BioTecNikas Model Test Papers for CSIR NET Life Sciences June 2013 Examination

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Part A
1. The distance between the cities M and N is 275 km along the rail-route and 185 km, along the aerial route. How many hours shorter is the trip by plane traveling at 250km/hr. than by train traveling at 80 km/hr? a) 2 hrs b) 2 hrs 41 mins c) 3 hrs d) 3 hrs 20 mins 2. How many kg of wheat costing Rs.6.10 /kg must be mixed with 126 kg of wheat costing Rs.2.85/kg, so that 15% may be gained by selling the mixture at s.4.60/kg? a) Rs. 3 b) Rs. 4 c) Rs. 5 d) Rs. 6 3. A mixture of 40 litres of milk contains 20% of water. How much water must be added to make the water 25% in the new mixture? a) 5 litres b) 5.3/4 litres c) 6.2/3 litres d) 7 litres 4. If a man can save Rs.5 more every year than he did the year before and if he saves 25 rupees in the first year after how many years will his savings be more than 000 rupees altogether and what will be the exact sum with him? a) Rs 1000 b) Rs 1100 c) Rs 1200 d) Rs 1220 5. There are 728 students in a school, 162 come to the school by bus, 384 on bicycles and the rest by walk. What percentage of students comes to the school by walk? a) 25% b) 26% c) 27% d) 28% 6. The owner of a restaurant started with an initial investment of Rs.32,000. In the first year of operation, he incurred a loss of 5%. However, during the second and the third years of operation, he made a profit of 10% and 12.5% respectively. What is his net profit for the entire period of three years? Assume that profit or loss are added or deducted from investment. a) 16.5% b) 17.56% c) 18.35%

d) 18.65% 7. In a race A has a start of 100 mtrs and sets off 6 min before B, at the rate of 10 km/hr. How soon will B overtake A, if his speed of running is 12 km/hr. a) 30 mins b) 33 mins c) 35 mins d) 37 mins 8. What rate of C.I for a sum of Rs.6000 will amount to Rs.6720 in 2 years if the interest is calculated every year? a) 5.6% b) 5.83% c) 6.4% d) 6.6% 9. Two clocks begin to strike 12 together. One strikes in 33 seconds and the other in 22 secs. What is the th interval between the 6 stroke of the first and the 8th stroke of the second? a) 1 sec b) 3 sec c) 4 sec d) 5 sec 10. Today is 3rd November. The day of the week is Monday. This is a leap year. What will be the day of the week on this day after 3 years? a) Wednesday b) Thursday c) Friday d) Saturday 11. The length of a room is 6m and the length is twice the 2 breadth. If the area of the floor is 162m , find the area of the four walls of the room. a) 2 320 m 2 b) 324 m 2 c) 330 m 2 d) 332 m 12. The price of paint is Rs.100 per kg. A kilogram of paint covers 25sq.m. How much will it cost to paint the inner walls and the ceiling of a room having 6 meters each side? a) Rs. 650 b) Rs. 680 c) Rs. 720 d) Rs. 750 13. A man left Rs.1750 to be divided among his two daughters and four sons. Each daughter was to receive three times as much as a son. How much did each son and daughter receive? a) Son: Rs. 150; Daughter: Rs. 600 b) Son: Rs. 200; Daughter: Rs. 550 c) Son: Rs. 175; Daughter: Rs. 525 d) Son: Rs. 125; Daughter: Rs. 625

