BioTecNikas Model Test Papers for CSIR NET Life Sciences June 2013 Examination

Practice Today with the best Model Papers. Get to know where you stand in the competition Model Test Paper - 3

Model Test Paper - 3 PART-A 1. In June a baseball team played 60 games and won 30% of them. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50%. How many games must the team have won in a row to attain this average? a. 30 b. 24 c. 12 d. 20 e. 26 2. There are 200 questions in a 3 hr examination. Among these questions are 50 mathematics problems. It is suggested that twice as much time be spent on each maths problem as for each other question. How many minutes should be spent on mathematics problems? a. 36 b. 72 c. 60 d. 100 e. 64 3. In a group of 15 students, 7 students have studied Latin, 8 students have studied Greek, and 3 have not studied either. How many of these studied both Latin and Greek a. 3 b. 5 c. 4 d. 0 e. 2 4. Which letter represents the question mark?

a. b. c. d.

L M O R

5. A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream. a. 2 hours b. 3 hours c. 4 hours d. 5 hours 6. Present ages of Sameer and Anand are in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Anand's present age in years? a. 24 b. 27 c. 40 d. Cannot be determined e. None of these 7. P can run 100m in 20 seconds and Q in 25 seconds. P beats Q by a. 10 m b. 20 m c. 25 m d. 12 m 8. A bag contains 11 fruits of which 3 are spoiled. If 4 fruits are chosen at random, find the probability that all the fruits are spoiled. a. 0 b. 1 c. 14/55 d. 4/165 9. The ratio of the circumferences of two circles is 1/2 : 1/3. Find the ratio of their respective areas. a. 3:2 b. 4:9 c. 2:3 d. 9:4

10. You are a builder, who has taken a project of building a wall against the falling mud hill. Its height is 100m on one side and 125 on the other end and width is 80 mts. The square bricks used have side of 0.5 m. How many bricks are required to build the wall, if only one layer of brick is used? a. 20000 b. 25000 c. 40000 d. 33000 11. The cost of 2 pen and 2 is 50/- , then wats the cost of 5 pen and 5 pencil ? a. 100 b. 150 c. 125 d. 75 12. At what rate percent will Rs.400 amount to Rs.460 in 3 years? a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 13. In the afternoon, Berth read 100 pages at the rate of 60 pages per hour; in the evening, when she was tired, she read another 100 pages at the rate of 40 pagers per hour. What was her average rate of reading for the day? a. 45 b. 48 c. 50 d. 52 14. Since 1950, when Dev was retired from the team, he has gained 2 pounds every year. In 1980 he was 40% heavier than in 1950. What percent of his 1995 weight was his 1980 weight? a. 80 b. 85 c. 87.5 d. 90

15. What is the greater of two numbers whose product is 900, if the sum of the two numbers exceeds their difference by 30? a. 15 b. 60 c. 75 d. 90 PART-B 1. Nutrient content and biological structures are considered as a. implicit factor for microbial growth b. intrinsic factor for microbial growth c. processing factor d. none of the above.

2. Phophatidic acid derivative involved in the activation of enzymes of blood clotting mechanism is a. Phosphatidylcholine b. Phosphatidylserine c. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine d. Phosphoglyceride. 3. The membrane of lysosome is protected from its enclosing hydrolytic enzymes by a. High unusual glycosylation of membrane protein. b. Addition of unusual glycolipid. c. The protein in the membrane in the inner leaflet contain many hydrophobic amino acids. d. Inner side of the membrane contain a layer of mucous which protect them from degrading enzymes. 4. Aldosterone is synthesized in a. Zona glomerulosa b. Zona Fasiculata c. Zona reticularis d. Chromaffin cells 5. Diabetogenic effect is seen because of a. hGH

