ELECTRICITY/MAGNETISM/ELE CTRICAL CIRCUITS/ SEMICONDUCTORS

1. Two point charge 10 cm apart produces a force of 1 x 10^-3 g. If the charges are of equal magnitude, what is the charge in statcoulomb? 9.899 statcoulomb Usually, the charge magnitude of a test-charge is equal to q (the charge of electron) Who was the first to introduce the concept of filed lines? Michael Faraday 16. 4. When a charge distribution is symmetric, often we use _____ to simplify electric field calculations. Gauss Law Determine the magnitude of the electric field inside a sphere that encloses a net charge of 2 C. 0 (zero) What is the total electric flux through the surface of a closed sphere enclosing a net charge of 2 C? 5 2 2.26 x 10 NC-1m The potential gradient at a particular point is numerically equal to _____ at the point. Electric intensity To get a higher value of capacitance in a capacitor the dielectric must be constructed as thin as possible What is the reciprocal of capacitance? Elastance What is the unit of elastance? Daraf Law which shows that the force of attraction or repulsion between two magnetic poles is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. Coulombs second law When a magnetic substance is placed near a magnet it will become a magnet also, this phenomenon is known as magnetic induction The capacity of a substance to become magnetized, and 20. 17.

expressed as the ratio between the magnetization produced in a substance to the magnetizing force producing it. Magnetic susceptibility 14. The voltage induced in a conductor is directly proportional to the rate of change of flux being cut. Faradays second law of electromagnetic induction The voltage or emf induced when the magnetic field is moving or changing and a conductor is stationary. Statically induced emf

40 W 25. How do you connect cells to form a battery useful for high-power applications? In series-parallel In a mesh, the algebraic sum of all voltages and voltage drops is equal to zero. Kirchhoffs second law The sum of all currents entering a junction is equal to the sum of currents leaving away from the junctions. Kirchhoffs first law If a copper wire has an inferred o absolute zero of -234.5 /C , determine its temperature coefficient of resistance at 25 o / C? o 0.00385 / C A certain Thevenin equivalent circuit has parameters RTH = 10 and VTH = 20V. If this is converted to Nortons equivalent circuit, RN and IN would be 10 and 2A RN and IN of a Nortons equivalent circuit are known to be 100 and 10A, respectively. If a 400 load is connected, it will have a load current of 2A A chosen closed path of current flow in a network. In making this current path there should be no node nor elements that are passed more than once. Mesh A set of circuit elements that forms a closed path in a network over which signal can circulate. Loop In a network. What do we call a reference point chosen such that more branches in a circuit met. Node A common connection between circuit elements or conductors from different branches. Junction A secondary cell whose active positive plate consists of nickel hydroxide, and active negative plate material is powered iron oxide mixed with cadmium. Its typical out-put when fully charged is VO = 1.2V.

26.

2.

27. 15.

3.

28. Reluctance is analogous to resistance in electrical circuits and has a unit of At/Wb, its reciprocal is Permeance What magnetic materials that can be easily magnetized in both directions? Soft magnetic materials At what temperature does a magnetic material loses its ferromagnetic properties? Curie temperature According to _____, the algebraic sum of the rises and drops of the mmf around a closed loop of a manetic circuit is equal to zero. Amperes circuital law Gaussmeter measures flux density using what principle? Hall effect An electromagnetic switch consisting of a multiturn coil wound on a iron core and an armature. Electromechanical relay What do you call of an electromagnet with its core in the form of a close magnetic ring? Toroid An electrical device has a resistance of 10 and is supplied with a 5 ampere constance current source. If the device is rated 100 Vdc, determine its power consumed. 250 W The power dissipated by a 10 load resistor with a current rating of 5 amperes is _____ if supplied with a 20 volt dc potential. 29.

5.

6.

18.

30.

19. 7.

31.

8.

21. 9.

32.

10.

22.

33.

11.

23.

34.

12.

35.

24.

13.

Edison cell 36. The maximum current a cell can deliver through a 0.01 ohm load during testing. Flash current In batteries, the material used to insulate the positive plates from negative plates are technically called Separator Three resistors, R1 = 60 , R2 = 80 and R3 = 100 are connected in delta. If the network is to be transformed into star what would be the value of the resistor opposite R2? 25.0 When can an ac-voltage, = 240 sin 120 reach its first peak? 240 ms The time taken by an alternating voltage, = 100 sin 120 to reach 20V for the first time 15.3 ms What is the frequency of an alternating current, if it reaches 45 degrees within 120ms? 60 Hz What is the average voltage of an alternating voltage, = 100 sin 120 ? 70.71 V

48.

If a circuit has an admittance of Y = 0.2 + j0.6, the circuit is Capacitive The circuit admittance is Y = 0.2 j0.6, the circuit is Inductive What will happen to a parallel accircuit if its line frequency is more than the resonant frequency? Becomes capacitive If the line frequency of a parallel ac-circuit is less than the resonant frequency, the circuit behaves as Reactive Absolutely, when can we say that the circuit is at resonance? When the voltage and current are in-phase Inventor of kaleidoscope, a Scottish physicist who says that for any dielectric reflector, the relationship in which the refractive index is equal to the tangent of the polarizing angle. Brewster, Sir David He invented the light-controlled valve which allowed lighthouses to operate automatically and won him the 1912 Nobel prize in Physics, Who was this Swedish industrial engineer? Dalen, Nils British chemist who invented the electrical primary cell. Daniell, John Frederic An English obstetrician who introduced ultrasound scanning. He pioneered its use as a means of scanning the growing fetus without exposure to x-rays. Donald, Ian He investigated heat and light, discovered eddy currents induced in a copper disc moving in a magnetic field, invented a polarizer, and made improvement in the electric arc. Who was this French physicist who invented gyroscope? Foucault, Jean Bernard Leon The people responsible for the development of the practical transformers. Lucien Gaulard & John Gibbs A German scientist who helped prove the law of conservation of 60.

49.

energy, invented the opthalmoscope, constructed a generalized form of electrodynamics, and foresaw the atomic structure of electricity. Helmholtz, Hermann Ludwig Ferdinand von Who was this US physicist who invented the cyclotron which pioneered the production of artificial radioisotopes? Lawrence, Ernest A German physicist who investigated the photoelectric effect (light causes metals to emit electrons) and cathode rays (the stream of electrodes emitted from the cathode in a vacuum tube). Lenard, Phillip British physicist who studied the emission of electricity from hot bodies, giving the name thermionics of the subject. Richardson, Owen An English physicist and chemist who pioneered research into the radioactive decay of atoms and coined the term isotope. Soddy, Frederick A Japanese physicist who discovered the subatomic particles called the meson in 1935. Yukawa, Hideki Elements that has four valence electrons are classified as elemental semiconductor The atomic number of an element represents the number of protons or electrons The type of crystal lattice in silicon and germanium. Face centered cubic (fcc) What is the total charge at the nucleus of silicon atom? 14e C Which of the following element configuration that resembles an alkali metal? Filled-shell-plus-one-electron Energy required by a valence electron before it can move or transfer towards the conduction band. Energy gap

37.

50.

38.

51.