14. A two digit number is less than 3 times the product of its digits by 8 and the digitin the tens place exceeds the digit in the units place by 2.Find the number. a) 60 b) 62 c) 64 d) 68 15. Two friends A and B start on a holiday together, A with Rs.380 and B with Rs.260. During the holiday, B spends 4 rupees more than A and when holidays end, A has 5 times as much as B. How much has each spent? a) A: Rs. 380; B: Rs. 260 b) A: Rs. 360 ; B: Rs. 280 c) A: Rs. 340; B: Rs. 300 d) A: Rs. 400; B: Rs. 240

b) an increase in the size of the leaves c) increased growth of the terminal bud. d) increased growth of the axillary buds 21. Those mutations that arise in the absence of known mutagen are known a) Induced mutation b) Fused mutation c) Spontaneous mutation d) None of the above 22. Which of the following is key player is formation of short term memory? a) cGMP b) cAMP c) ATP d) GTP 23. In a population at large, there is a rare disease that affects one person in a thousand. A diagnostic test for the disease is 99% accurate. This means that there is a 1% chance that the test wrongly identifies a healthy person as having the disease. Suppose you take the test and the result is positive. Then the chance that you indeed have the disease is about a) 9% b) 1% c) 50% d) 0.1% 24. What is the difference between a threatened species and an endangered species? a) A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered An endangered species has population numbers so low that it is likely to become extinct b) A threatened species is already extinct. An endangered species means that the populations numbers have increased greatly over the last 5 years c) A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered. An endangered species is already extinct d) A threatened species and an endangered species are the same thing 25. In plants a common deficiency caused by deficiency of P, K, Ca and Mg is the a) Suppressed synthesis of phytochromes b) Bending of leaf tip c) Suppressed development of vascular tissues d) Formation of dead necrotic areas 26. Which of the following should not be described as 'migration'? a) The movement of young male rodents away from the territories in which they were born b) The movement of crabs up and down the shore with the tides.

Part B
16. A gene coding for histone protein is mutated such that a positively charged amino acid is substituted with a negatively amino acid. The most likely result is a) Cytoplasmic localization of histone b) Formation of constitutive heterochromatin c) Suppression of gene expression d) Less binding of Histones with DNA 17. During acute inflammation, there is a burst of oxygen consumption (respiratory burst) in neutrophils. This is an essential step for which of the following events? a) Generation of microbicidal activity b) Phagocytosis of bacteria c) Opsonization of bacteria d) Attachment to the endothelial cells 18. If you were shipping strawberries to a supermarket thousands of miles away, which of the following chemicals would you want to eliminate from the plants environment? a) cytokinins b) ethylene c) auxin d) gibberellic acids 19. Which of the following is not an observation or interference on which Darwins theory of natural selection is based? a) Poorly adapted individuals never produce offsprings b) There is heritable variation among individuals c) Because of overproduction of offsprings, there is competition for limited resources d) Individuals whose characteristics best fit to the environment will generally produce more offsprings 20. When the terminal bud of a plant are removed it showed apical dominance will can result in a) an increase in the growth of the root system.

c) The practice of transhumance, moving flocks of sheep and goats up to mountain pastures in summer and down again in the fall d) The movement of planktonic plants to the upper layers of the water in lakes during the day and to the lower, nutrient-rich depths at night 27. The trickling filter at a sewage treatment plant works by a) passing wastewater through fine sand, mechanically removing fine pollution particles. b) forcing wastewater through a membrane filtration system, producing drinkable water. c) passing wastewater through a thick bed of rocks that contain chemicals that sterilize the water and neutralize chemical pollutants or bind with them to produce a harmless precipitate. d) passing wastewater through a thick bed of rocks. Biofilms of bacteria and fungi on the rocks absorb and decompose organic material dissolved in the wastewater. 28. Osmosis is the diffusion of a solution of a weaker concentration, when both are separated by semipermeable membrane. The error in this statement is a) Pore size of semi-permeable membrane is not specified b) Diffusion Pressure Deficit (DPD) value is not specified c) Exact concentration of solution is not specified d) The movement of water molecules is not specified 29. An E. coli culture has the genotype I P O Z Y A . The phenotype of this culture in presence of lactose as sole carbon source will be a) Expression of both -galactosidase and lac permease b) No expression of -galactosidase and lac permease c) Expression of -galactosidase and no expression of lac permease d) Expression of lac permease and no expression of galactosidase 30. Consider a heritable autosomal disease with an incidence in the population of 1 per thousand. On average, individuals with the disease have 80% as many children as the population average. What mutation rate would be required to maintain the observed incidence of the disease in the population if the disease is dominant? a) 0.01 b) 0.001 c) 0.0001 d) 0.00001 31. Which of the following statements correctly describes the outcome of competition between the sea palm and the mussel? a) The mussels always outcompete the sea palms.
S + + + + +