b. prolactin c. Serotonin d. Melatonin 6. In myopia a. Image is not formed b. Image is formed in front of the retina c. Image is formed behind retina d. Image is formed on the retina 7. This region is characterized by large plant eating mammals like lions and hyenas and wildebeests and zebras a. Savanna Region b. Temperate Grassland c. Tropical Rain Forest d. Taiga Region 8. Calculate the number of births per year if the annual per capita birth rate is 0.034 and the population size is 500 a. 20 per year b. 17 per year c. 16 per year d. 10 per year 9. In 2009, the United States had a population of about 307 million people. If there were 14 births and 8 deaths per 1,000 people, what was the countrys net population growth t hat year? a. 1.74million b. 1.94 million c. 1.84million d. 1.24 million 10. A mutation is introduced in the Lex A gene such that autocatalytic cleavage of Lex A protein is prevented. How will the SOS response in this type of cell be affected? a. The genome will be repaired with high fidelity. b. The cells become more sensitive to DNA damage. c. RecA concentration increases, irrespective of the concentration of LexA protein. d. SOS genes will be induced to a high degree.

11. The antibiotic which acts by interfering with one or more steps in protein glycosylation is a. Streptomycin b. Vancomycin c. Erythromycin d. Tunicamycin 12. When histone H1 is incorporated into a nucleosome a. the nucleosome is about to be moved by a remodeling enzyme. b. it means that replication of the DNA has just occured. c. it increases the probability that condensation of the chromatin will occur. d. it means that the underlying DNA is probably a core promoter. 13. In both C4 and CAM plants, PEP carboxylase is a. Inhibited by malate and activated by glucose-6-phosphate b. Inhibited by pyruvate and activated by CO2. c. Inhibited by CO2 and activated by pyruvate. d. Inhibited by Glucose-6-phosphate and activated by malate. 14. Agent orange the leaf defoliator used by USA in Vietnam war was a. Ethylene b. 2,4-D and 2,4,5-T c. 2,4-D and NAA d. 2,4,5-T and NAA 15. If stomata are present at upper surface of leaf, the condition is called or leaf is called a. Hystomatic b. Hypostomatic c. Epistomatic d. Amphistomatic 16. Human height is an example of a. Qunalitative trait b. Pleotropy c. Continous trait d. Discontinous trait

17. What is the resultof cross involving a suppressor mutant form and a normal wild type palnt.

a.

22. Genotypically XX mice that carry a transgene for SRY would: a. develop testes b. develop ovaries c. develop both testes and ovaries d. form testes with primordial follicles in the tubules 23. If the frog embryos are injected with a morpholino (molecule used to modify gene expression) against fibronectin. Which of the following developmental processes will be affected: a. neural tube closure b. migration of cells during gastrulation c. the first cell division will be blocked d. the first nuclear division will be blocked 24. The placenta is formed from the fetal portion of? a. The epiblast b. The trophoblast and some mesoderm c. The allantois and yolk sac d. The endometrium 25. If you were shipping strawberries to a supermarket thousands of miles away, which of the following chemicals would you want to eliminate from the plants environment? a. cytokinins b. ethylene c. auxin d. gibberellic acids 26. You are part of a desert plant research team trying to discover crops that will be productive in arid climates. You discover a plant that produces a guard cell hormone under water-deficit conditions. Most likely the hormone is a. ABA. b. GA. c. IAA. d. 2, 4-D.

b. c. d. e.

2 parental and 2 recombinant All are mutants 3 mutant and 1 wild type All wild type

18. In an ordered neurospora crossing, 52 gametes were found to be different from parental one. What is the recombination frequency , if total 152 gametes were studied? a. 0.34 b. 0.17 c. 0.56 d. 0.89 19. In which period , the Himalayan mountains formed? a. Pleistocene epoch b. Eocene epoch c. Oligocene epoch d. Jurassic period 20. Which of the following anatomical region of brain is involved in animal behavior like aggression, attack, fight and submission a. Pitutory gland b. Hypothalamus c. Frontal lobe d. CNS 21. Biological clock in human is controlled by a. Nucleus Suprachiasmaticus b. Hypothalamus c. Central nervous system d. retina

