CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.

), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 2

CAREER POINT


Achiever & Target Course for AIPMT-2011

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY

TAKE HOME
TEST NO. # 2 (Pattern-Main)

Physics : Full Syllabus
Chemistry : Full Syllabus
Biology : Full Syllabus

Duration : 3 Hrs. Max. Marks : 480 Date : 8/4/2011

Name : _________________________________________________________ Roll No. : __________________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE

A. GENERAL :
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the
question numbers on the answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. Write your Name & Roll No. in the space provided on this cover page of question paper.
3. The Question paper contains blank space for your rough work. No additional sheet will be provided for rough work.
4. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
5. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
6. Blank papers, Clipboards, Log Tables, Slide rule, Calculators, Cellular phones, Pagers and Electronic gadgets in
any form are Not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
B. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle
properly.
8. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/ MUTILATE THE OMR.

C. PATTERN :

Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
9. Multiple choice questions with only one correct answer.
10. Column matching type questions.
11. Passage based single correct type questions.
12. Statement type questions.
13. Diagram based questions.
14. Practical / Experimental based questions.
D. MARKING SCHEME :
15. Each correct answer will be awarded +4 marks & 1 mark for each wrong answer.


CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.)
Ph: 0744-3040000, Fax (0744) 3040050
email : info@careerpointgroup.com ; Website : www.careerpointgroup.com

Now, Schedule practice questions are available on internet also, Visit www.examtayari.com
S
E
A
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CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 2
PHYSICS
























































Q.1 In the circuit shown, the current through the
ideal diode is:
80
20 2V

(1) 75 mA (2) 20 mA
(3) 100 mA (4) 25 mA


Q.2 When p-n junction diode is forward biased then:
(1) the depletion region is reduced and barrier
height is increased
(2) the depletion region is widened and barrier
height is reduced
(3) both the depletion region and barrier height
are reduced
(4) both the depletion region and barrier height
are increased


Q.3 In an oscillating LC circuit, maximum charge on
the capacitor is Q. The charge on this capacitor,
when the energy is stored equally between the
electric and magnetic fields is:
(1) Q (2)
2
Q
(3)
3
Q

(4)
2
Q



Q.4 What is the velocity of the bob of a simple
pendulum at its mean position, if it is able to rise
to vertical height of 10cm? (Take g = 9.8 m/s
2
)


(1) 0.6 m/s (2) 1.4 m/s
(3) 1.8 m/s (4) 2.2 m/s

Q.5 A manometer connected to a closed tap reads 3.5
10
5
N/m
2
. When the valve is opened, the
reading of manometer falls to 3.0 10
5
N/m
2
,
then velocity of flow of water is
(1) 100 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) 1 m/s (4)
10 10
m/s


Q.1 lin li -, ii ii (ilrn iii r
80
20 2V

(1) 75 mA (2) 20 mA
(3) 100 mA (4) 25 mA


Q.2 p-n li ii ^ liln r n
(1) (-i -ii i-ni r nii ii +i; ni r
(2) (-i -i i ni r nii ii + i; i-ni r
(3) (-i -ii nii ii +i; ii i-n r
(4) (-i -ii nii ii +i; ii n r


Q.3 i-i LC li - , iili lin-
i(i Q r| ; iili i(i +i -i
l(nn nii i -ii - ln rini r
(1) Q (2)
2
Q
(3)
3
Q

(4)
2
Q


Q.4 i ^i i (^ ;i -i-i
l-iln i ri^i l r 10cm i +(ii
+i; n -ni r ` (g = 9.8 m/s
2
)


(1) 0.6 m/s (2) 1.4 m/s
(3) 1.8 m/s (4) 2.2 m/s
Q.5 -i-i
(tap)
i -i-i-
3.5 10
5

N/m
2

- ni r| (i- ii li ini r,
ni -i-i- i - i-
3.0 10
5
N/m
2
ri
ini r, n (ir i (^ r

(1) 100 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) 1 m/s (4)
10 10
m/s









CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 3


























































Q.6
A particle moves in a straight line so that after
t second the distance x from a fixed point O on
the line is given by x = (t 2)
2
(t 5). Then:
(1) after 2s, the velocity of particle is zero
(2) after 2s, the particle reaches at O
(3) the acceleration is negative when t < 3s
(4) all of the above


Q.7 Two spherical conductors A and B of radii 1 mm
and 2 mm are separated by a distance of 5 cm
and are uniformly charged. If the spheres are
connected by a conducting wire then in
equilibrium condition, the ratio of the magnitude
of the electric fields at the surfaces of spheres A
and B is
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4

Q.8 Consider the situation shown in the figure. The
capacitor A has a charge q on it whereas B is
uncharged. The charge appearing on the capacitor
B a long time after the switch is closed is

A B
q

(1) Zero (2) q/2
(3) q (4) 2q


Q.9 In an X-ray tube if the electrons are accelerated
through 140 KV then anode current obtained is
30 mA. If the whole energy of electrons is
converted into heat then the rate of production of
heat at anode will be -
(1) 968 calorie (2) 892 calorie
(3) 1000 calorie (4) 286 calorie


Q.10 In the reaction H H
3
1
2
1
+

n He
1
0
4
2
+
, if the
binding energies of
H H
3
1
2
1
,
and
He
4
2
are
respectively a,b and c (in MeV) then the energy (in
MeV) released is -

(1) a + b + c (2) a + b c
(3) c a b (4) c + a b

Q.6 i ii - ^ln ni r nil
t in ii l-i l O i x
; i i ini r x = (t 2)
2
(t 5), n:
(1) 2s
in i i (^ i r

(2) 2s
in i l
O
rni r

(3) -(i ~ii-- r t < 3s
(4) in ii


Q.7 i ^iii i A ( B i lii 1 mm (
2 mm r, - 5 cm i i l-in r nii
-i i(lin l ^ r| l ^ii i
i ni ,ii i li ini r, n i
l-iln - A nii B ^ii i -i l(nn -iii
l-ii i in r
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4

Q.8 li - lin l-iln l(i | iili
A q i(i r l B i(lin r| l-(
- i iili B l-in
i(i r
A B
q

(1) i (2) q/2
(3) q (4) 2q

Q.9 X-li i -, l ;-i i 140 KV
-(ln li i, n in i iii
30 mA r| l ;-ii i i +i +-i -
l(lnn ri i, n i +-i -i i
ri^i -
(1) 968 ii (2) 892 ii
(3) 1000 ii (4) 286 ii


Q.10 lil>i H H
3
1
2
1
+ n He
1
0
4
2
+ -, l H H
3
1
2
1
,
nii He
4
2

i i +i >-i
a,b
(
c (MeV
-
)
ri, n -n +i (MeV -) r
(1) a + b + c (2) a + b c
(3) c a b (4) c + a b





CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 4


























































Q.11 B A
210
84
222
86

in this reaction how many and

emissions have occurred

(1) 6, 3 (2) 3, 4
(3) 4, 3 (4) 3, 6

Q.12
A force F is given by F = at + bt
2
where
t
is
time. What are the dimensions of a and b ?
(1) MLT
3
and ML
2
T
4
(2) MLT
3
and MLT
4

(3) MLT
1
and MLT
0
(4) MLT
4
and MLT
1

Q.13 A current is made of two components, a DC
component of I
1
= 3 amp and an AC component
given by I
2
= 2 4 sint amp; then the reading
of the hot-wire ammeter is:

(1) 3 amp (2) 2 4 amp

(3) ) 2 4 3 ( +
amp
(4) 5 amp

Q.14 A mass of 100 g strikes the wall with speed
5 m/s at an angle as shown in figure and it
rebounds with the same speed. If the contact
time is 2 10
3
sec, what is the force applied on
the mass by the wall


60
60
100 g

(1) N 3 250
to right (2) 250 N to right
(3) N 3 250
to left
(4) 250 N to left

Q.15 Which of the following statements are correct ?
(a) Average speed of a particle in a given time is
never less than magnitude of the average
velocity
(b) It is possible to have a situation in which
0
dt
dv

but
0 | v |
dt
d
=
r

(c) It is possible to have a situation in which
0 | v |
dt
d

r
but
0
dt
dv
=


(d) The average velocity of a particle is zero in a
time interval. It is possible that the
instantaneous velocity is never zero in the
interval
(1) a, b (2) b, d (3) a,b,d (4) a,c,d


Q.11 B A
210
84
222
86
; lil>i - ln nii
- in rin r
(1) 6, 3 (2) 3, 4
(3) 4, 3 (4) 3, 6
Q.12 F i F = at + bt
2
,ii li ini r, ri
t

- r|
a
nii
b
i l(-i i r
?
(1) MLT
3
nii ML
2
T
4
(2) MLT
3
nii MLT
4

(3) MLT
1

nii
MLT
0
(4) MLT
4

nii
MLT
1


Q.13 iii i i-i i r, I
1
= 3 amp i
DC i- nii I
2
= 2 4
sint amp i AC
i-, n nn ni -i- i i-i r
(1) 3 amp (2) 2 4
amp

(3) ) 2 4 3 ( +
amp
(4) 5 amp


Q.14 100 g i -i 5 m/s (^ liii
li ii i(i -ini r nii r -i
i (il i- ini r| l -
2 10
3
sec ri, ni -i i(i ,ii
iiln i r


60
60
100 g

(1) N 3 250

ii i (2)
250 N
ii i

(3) N 3 250

ii i (4) 250 N ii i
Q.15 l - ii i ri r ?
(a) l ^ - - i i in i,
in (^ l-ii ii - ri rini r
(b) r l-iln i( r l- 0
dt
dv

n

0 | v |
dt
d
=
r

(c) r l-iln i( r l- 0 | v |
dt
d

r

n

0
dt
dv
=


(d) -ini - i i in (^ i
rini r| r i( r l ni -
ni--ili (^ ii i ri rini r
(1) a, b (2) b, d (3) a,b,d (4) a,c,d






CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 5


























































Q.16 A rectangular loop is drawn from left to right
across a uniform magnetic field perpendicular
into the plane of paper, with its plane always
perpendicular to the magnetic field. Then the
direction of current:
X X X X X
X X X X X

1 2 X X 3 4 X X X

X X X X X
(a) in the position 1 is clockwise
(b) in the position 2 is anticlockwise
(c) in the position 3 is anticlockwise
(d) in the position 4 is clockwise
(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) b, d (4) a,d

Q.17 Consider three physical quantities,

B
E
x =
, y =
0 0
1

and
CR
z
l
=

Here, l is the length of a wire, C is capacitance
and R is resistance. All other symbols have
standard meanings.
(a) x, y have the same dimensions
(b) y, z have the same dimensions
(c) z, x have the same dimensions
(d) None of the three pairs have the same
dimensions
(1) a (2) a, b (3) a, b, c (4) d

Q.18 Moment of inertia of a square plate of mass M
and of side 'a' .

