oral
B. Formal or informal
C. Direct or indirect
D. Legally mandated or optional
143. All the following statements about "Quality" and "Grade" are true EXCEPT: A. Grade is a rank given to entities having the same functional use but different technical characteristics
B. Low quality project may be having a high grade
C. Low Grade product may be having high quality
D. It is a problem if either the product is low grade or low quality
144. Risk Acceptance is a technique that indicates that the project team has decided not to change the project plan to deal with a risk or is unable to identify any other suitable response strategy. The most usual risk acceptance response is to : A. Establish a contingency reserve
B. Create a fallback plan
C. Develop alternative options
D. Change project scope
145. Your previous project manager made most decisions by himself without consulting subordinates. So, he believed in a leadership style that was: A. Laissez Faire
B. Assertive
C. Autocratic
D. Coaching
146. Your project schedule has slipped by 2 weeks and you have to take corrective action to bring the expected future schedule performance in line with the project plan. To identify the cause of the variation, corrective action will require: A. Root cause Analysis
B. Fast Tracking or Crashing the project
C. Documenting and analyzing the Lessons learned
D. Schedule updates to the existing schedule
147. In your project, you have designated a "war room" where your team congregates and posts schedules, updates etc. This is an example of: A. Collocation
B. Team-building activity
C. Training
D. Solving critical problems
148. Two technical resources in your team have been arguing consistently and you would like to ensure that personality clashes do not endanger your project. To resolve this issue, you should use: A. Leading and Influencing Skills
B. Communication Skills
C. Negotiation Skills
D. Problem Solving skills
149. If you would like to find out who will be approving changes in your project, you can refer to the: A. Change Control system
B. Project plan
C. Organization Chart
D. Resource Assignment Matrix
150. In your project, you are using Project files, commercial cost-estimating databases and project team knowledge to determine the cost of many categories of resources. This will help you in determining estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete project activities. This information is available to you as part of : A. activity duration estimates
B. estimating publications
C. historical information
D. chart of accounts
151. Project communication management includes the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, dissemination, storage, and ultimate disposition of project information. The Major processes for Project Communication Management are as follows: A. Plan Communications, Information Distribution tools and Performance Reports
B. Plan Communications , Performance Reports and Perform Integrated Change Control
C. Identify Stakeholders, Plan Communications , Report Performance, Distribute Information
D. Performance Reports, Distribute Information , Administer procurements
152. During plan procurements, you identify which project needs can be best met by procuring products or services outside the project organization. In this context, which of the statements relating to Product Description and Statement of Work is correct? A. Product Description describes the ultimate end product of the project; a statement of work describes the portion of the product to be provided by a seller to the project
B. Product Description is generally broader than a statement of work
C. If the performing organization procures the entire product, Product Description and Statement of Work refer to the same thing.
D. All Statements above are true
153. Develop Project Charter is done in which phase of the Project Management Lifecycle? A. Initiation
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Beginning
154. Description of how a project management team should implement the overall intentions and direction of an organization with regards to quality (as expressed by top management) is available in: A. Operational Definitions
B. Quality Management Plan
C. Checklists
D. Quality Policy
155. All the following are examples of tool and techniques that can be used to identify risks EXCEPT: A. Documentation reviews
B. SWOT Analysis
C. Probability and Impact Matrix
D. Expert Judgement
156. Work Component Descriptions, schedule dates, cost budgets and staff assignments are kept in : A. Work Packages
B. WBS
C. WBS Dictionary
D. Chart of Accounts
157. Plan Quality involves identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them. For this, you use "cost of quality" as a tool. In this context, cost of quality refers to: A. Prevention, appraisal and failure costs
B. Work required to ensure conformance to requirements
C. Work resulting from nonconformance to requirements
D. All the statements above are true
158. In Project Initiation Phase, Expert Judgment will often be required to assess the inputs to the process. This can be provided by all the following except: A. Professional and Technical associations
B. Competitors
C. Consultants
D. Units within the performing organization
159. All the following statements about Risk Management processes in real-life project situations are typically correct EXCEPT: A. Processes interact with each other
B. Processes always have discrete elements with well-defined interfaces
C. Risk management processes interact with processes in other knowledge areas
D. Each process generally occurs at least once in every project
160. You recently took over the responsibilities of Project Manager from another person. While reviewing the costs for the project, you realize there is a $ 100,000 payment, which should not have taken place. Your project CPI is 1.2. In this case: A. Since this is a small amount compared to the total project value, it can be ignored.