27. In most dicot seeds, which of the following structures is responsible for the storage of carbohydrates? a. Seed coat b. Cotyledon c. Radicle d. Embryo 28. If a restriction endonuclease recognizes the sequence GATGCT and cuts the DNA after the first G in the recognition sequence, what overhang will be present on the ends of the DNA produced at the cut site? a. 3 nucleotide long 5' overhangs b. 4 nucleotide long 5' overhangs c. 3 nucleotide long 3' overhangs d. 4 nucleotide long 3' overhangs 29. If a 3300 bp circular plasmid can be cut in five locations by a restriction endonuclease, and these locations are at map locations 0, 500, 800, 1900, and 2300, which of the following fragments is not possible during a partial digest with this same restriction endonuclease? a. 1000 bp b. 1900 bp c. 1100 bp d. 400 bp 30. If the increase the annealing step temperature in typical PCR reaction, a. false priming is more likely b. primer-dimer formation is more likely c. inefficient amplification is likely d. poor processivity is likely 31. If a protein has a pI of 5, what charge would it have in buffer solution of pH 7.6? a. No charge b. Net positive charge c. Cant predict d. Net negative charge 32. A homo-polymeric protein has got a pI of 3.2. What type of amino acids you can expect in this protein? a. Only positively charged a.a b. Only negatively charged a.a c. Both in equal numbers

d. Uncharged a.a 33. Nonregular, nonrepetitive secondary structures a. Include -helices and -sheets b. Are bends, loops, and turns that do not have a repeating element c. Are beta-strands d. Are Beta-sheets e. Include beta-sheets 34. Motifs are supersecondary structures. Any motif can be defined by describing: a. The first 50 to 100 amino acids in the primary structure b. Any secondary structure and the turn at its C-terminus c. Any secondary structure and the loop at its N-terminus d. Any two secondary structures in the protein e. A group of secondary structures and their relationship to one another 35. In order for H-Ras to be functional, it needs to associate with the cell membrane. This process involves which post-translational modification? a. Glycosylation b. Hydroxylation c. Farnesylation d. Dephosphorylation PART-C 1. S-phase cyclins and CDKs begin to accumulate early in G1 phase but the DNA replication is seen only in S-phase. The reason for this is a. The S-cyclin and CDKs are inhibited by Sic1, phosphorylation of which marks the beginning of S-phase. b. Activation of S-cyclins and CDKs requires phosphorylation which occurs during G1-S transition. c. Dephosphorylation of S-cyclins is required for G1-S transition. d. None of the above 2. Nuclear lamina was isolated from blood sample taken from a patient. The lamina

obtained from each formed element (WBC, RBC and Platelets) of the blood was run on gel-electrophoresis. Two bands were only observed instead of three. Which of the following conclusion is correct? a. The absence of third band confirmed that the patient is suffering from laminopathy. b. The absence of third band concluded that one of the elements lacked nuclear lamina. c. Experiment needs to be conducted again as one was sample did not have any band. d. Nothing can be concluded from this experiment.

mollusc, the limpet, he removed only urchins, only limpets, or both from study areas adjacent to a control site. Fletcher observed a large difference in seaweed growth between areas with and without sea urchins.What conclusion can be drawn from the experiment?

3. Match the following Column A Column B 1. Myopia A. Farsightedness 2. Hypermetropia B. Nearsightedness 3. emmetropia C. Irregular curvature 4. astigmatism D. Normal vision a. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C b. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B c. 1-D, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B d. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A 4. The correct sequence of activation of clotting factors during intrinsic pathway of blood clotting is a. Factor XII, factor X, factor II, factor-XIII b. Factor X, factor-XII, factor-XIII, factorII c. Factor -II, Factor -X, Factor -XII, Factor XIII d. Factor -XIII, Factor II, Factor X, FactorXII 5. W. J. Fletcher, of the University of Sydney, Australia, reasoned that if sea urchins are a limiting biotic factor in a particular ecosystem, then more seaweeds should invade an area from which sea urchins have been removed. To isolate the effect of sea urchins from that of a seaweedeating

a. Removing both limpets and urchins resulted in the greatest increase in seaweed cover, indicating that both species have some influence on seaweed distribution b. Sea urchins have a much greater effect than limpets in limiting seaweed distribution c. Both a) and b) d. Removal of limpets have the same effect on Seaweed distribution as is the removal of sea urchins 6. The Glanville fritillary (Melitaea cinxia) illustrates the movement of individuals between populations. This butterfly is found in about 500 meadows across the land Islands of Finland, but its potential habitat in the islands is much larger, approximately 4,000 suitable patches.Explain the metapopulation concept using the above example