61.

52.

39.

62.

53.

40.

63.

41.

54.

64.

42.

55. 43. What will be the current equation in a series RC network if supplied with = sin 120 source. The circuit has a power factor pf = 0.5? = + The power factor (pf) of a series LC circuit is 0 What will happen when the power factor of a circuit is increased? Active power increases The apparent power of a series RC network is given to be 4000 W. If R = 6 , and XC = 8 , calculate the true power of the network. 2400 W 58. 47. What is the significance of connecting loads in parallel? It allows independent operations of loads 59. 57.

65.

56.

66.

44.

67.

45.

68.

46.

69.

70.

71.

The energy gap between the valence band and conduction band of a semiconductor is in the order of one electron volt (1 ev) Typical range of the resistivity of a semiconductor. 4 10 10 -cm Chemical bond that is significant in metals. Metallic bonding What do you call a semiconductor that is doped with both donor and acceptor impurities? Compensated semiconductor The resistance of a semiconductor is known as bulk resistance

84.

In quantum statistics, the most suitable functions to be used in the molecular analysis of gas is Maxwell-Boltzmann What do you call the boundary between the energy filled level and empty level in a semiconductor material? Fermi level Which energy level that has free electrons? Below the Fermi level The potential required to remove a valence electron. Ionization potential A semiconductor that is classified as a metalloid or semimetal. Germanium (Ge) 101. Which statement is not true? Silicon has an oxidation state of negative four (-4) Compound semiconductors are also known as inter-metallic semiconductors What semiconductor that is mostly used in devices requiring the emission absorption of lights? Compound semiconductor For high-speed integrated circuit, which semiconductor material given is best to be used? Gallium arsenide How much impurity concentration is needed for a sample of silicon to change its electrical property from a poor conductor to a good conductor? One part per million The restriction of certain discrete energy levels in a semiconductor material can be predicted generally by using what model? Bohr model At room temperature, in a perfect silicon crystal, the equilibrium concentration of thermally generated electrons in the conduction band is about 10 1.5 x 10 per cubic cm. What is the basis in operations of semiconductor photoconductors? EHP optical generation A silicon sample at equilibrium has a electron concentration of 1.5 x 1010 /cm3, and is doped 102. 98.

with 1015 donors/cm3. Calculate the minority-carrier concentrations. 5 2.25 x 10 /cm3 Impurities with energy level or states close to the band edges are called shallow states. When an impurity used in doping produces a level or state that is close to the center of the gap, it is called _____ impurity. Deep state The mobility of electrons and holes in a semiconductor are affected mainly by what scattering mechanisms? Impurity and lattice scattering In semiconductors, what scattering mechanism that has a the smallest effect? Crystal imperfection scattering Calculate the total carrier mobility in a semiconductor if the impurity 2 scattering L = 0.3 m /vs. 2 0.14 m /vs Semiconductor that has the highest heat conductivity and therefore used as a heat sink. Diamond The semiconductor that is used in xerography. Selenium (Se) What semiconductor that is good for high-temperature applications? Silicon carbide (SiC) Among the given semiconductors below, which has the highest mobility? Indium antimonide For an electroluminescent of green and red lights, which semiconductor is best? Gallium phosphide A semiconductor glass is known as amorphous semiconductor Typical range of power dissipation for a semiconductor be considered as low power or small signal. Less than 1 watt Before an electron can participate in the conduction of electricity, it

85. 72.

73.

99. 86.

74.

87.

100.

88. 75.

89. 76. Silicon is widely used over germanium due to its several advantages, what do you think is its most significant advantage? Low leakage current Current flow in a semiconductor that is due to the applied electric field. Drift current The movement of charge carriers in a semiconductor even without the application of electric potential. Diffusion current Typically, how much energy is required for a valence electron to move to the conduction band for a doped semiconductor? 0.05 eV In energy band diagram of a doped semiconductor, the donor level is near the conduction band The acceptor level in a doped semiconductor is near the valence band level What is used in the study of the behavior of free electrons in a conducting material? Fermi-Dirac In statistical mechanics, what distribution function is best used in analyzing photons? Bose-Einstein 96.

90.

77.

91.

103.

78.

92.

104.

79.

93.

105.

106.

80.

94.

107.

81.

95.

82.

108.

109. 83.

97.

110.

must leave from the valence band and transfer to the conduction band. Transferring to be conduction band involves energy acquisition by an electron from external sources and this energy must be greater than the energy gap of the material. Which semiconductor material has the highest energy gap? Zinc Sulfide (Zns) 111. Which of the following semiconductors has the smallest energy gap? InSb The ease with which a charge carrier (electron or hole) moves in a semiconductor material is known as mobility. It is InSb In semiconductor materials, electrons have a higher value of mobility than holes, but which semiconductor material has the slowest electron-mobility? AlP What is the average lattice constant of most semiconductors materials? 0.5 nm What is formed when an n-type and p-type semiconductors are brought together? Pn junction

room temperature. If the operating temperature is raised by 50 C, what is now the reverse saturation current? Ans. 1.66 A 5. In every increase of 10 C in the operating temperature of a diode will cause its reverse saturation current to Ans. double The resistance of the diode that is significant when operating with a small ac signal. Ans. dynamic resistance When a diode is used in large ac voltages, the resistance that is to be considered is Ans. average resistance At forward bias condition, what will happen to the diode resistance when the applied voltage is increased? Ans. will decrease When a diode is reverse biased the depletion region widens, since it is in between positively charge holes and negatively charge electrons, it will have an effect of a capacitor, this capacitance is called what? Ans. transition capacitance

15. A certain diode has a maximum power dissipation of 500 mW at room temperature and a liner power derating factor of 5.0 mW/C. How much power the diode can handle if operate4d at 50C? Ans. 375 mW 16. Diode whose negative resistance depends on a specific form of quantum-mechanical bond structure of the material. Ans. Gunn diode 17. A diode that is especially processed so that its high current flow takes place when the junction is reverse-biased. It is a variation of a tunnel diode. Ans. backward diode 18. A silicon diode that exhibits a very high resistance in both directions up to certain voltage, beyond which the unit switches to a low-resistance conducting state. It can be viewed as two zener diodes connected back-toback in series. Ans. thyrector 19. A type of Reade diode that uses a heavily doped n-typed material as its drift region. Ans. IMPATT diode 20. A device containing more than one diode. An example is the full-wave bridge-rectifier integrated circuit. Ans. diode pack 21. Is the combination of the inductance of the leads and electrodes capacitance of the junction and the resistance f the junction of a semiconductor diode Ans. diode impedance 22. The appearance of RF current oscillations in a dc-biased slab of n-type gallium arsenide in a 3.3 kV electric field. Ans. Gunn effect 23. The device that is formed when an n-type and p-type semiconductors are brought together. Ans. junction diode 24. When the diode is supplied with a forward direction potential but with a magnitude less than the threshold voltage of the diode, still it will not turn- on and will only allow a very small amount of

6.

112.

7.

8. 113.

9.

114.

115.