b) The sea palms always outcompete the mussels c) The sea palms colonize gaps but are eventually outcompeted by encroaching mussels; sea palms coexist with mussels because gaps are always forming. d) The mussels colonize gaps but are eventually outcompeted by encroaching sea palms; mussels coexist with sea palms because gaps are always forming. 32. Smol and Xmal are isoschizomers. A circular DNA has two SmaI and one XmaI sites where as a linear DNA as two sites for XmaI and one site for SmaI. How many fragments will be generated by digestion both the circular and linear DNA with Xmal? a) 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 2 d) 3 and 3 33. The label on a container of margarine lists "hydrogenated vegetable oil" as the major ingredient. What is the result of adding hydrogens to vegetable oil? a) The hydrogenated vegetable oil has a lower melting point b) The hydrogenated vegetable oil stays solid at room temperature c) The hydrogenated vegetable oil has more "kinks" in the fatty acid chains d) The hydrogenated vegetable oil has fewer trans fatty acids 34. The R group or side chain of the amino acid serine is CH2OH. The R group or side chain of the amino acid leucine is CH2CH(CH3)2. Where would you expect to find these amino acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution? a) Serine would be in the interior, and leucine would be on the exterior of the globular protein b) Leucine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the globular protein. c) Both serine and leucine would be in the interior of the globular protein. d) Both serine and leucine would be on the exterior of the globular protein 35. On average, how many fragments would a restriction enzyme which recognizes a specific 4 base sequence in DNA be expected to cleave a doublestranded bacteriophage with a genome size of 5,000 bp into? a) about 2 b) about 4 c) about 20 d) about 50

36. In general tropical rainforests are known to have a very high diversity of species. Which of the following is the least plausible explanation for this pattern? a) Rainfall b) Temperature c) Latitude d) Longitude 37. If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5'ATTGCA3', the other complementary strand would have the sequence a) 5'TAACGT3'. b) 5'TGCAAT3' c) 5'UAACGU3 d) 3'UAACGU5' 38. Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic abnormality that results in cells accumulating and becoming clogged with very large and complex lipids. Which cellular organelle must be involved in this condition? a) the endoplasmic reticulum b) the Golgi apparatus c) the lysosome d) membrane-bound ribosomes 39. The rate of photosynthesis can be enhanced if monochromatic beams of 2 different wavelengths are applied simultaneously. If the two wavelengths are given separately, the sum total is less. This effect is called a) Hills Effect b) Emerson effect c) Lang effect d) Yang effect 40. During developmental stages of drosphila, the protein bicoid and nanos are involved in a) setting up the anterior-posterior body axis b) setting up the posterior-anterior body axis c) setting up the ventral- dorsal body axis d) setting up the dorsal-ventral body axis 41. Many different classes of drugs are used as antitumor agents. The rationale for each different drug takes advantage of a particular property of tumor cells compared to normal cells. Recently, inhibition of angiogenesis has become an important potential avenue of cancer chemotherapy. Inhibition of angiogenesis could result in inhibiting tumor growth by blocking a) Metastasis directly b) New blood vessel formation c) Telomerase activity d) Tumor cell proliferation directly 42. Grass seedlings have a sheath called the coleoptile that surrounds the first set of leaves. Growth of the coleoptile depends on the tip, and removal of the tip stops growth. Adding the tip back resumes the growth of tip. If a gelatine sheet is placed on the cut

a) b) c) d)

surface and then the tip is placed back then it is observed that Growth of coleptile continues Growth of coleptile stops Coleoptile does not bend towards light Growth of roots stops