a. New populations of the butterfly regularly appear and existing populations become extinct, constantly shifting the locations of the 500 colonized patches b. The species persists in a balance of extinctions and recolonizations. c. All Granville butterfly are uniformly distributed in all the habiats so that they are prevented from getting extincted d. Both a) and b) 7. An archaebacterium (Sulfolobus acidocaldarius) found in acidic hot springs contains a topoisomerase that catalyzes the ATP-driven introduction of positive supercoils into DNA. Most organism genome are negatively supercoiled. The advantage of this enzyme to this particular organism can be due to which of the following reasons? a. Positive Supercoiling, at high temperature, eases the unwinding of DNA for replication. b. Positive Supercoiling increases the melting temperature of DNA. c. Positively Supercoiled DNA is more compact than negatively supercoiled DNA of the same length. d. The topoisomerase that introduces Positive supercoiling is more stable at high temperature than topoisomerase that introduces negative supercoiling. 8. A thalassemic patient had a mutation leading to the production of an mRNA for the -chain of hemoglobin that was 900 nucleotides longer than the normal one. The poly A tail of this mutant mRNA was located

a few nucleotide after the only AAUAAA sequence in the additional sequence. The most likely reason for this altered mRNA is? a. A mutation in the first AAUAAA sequence of mRNA. b. A mutation in the DNA converting a amino acid coding codon to a stop codon. c. A mutation in the splice acceptor site of one of the introns in the mRNA. d. A mutation missense mutation in DNA sequence, altering an amino acid encoding codon. 9. Ribosomes were isolated from bacteria grown in heavy medium (13C and 15N) and from bacteria grown in light medium (12C and 14N). These 70 S ribosomes were added to an in vitro system actively engaged in protein synthesis. An aliquot removed several hours later was analyzed by density gradient centrifugation. How many bands of 70S ribosome would you expect to see in the density gradient? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 10. Carotenoids are important accessory pigments involved in exciton transfer to the reaction center. But they also play an important role in photoprotective mechanisms. The photoprotection mechanism can be thought of as a safety valve, venting excess energy before it can damage the organism. How are caroteniods involved in photoprotection in plants? a. Carotenoids are involved in quenching of chlorophyll excited state, which would otherwise form singlet oxygen species. b. Release of excess of energy in the form of fluorescence c. Chromoplasts, which are carotenoid containing plastids, are responsible for dissipation of excess of energy as heat. d. Carotenoids help in exciton transfer to other accessory pigment molecules, inhibiting photooxidation.

11. Leaves can regulate the amount of incident light that can be absorbed by regulating the orientation and location of chloroplast in the leaves. Consider the following statements: A. Under low light, chloroplasts gather at cell surfaces and align themselves in the plane of the leaf, perpendicular to the incident light. B. Under high light conditions, chloroplasts gather at cell surfaces and arrange themselves parallel to the incident light. C. Chloroplast movement in leaves is a typical blue-light response. D. Chloroplasts move along actin microfilaments in the cytoplasm. The correct statements are a. A and B only b. A, B and C only c. A, B and D only d. All the above statements are correct 12. The data is from Mendels experiments: Of the 565 plants raised from F2 round seeded plants, 372 gave both round and wrinkled seeds in 3:1 proportion, where as 193 yielded only round seeds when self fertilized. It was hypothesized that it does follow mendelism. Test the hypothesis with (chi)2 test. a. Hypothesis is accepted b. Hypothesis is rejected c. Cant say d. Hypothesis can be rejected but not sure. 13. Mr.Dumdum was experimenting on nucleic acids. He isolated a nucleotide X in the test tube and wants to find out its identity. On addition of NH2OH , he could find formation of white ppt of Hydroxylamine cytosine ; on addition of HNO2 , he found it to produce uracil, which did not showed Transesterification reaction. Wht he might have concluded about the compund X? a. Adenine b. Uracil c. Guanine d. Cytosine