ELECTRONICS CIRCUITS (DIODES & TRANSISTORS)

10. In a semiconductor diode, the total capacitance, that is the capacitance between terminals and electrodes, and the internal voltage variable capacitance of the junction is called Ans. diode capacitance 11. What capacitance is significant when the diode is forward biased? Ans. diffusion capacitance 12. The time taken by the diode to operate in the reverse condition from forward conduction. Ans. reverse recovery time 13. In operating a diode at highspeed switching circuits, one of the most important parameters to be considered is Ans. reverse recovery time 14. The time required for forward voltage or current to reach a specified value after switching the diode from its reverse-to-forwardbiased state. Ans. forward recovery time

1.

When the diode is supplied with a forward direction potential but with a magnitude less than the threshold voltage of the diode, still it will not turn- on and will only allow a very small amount of current to pass. This very small current is known as Ans. cut-off current As the operating temperature of a reverse-biased diode is increased, its leakage of reverse saturation current will Ans. increase exponentially Calculate the new threshold voltage of a germanium diode when it operates at 100 C. Ans. 0.113 V A silicon diode has a reverse saturation current of 50 nA at

2.

3.

4.

current of pass. This very small current is known as Ans. cut-off current 25. As the operating temperature of a reverse-biased diode is increased, its leakage or reverse saturation current will Ans. increase exponentially 26. Calculate the new threshold voltage of a germanium diode when it operates at 100 C. Ans. 0.113 V 27. A silicon diode has a reverse saturation current of 50 nA at room temperature. If the operating temperature is raised by 50 C, what is now the reverse saturation current? Ans. 1.66 A 28. In every increase of 10 C in the operating temperature of a diode will cause its reverse saturation current to Ans. double 29. The resistance of the diode that is significant when operating a small ac signal. Ans. dynamic resistance 30. When a diode is used in large ac voltages, the resistance that is to be considered is Ans. average resistance 31. At forward bias condition, what will happen to the diode resistance when the applied voltage is increased? Ans. will decrease 32. When a diode is reverse biased the depletion region widens, since it is in between positively charge holes and negatively charge electrons, it will have an effect of a capacitor, this capacitance is called what? Ans. transition capacitance 33. In a semiconductor diode, the total capacitance, that is the capacitance between terminals and electrodes, and the internal voltage variable capacitance of the junction is called Ans. diode capacitance 34. What capacitance is significant when the diode is forward biased? Ans. diffusion capacitance

35. The time taken by the diode to operate in the reverse condition from forward conduction. Ans. reverse recovery time 36. In operating a diode at highspeed switching circuits, one of the most important parameters to be considered is Ans. reverse recovery time 37. The time required for forward voltage or current to reach a specified value after switching the diode from its reverse-to-forwardbiased state. Ans. forward recovery time 38. A certain diode has a maximum power dissipation of 500 mW at room temperature and a linear power derating factor of 5.0 mW/C. How much power the diode can handle if operated at 50C? Ans. 375 mW 39. Diode whose negative resistance depends on a specific form of quantum-mechanical bond structure of the material. Ans. Gunn diode 40. A diode that is especially processed so that its high current flow takes place when the junction is reverse-biased. It is a variation of a tunnel diode/ Ans. backward diode 41. A silicon diode that exhibits a very high resistance in both directions up to certain voltage, beyond which the unit switches to a low-resistance conducting state. It can be viewed as two zener diodes connected back-toback in series. Ans. thyrector

45. The appearance of RF current oscillations in a dc-biased slab of n-type gallium arsenide in a 3.3 kV electric field. Ans. Gunn effect 46. A transistor in which the base is diffused and the emitter is alloyed. The collector is provided by the semiconductor substrate into which alloying and diffusion are affected. Ans. alloy-diffused transistor 47. In a semiconductor device, a p-n junction formed by alloying a suitable material such as indium with the semiconductor. Ans. alloy junction 48. A transistor in which one or both electrodes are created by diffusion. Ans. diffused transistor 49. A diffused transistor in which the base, emitter, and collector electrodes are exposed at the face of the wafer which is passivated (has an oxide layer grown on it) to prevent leakage between surface electrodes. Ans. diffused planar transistor 50. A bipolar transistor in which the base region has been diffused in the semiconductor wafer. Ans. diffused-base transistor 51. When n and p materials are both diffused into the semiconductor wafer to provide emitter and base junctions, the transistor is called Ans. diffused-emitter and base transistor 52. A mesa transistor whose base is an n-type layer diffused into a ptype wafer, the p-type wafer serves as the collector. Its emitter is a small p-type area diffused into or alloyed with the nlayer. Ans. diffused-mesa transistor 53. A transistor in which the semiconductor wafer is etched down in steps so the base and emitter regions appear as physical plateaus above the collector region. Ans. mesa transistor 54. An alloy-junction bipolar RF transistor for which the impurity concentration is graded from high on the emitter side of the base wafer to low on the collector side.

42. A type of Read diode that uses a heavily doped n-type material as its drift region. Ans. IMPATT diode 43. A device containing more than one diode. An example is the full-wave bridge-rectifier integrated circuit. Ans. diode pack 44. It is the combination of the inductance of the leads and electrodes, capacitance of the junction, and the resistance of the junction of a semiconductor diode. Ans. diode impedance

This creates an internal drift field which accelerates current carriers and raises the upper frequency limit of the transistor. Ans. drift-field transistor 55. A transistor in which a thin metal crystal is overlaid on another mesa crystal. Ans. double-diffused epitaxial mesa transistor 56. In diffused transistors, what do you call a figure expressing the ability of material carriers to diffuse? Ans. diffusion constant 57. A BJT that is made by first growing the emitter and collector regions as a crystal into which the base region is later diffused while the crystal is being pulled. Ans. grown-diffused transistor 58. A junction transistor made by adding different impurities successively to a crystal in its molten state, and then slicing the resulting npn formations from the finished crystal. Ans. grown-junction transistor 59. A transistor having tiny emitter and collector electrodes that are formed by alloying a thin film of impurity material with a collector and emitter pits facing each other on opposite surfaces of the semiconductor wafer Ans. microalloy transistor (MAT) 60. A microalloy transistor having a uniform base region that is diffused into the wafer before the emitter and collector electrodes are produced by alloying Ans. microalloy-diffused transistor

Ans. planar transistor 64. Usually, a pnp transistor is made by means of electrolysis and electroplating. The emitter and collector are formed on opposite sides of a semiconductor wafer by training two jets of electrolyte against its opposite surfaces to etch and then electroplate the surfaces. Ans. surface-barrier transistor 65. If the base-emitter junction is reversed biased and the basecollector junction is forward biased, the transistor will be at what region of operation? Ans. cut-off region 66. A transistor with =100 is connected as common base, was found to have a leakage current ICBO = 1 A. If the said transistor is configured as common emitter, what is the approximate value of its ICEO? Ans. 100 A 67. How is the collector cut-off or reverse saturation current ICBO related to the emitter cut-off current IEBO? Ans. ICBO IEBO 68. A transistor is said to be configured as common emitter if the emitter terminal is Ans. not used as an input nor output 69. Hybrid parameter that is usually neglected in most circuit analysis. Ans. hr and ho 70. In most transistor input equivalent circuit it comprises of a resistor and a Ans. voltage source 71. The graph of the product of collector-emitter voltage VCE and collector current IC in the transistor output characteristic curve Ans. maximum power curve 72. What will happen to the channel of a JFET as current flows to it? Ans. skews 73. The voltage across the gatesource terminal of a FET that causes drain current ID equals to zero. Ans. pinch-off voltage