43. Which of the following statements correctly describes some aspect of protein secretion from prokaryotic cells? a) Prokaryotes are unlikely to be able to secrete proteins because they lack an endomembrane system b) The mechanism of protein secretion in prokaryotes is probably the same as that in eukaryotes c) Proteins that are secreted by prokaryotes are synthesized on ribosomes that are bound to the cytoplasmic surface of the plasma membrane d) In prokaryotes, the ribosomes that are used for the synthesis of secreted proteins are located outside of the cell 44. In animal metabolism, most of the monomers released by digestion of food macromolecules are metabolized to provide energy. Only a small portion of these monomers are used for synthesis of new macromolecules. The net result is that a) water is generated by animal metabolism b) water is consumed by animal metabolism. c) the water consumed is exactly balanced by the water generated, to maintain homeostasis d) water is consumed during homeostasis, but water is generated during periods of growth 45. After infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a granuloma forms in the lung. Within the granuloma are cells expressing class II MHC antigens. These cells elaborate cytokines that promote fibroblastic proliferation. From which of the following peripheral blood cells are these cells derived? a) Neutrophil b) Monocyte c) B Cell d) NK cell 46. If radioactive deoxythymidine triphosphate (dTTP) is added to a culture of rapidly growing bacterial cells, where in the cell would you expect to find the greatest concentration of radioactivity? a) nucleus b) cytoplasm c) endoplasmic reticulum d) nucleoid 47. When several EPSPs arrive at the axon hillock from different dendritic locations, depolarizing the postsynaptic cell to threshold for an action potential, this is an example of a) temporal summation b) spatial summation.

c) the refractory state d) an action potential with an abnormally high peak of

depolarization. 48. The nematode Caenorhabditis elegans is most widely used in developmental biology research labs because a) is composed of a single cell, in which the developmental origin of each protein has been mapped b) is composed of about 1,000 cells, in which the developmental origin of each cell has been mapped c) has only a single chromosome, which has been fully sequenced d) has about 1,000 genes, each of which has been fully sequenced. 49. Which of the following statements concerning mammalian chromosomes is correct? a) Of the sequences contained in the eukaryotic genome, 37% are copied into RNA b) In higher eukaryotic genomes, cytosine is methylated at cytosine-guanine (CG) islands in inactive segments of DNA c) Chrome can be used to treat chromosomes to determine inactive regions of DNA d) Euchromatin is a term used for inactive DNA, and heterochromatin is a term used for those regions of DNA that are transcriptionally active 50. Green fluorescent protein (GFP) can be used to fluorescently label a specific protein in cells by genetically engineering cells to synthesize the target protein fused to GFP. What is the advantage of using GFP fusions to visualize specific proteins, instead of staining cells with fluorescently labeled probes that bind to the target protein? a) GFP fusions enable one to track changes in the location of the protein in living cells; staining usually requires preserved cells. b) GFP fusions enable higher resolution than staining with fluorescent probes c) GFP permits the position of the protein in the cell more precisely than fluorescent probes d) GFP permits visualization of protein-protein interactions; fluorescent probes do not.