14. In a population frequency of recessive allele is found to be 0.3 . The fitness of the recessive homozygotes is 0.4 . What will be the number of homozygous recessive individuals after selection, in one generation? a. 9% b. 0.09% c. 0.036% d. 3.6% 15. It is a very common to find the dogs, urinating frequently and smelling as they move along. What may be the reason for this? a. In search of mate b. In search of food c. Marking its territory and directions d. Dogs sense the pheramones in urine and detect the food nearby. 16. In plants, sexual reproduction I. involve gametes formation and fertilization II. occurs through formation of sexual spores III. occurs through formation of meiospores IV. produce genetically identical offspring a. I and II b. II, III and IV c. I, II and III d. I, II and IV 17. In human during gastrulation, heart development begins as: a. a folding process in the mesoderm below the notochord that is exactly like neural tube formation. b. an outgrowth of the endoderm above the gut that forms a tube that will become the heart. c. a pair of tubes in the lateral plate mesoderm that move together and fuse to form a single tube that will become the heart.

d. a mesenchymal condensation below the notochord that forms the heart tube. 18. Match the following. Column A Column B Somaclonal A. anther culture variation Haploid culture B.Suspension culture Protoplast C. Callus culture isolation Secondary D. cell wall metabolite degrading enzymes a. I C, II A, III D, IV B b. I A, II B, III C, IV D c. I B, II A, III D, IV C d. I B, II D, III A, IV C 19. Match the following. Column Column B A RAPD A. detected fragment varies between individuals AFLP B. personal identification RFLP C. used to analyse the genetic diversity VNTR D. quantitative trait locus analysis a. I C, II D, III A, IV D b. I D, II C, III A, IV D c. I B, II A, III D, IV C d. I B, II D, III A, IV C 20. Which of the following are the characteristics of type II restriction endonucleases? I. Nature of enzyme : Bifunctional enzyme with both endonuclease and methylase activity II. Protein structure : Two identical subunits III. Restriction requirement : ATP, Mg2+ IV. Cleavage sites : At or near restriction site a. I and II b. II and IV c. I and IV d. III and IV 21. You are studying a virus called PK15, which is known to cause skin tumors in mice. The genome of PK15 is a 3.3 kb, doublestranded, linear DNA molecule. You are

I. II. III. IV.

interested in learning more about PK15, so you decide to map its DNA using restriction enzymes. As a first step in your analysis, you digest PK15 DNA with three enzymes: SspI, XhoI, and SmaI. You run the digested DNA on an agarose gel, along with an uncut sample of the PK15DNA as a control. You obtain the following pattern of bands. How many times does SspI and Smai cut the pK15 DNA?

I. II. III. IV.

a. b. c. d.

5 and 4 times 4 and 3 times 4 and 5 times 3 and 4 times

22. If aminopterin, a potent inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase, is added ao a culture of growing cells, which major biosynthetic process will be inhibited first? a. Carbohydrate synthesis b. Lipid synthesis c. DNA synthesis d. RNA synthesis 23. In the presence of a compound X, protein synthesis can initiate, but only dipeptides are formed that remain bound to the ribosome. Therefore, compound X affects eukaryotic protein synthesis by blocking a. The activity of elongation factors b. The activation of amino acids c. The recognition of stop signals d. The formation of peptide bonds 24. Active form of insulin contains

a. Two inter-chain disulphide bonds b. Two intra-chain and one inter-chain disulphide bonds c. One intra-chain and two inter-chain disulphide bonds d. Two intra-chain disulphide bonds 25. Which amongst the following is not a characteristic of gap juctions? a. They allow small ions and molecules to migrate from a cell an adjoining cell b. They are constituted of a class of membrane associated proteins named connexion c. They are found only in plant cells d. They are channel like structures connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells

-- End of Questions

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Answers

PART-A 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. PART-B 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. B B A A A B A B C B D C A B C C A B b B A B B A C C A B A D C C C B C B

22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. Part-C 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

A B B B A B B D C d b b e c

A b a a c d b a d a d b d d c c c a a b b c a c c

BioTecNika starting its Next batch of 6 Month Regular Classroom and Online Live Class Coaching from 12th and 14th July 2013. Hurry Only 15 Seats per Batch Enrol Today!! For Enquiries Contact: 080-32494384 / 080-65705331