74. An early version of the field effect transistor in which limited control of current carriers near the surface of a semiconductor bar or film was obtained by an external field applied transversely. Ans. fieldistor 75. What is the insulator used in most MOS-FET? Ans. SiO2 76. An n-channel JFET has a drainsource saturation current IDSS = 10 mA and a gate-source pinchoff voltage Vp = -4 V. If the applied reverse gate-source voltage VGS = 2 V, calculate the drain current ID. Ans. 2.5 mA

77. Base from Shockleys equation of a JFET, what is the drain current when the applied voltage VGS is exactly equal to the pinch-off voltage VP? Ans. zero 78. In MOSFET, it is the foundation upon which the device will be constructed and is formed from a silicon base Ans. substrate 79. The amount of voltage needed at the gate-source terminal for an enhancement type MOSFET so that a channel can be formed for the current to flow. Ans. threshold voltage 80. To switch off the depletion type MOSFER, the channel should be depleted. Depletion of the channel is done by applying enough voltage across the gatesource terminal. What do you call this voltage? Ans. pinch-off voltage 81. In an n-channel enhancement type MOSFET, the gate voltage should be ______ with respect to the source in order to produce or enhance a channel. Ans. positive 82. To deplete a channel from a pchannel IGFET depletion type, the gate voltage should be ______ with respect to the source terminal. Ans. positive 83. A junction field effect transistor has a drain saturation current of 10 mA and a pinch-off voltage of

61. The process of growing thin oxide film on the surface of a planar semiconductor device to protect the exposed junction(s) from contamination and shorts. Ans. passivation 62. A planar epitaxial transistor which has been passivated to protect the exposed junctions. Ans. planar epitaxial passivated transistor 63. A transistor in which the emitter, base and collector elements terminate on the same plane of the silicon wafer.

-4 V. Calculate the maximum transconductance. Ans. 5.0 mS 84. An n-channel MOSFET depletion type has a drain saturation current IDSS = 10 mA and a pinch-off voltage of -4 V. Calculate the maximum transconductance of the transistor. Ans. 5.0 mS 85. Calculate the transconductance of a p-channel MOSFET enhancement type if the gatesource voltage VGS = -8 V, threshold voltage VT = -4 and a constant k = -0.3 mA/V2. Ans. 2.4 mS 86. What will happen to the conductivity of the channel of an enhancement type MOSFER if the proper gate voltage is increased? Ans. decreases 87. The cutoff frequency of a JFET is dependent on channel length by a factor of 2 Ans. 1/L 88. An n-channel enhancement type MOSFET has a threshold voltage of VT = 2.5 V. If the applied gatesource voltage VGS = 4 V, what is the approximate drain current ID? Ans. 0.675 mA 89. Which FET has a wide and short effective channel? Ans. V-MOSFET

94. When a capacitor is involved at the output circuit of a transistor amplifier it would mean Ans. a different dc and ac load line 95. How does the emitter by-pass capacitor affect the dc load line? Ans. it does not affect the dc load line 96. In analyzing the quiescent currents and voltages, on what load line do you refer? Ans. dc load line 97. The position of the Q-point along the load line is greatly affected by what component? Ans. base-resistor 98. What will happen to the position of the Q-point if the resistance base-resistor is increased? Ans. it moves downward 99. For a fixed-biased transistor circuit, what will happen to the Qpoint when the operation temperature rises? Ans. it moves upward 100. For a battery operated transistor circuit, where is a good position of the Q-point in order to minimize battery consumption? Ans. near cutoff region 101. When troubleshooting a typical transistor amplifier in the active region, VCE is usually _____ the supply voltage VCC. Ans. about 25% to 75% of 102. Calculate the stability factor due to the variation of ICBO from 1 nA to 21 nA when the temperature changes from room temperature to 100 C. The change in collector current due to the change of ICBO was found to be 0.5 A. Ans. 25 103. The higher the stability factor means, a transistor circuit that is more sensitive to temperature Ans. variations, and therefore undesired 104. What stability factor that gives the highest value for a typical voltagedivider bias transistor circuit? Ans. S (ICO) 105. Calculate the change in the collector current due to the change in ICO for a transistor circuit at 100

C. ICO at room temperature is given to be 0.1 nA and increases to 20 nA at 100 C. The circuit has a stability factor S(ICO) = 25. Ans. 0.5 A 106. For most common-emitter configuration with different methods of biasing, what is the maximum stability factor due to the change of the reverse saturation current ICO? Ans. + 1 107. What is the approximate output impedance of a common-emitter fixed-bias configuration? The collector resistance RC is the only load resistance/ Ans. RC 108. A FET is biased with a voltagedivider configuration and is set at the active region. Ideally, what is the gate current? Ans. 0 mA 109. What type of FET that can be biased with both negative and positive gate-source voltage VGS? Ans. MOSFET depletion type 110. How do you classify an amplifier used to amplify either amplitude modulated (AM) or frequency modulated (FM) signals? Ans. class S 111. Which class of amplifiers that have the highest efficiency? Ans. class D 112. Transistorized class C power amplifiers will usually have an efficiency of Ans. 33% 113. For pulse-amplification, class D amplifier is mostly used. How efficient is a class D amplifier? Ans. its efficiency reaches over 90% 114. The Q-point of a class D amplifier can be set or positioned at what region in the load line? Ans. any of these 115. What do you call an amplifier that is biased to class C but modulates over the same portion of the curve as if it were biased to class B? Ans. class BC 116. Two class B amplifiers connected such that one amplifies the positive cycle and the other amplifies the remaining negative cycle. Both

90. The load line position is dependent of Ans. the load resistance and the supply voltage 91. What will happen to the magnitude of the load line slope if the load resistance is increased? Ans. decreases 92. One method of stabilizing transistor circuits is to add an emitter resistance. This resistance causes the load line slope to Ans. become less negative 93. The power gain that is lost due to the emitter bias resistor can be recovered by Ans. shunting a by-pass capacitor

output signals are then coupled by a transformer to the load. Ans. transformer-coupled pushpull amplifier 117. A push-pull amplifier that uses npn and pnp transistors to amplify the positive and negative cycles respectively. Ans. complementary-symmetry amplifier 118. A push-pull amplifier that uses either npn or pnp as its final stage. The circuit configuration looks like the complementary-symmetry. Ans. quasi-complementary pushpull amplifier 119. Distortion that is due to the inability of an amplifier to amplify equally well all the frequencies present at the input signal/ Ans. amplitude distortion 120. Calculate the second harmonic distortion for an output signal having a fundamental amplitude of 3 V and a second harmonic amplitude of 0.3 V. Ans. 10 % 121. An amplifier has the following percent harmonic distortions: D2 = 10%, D3 = 5% and D4 = 1%. What is the amplifier %THD? Ans. 11.22% 122. T-equivalent circuit for transistor is considered as a _____ representation/ Ans. physical 123. What transistor model that uses a parameter value that is directly derived from the operating condition? Ans. re or dynamic model 124. The transistor model that is best suited for high frequency applications/ Ans. Giacolleto model 125. Another name of Giacolleto model for transistor modeling is Ans. hybrid-pi model 126. What model is appropriate to use, if for a given transistor amplifier, beta () is the only parameter available and we want to solve for its input and output impedances? Ans. dynamic model 127. When the transistor is operating at saturation region, dc-current is best determined by using what model?