5
2
3
1
4

(a) its moment of inertia about axis (5) is I
5
= I
1
+ I
2

(b) its moment of inertia about axis (5) is I
5
= I
3
+ I
4

(c) its moment of inertia about axis (1) is I
1
=
2
5
I

Correct answer is-
(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) a, b, c (4) a, c



Q.16 inii i i^ n - -
(n i -ii - i i iii ini r,
;i l ; n r-ii i -ii
(n r| n iii i lii r
X X X X X
X X X X X

1 2 X X 3 4 X X X

X X X X X
(a) l-iln 1 - l-iii(ni
(b) l-iln 2 - (i-i(ni
(c) l-iln 3 - (i-i(ni
(d) l-iln 4 - l-iii(ni
(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) b, d (4) a,d

Q.17 ni iiln ilii l(i ,

B
E
x =
, y =
0 0
1


nii

CR
z
l
=


ri
l
ni i i;,
C
iilni nii
R
lnii r|
ii ni -i i r|
(a) x, y i -i l(-i r
(b) y, z i -i l(-i r
(c) z, x i -i l(-i r
(d) ni -i - li i ii -i l(-i ri r
(1) a (2) a, b (3) a, b, c (4) d

Q.18 M -i nii 'a' ii i (^ii - i
-( iii

5
2
3
1
4

(a) -i (5) ln ;i -( iii I
5
= I
1
+ I
2

(b) -i (5) ln ;i -( iii I
5
= I
3
+ I
4

(c) -i (1) ln ;i -( iii I
1
=
2
5
I
r

ri -i r
(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) a, b, c (4) a, c







CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 6


























































Q.19 A wave is represented by the equation;
y = A sin [10x + 15t + (/3)]
where x is in m and t in s. The expression
represents:
(a) A wave traveling in positive x-direction with
velocity 1.5 m/s
(b) A wave travelling in negative x-direction
with velocity 1.5 m/s
(c) A wave travelling in negative x-direction
with wavelength 0.2 m
(d) A wave travelling in positive x-direction
with wavelength 0.2 m
(1) a, d (2) b, c (3) a, c (4) b, d

Q.20 Five identical capacitor plates, each of area A,
are arranged such that the adjacent plates are at
a distance d apart. The plates are connected to a
battery of e.m.f. E volts as shown.

1 2 3 4 5
E

(a) Net capacitance is

d
A
0
3
(b) Charge on plate 2 is E
d
A

0
2
(c) Charge on plate 5 is E
d
A

0


(1) a, b, c (2) a, c (3) b, c (4) None

Column
Matching :

Q. 21 Proton, deuteron and -particle are projected
perpendicular to same uniform magnetic field
B. The ratio of radii of particles are shown in
Column II. Match the correspoinding ways of
projection in Column I with them :

Column I Column II
(a) All have same velocity
(p)
2 : 2 : 1
(b) All have same
momentum
(q) 1 : 2 : 2
(c) All have same KE (r) 1 : 1 : 2
(d) All are projected after
being accelerated by
same potential
difference
(s) 1 : 2 : 1
(1) a p, b q, c r, d s
(2) a s, b p, c q, d r
(3) a r, b s, c p, d q
(4) a q, b r, c s, d p
Q.19 n^ l -ii ,ii lin i ^; r
y = A sin [10x + 15t + (/3)]
ri x -i- - nii t - r| lin
ni r
(a) 1.5 m/s (^ ii-- x-lii - ln n^
(b) 1.5 m/s (^ ~ii-- x-lii - ln n^
(c) 0.2 m n^ i ~ii-- x lii - ln n^
(d) 0.2 m n^ i ii-- x-lii - ln n^
(1) a, d (2) b, c (3) a, c (4) b, d

Q.20 i -i iili - - i -ii A r
;i (l-in r l -i i - -
d i ri| -i i liii l(.(i. E i
-i ii ^i r|

1 2 3 4 5
E

(a) iilni

d
A
0
3 r
(b) - 2 i(i E
d
A

0
2 r
(c) - 5 i(i E
d
A

0
r

(1) a, b, c (2) a, c (3) b, c (4) i; ri







LrEHk lqesfyr %

Q. 21 i-i, -i nii -i -i - i
-ii B - ; (n -iln l in r| ii
i liii i in -ni II - lin r|
ii -ni I - -ii ^n nii
l-i |

LrEHk I LrEHk II
(a)
ii i (^ -i r
(p)
2 : 2 : 1
(b)
ii i (^ -i r
(q) 1 : 2 : 2
(c)
ii i KE -i r
(r) 1 : 1 : 2
(d)
ii -i l(i(in
-(ln l i
in -iln l in
r|
(s) 1 : 2 : 1
(1) a p, b q, c r, d s
(2) a s, b p, c q, d r
(3) a r, b s, c p, d q
(4) a q, b r, c s, d p





CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 7






















































Q. 22 Thermodynamic changes in gases can be
expressed graphically between changes in
pressure and corresponding changes in volume.
Column I gives the thermodynamic change
while column II shows the P-V graphs marked
in serial nos 1 to 4. Match the changes given in
column I with the graph given in figure in
column II.
Column I Column II
(a) Isothermal change
(b) Adiabatic change
(c) Isobaric change
(d) Isochoric change

P
1
V
2
3
4

(1) a 1, b 2, c 3, d 4
(2) a 4, b 3, c 2, d 1
(3) a 3, b 2, c 4, d 1
(4) a 1, b 4, c 2, d 3

Q.23
Column I Column II
(a) Pt (x) Nucleus of helium
(b) Thermal radiation (y) Infrared region
(c) spin of photon (z) +1/2

(p)
1

(1) a x, b y, c p
(2) a x, b y, c z
(3) Both are correct
(4) None of these

Passage Based Questions :

Passage : 1 (Ques. 24 to 25)

A light ray incidents on an equilateral prism
with angle of incidence 45 if its deviation is
minimum
Q. 24 Angle of minimum deviation is-
(1) 45 (2) 30
(3) 60 (4) 90

Q. 25 Refractive index of the prism is
(1) 3 (2)

2
(3) 5 (4) 2 / 3

Q. 22 ^i - +-i^lni l(ni i ^il
i - l(n nii in - ^n l(n
- ^i ,ii iii i ni r| -ni I -
+-i ^lni l(n l ^ r l -ni II -
1 4 n P-V ii ii ^ r| -ni I - l
l(ni i -ni II - li - l ^ii ii
l-i |
LrEHk I LrEHk II
(a)
-nii l(n
(b)
,i-i l(n
(c)
-ii l(n
(d)
-ini l(n

P
1
V
2
3
4

(1) a 1, b 2, c 3, d 4
(2) a 4, b 3, c 2, d 1
(3) a 3, b 2, c 4, d 1
(4) a 1, b 4, c 2, d 3

Q. 23
LrEHk I LrEHk II
(a) Pt (x) ril- i ili
(b)
-iii l(li (y) (n -ii
(c)
i-i i >i
(z) +1/2
(p) 1
(1) a x, b y, c p
(2) a x, b y, c z
(3) ii ri r
(4) ;- i; ri

x|ka'k ij vk/kkfjr iz'u
:

x|ka'k
: 1 (
iz'u
24
ls
25)

ii li 45 in ii ii
-ir l- ilnn rini r, l ;i
l( n- r, ni

Q. 24 n- l( ii r
(1) 45 (2) 30
(3) 60 (4) 90

Q. 25 l- i (ni r
(1) 3 (2)
2

(3) 5 (4) 2 / 3






CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 8
Passage : 2(Ques. 26 to 27)
One end of a 60 m long rope of mass 1.8 kg is
tied to a rigid horizontal support held high
above the ground. The rope hangs vertically and
kept taut by a weight 'W' suspended at its lower
end. A person jerks the lower end of the rope
sideways in a sinusoidal manner and a
transverse wave of frequency 2Hz and
amplitude 10 cm passes along the rope such that
there are 2 cycles of the wave in the total length
of the rope.
Neglecting the weight of the rope as compared to
the suspended weight W and with g = 10 m/s
2
,
answer the following questions.

Q.26 Mass corresponding to the suspended weight W is-
(1) 14. 2 kg (2) 10.8 kg
(3) 6.6 kg (4) 8.4 kg

Q.27 In the questions above, weight of the rope has
been neglected as compared to the suspended
weight. However, if we also account for the
weight of the rope, the speed of the wave at the
top of the rope will be-
(1) 60 m/s (2) 64.8 m/s
(3) 80 m/s (4) 90 m/s

Passage : 3 (Ques. 28 to 29)

A diatomic gas is enclosed in a cylinder at
pressure 10
5
N/m
2
at temperature 27C. It is
subjected to a cyclic process. In the first process
its pressure is doubled keeping volume constant.
Then it is made to expand adiabatically to
original pressure. Then it is made to suffer
isobaric compression bringing it back to initial
volume 2 litre.