a) Aggregation of many penicillin molecules to form large detectable clusters recognized by APCs b) The excipients of penicillin medication prolong its persistence in the body c) Penicillin does not activate the adaptive immune system, only the innate immune system d) Penicillin reacts with proteins to form penicilloylprotein derivative with activates the immune response 52. A person who is heterozygous for Gm allotypes contains two allelic forms of IgG in serum, but individual lymphocytes produce only one of the two forms. This phenomenon, known as "allelic exclusion," is consistent with a) A rearrangement of a heavy-chain gene on only one chromosome in a lymphocyte b) Rearrangements of heavy-chain genes on both chromosomes in a lymphocyte c) A rearrangement of a light-chain gene on only one chromosome in a lymphocyte d) Rearrangements of light-chain genes on both chromosomes in a lymphocyte 53. Diptheria toxin is a bacterial toxin which is internalized by receptor-mediated endocytosis after binding to a receptor on the cell surface. Once inside the endosome, the toxin is cleaved into a 21kd A fragment and a 40kd B fragment. A membrane insertion domain on the B fragment is activated by the acidic environment and this facilitates the passage of the A fragment from the lysosome to the cytosol. The A fragment is a) A actin binding protein which interferes with formation of microfilaments b) A DNA binding protein which represses expression of an ABC transporter c) An amphiphilic protein which disrupts lysosomal membrane d) An enzyme which catalyses ADP-ribosylation of EF2 54. One classic definition of life is "a self-replicating molecular assemblage." However, clay particles (in clay soil) contain layered aluminum and iron compounds that determine the pattern of the adjacent layers of sediment. This is technically a selfreplicating molecular assemblage. Which of the following conclusions is most accurate? a) It is not living because it is a simple repetitive process without the ability to evolve or respond to the environment. b) It is not living because there is no carbon involved; otherwise, such duplication would be living c) It is not living because there were no molecular changes (or chemistry) involved d) It is not living because it cannot think 55. In an asynchronous culture, the percentage of cells engaged in a particular activity is an approximate measure of the percentage of time that this activity

Part C
51. Penicillin has been widely used to treat bacterial infections. However, peniclllin and its related drugs are responsible for high incidences of allergic reactions to drugs. Penicillins are low molecular weight compounds that cannot induce immune response by themselves. Then the mechanism by which they can induce allergic reaction can be

a) b) c) d)

occupies in the lives of cells. An asynchronous 3 culture of HeLa cells is given a brief pulse with [ H] thymidine. If nuclei of 5% of cells is radioactively labeled and the length of the complete cell cycle is 24 hours then the length of the S phase can be considered approximately as 60 minutes 72 minutes 100 minutes 120 minutes

a) b) c) d)

the bacteria and Batch B is treated with a protein derived from the bacteria known as purified protein derivative (PPD). If + represents immune reaction and represents no immune reaction, then the results obtained in the 2 batches (A and B) will be respectively + and - and + + and + - and

56. Some biologists study the complex interactions of animals and plants in forests or prairies. Such ecology field research often produces slightly different results for different researchers. In contrast, ecology experiments that are run indoors with one organism in a terrarium usually produce results that are repeatable. What is the most likely explanation? a) The scientific method is only useful in laboratory settings b) It is not possible to establish a control group outside of a laboratory c) It is easier to hold all but one variable constant in a laboratory d) Field research is only descriptive, and descriptive research is not strictly "science." 57. The cortical reaction, a) is the entry of Ca2+ ions into the egg, which initiates development. b) is the exocytosis of the cortical granules during egg maturation, which contain the components of the zona pellucida c) is the depolarization of the plasma membrane after sperm entry, which helps to block polyspermy d) is the release of the cortical granules after sperm entry, which converts the vitelline membrane into the fertilization membrane which blocks polyspermy. 58. Cells which are normally non-adhesive are genetically engineered to express one of a different variety of cadherins. The cells are then mixed in various combinations and their interactions are monitored. It is found that a) The engineered cells expressed cadherins but could not interact with each other b) Cells expressing one type of cadherin preferably adhered to other cells expressing the same cadherin c) Cells expressing cadherin adhered to the substratum, whereas other cells remained free in suspension d) Cells expressing cadherin remained free in suspension, whereas other cells adhered to the substratum. 59. A group of test mice in which the CD1 family of genes has been knocked out are immunized with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. From these mice, spleen cells are isolated and divided into 2 batches, A and B. Batch A is treated with the lipid extract of