Ans. Ebers-Moll model 128. A two-stage transistor amplifier in which the output collector of the first stage provides input to the emitter of the second stage. The final output is then taken from the collector of the second or last stage. Ans. cascode configuration 129. Famous transistor amplifier configuration designed to eliminate the so called Miller effect. Ans. cascode amplifier 130. Transistor arrangement that operates like a darlington but uses a combination of pnp and npn transistors instead of both npn. Ans. feedback pair 11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

OP AMPS/ COMPUTERS

1.

Thin-film integrated circuit refers to film thickness of approximately 1um. 2. Classifications of ICs according to functions include linear, digital and microwave. Which of these classes greatly relies on hybrid technology? Microwave ICs 3. The term monolithic is derived from the Greek words monos and lithos which respectively mean single and stone (single stone) 4. Devices or components such as transistors and diodes are mostly fabricated in ICs by diffusion 5. In most planar ICs, what do you call the layer that protects the surface of the chip from external contaminants? Oxide layer 6. Which comes first in the planar process of fabricating ICs? Crystal growth 7. A technique used for obtaining a relatively large single crystal from a semiconductor material. the process consists essentially of dipping a tiny seed crystal into a crucible of molten mass of the same substance and then slowly withdrawing it while rotating. Czochralski method. 8. In IC fabrications, the substrate is usually produced by Czochralski process. 9. The process used to grow a layer of single-crystal semiconductor as an extension of the existing crystal wafer of the same material. epitaxial 10. In fabricating ICs using planar technology, what is the basic

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

method of adding impurities? Diffusion The introduction of impurities into a semiconductor inside a hot furnace during IC fabrication. Diffusion A method of introducing impurities in IC fabrication wherein the appropriate ions are carried by an accelerating beam. Ion-implantation Which method of doping that is used in producing narrow regions in an IC? Ion-implantation Type of diffusion in which the impurity concentration at the semiconductor surface is maintained at a constant level throughout the diffusion cycle. Constant-source diffusion An alternative method rather than diffusion in introducing impurities into a semiconductor wherein the impurities are made to penetrate into the wafer by an ion beam. Ion-implantation. A method of producing integrated circuit by photographing a pattern of the circuit on a suitable lightsensitized surface of semiconductor and chemically etching away unwanted portions of the surface. Photolithographic process. In IC fabrication, the photosensitive emulsion coated at the wafer surface to be masked is called photoresist The removal of unmasked Silicon Dioxide (SiO2)at the wafer surface in IC fabrication etching The removal of the remaining photoresist in the wafer after etching during IC fabrication. Stripping. Covering or coating on a semiconductor surface to provide a masked area for selective etching or deposition masking In most IC fabrications, how is the connection pattern between components defined? By masking What do you call the process of interconnecting the components in an IC during fabrication? Metallization The conducting material that is mostly used to interconnect components on chips during metallization process. Aluminum Is the process of making the semiconductor chip or wafer insensitive to any contaminations that might cause drift of parameter or premature failure. Passivation

25. Passivation of semiconductor wafer by forming a layer of an insulating oxide on the surface oxide passivation 26. In monolithic ICs, electrical isolation between devices on the same substrate is achieved by fabricating them in an electrically isolated region known as isolation pockets or tubs. 27. Which of the isolation techniques in IC fabrication that is commonly used? Junction isolation 28. Isolation of devices in integrated circuit by forming a silicon oxide layer around each devices is known as oxide insulation, and this is a good example of dielectric isolation 29. An operational amplifier must have at least how many usable terminals? 14 terminals 30. What type of amplifier commonly used at the output stage of opamps? Complementary amplifier 31. the transistor configuration used at the output complementary stage of most op-amps commoncollector 32. the stage followed by the output complementary in op-amps functional block diagram level shifter 33. what is the purpose of a level shifter in op-amps? To set and/or adjust the output voltage to zero when input signal is zero. 34. Primarily, op-amps are operated with bipolar power supply, however, we can also use single polarity power supply by generating a reference voltage to ground. 35. Calculate the CMRR of an opamp having a common-mode gain of 10 and a differential-mode gain of 100,000. 80 36. The non-inverting and inverting inputs of an op-amp have an input voltage of 1.5mV and 1.0mV, respectively. If the opamp has a common-mode voltage gain of 10 and a differential mode gain of 10000, what is its output voltage? 5.0125V 37. What is the maximum output voltage swing of an op-amp? +Vsat to Vsat 38. The uA741 op-amp has a CMRR of 90dB and a differential-mode gain voltage amplification of 200,000. What is the op- amps common-mode voltage gain? 6.324

39. The current needed at the input of an op-amp to operate it normally input bias current 40. Ideal op-amp requires no input current, but real op-amp needs a very small input current called input bias current. At both inputs, the bias currents have a slight difference. What do you call this difference? Input offset current 41. the change in input offset current due to temperature change input offset current drift 42. the reason why a slight difference between the input bias current occurs in op-amps is due to the unsymmetrical circuit component parameters. This unsymmetrical condition also produces a difference in input voltage called what? Input threshold voltage 43. ideally, the output voltage of an op-amp is zero when there is no input signal, however, in practical circuits, a small output voltage appears, this voltage is known as output offset voltage 44. calculate the output offset voltage of an inverting amplifier using opamp with an input offset current of 10nA. the current is having an input resistance of 10k-ohm and a feedback resistance of 100kohm. 1.0mV 45. an op-amp inverting amplifier uses a feedback resistor of 100kohm and input resistor of 10kohm. If the op-amps input offset voltage is 2.0mV, approximate the amplifier output offset voltage due to this input offset voltage. 22mV 46. the output offset voltage of an opamp is due to the input offset current and voltage. If 1mV is due to the input offset current and 22mV due to the input offset voltage, what is the total output offset voltage of the op-amp? 23mV 47. how will you minimize the output offset voltage due to the input offset current of an op-amp? By installing a bias-currentcompensating resistor 48. the approximate value of the bias-current compensating resistor in op-amp circuits is: equal to the parallel combination of the input and feedback resistors 49. in op-amp analysis, the input offset voltage is represented by a battery 50. what is the effect of the input offset voltage to the output voltage if the op-amp has no feedback element? Causes the