B. Since the project CPI is greater than one, you do not have any problems with the cost of the project - hence, you can bury the costs in contingency and move on with the project
C. Inform your Manager
D. Deny the payment
161. An Activity has an Optimistic estimate of 10 days, pessimistic estimate of 16 days, most likely estimate of 13 days. If your company has a quality requirement of 6 sigma, what is the duration within which this task must be completed? A. 10 days to 16 days
B. 7 days to 19 days
C. 12 days to 14 days
D. 11 days to 15 days
162. Organizational planning involves identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. As a result of organizational planning, you have all the outputs except: A. Role and responsibility assignment matrix
B. Project Staff Assigned
C. Staffing Management Plan
D. Organization Chart
163. While managing projects, negotiating helps in conferring with others to come to terms with them or reach an agreement. A form of Assisted Negotiation is A. Arbitration
B. Problem Solving
C. Regulation
D. Compromising
164. Project A had an initial investment of $ 3 million, out of which $ 1.5 million has already been spent. Another competing project, Project B will require $ 1.6 million now for completion and will meet the same objectives as project A. Which project should you select? A. Project A
B. Project B
C. Neither Project A nor Project B
D. Cannot be determined by the information available
165. All the following are Tools and Techniques for Collect Requirements EXCEPT: A. Focus Groups
B. Observations
C. Inspection
D. Prototypes
166. Utility function is a commonly used technique to find out the tolerance of a project manager towards risk. Some project managers are more averse towards risk than others. All the following are different classifications of tolerance for risk EXCEPT: A. Risk Averter
B. Risk Seeker
C. Risk Mitigator
D. Risk Neutral
167. All the following are Tools and Techniques for Develop Schedule EXCEPT: A. Applying Leads and Lags
B. Duration Compression
C. Analogous Estimating
D. Resource Leveling heuristics
168. Planning is of major importance for a project because project involves doing something that has not been done before. What of the following is the most important process in Planning phase? A. Scope Planning
B. Cost Budgeting
C. Scope Definition
D. Develop Project Management Plan
169. Please refer to the following diagram:
You know that Current Variances are atypical i.e. similar variances will not occur in the future. What is the Estimate at Completion (EAC)? A. $ 15,000
B. $ 20,000
C. $ 20,500
D. $ 22,000
170. Your Management is evaluating a project which requires an investment of $ 500,000. The expected inflow is $ 100,000 for 1st year and $ 300,000 for every year after that. What is the payback period? A. 2 years
B. 2 years, 4 months
C. 3 years
D. Cannot be determined because Discount Rate is not specified
171. All the following statements about IRR (Internal Rate of Return) and NPV (Net Present Value) are correct EXCEPT: A. Net Present Value is difference between all present value of all inflows and present value of all outflows
B. The prevailing market rate is used for Net Present Value Calculations
C. Internal Rate of Return is the discount rate when Net Present Value = 0
D. While selecting projects, it is preferable to select projects with a higher IRR
172. A project charter has all the following (Select the best option): A. Project Justification, Product, Deliverables and Objectives
B. Business Need, Product Description
C. Business Need, Project Justification
D. Project Deliverables, Product Description
173. A well-constructed Scope Statement can provide all the following benefits EXCEPT: A. Provide a documented basis for making future project decisions
B. Develop common understanding of project scope among stakeholders
C. Provide knowledge of project justification, deliverables and objectives
D. Provide a basis for time and cost estimates
174. The process of obtaining formal acceptance of the project scope by stakeholders is also referred to as: A. Scope Justification
B. Verify Scope
C. Define Scope
D. Scope Planning
175. You are the project manager for an initiative aimed at releasing a new product in the market. But because of Government Regulation, you will have to make some changes to the project scope. Any modifications to the contents of the scope statement should be done through: A. Scope Management Plan
B. Scope Statement updates
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Project Plan
176. A Project Manager must have good understanding of the mechanics of power and politics to be effective. As defined by Pfeffer, power includes all the following except: A. The Potential to influence behaviour
B. Potential to change the course of events and overcome resistance
C. Ability to get people to do things that they would not otherwise do
D. Ability to handle power struggles and organizational games
177. Even though you are a Project Manager in a pharmaceutical company, you have worked as a scientist in the industry for several years. Your subordinates look up to you for guidance and advice. The power that you have over your subordinates is: A. Legitimate
B. Expert
C. Referent
D. Reward
178. Quantitative assessments of the likely costs of the resources required to complete project activities is also referred to as: A. Activity Duration Estimates
B. Cost Estimates
C. Cost Management Plan
D. Bottom up Estimating
179. To get summary information about the project, you should use : A. Status Reporting
B. Progress Reporting
C. Forecasting
D. Project Records
180. As a project manager, you appreciate the importance of using best practices available in the industry - that way you can capitalize on the lessons learned by your predecessors and other projects. When used for Sequence Activities, best practices are an example of: A. Mandatory Dependency
B. Preferred Logic
C. Hard Logic
D. External Dependency
181. You are in the process of identifying and documenting interactivity logical relationships between different activities - to ensure that all activities are sequenced properly to support later development. While doing activity sequencing you realize that several tasks have conditional branches (e.g. a design update is only needed if the inspection detects errors). You may use anyone of the following Tools to sequence activities EXCEPT: A. PDM
B. Dependency Determination
C. Expert Judgement
D. Applying Leads & Lags