Q. 28 Temperature of gas after its pressure is doubled
at constant volume is:
(1) 327C (2) 127C
(3) 177C (4) 148C

Q. 29 After adiabatic expansion the new volume will be:
(1) 4.12 litre (2) 3.27 litre
(3)
2.58 litre
(4)
1.88 litre


x|ka'k : 2 (iz'u 26 ls 27)
1.8 kg -i i 60 m i -i l
i -i + li +i; l-in
-iln iii ii ^i r| -i +(ii
-i r; r nii ; l l - 'W'
ii ,ii ni r| ln -i li l i
i(>i i iini r nii l
2Hz i(l-i nii 10 cm ii- i -i
n^ -i ; i ^ni r l -i i
i; - n^ 2 > | -i ii i -
ii i ni - ^ -i nii
g = 10 m/s
2
r, ni l i -i |

Q. 26 - ii W lin -i r
(1) 14. 2 kg (2) 10.8 kg
(3) 6.6 kg (4) 8.4 kg

Q.27 in -, -i i ii - ii i ni
- ^ -ii ^i r| l l r- -i ii
i -i, ni -i iii n^ i i ri^i
(1) 60 m/s (2) 64.8 m/s
(3) 80 m/s (4) 90 m/s

x|ka'k
: 3 (
iz'u
28
ls
29)

l,-ii ^ 10
5
N/m
2
i nii 27C ni
ll - r| r >i >-
iini r| i- >- - ;i i in ln
i ^i li ini r| n ; - i
n ,i-i iln li ini r| n ;
ili in 2 i- n i l
-ii i ^ii ini r|

Q. 28 ln in ; i i ^i
in ^ i ni r
(1) 327C (2) 127C
(3) 177C (4) 148C

Q. 29 ,i-i i in i in ri^i
(1)
4.12
i- (2)
3.27
i-

(3)
2.58
i- (4)
1.88
i-







CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 9



A & R Type Questions :
The following questions given below consist
of an Assertion and Reason Type questions.
Use the following Key to choose the
appropriate answer.
(A) If both Assertion & Reason are True &
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is
False.
(D) If both Assertion and Reason are False.

Q. 30 Assertion : Four point charges q
1
, q
2
, q
3
and q
4
are as shown in figure. The flux over the shown
Gaussian surface depends only on charges
q
1
and q
2
.

q
1
q
2
Gaussian
surface

q
3
q
4

Reason : Electric field at all points on Gaussian
surface depends only on charges q
1
and q
2
.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
dFku ,oa dkj.k izdkj ds iz'u %
uhps fn;s x;s fuEufyf[kr iz'u "dFku" rFkk
"dkj.k" izdkj ds iz'u gSaA vr% mfpr mkj dk
p;u djus ds fy;s fuEu rkfydk dk mi;ksx
dhft;sA
(A) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa rFkk
dkj.k dFku dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k gSA
(B) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa ysfdu
dkj.k( dFku dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA
(C) ;fn dFku lR; gS ysfdu dkj.k vlR; gSA
(D) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa vlR; gSA


Q. 30 dFku : i l i(i q
1
, q
2
, q
3
nii q
4
liii
ii ^ r| lin ^ii -
( i(ii q
1
( q
2
li ni r|

q
1
q
2
iii
-

q
3
q
4

dkj.k : ^ii - ii li l(nn -ii
( i(ii q
1
( q
2
li ni r
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D








CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 10
CHEMISTRY
























































Q.31 4I

+ Hg
2+

2
4
HgI ; 1 mole each of Hg
2+
and
I

will form .. mole

2
4
HgI :

(1) 1 mole (2) 0.5mole (3) 0.25mole (4) 2 mole

Q.32 If the total volume of H
2
and O
2
at the electrodes
during the electrolysis of acidified water is 16.8 ml
at NTP, then the quantity of electricity used is :
(1) 112Q (2) 96.5Q (3) 965Q (4) 9650Q

Q.33 Half lives of decomposition of NH
3
on the surface
of a catalyst for different initial pressures are given
as :
p(torr) 200 300 500
t
1/2
(min) 10 15 25
The order of the reaction is :

(1) 2 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 0.5

Q.34 2 moles of H
2
S and 11.2 L SO
2
at NTP react to
form x mole of sulphur; x is :
SO
2
+ 2H
2
S 3S + 2H
2
O
(1) 1.5 (2) 3 (3) 11.2 (4) 6

Q.35 Which is most reactive towards E.S.R. :
(1)

NH
2

(2)

NH
3

(3)

N
Me
Me
(4)

NH
O
C Me

Q.36 Dehydration of alcohols



OH



OH



(I) (II)


OH



OH



(III) (IV)
will be in order :
(1) I < II < III < IV (2) IV > II > III > I
(3) III < II < I < IV (4) II < III < IV < I

Q.37 Molisch test is answered by :
(1) sucrose (2) all carbohydrates
(3) glucose (4) fructose
Q.31 4I

+ Hg
2+

2
4
HgI ; Hg
2+
nii I

-
1 -i, .. -i
2
4
HgI
i^ :
(1) 1 -i (2) 0.5 -i (3) 0.25 -i (4) 2 -i

Q.32 in (nn i- ii ;-ii
H
2
nii O
2
i in NTP 16.8 ml r,
ni - l(nn i -iii ri^i :
(1) 112Q (2) 96.5Q (3) 965Q (4) 9650Q

Q.33 lili ili ii l - i
nr NH
3
l(i- i , i ; i i
^; r :
p(torr) 200 300 500
t
1/2
(min) 10 15 25
lil>i i il- r :

(1) 2 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 0.5

Q.34 NTP H
2
S 2 -i nii 11.2 L SO
2
l>i
- x -i in r, x r :
SO
2
+ 2H
2
S 3S + 2H
2
O

(1) 1.5 (2) 3 (3) 11.2 (4) 6

Q.35 E.S.R. ln i lin- l>iii r :
(1)

NH
2

(2)

NH
3

(3)

N
Me
Me
(4)

NH
O
C Me

Q.36 -irii i lii



OH


OH


(I) (II)


OH


OH


(III) (IV)
l >- - ri^i
:

(1) I < II < III < IV (2) IV > II > III > I
(3) III < II < I < IV (4) II < III < IV < I

Q.37 -ili i-ii l ,ii li ini r :
(1) >i (2) ii iiri;-
(3) i (4) -i





CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 11









































Q.38 CH
3
CH=CHCH
3
+ CHCl
3

+
K CO ) CH (
3 3



CH
3
CH CHCH
3
Cl

Cl


Intermediate in the above reaction is :
(1)
3
Cl C

(2) : CCl
2
(3) CH
3
CH
2 3
HCH C

(4) all of these

Q.39 Which of the following process is used in the
extractive metallurgy of magnesium ?
(1) fused salt electrolysis
(2) self reduction
(3) aqueous solution electrolysis
(4) thermite reduction

Q.40 Fluorine does not form any polyhalide as other
halogens because :
(1) it has maximum ionic character
(2) it has low FF bond energy (38.5 kcal mol

)
(3) of the absence of d-orbitals in the valence
shell of fluorine
(4) it brings about maximum coordination
number in other elements

Q.41 The atomic number of potassium is 19 and that of
manganese is 25. Although [MnO
4
]

has a dark
violet colour, K
+
is colourless. This is due to the
fact :
(1) Mn is a transition element, while K is not
(2) [MnO
4
]

is negatively charged species while

K
+
has a positive charge
(3) The effective atomic number of Mn in
[MnO
4
]

is 26 while for K
+
the effective
atomic number is 18

(4) The Mn in a high positive oxidation state
allows charge transfer spectrum

Q.42 Which of the following is an electron-deficient
compound ?

(1) NaBH
4
(2) CO
2
(3) B
2
H
6
(4) Al
2
Cl
6

Q.43 Which of the following is paramagnetic and
coloured ?
(1) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
(
2) (NH
4
)
2
[TiCl
6
]
(3) VOSO
4
(4) K
3
[Cu(CN)
4
]
Q.38 CH
3
CH=CHCH
3
+ CHCl
3

+
K CO ) CH (
3 3



CH
3
CH CHCH
3
Cl

Cl


- lil>i - -(ni r :

(1)
3
Cl C

(2) : CCl
2
(3) CH
3
CH
2 3
HCH C

(4) - ii

Q.39 l - l >- i i^ -li-
lii - li ini r ?

(1) ^ln (i (nn i-
(2) -(
(3) i l( (nn i-
(4) i-i;-

Q.40 ii, rii i nr i; ii iiri;
ri ini r, il :

(1) r lin- il ^i ini r
(2) r FF i +i (38.5 kcal mol

) ini r
(3) ii ii ii - d--ii i
l-iln
(4) ;- n-(i ^i^ lin-
ri i rini r

Q.41 i-li- i -ii >-i 19 nii -li- i 25
rini r| niil [MnO
4
]

^ri ^i ^ ini r
nii K
+

^ri rini r| ; n i ii r
:
(1) Mn >-i n-( r l K ri
(2) [MnO
4
]

~ii(lin -iii rini r l
K
+
ii(lin rini r
(3) [MnO
4
]

-
Mn
i ii(i -ii i
26
l
K
+
l ii(i -ii i 18 ri ni r
(4) ii-- iii (-ii - Mn -
i(i -iiini --- rini r

Q.42 l - ii ;-i il^ r ?
(1) NaBH
4
(2) CO
2
(3) B
2
H
6
(4) Al
2
Cl
6

Q.43 l - ii i nii ^i rini
r ?