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

output to saturate either towards positive or negative. How can we minimize the effect of the input offset current and input offset voltage at the output offset voltage? By making the feedback resistance small An op-amp is wired as an inverting amplifier with an input and feedback resistances of 1kohm and 100k-ohm respectively. When the input signal is set to zero, the output was found to have an offset voltage of 101mV. Calculate the input offset voltage. 1.0mV What is the most effective way of minimizing the output offset voltage of an op-amp? By properly using and adjusting the offset-null terminals In large signal dc-amplifiers using op-amp, which parameter has the least effect on its performance? Drift For ac-amplifiers using op-amps what parameters can affect its performance. Slew rate and frequency response If an op-amp is used to amplify small ac-signals, what parameter should you greatly consider to ensure better performance? Frequency response What do we mean by internally compensated op-amps? op-amps with internal frequency compensation capacitor to prevent oscillation The frequency at which the openloop gain of an op-amp is 0.707 times its value at very low frequency. Break frequency The reduction of op-amps gain due to increasing operating frequency. Roll-off Frequency at which the voltage gain of op-amp reduces to unity. Unity-gain bandwidth product An op-amp has a specified transient response rise time of 0.3us, calculate its unity-gain bandwidth. 1.167MHz What is the maximum signal frequency that can be used in an op-amp having a specified slew rate of 0.5v/usec? The maximum output voltage desired is 5V. 16kHz. What must be the slew rate of an op-amp to be used in order to provide an undistorted output voltage of 10V at a frequency of 100,000 rad/sec. 1.0V/usec An op-amp zero crossing detector without hysteresis. Has no feedback.

65. What is the noise gain of opamps? 1+Rf/Ri 66. In most ac-amplifiers using opamps, the feedback resistor is shunted with a very small capacitance, what is its purpose? To minimize high-frequency noise 67. Approximate the noise-gain of an inverting adder using op-amps if it has five inputs six(6) 68. What is true about the external frequency-compensation capacitor? The lower its value, the wider its bandwidth. 69. Typical value of the external frequency-compensating capacitor of op-amps. 3.0-30 uF 70. The magnitude of the op-amps input offset voltage before it can be classified as a low-input offset voltage op-amp. 0.2mV. 71. Op-amps whose internal transistor biasing can be controlled externally are categorized as programmableop-amps 72. The most popular op-amp packages are the metal can, 8pin DIP, and the SMT. Which of these corresponds to TO-99? Metal can 73. Dual-in-line or DIL package is designated as TO-116 74. For high-density ICs, involving many op-amps, what packaging is most suitable? SMT 75. A reactive device used in controlling electrical power by using two windings on a common iron core. The control winding is supplied with small dc-current which causes the reactance of a large ac-winding to change accordingly. Saturable reactor 76. a saturable reactor with regenerative feedback. Magnetic amplifier 77. an electronic switch that has the highest single-device current capacity and can withstand overloads better. ignitrons 78. which power control switching method that greatly generates RFI or EMI and is therefore limited to low-frequency applications? Phase-control 79. a converter that changes acvoltage frequency from one to another. Cycloconverter 80. in electronic converters, what signal is mostly used to trigger the active device? Square wave 81. which of the trigger diodes has the highest-holding voltage? Bidirectional-trigger diac

82. general term of electronic devices used to control or trigger largepower switching devices. Breakover devices 83. a break-over device that is basically a diode. Trigger diode 84. the voltage decreased across the Anode (A) and cathode (K) of an SCR from non-conducting state to conducting state. Breakback voltage. 85. An SCR rated 10A is used in the controlling switch in a circuit powered by 50 Vdc. When the SCR fires ON, its Anode (A) to Cathode (K) voltage was observed to be 2V. Calculate the breakback voltage of the SCR. 86. Use of heat sinks, forced air, and water cooling are examples of external cooling in SCRs and other devices. Which of these is the only recommended to be used for the largest power dissipating device? Water cooling 87. In connecting two SCRs in series, during OFF state, the voltage source must be properly shared between them, but due to devices differences, there might be unequal voltages across each SCR. How do we equalize these voltages? By using a blockingequalizing resistor 88. A circuit used for voltage equalization during ON-OFF switching action of SCRs in series. Snubber circuit 89. in controlling electrical power using phase control method with SCR/triac being the active device, what do we call the period of the cycle before the device switches to conduction? Firing delay angle 90. how many times per second does an SCR is turned ON and OFF when it is operated in a full-wave phase control at a line frequency of 60 Hz? 120 times (FW) 91. a three terminal device that behaves roughly like SCRs, except that it can conduct current in either direction when at ON. SBS 92. a thyristor that is very similar to an SCR except that it has a low voltage and current ratings. It is very temperature stable, and is therefore suitable to be used as a triggering device. SUS 93. silicon unilateral switches (SUS), generally have a breakover voltage of 8V, however, this value can be altered by normally connecting a zener diode. How is the diode installed? Diodes

94.

95.

96.

97. 98.

99.

100. 101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

cathode to SUSs gate and diodes anode to SUSs cathode a silicon unilateral switch (SUS) has a forward breakover voltage of 8V. a zener diode is connected between its gate and cathode terminals with the diodes cathode at SUSs gate. If the zener voltage is 3.9V, what is the new forward breakover voltage of the device? 4.50V relate the magnitude of the dcoutput voltage to the ac input rms voltage of a full-wave rectifier. Vdc=0.90Vrms determine the dc-voltage of a fullwave bridge rectifier when the input ac-voltage is 24Vrms. 21.6V ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier. 0.48 A 20V-dc power supply was found to have a ripple voltage of 2Vrms when supplying 1.5amps load. Calculate its percent ripple. 10.0% Which power supply filter gives the smallest ripple voltage? Multi-section LC-filter Which regulator is the most inefficient? Shunt Sampling circuit used in most voltage regulators. Voltagedivider network a 12Vdc power supply is regulated using 7805IC and is used in TTL circuits that require a 0.2 amps current. Determine the dropout voltage of the system. 7V a load draws 1A current from a 10-V regulated power supply. Calculate the power dissipated by the regulator if it has an input voltage of 16V. 6 watts what three-terminal IC regulator that has a variable negative voltage output? 337 in a three-terminal adjustable positive voltage regulator (317), what is the bandgap voltage between the output terminal and adjustment terminal? 1.25V typical ripple rejection of most three-terminal voltage regulators. 0.1% the three-terminal voltage regulators, such as the 78xx series has a typical current rating of 1.5 amperes. If a high current is required, say 30 amperes, how will you make modifications for this regulator in order to provide the required current? By the use of external pass transistor active devices used in switching regulators may experience large over-currents during conduction (turn-on-state) and large over-

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

114.