182. You have taken information on project scope and resources and then developed durations for input to schedules. Since there was very limited information about the project, you used actual duration of a previous, similar activity as the basis for estimating future activity. This type of estimating can also be referred to as: A. Top Down Estimating
B. Expert Judgment
C. Quantitative Estimating
D. Conditional Diagramming Method
183. You have taken information on project scope and resources and then developed durations for input to schedules. Since there was very limited information about the project, you used actual duration of a previous, similar activity as the basis for estimating future activity. What will be a next step after this activity: A. Using Diagramming Techniques like GERT and Systems Dynamics
B. Calculating theoretical Early and Late Start and Finish dates for all project activities
C. Using Standardized Networks to expedite preparation of Project Network Diagrams
D. Subdividing project work packages into smaller more manageable components for better management control
184. You are using an Arrow Diagramming method to construct a project network diagram - you use arrows to represent the activities and connect them at nodes to show their dependencies. You can use all the following as Inputs for this process EXCEPT: A. List of All Activities that will be performed on the project
B. Description of the product
C. Mandatory and Discretionary Dependencies
D. Schematic Display of project`s activities and logical relationships
185. Project scope management includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully. In this context, project charter plays a very important role because it: A. Provides list of project deliverables
B. Authorizes the project
C. Provides deliverable oriented grouping of work components
D. Describes the project objectives i.e. quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered successful
186. While doing Schedule Control, you often compare target dates with the actual/forecast start and finish dates. This provides you useful information for the detection of deviations and for the implementation of corrective solutions in case of delays. This is done as part of: A. Performance Measurement
B. Additional Planning
C. Corrective Action
D. Variance Analysis
187. You are the project manager of a software company which is involved with creating an anti-virus software product. You are in the execution phase of the project when you realize that there was an omission in defining the scope of the project. What should you do? A. Issue a Change Request
B. Take Corrective Action
C. Add the requirements to your product and continue with execution
D. Do rebaselining of project plan
188. Which of the following is an input to the administer procurements process? A. Contract
B. Procurement Audits
C. Performance Reports
D. Approved Change Requests
189. You are the project manager for a software project responsible for creating a software tool for your finance department. Once the project is completed, maintenance of the product: A. Will not be part of the project life cycle
B. Will be included in project life cycle because the same resources will be used for maintaining the product as those who developed the product.
C. May be included in the project life cycle if determined by Management
D. Will become another project
190. According to the 80/20 rule, 80 percent of the problems are because of 20 percent of the causes. To facilitate finding out which are the most probable defects, you do a rank ordering of the defects using: A. Statistical Sampling
B. Control Chart
C. Pareto Diagrams
D. Inspection
191. As part of Risk Management process, you just created an overall risk ranking of the project, created list of prioritised risks, identified which risks need additional analysis and determined trends in risk analysis results. What should you be doing next? A. Assessing the impact and likelihood of identified risks
B. Analyzing numerically the probability of each risk and its impact on the project objectives
C. Determining actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives
D. Keeping track of identified risks and ensuring execution of risk plans
192. Your project was terminated early because of funding problems. You will use Verify Scope to: A. Verify correctness of the work results produced
B. Determine project performance till date
C. Document extent of completion
D. Create lessons learned documentation
193. There is a Subject Matter Expert in your company who specializes in Information Security. You know that you will need her help for 3 days in your project. Since her availability is limited, you scheduled her in reverse from the project ending date. This is an example of: A. Critical Chain
B. Resource based method
C. Crashing
D. Reverse resource allocation
194. You are working in the Project Office of your organization. What is your job responsibility? A. Managing the different activities of a project
B. Always being responsible for the results of the project
C. Providing support functions to Project Managers in the form of training, software, templates etc.
D. Providing Subject Matter Expertise in the Functional areas of the project
195. Central repository of project information, project files and shared folders are examples of: A. Risk reduction techniques
B. Project Management Information System
C. Communication Plan
D. Project Plan
196. A parametric modeling technique will be accurate in predicting project costs in all the following conditions EXCEPT: A. Historical information available is accurate
B. Parameters are quantifiable
C. The project is a small project
D. Model is Scalable
197. Formal reports on project status and/or issues is provided in: A. Project Records
B. Project Presentations
C. Project Reports
D. Performance Reports
198. All the following are true about contract negotiation except: A. Primary objective should be to build a lasting relationship
B. It includes responsibilities, contract financing, technical and business management approaches
C. Price is an important consideration during Negotiation
D. Main consideration of both buyer and seller should be to maximize monetary return
199. Your company is going through a financial crisis and has set a pre-defined budget to work with. For your project, a pre-defined budget will become a: A. Risk
B. Assumption
C. Constraint
D. None of the above
200. When all customer requirements for the product of the project are satisfied, A. Customer expectations are exceeded