60. You have isolated two different yeast mutants that will not grow on medium that lacks arginine. You call these mutants arg1 and arg2 . Mating of either arg1 or arg2 to wild type produces diploids that can grow without arginine. Mating of arg1 to arg2 produces a diploid that also can grow on medium without arginine. What do these results tell you about the arg1 and arg2 mutations? a) The two mutants are recessive to wild type and they complement each other b) The two mutants are dominant to wild type and they complement each other c) The two mutants are recessive to wild type and they do not complement each other d) The two mutants are dominant to wild type and they do not complement each other 61. Surveys of published studies of competition indicate that current competition is widespread but these surveys exaggerate the true frequency of competition. Which of the following is NOT likely to contribute to this? a) Editors of journals are more likely to accept for publication manuscripts that support the competition hypothesis b) Editors of journals are more likely to accept for publication manuscripts that refute the competition hypothesis. c) Ecologists are less likely to publish papers that do not support the competition hypothesis they are testing d) Ecologists are more likely to choose to study species where competition is most likely to be evident 62. A researcher desires to clone the gene encoding a particular biosynthesis enzyme (E1) from the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae. Its genome size is 4 1.4 10 kb and the average size of the library fragments is 5 kb. The genomic library was created in vectors that were transformed into bacterial cells. With 95% probability, how many recombinant bacterial colonies will have to be screened in order to find this particular gene fragment? a) nearly 8400 bacterial colonies b) nearly 9400 bacterial colonies c) nearly 10400 bacterial colonies d) nearly 6400 bacterial colonies

63. Which of the following components of the confocal microscope allows the cell biologist to take an optical section of a thick specimen? a) the excitation filter between the light source and specimen b) the barrier filter between the specimen and detector c) the dichroic mirror between the specimen and detector d) the pinhole aperture between the specimen and detector that is confocal to the specific focal plane of the specimen 64. A sewage sample is tested for coliform bacteria by spreading aliquots on standard Petri dish cultures of EMB agar. After incubation the dark purple-green colored coliform colonies are counted. A 0.10 ml -4 aliquot of a 1 x 10 dilution of the sample gives 90 coliform colonies. What is the concentration of coliform bacteria in this sample of sewage? (the units are: cells/ml) a) -4 9.0 x 10 4 b) 9.0 x 10 5 c) 9.0 x 10 6 d) 9.0 x 10 65. Wild type E. coli metabolizes the sugar lactose by expressing the enzyme -galactosidase. You have isolated a mutant that you call lac1, which cannot synthesize -galactosidase and cannot grow on + lactose (Lac ). You have a wild type (Lac ) strain carrying a Tn5 insertion known to be near several Lac genes on the E. coli chromosome. You grow P1 phage on this strain and use the resulting phage lysate to infect the lac1 strain, selecting for r r kanamycin resistance (Kan ). Among 100 Kan transductants, you find that 82 are Lac and 18 are + Lac . Express the distance between Tn5 and the lac1 mutation as a co-transduction frequency. a) 10% b) 18% c) 22% d) 28% 66. Under which of the following circumstances is a species distributed among subpopulations in an overall metapopulation more prone to extinction than another species, with the same overall abundance, but existing within a single undivided population? a) Where subpopulations are poorly connected and environmental uncertainty in different subpopulations is highly correlated b) Where subpopulations are poorly connected and environmental uncertainty in different subpopulations is poorly correlated c) Where subpopulations are highly connected and environmental uncertainty in different subpopulations is highly correlated

