MATH 205 SECTION 41 HW #7

MATTHEW ACTIPES

Rudin 10.20 Notice that d(f ) = (df ) + f dw for a function f and k-form . We can rearrange this to get f d = d(f ) (df ) . Now we will take the integral of both sides with respect to to get f d =

d(f w)

(df ).

Now we want to use Stokes Theorem to get this equation into the form given in the problem. Therefore, if we have that is a C k-chain in an open set V Rn and if (f ) is a C (k-1)-form in V , then we can apply Stokes Theorem to the above equation to get f d =

fw

(df ),

which is our desired result. This formula generalizes to the formula for integration by parts for dierential forms because it is of the same form as the 1-dimensional version in the rst and third integrals, as well as in the second integral, which has the boundary operator in place of the limits of integration in 1-dimension. Problem 2 a) For the case where n = 1, a convex function f means that you can draw a line between any two points where the line will lie above or on the graph of the function. An example of a convex function f : RR is f (x) = x2 . b) Take x, y E such that |x y | < . E is convex, so we can write x as x = (1 p)y + pz for some z E . Then |f (x) f (y )||(1 p)f (y ) + pf (z ) f (y )| = |t(f (z ) f (y ))| But as 0, then t0 as well. Therefore, |x y |0|f (x) f (y )|0, which gives us that f is continuous. c) We will prove this by induction. For the base case, pick xE and let p1 = 1. Then p1 xE . +1 So assume this is true for the nth case, and let us look at the (n + 1)th case. Pick (pi )n i=1 such +1 n+1 that pi 0 and n i=1 pi = 1 as well as (xi )i=1 E . Now consider two cases: if pn+1 = 1, then n+1 i=1 xi pi = xn+1 E , which is our desired result. If pn+1 < 1, then
n+1 n

xi pi = (1 pn+1 )
i=1 i=1

pi xi ) + pn+1 xn+1 1 pn+1

n p i xi i=1 ( 1pn+1 )E .

This is of the form (1 p)a + pb, so we need to show that

n

But

(
i=1

pi 1 )= 1 pn+1 1 pn+1

pi =
i=1 1

1 (1 pn+1 ) = 1, 1 pn+1

MATTHEW ACTIPES n p i xi i=1 ( 1pn+1 )E , n

so by our induction hypothesis

n+1

meaning that

xi pi = (1 pn+1 )
i=1 i=1

p i xi ) + pn+1 xn+1 E, 1 pn+1

which is our desired result. Now we will proceed by induction again to prove the next result. For the base case, pick xE and p1 = 1. Then f (p1 x)p1 f (x). Now assume it is true for the nth case and look at the (n + 1)th case. Pick the pi and xi as in the rst part of the problem. If pn+1 = 1, then do similar computations as above to get f (pn+1 xn+1 )pn+1 f (xn+1 ) since all other pi are equal to 0. If pn+1 < 1, then n n n p i xi pi xi )+pn+1 xn+1 pn+1 f (xn+1 )+(1pn+1 )f ( ( )) f (pn+1 xn+1 + pi xi ) = (1pn+1 ) ( 1 pn+1 1 pn+1
i=1 i=1 i=1

by our inductive hypothesis. Therefore, this gives us that

n+1 n+1

f(
i=1

pi xi )
i=1

pi f (xi ),

which is our desired result.