(1) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
(2) (NH
4
)
2
[TiCl
6
]
(3) VOSO
4
(4) K
3
[Cu(CN)
4
]






CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 12
Q.44 Plots of log K vs. 1/T plots shows an intercept of
2 on y-axis with a slope of 45 for the studied
reaction. Assuming that H and S as
temperature independent, select the correct
statement :

(a) G = 2.75 kcal (b) S = 4.606 cal
(c) H = 4.606 cal (d) K = 100.8
(1) a, c, d (2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, c (4) a, b, c, d

Q.45 Match the following columns :
Column-I Column-II
(Location of atom (Contribution to the
in cube) unit cell)

(A) Corner (i) 1/2
(B) Edge centred (ii) 1
(C) Body centred (iii) 1/8
(D) Face centred (iv) 1/4
(1) (A) (i), (B) - (ii), (C) (iii), (D) (iv)
(2) (A) (iv), (B) - (i), (C) (ii), (D) (i)
(3) (A) (iii), (B) -(iv), (C) (ii), (D) (i)
(4) (A) (iii), (B) - (ii), (C) (iv), (D) (i)

Q.46 For the energy levels in an atom which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct ?
(i) The 4s subenergy level is at a higher energy
than the 3d subenergy level
(ii) The M-energy level can have maximum of
32 electrons
(iii) The second principal energy level can have
four orbitals and contain a maximum of 8
electrons
(iv) The 5
th
main energy level can have maximum
of 50 electrons
Correct option is :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (ii)
(3) (iii), (iv) (4) All of these

Q.47 The solubility of solid silver chromate, Ag
2
CrO
4
is
determined in three solvents.
Substance K
sp

Ag
2
CrO
4
9 10
12
I. pure water II. 0.1 M AgNO
3

III. 0.1 M Na
2
CrO
4

Predict the relative solubility of Ag
2
CrO
4
, in the
three solvents :
(1) I = II = III (2) I < II < III
(3) II = III < I (4) II < III < I
Q.44 log K i 1/T l(, ilin, ii lil>i
l y--i 45 i i
ni 2 iini r| -iil H nii S ni
-(ni r, ni ri i i il :
(a) G = 2.75 kcal (b) S = 4.606 cal
(c) H = 4.606 cal (d) K = 100.8
(1) a, c, d (2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, c (4) a, b, c, d

Q.45 l -nii i -ln il :
LrEHk-I LrEHk -II
(?ku esa ijek.kq dh (bdkbZ dksf"Bdk esa
fLFkfr) lg;ksx)
(A) i (Corner) (i) 1/2
(B) i ln (ii) 1
(C) i ln (iii) 1/8
(D) ln (iv) 1/4
(1) (A) (i), (B) - (ii), (C) (iii), (D) (iv)
(2) (A) (iv), (B) - (i), (C) (ii), (D) (i)
(3) (A) (iii), (B) -(iv), (C) (ii), (D) (i)
(4) (A) (iii), (B) - (ii), (C) (iv), (D) (i)

Q.46 -ii - +i -ni l l - i
i ri r ?
(i) 4s +i -n, 3d +i -n i -ii
+i rini r
(ii)
M
-+i -n, lin- 32 ;-i i ni
r
(iii) l,ni - +i -n -, i -i nii
l- lin- 8 ;-i ri n r
(iv) 5
th
- +i -n, lin- 50 ;-i i
ni r
ri l(- r :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (ii)
(3) (iii), (iv) (4) i- ii

Q.47 ni l(ii - nin -i l-( >i-- Ag
2
CrO
4
i l(ni l i r|
inkFkZ K
sp

Ag
2
CrO
4
9 10
12
I. i, II. 0.1 M AgNO
3

III. 0.1 M Na
2
CrO
4

; nii l(ii - Ag
2
CrO
4
i il-in l(ni
nin il :
(1) I = II = III (2) I < II < III
(3) II = III < I (4) II < III < I





CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 13
Q.48

O

C
2
H
5
O C OC
2
H
5

MgBr CH 2
3
(
A).
Product (A) formed can :

(a) give iodoform test
(b) further react with CH
3
MgBr/H
3
O
+
to give
t-butyl alcohol
(c) be obtained by the ozonolysis of 2, 3-dimethyl-
2-butene
(d) exhibit tautomerism
(1) a and b (2) a and c
(3) b, c and d (4) a, b, c, d

Q.49 Chlorohydrin formed when Cl
2
/H
2
O adds to
cyclohexene has configuration :

(a)

OH

Cl

(b)

OH
Cl

(c)

Cl

OH

(d)

OH
Cl

(1) a and b (2) c and d
(3) a and c (4) a, b, c, d

Q.50 Which of the following is an example of
electrophilic addition?
(a) CH
3
CH=CH
2
+H
2

catalyst
CH
3
CH
2
CH
3
(b) CH
3
CH=CH
2
+HBr


peroxide
CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
Br
(c) CH
3
CH=CH
2
+HBr

CH
3
CHBrCH
3
(d) CH
3
CHO + HCN

CH
3
CH

OH
CN

(1) a and c (2) c and d
(3) a, b c (4) only c

Q.51 Which of the following statement are true :
(a) Ti
+3
salt are more stable
(b) Ga
+
salt are better reducing agent
(c)
Bi
+5
salt are better oxidising agent
(d) Pb
+2
salt are more abundant
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d
(3) a, c, d (4) a, b, d

Q.52 Which shows paramagnetism :

(a) ClO
3
(b) BrO
2
(c) SO
2

(d) CO
2
(e) NO
2

(1) a, b, d (2) a, c, e
(3) b, c, e (4) a, b, e
Q.48

O
C
2
H
5
O C OC
2
H
5

MgBr CH 2
3
(
A).
in -i (A) l :
(a) r iii- i-ii ni r
(b) r ii CH
3
MgBr/H
3
O
+
ii l>i
t-
l- -iri ni r

(c)
r
2, 3-
i;-li
-2-
-i iii i-
,ii in rini r
(d)
r i((ni iini r

(1) a nii b (2) a nii c
(3) b, c nii d (4) a, b, c, d

Q.49 Cl
2
/H
2
O, i;iri ii ni r ni
l lil(i n iiri;i ni r :
(a)

OH
Cl
(b)

OH
Cl

(c)
Cl
OH
(d)

OH
Cl

(1) a nii b (2) c nii d
(3) a nii c (4) a, b, c, d

Q.50 l - ii ;-i-ri i^i-- i
iri r?

(a) CH
3
CH=CH
2
+H
2

catalyst
CH
3
CH
2
CH
3
(b) CH
3
CH=CH
2
+HBr


peroxide
CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
Br
(c) CH
3
CH=CH
2
+HBr

CH
3
CHBrCH
3
(d) CH
3
CHO + HCN

CH
3
CH

OH
CN

(1) a nii c (2) c nii d
(3) a, b c (4) ( c

Q.51 l - i i - r :

(a) Ti
+3
(i li -ii; rin r
(b) Ga
+

(i li i rin r

(c) Bi
+5
(i li iii rin r
(d) Pb
+2

(i li i rin r

(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d
(3) a, c, d (4) a, b, d

Q.52 i -( iin r :

(a) ClO
3
(b) BrO
2
(c) SO
2

(d) CO
2
(e) NO
2

(1) a, b, d (2) a, c, e
(3) b, c, e (4) a, b, e





CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 14
Q.53 Which of the following complex shows
geometrical isomerism :
(a) Pt (NH
3
)
2
Cl
2

(b) Pt (NH
2
CH
2
COO)
2

(c) [Zn(NH
3
)
2
Cl
2
]
(d) [Pt(NH
3
)(NH
2
OH)(NO
2
)(C
5
H
5
N)]NO
2
(1) a, b, c (2) a, b, d
(3) a, c, d (4) b, c, d

Q.54 Match the column :
Column-I Column-II
(A) Frankland reagent (P) NH
3
+H
2
O + AgNO
3
(B) Fenton reagent (Q) BaSO
4
+ Pd
(C) Rosenmund reagent (R) FeSO
4
+ H
2
O
2
(D) Tollen reagent (S) C
2
H
5
ZnC
2
H
5
(1) A S, B R, C P, D Q
(2) A R, B S, C P, D Q
(3) A Q, B P, C R, D S
(4) A S, B R, C Q, D P

Q.55 Match the column :
Column-I (Molecule) Column-II
(A) NO
2
(P) 180
(B) SO
2
(Q) 132
(C) ClO
2
(R) 119.5
(D) CO
2
(S) 117.5
A B C D
(1) S P Q R
(2) P S R Q
(3) Q R S P
(4) S Q P R

Passage:
Lowering of vapour pressure is determined by
Ostwald and Walner dynamic method. It is based
on the principle, when air is allowed to pass
through a solvent or solution, it takes up solvent
vapour with it to get itself saturated with vapours
at that temperature
Dry air Solution
A
P

B
Solvent

A
P
Anhy. CaCl
2
Air
A
A and B are weighed separately before and after
passing dry air. Loss in mass of each set, gives the
lowering of vapour pressure. The temperature of
air, the solution and the solvent is kept constant.
Q.53 l - ii , il-ni -i((ni
iini r :
(a) Pt (NH
3
)
2
Cl
2

(b) Pt (NH
2
CH
2
COO)
2

(c) [Zn(NH
3
)
2
Cl
2
]
(d) [Pt(NH
3
)(NH
2
OH)(NO
2
)(C
5
H
5
N)]NO
2
(1) a, b, c (2) a, b, d
(3) a, c, d (4) b, c, d

Q.54 -ni -ln il :
LrEHk-I LrEHk-II
(A) li- (P) NH
3
+H
2
O + AgNO
3
(B) -i li- (Q) BaSO
4
+ Pd
(C) i - li- (R) FeSO
4
+ H
2
O
2
(D) -i li- (S) C
2
H
5
ZnC
2
H
5
(1) A S, B R, C P, D Q
(2) A R, B S, C P, D Q
(3) A Q, B P, C R, D S
(4) A S, B R, C Q, D P

Q.55 -ni -ln il :
LrEHk-I (i) LrEHk-II
(A) NO
2
(P) 180
(B) SO
2
(Q) 132
(C) ClO
2
(R) 119.5
(D) CO
2
(S) 117.5
A B C D
(1) S P Q R
(2) P S R Q
(3) Q R S P
(4) S Q P R

x|ka'k %
(i i - (- i i--(i- nii (i-
ili l(li ,ii nin li ini r| r ;
l,in iiiln rini r l (i i
l(i i l( - (ilrn li ini r ni
r ni (i ii -( i nn
l l(i i (i i ^ri ni r|

i (i l(


A
P

B

l(i

A
P
l CaCl
2
(i

A

A nii B, i (i i (ilrn r nii
in ii rin r| - -r -i - -i,
(i i - (- ni r| (i, l( nii
l(i ni i l-i ini ini r|





CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 15















































Q.56 Loss in mass of solvent (W
2
) will be proportional
to:
(1)
A

A
P P (2)

A A
P P
(3)

A A
P / P (4)

A A
P P

Q.57 Dry air was passed through 5g of solute in 80 g of
water and then through pure water. The loss in mass
of solution was 2.5 g and that of pure water was
0.04 g. The molecular mass of solute is :

(1) 7.143 g mol
1
(2) 71.43 g mol
1

(3) 74.3 g mol
1
(4) 73 g mol
1


A & R Type Questions :

The following questions given below consist of
an Assertion and Reason Type questions. Use the
following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
(A) If both Assertion & Reason are True & Reason
is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(D) If both Assertion and Reason are False.