d) Where subpopulations are highly connected and environmental uncertainty in different subpopulations is poorly correlated 67. Stomata are tiny openings or pores on leaves of green plants used for gaseous exchange. Stomata are opened and closed by specialized cells allowing for gas exchange between the leaf and the outside environment. Which phrase best represents the net flow of gases involved in photosynthesis into and out of the leaf through these openings on a sunny day? a) Carbon dioxide moves in; oxygen moves out b) Carbon dioxide and oxygen move in; carbonmonoxide moves out c) Oxygen moves in; nitrogen moves out d) Water and oxygen move in; carbon dioxide moves out 68. Consider a hypothetical insect species that has red eyes. Imagine mutations in two different unlinked genes that can, in certain combinations, block the formation of red eye pigment yielding mutants with white eyes. In principle, there are two different possible arrangements for two biochemical steps responsible for the formation of red eye pigment. The two genes might act in series such that a mutation in either gene would block the formation of red pigment. Alternatively, the two genes could act in parallel such that mutations in both genes would be required to block the formation of red pigment. When mutant phenotype is not reverted back to wild type we can conclude that the a) Mutant genes belong to same complementation group b) Mutant genes belong to different complementation group c) Mutant genes do complement each other d) Mutant genes did not revert back to wild type by gene conversion 69. Which of the following statements is true with respect to thermoregulation? Respiratory heat loss is insignificant under normal conditions Brown fat is an important source of heat production in neonates Shivering is due to impulses conducted via autonomic efferent Peripheral vasoconstriction increases heat production Sweating is mediated by sympathetic cholinergic neurons A,B,C A, B and E B and D C and E 70. Which of the following statements regarding thyroid hormone synthesis is correct?

a) Iodine that is released from proteolytic cleavage of thyroglobulin can be recycled from mono and diiodotyrosines by the action of type I deiodinase enzyme residing in thyroid follicular cells b) Thyroid hormone is proteolytically cleaved from thyroglobulin by enzymes acting within the lumen of the thyroid follicle. The released hormone then diffuses from through the thyrocyte and into the circulation c) The predominant hormone made by thyrocytes is triiodothyronine (T3) d) Thyroid hormone is actively transported from the thyrocyte (thyroid follicular epithelial cell) to the circulation by a specific transport protein 71. In an experimental setup, chloroplasts are isolated from leaves and placed in an aqueous solution, with all chemicals required for ATP synthesis. This aqueous solution is then illuminated. Then a compound Dinitrophenol is added, which acts as a protonophore. What would be the effect on rate of ATP synthesis? a) Rate of ATP synthesis would slow down and eventually stop b) Rate of ATP synthesis would initially increase and then stop c) No effect on rate of ATP synthesis d) No effect on ATP synthesis but rate of photosynthesis decreases 72. Normal hemoglobin is a tetramer, consisting of two molecules of hemoglobin and two molecules of hemoglobin. In sickle-cell disease, as a result of a single amino acid change, the mutant hemoglobin tetramers associate with each other and assemble into large fibers. Based on this information alone, we can conclude that sickle-cell hemoglobin exhibits a) altered primary structure b) altered primary structure and altered quaternary structure; the secondary and tertiary structures may or may not be altered. c) altered quaternary structure d) altered tertiary structure 73. During the fourth year of medical school, you engage in a research project studying mammalian embryonic development. You discover a microRNA that plays a critical role in influencing the regional identity along the axis of the developing limbs. Mutational analysis of the microRNA gene reveals that the product regulates protein levels of a key transcription factor (HOXD9). In vitro analysis confirms that the microRNA can specifically interact with the HOXD9 mRNA, but that it is only partially complementary to the mRNA. What is the most likely mechanism of action by which the microRNA regulates the HOXD9 levels? a) Inhibiting translation of the HOXD9 mRNA b) Increasing the rate of translation of the HOXD9 protein

c) Activating transcription of the HOXD9 gene d) Inhibiting transcription of the HOXD9 gene 74. A 15-year-old male presents to your family practice complaining of delayed onset of puberty. He is 48 inches tall and shows no secondary sex characteristics. He requests testosterone injections. In general, testosterone mediates its effect by which of the following mechanisms? a) Activates a receptor that increases the permeability of the membrane to cations b) Activates an intracellular enzyme when combined with a membrane receptor c) Activates genes by binding with an intracellular receptor d) Activates the phosphatidylinositol system 75. The chemical reactions involved in respiration are virtually identical between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In eukaryotic cells, ATP is synthesized primarily on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. In light of the endosymbiont theory for the evolutionary origin of mitochondria, where is most ATP synthesis likely to occur in prokaryotic cells? a) on the plasma membrane b) on the inner mitochondrial membrane c) in the cytoplasm d) on the inner nuclear envelope -END-