115. 116. 117.

voltages during turn-off. These excessive currents and voltages may cause distraction or damage of the active devices. How do we protect them? By installing a snubber circuit. In switching SCRs to on-state, the current rises rapidly and some-times causes damage to the device. One way of preventing this to happen is by connecting an inductance in series with the load. If for example, an SCR with a di/dt rating of 100A/us and is used in 220 Vac, what should be the value of the inductance to be used? 2.48uH When SCRs switches to off from on-state, a voltage across the anode and cathode rises rapidly, this voltage change creates a voltage gradient internally and may cause the SCR to trigger again. To prevent this unscheduled firing, a capacitor may be installed across the SCR. For an SCR with a maximum forward-blocking voltage of VFBM=500V and a maximum dv/dt of 25V/us,calculate the capacitance needed to prevent unscheduled firing if the SCR has a load of 10ohm. 2uF One of the major concerns in power electronics is to clean-up or shape-up the utility-supply voltage (the wall outlet 220V/60Hz) from disturbances such as overvolt, undervolt, voltage spikes and harmonic distortions. What circuit is used for this? Power conditioners Karnaugh map is the most commonly used method in simplifying Boolean expression or logical functions. In this method only 1s and 0s are entered into the table, while map-entered variable technique includes variable into the table. A suitable method in simplifying Boolean expression when the system deals with more than six variables. Quine-mccluskey tabular method If the fan out of a logic gate is not enough, a/an buffer should be used. Is considered as a controller inverter. XOR Known as universal gates NOR and NAND The number of NAND-gates needed to form an OR-gate. 3

118. Flip-flop that changes state every time the input is triggered. Master slave flip-flop 119. Type of memory that is formed by a series of magnetic bubbles at the substrate bubble memory 120. Digital device similar to that of a ROM and whose internal connections of logic arrays can be programmed by passing high current through fusable links. PLA and PAL 121. A circuit used for selecting a single output from multiple inputs universal logic module (ULM) 122. What is formed when the complemented output of the last stage of a shift register is fed back to the input of the first stage? Twisted ring counter 123. Refers to the ability of a logic circuit to withstand noise superimposed on its input signal. Noise immunity 124. The number of logic gates of the same family that can be connected to the input of a particular gate without degrading the circuit performance. Fan-in 125. A logic circuit family with a supply voltage of 25V. and are generally used in industry where machinery causes electrical noise and large power line transients to occur. HLDTL 126. in a transistor-transistor-logic (TTL), if the base collector junction of a transistor is clamped with a Schottky-diode it becomes Schottky TTL. What is the significance of having this diode? It increases the switching speed 127. PMOS are generally supplied with a voltage up to 15 V 128. NMOS can be interlaced to CMOS by providing a pull-up resistor 129. a digital IC whose output transistor has no internal pull-up resistor. Open-collector configuration 130. in digital ICs, such as buffers and registers, what output configuration is used if they are intended for busing ? tri-state output 131. in TTL ICs, which input configurations gives a high-input impedance at both logic states (HIGH and LOW state)? Substrate pnp input 132. what is the purpose of internal clamping diodes at the input of a logic circuit? To minimize negative ringing effects 133. in TTL ICs with more than one gates available, sometimes not

all gates are used. How will you handle these unused gates? Force the output to go HIGH 134. how will you handle unused inputs in a logic gate/logic IC? Pull them up or down, depending on circuit function

INSTRUMENTATION/ ENERGY CONVERSION/ OTHERS

1.

An instrument which depends on current in one or more fixed coils acting on one or more pieces of soft iron, at least one of which is movable. moving-iron instrument What is that device which depends on the action of a movable permanent magnet in aligning itself in the resultant field produced either by a fixed permanent magnet and an adjacent coil or coils carrying current or by two or more current-carrying coils whose axes are displaced by a fixed angle? moving-magnet instrument What ammeter is mostly used in measuring high-frequency currents? thermocouple This instrument measures temperatures by electric means, especially temperatures beyond the range of mercury thermometers. pyrometer This instrument refers to that one which measures the intensity of the radiation received from any portion of the sky pyranometer A device used to mechanically measure the output power of a motor. dynamometer An indicating instrument whose movable coils rotate between two stationary coils, usually used as wattmeter. electrodynamometer Error in ohmmeter reading is due to battery aging Which of the ammeter below that has no insertion error? clamp-meter

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10. To prevent damage of the multirange ammeter during selection, a/an _________ should be used. Ayrton shunt 11. Voltage measurement in a high impedance circuit requires a voltmeter

with high input impedance 12. If a meter with a full-scale current of 100uA is used as an ac voltmeter with half-wave rectification, its ac sensitivity is 4,500 /V 13. The zero-adjust control in an analog type ohmmeter is used to compensate for the differing internal battery voltage 14. Dynamometers are mostly used as wattmeter 15. What damping method is generally used in dynamometers? air friction 16. Which dynamometer instrument has a uniform scale? wattmeter 17. For a dynamometer to be able to measure high current, a ___ should be used. current transformer 18. The scale of a hot wire instrument is a/an ________ function. squared 19. Moving iron instruments have a scale function that is squared 20. To increase the measuring capability of a moving-iron ac meter, a ____ should be used. different number of turns of operating coil 21. Which electrical instruments below is the most sensitive? PMMC 22. Controlling torque in PMMC. spring action 23. What damping method is used in induction type ammeters? electrostatic damping 24. Induction type instruments are mostly used as watt-hour meter 25. The force(s) that is(are) acting on the pointer of an indicating instrument as they rest on there final deflected position. (Note: damping torque is 0). controlling & deflecting torques 26. What is (are) the force(s) acting on the pointer of an indicating instrument when it is in motion? controlling, damping, and defecting torques

27. A Kelvin electrostatic voltmeter uses what method of damping? fluid friction 28. In a moving coil ammeter, a ________ is connected in series with the coil to compensate for temperature variations. swamping resistor 29. What is this measuring instrument that uses the force of repulsion between fixed and movable magnetized iron vanes, or the force between a coil and a pivoted vane-shaped piece of soft iron to move the indicating pointer? vane-type instrument 30. Its an electrostatic voltmeter in which an assembly of figure 8 shaped metal plates rotates between the plates of a stationary assembly when a voltage is applied between the assemblies. The length of the arc of rotation is proportional to the electrostatic attraction and thus, to the applied voltage. Kelvin voltmeter 31. What is that instrument used for measuring the strength and direction of magnetic fields? magnetometer 32. What do you call of that instrument used for measuring reactive power vars? either varmeter or reactive voltampere meter 33. This is a method of using a Wheatstone bridge to determine the distance from the test point to a fault in telephone or telegraph line or cable. Varley loop 34. This refers to a four-arm ac bridge used for measuring inductance against a standard capacitance. Maxwell bridge 35. Refers to an ac bridge for measuring the inductance and Q of an inductor in terms of resistance, frequency and a standard capacitance. Hay bridge 36. This is a special bridge for measuring very low resistance (0.1 or less). The arrangement of the bridge reduces the effects of contact resistance which causes significant error when such low resistances are connected to conventional resistance bridges. Kelvin double bridge 37. A type of four-arm capacitance bridge in which the unknown capacitance is compared with a standard capacitance. This bridge is frequently employed testing electrolytic capacitors, to which a dc polarizing voltage is applied during the

measurement. What is this bridge? Schering bridge 38. What do you call of that frequencysensitive bridge in which two adjacent arms are resistances and the other two arms are RC combinations? Wein bridge 39. When the capacitors of a Wein bridge are replaced by inductors, the bridge becomes Wein inductance bridge 40. A simplified version of the Wheatstone bridge wherein, two of the ratio arms are replaced by a 100 cm long Manganin of uniform cross-sections and provided with a slider. slide-wire bridge 41. Electrical machine that converts ac voltage to dc voltage, or vice versa. rotary converter 42. Electrical machine that changes ac voltage at one frequency to another ac voltage at another frequency. frequency converter 43. A Synchronous type ac-motor, uses a dc generator to supply dc excitation to the rotating field 44. In a compound generator, which field winding usually, has a lower resistance? series field winding 45. Which winding in a dc-compound generator that is relatively made of fine wires? shunt field winding 46. What is the primary reason why carbon brushes are preferred over copper brushes in dc motors? they product less arcing 47. To minimize arcing during starting of dc motors, a resistance should be added to limit the current in the ____ armature winding 48. Motors whose speed can be easily controlled. dc motors 49. When a dc motor has no load, what will happen to the back emf? becomes maximum 50. When can we get a maximum mechanical power from a dc motor? Eb = 0.5V 51. One cause why the shaft torque is less than the developed armature torque of a dc motor. friction loss 52. Considered as a variable speed motor series