Q.58 Assertion : Hess's law is an extension of I law of
thermodynamics.
Reason : It is used to calculate the energy of steps
which are practically impossible.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q.59 Assertion : Addition of HCl to CH
3
CH=CH
2
in
presence of peroxide forms CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
Cl.
Reason : Secondary free radical (CH
3
3
HCH C

) is
stable than primary free radical (CH
3
CH
2
2
H C

).
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q.60 16 g oxygen gas expands at STP to occupy double
of its original volume. The work done during the
process is :
(1) 260 kcal (2) 180 kcal
(3) 130 kcal (4) 272.8 kcal




Q.56 l(i (W
2
) -i - -i l -iini
ri^i :

(1)
A

A
P P (2)

A A
P P
(3)

A A
P / P (4)

A A
P P

Q.57 80 g - l(i 5g - i (i
(ilrn nii n i, - (ilrn i
ini r, ni l( -i - -i 2.5 g nii
i, -i - -i 0.04 g ini r| l(
i il( -i ri^i :
(1) 7.143 g mol
1
(2) 71.43 g mol
1

(3) 74.3 g mol
1
(4) 73 g mol
1




dFku ,oa dkj.k izdkj ds iz'u %
uhps fn;s x;s fuEufyf[kr iz'u "dFku" rFkk "dkj.k"
izdkj ds iz'u gSaA vr% mfpr mkj dk p;u djus
ds fy;s fuEu rkfydk dk mi;ksx dhft;sA
(A) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa rFkk dkj.k
dFku dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k gSA
(B) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa ysfdu dkj.k(
dFku dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA
(C) ;fn dFku lR; gS ysfdu dkj.k vlR; gSA
(D) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa vlR; gSA

Q.58
dFku
:
r i l-, +-i^lni i- l-
i l(-ni rini r|
dkj.k : ;i i^ i i +i i nin
- li ini r i iil^ i( ri rini r|
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q.59 dFku : ii; i l-iln -,
HCl
CH
3
CH=CH
2

ii
CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
Cl
ini r|
dkj.k: l,ni -- - (CH
3
3
HCH C

),iil- - -
-
(CH
3
CH
2
2
H C

)
i -ii - -ii; rini r|


(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q.60 STP 16 g ii ^ iln ri ;
(i-nl( in ^ in i ^ri ni
r| >- ii li ^i i r :

(1) 260 kcal (2) 180 kcal
(3) 130 kcal (4) 272.8 kcal





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BIOLOGY

























































Q.61 Unicellular, Eukaryotes which are photosynthetic
in presence of sunlight while in dark become
hetrotrophic is -
(1) Desmids (2) Gonyaulux
(3) Euglena (4) Slime-mould

Q.62 Plants body dominant sporophyte have true roots
leaf and stem have well developed vascular
tissue, microphyllous, heterosporus is / are -
a-Lycopodium b-Marsilea c-Sphagnum
d-Cycas e-Isoetes f-Selaginella
g-Anthoceros
(1) a, b, e, f (2) b, c, d, f, g
(3) b, e, f only (4) f only

Q.63


I II


III IV
From given figures identify wrong match
(1) Spirillum Amphitrichous
(2) Nostoc Heterocyst
(3) Bacteria Primitive gene transfer
(4) Agaricus Ascomycetes
Q.64


I II


III IV
Q.61 ilii li- i ii i
l-iln - ii ii n r ( ii -
iii rin r, (r r
(1) l-- (2) ^ili
(3) li (4) ( (
Q.62 ii ii(i iiili l- - -, i
( ni nii i l(ln (r +n, iii,
l(i- iii r,(r r
a-i;iil- b--iili c---
d-i e-i;i;- f--li
g-iii
(1) a, b, e, f (2) b, c, d, f, g
(3) ( b, e, f (4) ( f

Q.63


I II



III IV
l ^ li - ^n -ln i ril
(1) -i;l- i-i;
(2) i--i lr-il--
(3) i(ii in i -iiini
(4) ^l -i-i;ll-
Q.64


I II


III IV



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Identify the correct combination of features in
given figures
(1) Selaginella Rhizophore, cone absent
(2) Equisetum Node-Internode, cone absent
(3) Fern Megaphyllous, cones absent
(4) Cycas Megaphyllous, cone absent

Q.65 Birds and mammals share one of the following
characteristics as a common feature -
(1) Pigmented skin
(2) Alimentary canal with modification
(3) Viviparity
(4) Warm blooded nature

Q.66 Which one of the following statements is
incorrect -
(1) Mesogloea is present in between ectoderm
and endoderm in obelia
(2) Redial symmetry is found in Asterian
(3) Fasciola is pseudocoelomate animals
(4) Taenia is triploblastic animal

Q.67 A. Original drifted population becomes
founders and the effect is called founder
effect.
B. When migration of a section of population to
another place and population occurs, gene
frequencies change in the original as well as
in the new population
C. Variation due to gene flow results in
changed frequency of genes and alleles
D. Change of frequency of alleles in a
population results in evolution.
Which of the above is not incorrect
(1) A, B, D (2) B, C, D
(3) A, C, D (4) A, B, C, D

Q.68 A. Adhering junctions perform cementing to
keep neighbouring cells together
B. The development of cockroach is
holometabolous and nymph look very much
like adults
C. In earthworm, development is direct and
each cocoon produces two to twenty baby
worms.
D. Dense irregular connective tissue has
fibroblasts and mainly collagen fibres
oriented differently.
Which of the above statements is correct
(1) A, B, C, D (2) A, B, C
(3) A, C, D (4) B, C, D
l ^ li - ^ii ri l-i i llrn
il
(1) -ii i;ii, i l-in
(2) ;l(i-- i-;-i, i l-in
(3) ^ii, i l-in
(4) i ^ii, i l-in

Q.65 l-ii ( -niili - l - ^i -i
rini r
(1) (in -(i
(2) l(ln i ni
(3) i
(4) ^- li (l-i
Q.66 l - ii i ri ri r -
(1) ili - l-ili i=- ( n-
i l-in rini r|
(2) i--l - i -l-ln i; ini r|
(3) lii - ^ri n r|
(4) -ili liii n r|

Q.67 A. (i-nl( l( -l- iii- ini r
( ii( iiii ii( rini r|
B. -l- ii^ i (i -ii
ri ni r ni --i - (i-nl( i(l-ii -
l(n nii i -- i - ii l(n ri ni r |
C. i ( - l(-ii i i(l-i l(n
lii- -(i i (ir ii l(lini
- rini r|
D. --i - -l(l-i i i(l-i l(n
lii--(i l(i rini r|
in - ii ri ri r
(1) A, B, D (2) B, C, D
(3) A, C, D (4) A, B, C, D

Q.68 A. n li-i l-(ni iliii i
i i i n r|
B. ln-- i l(i ri-i--ii rini r (
l (- lii; ni r|
C. - l(i --i rini r nii -
2 20 i-i - ni r|
D. i ll-n ii -i - i;ii--
rin r nii - i l(li
l(iln rn r|
in - ii i ri r
(1) A, B, C, D (2) A, B, C
(3) A, C, D (4) B, C, D



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Q.69 Match the column -
Column-I Column-II
a. Porifera i. Canal system
b. Aschelminthes ii. Water vascular
system
c. Annelida iii. Muscular
pharynx
d. Arthropoda iv. Comb plates
e. Echinodermata v. Jointed
appendages
vi. Metamere
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-v, d-vi, e-iv
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-v, e-ii
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-v, d-vi, e-ii
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-vi, d-v, e-ii

Q.70 Placentation present in monocarpellary unilocular
ovary with many ovules present inside it is -
(1) Basal (2) Marginal
(3) Parietal (4) 1 & 2 both

Q.71 Characteristic features of the family shown in
floral diagram is / are

(1) Swollen ovary
(2) Large no. of ovule
(3) Obliquely placed placenta
(4) All of the above

Q.72 The structure shown in figure is not present in

(1) Root (2) Shoot
(3) Leaf (4) Leaf and fruit

Q.69 -nii i l-i il -
-ni-I -ni-II
a.
iii
i.
ili ni
b.
-l--ii
ii.
i (r ni
c.
lli
iii.
ii l
d.
iiiii
iv.
i -
e.
i;i--i
v.
in i
vi.
l(i
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-v, d-vi, e-iv
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-v, e-ii
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-v, d-vi, e-ii
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-vi, d-v, e-ii


Q.70 ; iin ii, i-i ii -
iii rini r, r -
(1) iiii (2) i-ini
(3) lil-i (4) 1 ( 2 ii

Q.71 ; i li - ii ^ lii-ili
-ii r

(1) i ri ii
(2) iii i li i
(3) ln iii
(4) in ii
Q.72 li - liii ^i i l - ii ii ri
ii ini r

(1) - (2) ir
(3) i (4) i (


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Q.73 Which of the following cranial nerve are mixed -
(a) Vagus (b) Trigeminal
(c) Glossopharyngeal (d) Auditory
Answer code :
(1) a and b are correct (2) b and d are correct
(3) a and c are correct (4) a, b and c are correct

Q.74 Match the following nutritional / vitamin
deficiencies in column-I with the causes /
deficiencies in column-II and choose the correct
option from the answer key -
Column-I Column-II
a. Kwashiorkor p Iron
b. General
anaemia
q Menadione
c. Dermatitis r Protein
d. Cheliosis s Riboflavin
e. Bleeding t Niacin
(1) a-p, b-t, c-q, d-r, e-s (2) a-r, b-p, c-t, d-s, e-q
(3) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p, e-t (4) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-t, e-q

Q.75 Listed below are the hormones of anterior
pituitary origin. Tick the wrong entry
(1) Growth hormone
(2) Follicle stimulating hormone
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone

Q.76 Mark the odd from the following
(1) Pronator muscle (2) Ligament
(3) Adductor muscle (4) Supinator muscle

Q.77 What will be happen, if cochlear branch of
auditory nerve in damage of a person in an
accident -
(1) Perception of sound wave by brain is affected
(2) Analysis of sound wave or pitch is affected
(3) Body balance is affected
(4) All of the above