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Mock Paper I Answers

1. 2 hrs 41 mins 2. Rs. 4 3. 6.2/3 litres 4. Rs 1000 5. 25% 6. 17.56% 7. 33 mins 8. 5.83% 9. 1 sec 10. Thursday 11. 324 m2 12. Rs. 720 13. Son: Rs. 175; Daughter: Rs. 525 14. 64 15. A: Rs. 380; B: Rs. 260 16. Less binding of Histones with DNA 17. Generation of microbicidal activity 18. ethylene 19. Poorly adapted individuals never produce offsprings 20. increased growth of the axillary buds 21. Spontaneous mutation 22. cAMP 23. 9% 24. A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered An endangered species has population numbers so low that it is likely to become extinct 25. Formation of dead necrotic areas 26. The movement of young male rodents away from the territories in which they were born 27. passing wastewater through a thick bed of rocks. Biofilms of bacteria and fungi on the rocks absorb and decompose organic material dissolved in the wastewater. 28. The movement of water molecules is not specified 29. No expression of -galactosidase and lac permease 30. 0.0001 31. The sea palms colonize gaps but are eventually outcompeted by encroaching mussels; sea palms coexist with mussels because gaps are always forming. 32. 2 and 3 33. The hydrogenated vegetable oil stays solid at room temperature 34. Leucine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the globular protein. 35. about 20 36. Longitude 37. 5'TGCAAT3' 38. the lysosome 39. Emerson effect 40. setting up the anterior-posterior body axis 41. New blood vessel formation 42. Growth of coleptile continues 43. Proteins that are secreted by prokaryotes are synthesized on ribosomes that are bound to the cytoplasmic surface of the plasma membrane 44. water is consumed by animal metabolism.

45. Monocyte 46. nucleoid 47. spatial summation. 48. is composed of about 1,000 cells, in which the developmental origin of each cell has been mapped 49. In higher eukaryotic genomes, cytosine is methylated at cytosine-guanine (CG) islands in inactive segments of DNA 50. GFP fusions enable one to track changes in the location of the protein in living cells; staining usually requires preserved cells. 51. Penicillin reacts with proteins to form penicilloyl-protein derivative with activates the immune response 52. rearrangement of a heavy-chain gene on only one chromosome in a lymphocyte 53. An enzyme which catalyses ADPribosylation of EF2 54. It is not living because it is a simple repetitive process without the ability to evolve or respond to the environment. 55. minutes 56. It is easier to hold all but one variable constant in a laboratory 57. ,is the release of the cortical granules after sperm entry, which converts the vitelline membrane into the fertilization membrane which blocks polyspermy. 58. Cells expressing one type of cadherin preferably adhered to other cells expressing the same cadherin 59. - and + 60. The two mutants are recessive to wild type and they complement each other 61. Ecologists are more likely to choose to study species where competition is most likely to be evident 62. nearly 8400 bacterial colonies 63. the pinhole aperture between the specimen and detector that is confocal to the specific focal plane of the specimen 64. 9.0 x 106 65. 18% 66. Where subpopulations are poorly connected and environmental uncertainty in different subpopulations is highly correlated 67. Carbon dioxide moves in; oxygen moves out 68. Mutant genes belong to same complementation group 69. A, B and E 70. Iodine that is released from proteolytic cleavage of thyroglobulin can be recycled from mono and diiodotyrosines by the action of type I deiodinase enzyme residing in thyroid follicular cells 71. Rate of ATP synthesis would slow down and eventually stop 72. altered primary structure and altered quaternary structure; the secondary and tertiary structures may or may not be altered. 73. Inhibiting translation of the HOXD9 mRNA 74. Activates genes by binding with an intracellular receptor 75. on the plasma membrane

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