Q.78 I. Cytokinin is primarily concerned with cell
division
II. Gibberellin breaks seed and bud dormany
III. ABA stimulates the opening of stomata
The true statement is
(1) I, II, III (2) I, II (3) I, III (4) II, III
Q.73 l - ii nlii l-ln i i rini r
(a) (^ nlii (b) -i;l- nlii
(c) iill nlii (d) (i nlii
-i - :
(1) a nii b ri r (2) b nii d ri r
(3) a nii c ri r (4) a, b nii c ri r

Q.74 lllin -ni-I - iii,l(-il- i -i
l(i l ^ r, -ni-II - li -i rini
l ^ r| -i i ri li l-i
ni; -
-ni-I -ni-II
a.
(ilii i
p
i
b.
i-i
n-ni
q
l-ii;i
c.
--i;l-
r
il-
d.
lil
s
i;il(
e.
n -ii(
t
lil
(1) a-p, b-t, c-q, d-r, e-s (2) a-r, b-p, c-t, d-s, e-q
(3) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p, e-t (4) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-t, e-q

Q.75 ^ ii ^l-n ri (i ri-i i i
i i ^; r, ^n i llrn il
(1) (l, ri-i
(2) l-i ln ri-i
(3) ii-il
(4) liil-i-il ri-i

Q.76 l - l(i- i llrn il
(1) i- ii (2) nn
(3) - ii (4) i- ii
Q.77 i ri^i i-i - ln i l (i
nlii i il iiii -iln^-n ri ini r -
(1) -l-n ,ii (l n^i i ^ri i
iil(n ri^i
(2) (l n^ i ni-( i l(ii iil(n ri^i
(3) lr n iil(n ri^i
(4) in ii

Q.78 I. i;-ii;l iil- ilii
l(ii lin r
II. ii, i ( li i nni i i^
ni r|
III. ABA ii i i i ni r|
- i r
(1) I, II, III (2) I, II (3) I, III (4) II, III


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Q.79 Gibberellins have many effects. Which one of
the following is not an effect of gibberellins in
plants ?
(1) Bolting
(2) Delay senescence
(3) Increase the grapes stalk
(4) Richmond lang effect

Q.80 Match the column
Column-I Column-II
I. IBA A. Terpenes
II. GA
1
B. Indole
compounds
III. ABA C. Adenine
derivatives
IV. C
2
H
4
D. Methionine
derivative
V. Zeatin E. Carotenoid
derivatives
(1) I-B, II-E, III-A, IV-D, V-C
(2) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D, V-E
(3) I-E, II-D, III-A, IV-B, V-C
(4) I-B, II-A, III-E, IV-D, V-C

Q.81 Which one of the following correctly identifies X
and Y and shows their functions

X Y
Stucture Function Structure Function
(1) Grana Photolysis
of water
Stroma CO
2

fixation
(2) Grana CO
2

fixation
Stroma Photolysis
of water
(3) Stroma Photolysis Grana CO
2

fixation
(4) Grana CO
2

fixation
Lamellae Photolysis
of
water

Q.79 ll ; ii( rin r| l - i i
ii - ll i ii( ri r ?
(1) il--^
(2) ini - i rii
(3) ^i --i i i i
(4) l- ii(

Q.80 -nii i l-i l
-ni-I -ni-II
I. IBA A.
-
II. GA
1
B.
;i
il^
III. ABA C.
ii
-
IV. C
2
H
4
D.
l-ii;
-
V. Zeatin E.
i-ii;
-i
(1) I-B, II-E, III-A, IV-D, V-C
(2) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D, V-E
(3) I-E, II-D, III-A, IV-B, V-C
(4) I-B, II-A, III-E, IV-D, V-C

Q.81 l - ii X ( Y ii i ri iini
r

X Y

-ii i i i
(1)
^i i
ii
--i-i
CO
2

-iii
(2)
^i
CO
2

-iii
--i-i i
ii
(3)
--i-i ii ^i
CO
2

-iii
(4)
^i
CO
2

-iii
l-i i
ii





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Q.82 A. Catalyses the transfer of a group from one to
another compound.
B. Catalyser bond breaking of substrate with
help of water.
C. Catalyzing the linking of two molecules by
using energy into one molecule.
Identify the classes of enzymes for above
functions.
A B C
(1) I II III
(2) II III IV
(3) II III VI
(4) III IV V


Q.83 Which one of the following correctly indicates
the stages of mitosis at which particular events
occur ?
DNA
replication
Breakdown
of nuclear
membrane
Division of
centromere
(1) Interphase Metaphase Metaphase
(2) Interphase Prophase Anaphase
(3) Interphase Interphase Anaphase
(4) Prophase Prophase Anaphase

Q.84 Excess of Mn in plants may induce deficiency
of -
(1) Fe (2) Ca
(3) Mg (4) All

Q.85 I. Boron deficiency leads to stout axis of plant
II. Every mineral element that is present in a
cell is needed by the cell.
III. Nitrogen as a nutrient element is highly
immobile in the plants.
IV. Deficiencies of essential elements disrupt
plant growth and metabolism
(1) All are correct
(2) All are correct except I, IV
(3) I, IV are correct
(4) II and IV are correct
Q.82 A. ii iiii ii -r
-iiini i -ln ni r
B. iiii ii i nini r i
rini |
C. i ii i i, i i +i
i i^ , -ln ni r|
in ii l l(i -ri i
llrn il
A B C
(1) I II III
(2) II III IV
(3) II III VI
(4) III IV V



Q.83 l - ii -ii l(ii i
(-ii i l(li- i-i il-n ri i
iini r ?
DNA
i(l-i
i
i i
i-
-i-
i l(ii
(1)
;- --i --i
(2)
;- i i
(3)
;- ;- i
(4)
i i i

Q.84 ii - Mn i lini li -i ii
ni r -
(1) Fe (2) Ca
(3) Mg (4) ii

Q.85 I. i i -i ii i - -ii
-i ini r
II. - il n-( i ilii - l-in
rini r ilii rn i( rini r|
III. i;-i ii n-( i - ii -
-li ^lnii rini r|
IV. l(i n-(i i -i i (l, (
i i (ilin ni r|
(1) ii ri r
(2) ii ri r I, IV i i
(3) I, IV ri r
(4) II ( IV ri r


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Q.86 I. Initial carboxylation
II. CO
2
fixation rate under high light intensity.
III. Photorespiration would be present at low
CO
2
concentration.
IV. Photorespiration is present at low light
intensity.
V. Optimum temperature
Choose the correct option of C
3
and C
4
plant
(1)
Bundle
Sheat h
Meso
-phyll
Low High Low Low Low Low 20-
25C
40C
(2)
Meso
-phyll
Bundle
Sheat h
Low Low Negli
-gible
High High High Above
40C
20-25
C
(3)
Meso
-phyll
Meso
-phyll
High High High Negli
-gible
Negli
-gible
Negli
-gible
20-25
C
Abov
e
40
(4)
Bundle
Sheat h
Bundle
Sheat h
High High High Low Low High 50C 40C
C
3
plant
C
4
plant
C
4
plant
C
4
plant
C
3
plant
C
3
plant
V
C
3
plant
C
4
plant
C
3
plant
C
4
plant
I II III IV


Q.87 Which of the following cellular metabolic
processes can occur in the presence or absence of
O
2
?
(1) Glycolysis
(2) Fermentation
(3) TCA cycle
(4) Electron transport coupled with chemiosmosis

Q.88 For artificial hybridisation experiment in
dioeciuos female parents with bisexual flower
Which of the following sequences is correct
(1) Bagging Emasculation Cross
pollination Rebagging
(2) Emasculation Bagging Cross
pollination Rebagging
(3) Cross pollination Bagging
Emasculation Rebagging
(4) Self-pollination Bagging Emasculation
Rebagging

Q.89 Community is
(1) Group of interdependent, interacting
populations of same species
(2) Group of independent and interacting
populations of same species in specific area.
(3) Group of interdependent and interacting
populations of different species in a specific
area.
(4) Group of independent and interacting
populations of different species
Q.86 I. ili iilii
II. CO
2
-iii ii ni(ni -
III. ii ( CO
2
i l ini ii
ri^i .
IV. ii ( l ii ni(ni ri^i|
V. n- ni>-
C
3
( C
4
ii l ri l(- i i( il
(1)
i i-i-i l l l l l
20-25
C
40C
(2)
i-i-i i l l ^ 40C
+
20-25
C
(3)
i-i-i i-i-i ^ ^ ^
20-25
C
40C
+
(4)
i i l l
50C 40C
V
C
3
i
C
4
i
C
3
i
C
4
i
I II III IV
C
3
i
C
4
i
C
4
i
C
4
i
C
3
i
C
3
i


Q.87 l - ii ilil ii l>i O
2
i
l-iln i l-iln - ri ni r ?
(1) i;ii-
(2) l(
(3) TCA >
(4) -i -iiini iii ii

Q.88 li- i i^ - l^ii -ini
l- il^i ii r ii >- ri r
(1) iii l( i^i
iii
(2) l( iii i^i
iii
(3) i^i iii l(
iii
(4) -(i^i iii l(
iii
Q.89 -i r
(1) -i iln i ii, nl>i
(ii -l- i -r
(2) l(li- -ii - -i iln i -(ni (
nl>i (ii -l- i -r
(3) l(li- -ii - l(li ilni i ii (
nl>i (ii l(li -l-i i -r
(4) l(li ilni i -(ni ( nl>i
(ii -l-i i -r


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Q.90 Which of the follwing is true for a pyramid of
energy ?
A. Only about 10% of the energy in one trophic
level is passed into the next level.
B. Because of the loss of energy at each trophic
level, most food chains are limited to three to
five trophic levels.
C. The pyramid of energy of some aquatic
ecosystems is inverted because of the large
zooplanktons at primary consumer level
(1) A,B,C (2) A,C (3) A,B (4) B,C

Q.91 State which is true
I- Abortions could happen spontaneously too
II- Infertility is the inability to produce viable
offsprings due to defects in the female
partner only
III- Complete lactation could help in
contraception
IV- Creating awareness can help create a
reproductive healthy society.
(1) I, III, IV (2) I, II, III
(3) II, III (4) III, IV

Q.92 Which of the following sequences is correct to
initiate expiration ?
I. Relaxation of external intercostals muscles
and return of diaphragm and sternum to their
normal postion.
II. Air expelled from lungs
III. Volume of thorax decreases
IV. Intrapulmonary pressure increases
(1) I, III, IV, II (2) II, IV, III, I
(3) IV, III, II, I (4) I, II, III, IV

Q.93 Match the column-I with Column-II
Column-I Column-II
A. Counting the
number of QRS
complex in a
given time period
I. A detailed
evaluation of
the heart
function
B. Potential
generated by the
recovery of
ventricles from
the
Repolarization
state
II. Determination
of heart beat
C. Multiple leads
are attached to
the chest region
III. T-wave
Q.90 l - ii +i lil- l -
r ?
A. ( ^i^ 10% lnin +i ii
-n i^i-i -n - ini r
B. - ii -n +i i ril ri
ii, liii iin ii ni i
iii -ni n il-n rini r|
C. i lnii +i lil- --
rin r il iil- iini -n
li n ( rin r|
(1) A,B,C (2) A,C (3) A,B (4) B,C
Q.91 ri i r ni; -
I- ^iin i ii ri ni r
II- ini ii nln i - i
-i-ni r -ii iii - l(i ri ii
III- i i i ^iiii i i ni r|
IV- i^ni i ii -(-i -i
i - - ni r|
(1) I, III, IV (2) I, II, III
(3) II, III (4) III, IV


Q.92 i= ( i ii l l ii
>- ri r ?
I. i= nii lii i l(i- ( n-
nii il-i i (i i-i l-il- - i
ii
II. i (i i ir li
III. (-i i in - ri ii
IV. inl --ii i ii
(1) I, III, IV, II (2) II, IV, III, I
(3) IV, III, II, I (4) I, II, III, IV
Q.93 -ni-I i -ni-II l-i il

-ni-I

-ni-II
A.
l r - -
QRS l- -
i l^i
I.
; i
i l(-nn
iii
B.
l(i(i l-iln
(i i-i
ri (i
i(ii
- l(i(
II.
; ^ln i
ll-n
C.
(-i-i
ri i
i
III.
T-i(^




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A B C
(1) I II III
(2) III II I
(3) II I III
(4) II III I

Q.94 Which of the following statement is not true ?
(1) Cardiac output of an athlete is much higher
than that of an ordinary man
(2) In each minute a single cardiac cycle is
performed
(3) Cardiac sounds are of clinical diagnostic
significances
(4) Cardiac cycle includes auricle systole,
ventricular systole and joint diastole /
complete diastole

Q.95 Observe the following figure

Figure Human Urinary system
Identify A to E structure
A B C D E
(1) Superior
vena
cava
Inferior
vena
cava
Dorsal
Aorta
Urethra Pelvis
(2) Inferior
vena
cava
Superior
vena
cava
Dorsal
Aorta
Urethra Pelvis
(3) Ureter Inferior
vena
cava
Dorsal
Aorta
Urethra Pelvis
(4) Dorsal
Aorta
Inferior
vena
cava
Urethra Cortex Pelvis

A B C
(1) I II III
(2) III II I
(3) II I III
(4) II III I


Q.94 l - ii i ri ri r ?
(1) i-i ln i ni - ii( i
;l^n li rini r|
(2) - l-- - ; > i li
ini r|
(3) ; (l ll-i li -r-( rin
r|
(4) ; > - ili , li
( i- lr lili , i lili ri ni
r

Q.95 l li i (i il

li -i( -i ni
A E n i ii i ril
A B C D E
(1)
-rilii ;il
(i
(i
-ri
i-i
-i
li
l-(
(2)
;il
(i
(i
-rilii -ri
i-i
-i
li
l-(
(3)
- ;il
(i
(i
-ri
i-i
-i
li
l-(
(4)
-ri
i-i
;il
(i
(i
-i
l
i
(-- l-(




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Q.96 Match the column-I with Column-II
Column-I Column-II
A. PCT I. Concentrated urine
formation
B. DCT II. Filtration of blood
C. Loop of
Henle
III. Reabsorption of 70-
80% electrolytes
D. Counter
Current
mechanism
IV. Ionic balance
E. Malpighian
corpuscle
V. Maintenance of
conc. gradient in
medulla
A B C D E
(1) III IV I V II
(2) III V IV II I
(3) I III II V IV
(4) III I IV V II

Q.97 Which of the following statements about the
joints is false ?
(1) Joints are essential for all types of
movements involving bony parts
(2) Joints are contact between bones or between
bones and cartilages
(3) Fibrous joints are immovable
(4) Cartilaginous joint permit slight movement

Q.98 Multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology
(MOET) induced which of the following in cow ?
(1) Super ovulation
(2) Follicular maturation in ovary
(3) Ovulation
(4) Both (1) and (2)

Q.99 The following diagram belongs to human sperm.
Identify A, B, and C

Q.96 -ni-I i -ni-II l-i l

-ni-I

-ni-II
A. PCT I.
ii -i i
B. DCT II.
li i l-
C.
r i
ii
III.
-ii;- i
70-80% ii^
(iiii
D.
ilniii
l>il(li
IV.
iil n
E.
-i-ill^
lii
V.
-i - ii (ini
i ii
A B C D E
(1) III IV I V II
(2) III V IV II I
(3) I III II V IV
(4) III I IV V II

Q.97 ii i - l ii i - r ?
(1) ii i i ^ln - i i( rin r
l- l-i ii^ rini r|
(2) i l-i l-i i l-i il-i
i i r|
(3) ii i rin r|
(4) il-i i - ^ln i rin r|


Q.98 r i- iii -iiin ni (MOET)
^ii - l i ln ni r ?
(1) -li i-^
(2) ii - ii l(ni
(3) i-^
(4) (1) i (2) ii
Q.99 l li -i( i>ii i r A, B, ( C i
ril



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(1) A-Acrosome, B-46, C-Mitochondria
(2) A-Acrosome, B-23, C-Mitochondria
(3) A-Lysosome, B-23, C-Mitochondria
(4) A-Acrosome, B-23, C-Spirilum

Q.100 Identify A and B, and their respective functions

A B Function of A Function of B
(1)
Tropho
-blast
Inner
cell
mass
Get attach to
the
endometrium
Differentiated as
embryo
(2)
Inner
cell
mass
Tropho
-blast
Get attach to
the
endometrium
Differentiated as
embryo
(3)
Tropho
-blast
Inner
cell
mass
Differentiated
as ambryo
Get attach to the
endometrium
(4)
Ecto-
derm
Endo-
derm
Differentiated
as ambryo
Get attach to the
endometrium

Q.101 Which of the following sequences shows the
correct order of the events that occur during
foetal development ?
(1) Cleavage fertilisation differentiation
implantation
(2) Fertilisation cleavage implantation
differentiation
(3) Cleavage fertilisation implantation
differentiation
(4) Fertilisation cleavage differentiation
implantation

Q.102 Some important events in the human female
reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the
events in a proper sequence
A- Secretion of FSH
B- Growth of corpus luteum
C- Growth of the follicle and oogenesis
D- Ovulation
E- Sudden increase in the levels of LH
(1) A D C E B
(2) B A C D E
(3) C A D B E
(4) A C E D B

(1) A->ii-, B-46, C--i;-iili
(2) A->ii-, B-23, C--i;-iili
(3) A-i;ii-, B-23, C--i;-iili
(4) A->ii-, B-23, C--i;l-

Q.100 A ( B i ( lin i i ni;

A B
A i i B i i
(1) ii i inl
ilii
ii
^iii
n -n
i
ii -
l(lnn
rii
(2) inl
ilii
ii
ii i ^iii
n -n
i
ii -
l(lnn
rii
(3) ii i inl
ilii
ii
ii -
l(lnn
rii
^iii
n -n
ii
(4) i=- n- ii -
l(lnn
rii
^iii
n -n
ii

Q.101 iii l(i - l ii i-i ri >-
iini r ?
(1) l( li n ii
(2) li l( ii n
(3) l( li ii n
(4) li l( n ii




Q.102 -i( -ii > i -r-(i i-i
i i r; r| ; i-ii i ri >- -
-i;|
A- FSH i -ii(i
B- in l i (l,
C- - ( ii i (l,
D- i-
E- LH -n - i (l,
(1) A D C E B
(2) B A C D E
(3) C A D B E
(4) A C E D B



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Q.103 In maize, coloured endosperm (C) is dominant
over colour-less (c) and full endosperm (R) is
dominant over shrunken (r). When a dihybrid of
F1 gen. was test crossed, it produced four
phenotypes in the following percentage :
Coloured full 48 %
Coloured shrunken 5 %
Colourless full 7 %
Colourless shrunken 48 %
From this data, what will be the distance between
two non-allelic genes:
(1) 48 units (2) 5 units (3) 7 units (4) 12 units

Q.104 Based on relative proportion of parental and
recombinant phenotypes in the test cross progeny
involving two recessive genes r (round) and y
yellow) controlling the seed shape and seed
colour respectively, the observed percent
recombination is 10. The distance between r and
y is
(1) 10 m.u. (2) 20 m.u. (3) 30 m.u. (4) 40 m.u.

Q.105 Amniocentesis is a technique
(1) By which the essential amino acids in the
body can be estimated
(2) By which any chromosomal anomalies in the
foetus can be detected
(3) In which the sex of the foetus can be
reversed
(4) That can be used for correcting genetic
disorders of the foetus

Q.106 Gynandromorph develops in Drosophila when
the two cells in the two-celled proembryo will
have one of the following chromosomal sets
(1) 2A + XX in one cell and 2A + X in the other
(2) 2A + X in both the cell
(3) 2A + XXX in both the cells
(4) All of the above

Q.107 Genetic drift :
(1) Is the random change in gene frequencies
(2) Has nothing in common with inbreeding
(3) Is an orderly change in gene frequencies
(4) Produces greatest fluctuations in large
populations
Q.103 -i - (i n i iii (C) (iri (c)
ii(i r ( i i iii (R) l r (r) ii(i
r i; ri;l i F1 nln i i-ii i
(ii ini r ni i i l
lniinni - -ii -l- -i l :
(i n i 48 %
(i n l r 5 %
(iri i 7 %
(iri l r 48 %
; ii i - l(-i i i i
i i ri^i :
(1) 48 l- (2) 5 l- (3) 7 l- (4) 12 l-
Q.104 li ( lii- -ii -l- i-ii
i - lin lninni iiiln nln
- l- ii(i i r (^i) ( y (ii) i
i i ii ( i i (i >-i l-
ni r| l in i ^; liii lninni
10 r ni r ( y i i i r|
(1) 10 m.u. (2) 20 m.u. (3) 30 m.u. (4) 40 m.u.

Q.105 li -l ni r
(1) l- ii - i i (i i( -ii
i i ni ^ii i ni r|
(2) li i i ^iii ll-nni i ii
- ni ^ii i |
(3) l- ii i l^ i i |
(4) l i^ ii i i(ili
ll-nni i ri li i |

Q.106 iili - ^ii-i i l(i i
ilii i ilii ili - l -
^iii i ii ini r n rini r
(1) 2A + XX ilii - ( 2A + X i
ilii -
(2) 2A + X ii iliii -
(3) 2A + XXX ii iliii -
(4) in ii

Q.107 i(ili l( :
(1) i iini i i i( r
(2) n i; -ini ri ini
(3) i iini - i-i l(n r
(4) i -l- - i i( -i rini r


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Q.108 Viruses are believed to be
(1) Living organisms
(2) Non-living organisms
(3) A transitional group between living and non-
living world
(4) Living organisms which have lost power of
multiplication

Q.109 Radioactive thymidine when added to the
medium surrounding living mammalian cells gets
incorporated into newly synthesized DNA. Which
of the following types of chromatin is expected to
become radioactive if cells are exposed to
radioactive thymidine as soon as they enter the
S-phase ?
(1) Heterochromatin
(2) Euchromatin
(3) Both heterochromatin and euchromatin
(4) Neither heterochromatin

Q.110 F
2
ratio in chicken comes out to be 9 rose black
comb, 1 single white comb, 3 rose white comb an
3 single comb black. which are the recessive ?
(1) Single comb, white comb
(2) Rose comb, white comb
(3) Single comb, black comb
(4) Rose comb, white comb

Q.111 find the sequence of binding of the following
amino acyl t-RNA complexes during translation
to m-RNA transcribed by a DNA segment having
the base sequence 3'TACATGGGT CCG 5'.
Choose the answer showing the correct order of
numerals


AUG UAC CCG GGU Anticodon
Amino acid
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) ii, i, iv, iii
(2) i, ii, iv, iii
(3) ii, i, iii, iv
(4) i, ii, iii, iv

Q.108 l(iii i -ii ini r
(1) il(n i(
(2) il(n n
(3) il(n ( il(n - i i
(4) il(n n l ^i i -i-ni ii i r


Q.109 lil-( iil-i li -i- - ii
ini r i il(n -niili i iliii ,ii
lii rni r| DNA ii - l-ln
ri ini r| l i i >i-l-
l-in r l- ilii lil-( iil-i
iil(n i ^; r ri (i S-(-ii -
(i ni r ?
(1) lr-i>i-l-
(2) >i-l-
(3) ii lr-i>i-l- ( >i-l-
(4) ni lr-i>i-l- i ri >i-l-


Q.110 -^i F
2
lnin - 9 ^i ii ^i, 1 l^
(n ^i, 3 ^i (n ^i ( 3 ii
^i in rini r| ii ii(i r ?
(1) l^ ^i, (n ^i
(2) i ^i, (n ^i
(3) l^ ^i, i ^i
(4) i ^i, (n ^i

Q.111 l -ii i; t-RNA l- i
>- ni; i m-RNA (i -
DNA ,ii i li ri ii^ l- >-
3'TACATGGGT CCG 5' r ni r| ri -i
i il i ri >- -


AUG UAC CCG GGU Anticodon
Amino acid
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) ii, i, iv, iii
(2) i, ii, iv, iii
(3) ii, i, iii, iv
(4) i, ii, iii, iv


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Q.112 Match the List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
A. Diameter of the helix 1. 34
B. Distance between two
adjacent base pair
2. 20
C. Distance between two
complete turns
3. 3
D. Length of the hydrogen
bonds
4. 4.4
(1) A=1, B=3, C=2, D=4
(2) A=2, B=4, C=1, D=3
(3) A=4, B=3, C=2, D=1
(4) A=1, B=4, C=2, D=3

Q.113 Match the following
Column-I Column-II
I. Gamete A. Colurless
individual
II. Homozygous B. Haploid cell
III. Heterozygous C. When both
factors are
identical
IV. Albino D. When both
factors are
different
(1) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
(2) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
(3) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
(4) I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A

Q.114 Match the following
Column-I Column-II
I. Polysome A. Unit of DNA
capable of
undergoing
recombination
II. Recon B. Ribosome bound to
mRNA during
protein synthesis
III. Synapsis C. 4n
IV. Tetraploid D. Pairing of
homologous
chromosomes
(1) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
(2) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
(3) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
(4) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C

Q.112 i-I i i-II l-i l
List-I List-II
A.
i i
1. 34
B.
i -ii - i i
i
2. 20
C.
i i i-ii i i
i
3. 3
D.
ri;i i i i;
4. 4.4
(1) A=1, B=3, C=2, D=4
(2) A=2, B=4, C=1, D=3
(3) A=4, B=3, C=2, D=1
(4) A=1, B=4, C=2, D=3

Q.113 l i l-i il

-ni-I

-ni-II
I.
-
A.
(iri
II.
-i--i
B.
^lin ilii
III.
l(i--i
C.
i ii i
-i ri
IV.
ri
D.
i ii i
-i ri
(1) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
(2) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
(3) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
(4) I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A

Q.114 l i l-i l

-ni-I

-ni-II
I.
iii-
A.
DNA i ii^ i
i - ii^
ni r|
II.
li
B.
i;ii- i i-i
ii -
mRNA
ini r|
III.
ll
C. 4n
IV.
--ii;
D.
-i-ii ^iii
i i
(1) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
(2) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
(3) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
(4) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C


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Q.115 Size of T.M.V. is

(1) 300 20 nm (2) 200 30 nm
(3) 50 30 nm (4) 400 100 nm

Q.116 This phage particle is

(1) Lytic (2) Lysogenic
(3) Temprate (4) Prophage

Q.117 Genotype of parents will be

(1) aa aa (2) Aa aa
(3) Aa Aa (4) AA aa

Q.118 This trait of above pedigree may be
(1) Phenylketonuria (2) Huntington chora
(3) Hemophilia (4) Colour blindness

A & R Type Questions : (Q.119 to Q.120)
The following questions given below consist of
an Assertion and Reason Type questions. Use
the following Key to choose the appropriate
answer.
(A) If both Assertion & Reason are True &
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is
False.
(D) If both Assertion and Reason are False.
Q.115 T.M.V. i ii r

(1) 300 20 nm (2) 200 30 nm
(3) 50 30 nm (4) 400 100 nm

Q.116 r i r

(1) i;l- (2) i;il
(3) -- (4) i

Q.117 (i i iii ri^i

(1) aa aa (2) Aa aa
(3) Aa Aa (4) AA aa

Q.118 r in (i >- - i^ ri ni r
(1) li;i-iii (2) rl-^- ili
(3) ri-iili (4) rini

dFku ,oa dkj.k izdkj ds iz'u % (Q.119 to Q.120)
uhps fn;s x;s fuEufyf[kr iz'u "dFku" rFkk
"dkj.k" izdkj ds iz'u gSaA vr% mfpr mkj dk
p;u djus ds fy;s fuEu rkfydk dk mi;ksx
dhft;sA

(A) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa rFkk
dkj.k dFku dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k gSA
(B) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa ysfdu
dkj.k( dFku dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA
(C) ;fn dFku lR; gS ysfdu dkj.k vlR; gSA
(D) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa vlR; gSA


CAREER POINT: CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 31

















































Q.119 dFku : i -i i i nliiri-i
ln(n l>i r|


dkj.k
:
i -i l i( ii-il
ri-i i ii -iil(n li ini r|
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q.120 dFku : lin ^lii --ili i-ili -nii
i -nln rni r|
dkj.k : ii ^lii i +ni i i rini
r|
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
























Q.119 Assertion : Milk ejection is a neuro-hormonal
reflex action
Reason : For ejection of milk is required
oxytocin hormone is secreted by post pituitary.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q.120 Assertion : Most of the glands are lined with
stereociliated columnar epithelium.
Reason : All the glands are formed of epithelial
tissue.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


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HkkSfrd foKku : i i->-
jlk;u foKku : i i->-
tho foKku : i i->-

Duration : 3 Hrs. Max. Marks : 480 Date : 8/4/2011

Name : _________________________________________________________ Roll No. : __________________________















































CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.)
Ph: 0744-3040000, Fax (0744) 3040050
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Now, Schedule practice questions are available on internet also, Visit www.examtayari.com

ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k %

A. lkekU; :

1. i;k izR;sd iz'u ds fy, fn, x, funsZ'kksa dks lko/kkuhiwoZ d if<+;s rFkk lEcfU/kr fo"k;kas esa mkj&iqfLrdk ij
iz'u la[;k ds le{k lgh mkj fpfUgr dhft,A
2. i ; -i - l ^ iii -ii - i i-, >-i lli|
3. i - i r n iii -ii l ^ r| i rn i; lnln l-ni ri i i^i|
4. -n l, OMR ^ i i ri r |
5. l(i-ii ,ii li l i ( i l-ni i i i ri ni |
6. iii i^, li, i ^i iii, -i; , - -, - i, nii ; -il ii
i li ii (-ii - i-ii -i - i i -ln ri i i^i|

B. OMR dh iwfrZ :

7. OMR ii- i i - i i-, >-i , , i nii i-ii i i nii ^ii i n
ii |
8. OMR ii- i ^i,-i ri |

C. iz'u&i=k iSVuZ :

; i - - l(i - l i r:-
9. r l(-i i l- ( l(- ri r|
10. -nii i -ln (i r|
11. ^nii iiiln r l(-i i l- ( l(- ri r |
12. ii iiiln |
13. li iiiln |
14. ii l^ , i ^ iiiln |
D. vadu i)fr:
15. - ri -i l 4 l i^ nii - ^n -i l 1 i-ii i^i|
S
E
A
L