53. What is the most common method used in varying the sped of a dc motor? by varying the field strength 54. In choosing a motor for a particular application, what characteristic you should consider? speed-torque 55. A motor whose speed increases as the load is increased. differentially compounded 56. Factor(s) that affect iron losses in a dc motor. flux & fied are correct 57. One advantage of a cumulatively compounded motor is that it does not run widely at light loads, this feature is due to shunt winding 58. In applications where an almost constant speed is required, a ______ motor is a good choice. dc shunt 59. In applications where a high torque is needed during starting, a ______ motor is preferred. dc series 60. In applications where sudden heavy loads happen for short duration, a ______ motor is the best choice. cumulatively compounded 61. In motors of the same rating, which has the least starting torque? dc shunt 62. Factor(s) that affect friction and winding loses in dc motors. speed 63. In dc motors, power loss is contributed greatly by copper loss 64. When a motor is overloaded, it will usually overheat 65. Which motor that produces the highest increase in torque considering the same increase in current? dc series 66. When an armature opens in dc motor, it may cause intermittent sparking 67. Why do motors take large current during starting? theres still a low back emf 68. The law which pertains, for any dielectric reflector, the relationship in which the reflective index is equal to the tangent of the polarizing angle. Brewsters angle

69. A law that states the current in a thermoionic diode varies directly with the three-halves power of anode voltage and inversely with the square of the distance between the electrodes, providing operating conditions are such that the current is limited only by the spacecharge. Childs law 70. The logarithm of the decay constant of an alpha emitter is linearly related to the logarithm of the range of the alpha particles emitted by it is called _____. Geiger-Nuttal law 71. The law that processing power of a computer is proportional to the square of its cost. Groshs law 72. The law which states an electric motor develops maximum power when Ei = 2Ebk, where Ei is the applied voltage an dEbk is the back-emf. Jacobs law 73. The law which refers to the strength of the magnetic field at a given point, due to an element of a current-carrying conductor, is directly proportional to the strength of the current and the projected length of the element and inversely proportional to the square of the distance of the element from the point in question. Laplaces law 74. The law which concerns to a property of mutual inductances. For a given orientation and environment for two inductors, the value of the mutual inductance does not change, regardless of the magnitude, frequency, or phase of the currents in the coils. That is, mutual inductance is subject only to the physical environment surrounding the coils. Neumans law 75. The law that sparkling potential between two parallel place electrodes in a gas I a function of the product of the gas density and the distance between the electrodes. either Paschens rule or Paschens law is right 76. The rule that hysteresis loss in a magnetic material varies directly in proportion with the cube of the magnetic induction. Rayleighs law 77. The thermal-radiation law that shows the total emissive power of ablackbody to be proportional to the fourth power of the absolute temperature of the body. Stefan-Boltzmann law 78. The wavelength of luminescence excited by radiation is always greater than that of the exciting radiation. Stokes law

79. It is a law expressing the relationship nbetween a stimulus and the physiological reaction ir produces: The sensation is proportional to the logarithm of the stimulus Weber-Fechner law 80. The law indicating that the wavelength of maximum radiation of a blackbody is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature. either Wiens first law or Wiens displacement law 81. The law showing that the emissive power of a black body is proportional to the fifth power of absolute temperature is known as either Wiens radiation law or Wiens second law 82. It is an empirical law for the spectral distribution of energy radiated from a black body at a specified temperatre. Wiens third law 83. An electromagnetic wave will take a path that involves the least travel time when propagating between two points. Fermats principle 84. The rule that states, during transitions of orbital electrons from higher to lower energy states (accompanied by the emission of the photons), changes in the inner quantum number may not only e by a factor of 0 r +/- 1. J rule 85. This is an extension of the two-fluid model of superconductivity, in which it is assumed that superfluid electrons behave as if the only force acting on them arises from the applied electric fields, and that the curl of the superfluid current vanishes in the absence of a magnetic field. London superconductivity theory 86. A formula for the overall transmittance of a signal flow graph in terms of transmittances of various paths in the graph. Masons theorem 87. This applied to a nonradiative transition of an tom from an excited energy state to a lower energy state, accompanied by the emission of an electron Auger effect 88. Refers to the selective absorption of electromagnetic waves by a dielectric, due to molecular dipoles Dobye effect 89. The rotation induced in a freely suspended ferromagnetic object when magnetization of the object is reversed. Einstein-de Has effect

90. The random variations in the output current of an electron tube that has an oxide-coated cathode, caused by random changes in cathode emission. flicker effect 91. What do you call of the momentary illumination produced when an electric field is applied to a phosphor previously excited by ultraviolet radiation? Gudden-Pohl effect 92. The ability of ultraviolet radiation to discharge a negatively charged body in a vacuum. Hallwachs effect 93. The phenomenon whereby current in a gas changes as the result of irradiation by light is called Joshi effect 94. The variation (caused by the earths magnetic field) of the strength of cosmic rays arriving at different longitudes on the surface of the earth is known as longitude effect 95. This is the effect when the magnetization of a helically wound, ferromagnetic wire fluctuates, the tendency for a potential difference to occur. Mateucci effect 96. _______ refers to the scattering of monochromatic light (light of a single wavelength) when passed through a transparent substance. Raman effect 97. This is the ability of an electric current to destroy superconductivity by the magnetic field that it generates, without raising the cryogenic temperature. Silsbee effect 98. Electric polarization of a dielectric material being moved in a magnetic field. Wilson effect 99. What is the two-terminal semiconductor device which resembles the behavior of a neuron and allows machines to duplicate some of the neurological phenomena observed in the human body? neuristor 100. What gadget that electronically aids the blind which has a camera that scan printed matter and a device forms corresponding raised letters which can be read with the fingertips? optacon 101. What do you call of a monostable pentode circuit that generates sharp pulses at an adjustable and accurately timed interval after receipt of a

triggering signal? phantastron 102. What instrument is used to measure the intensity of radiation, such as by determining the amount of fluorescence produced by that radiation? actinometer 103. _________ referred to a visual sensation experienced by a human subject during the passage of current through the eye. phosphene 104. It is a pattern that consists of pairs of white an dark parallel lines, obtained when an electron beam is scattered (diffracted) by a crystalline solid. The pattern gives information on the structure of the crystal. Kikuchi lines 105. An operational amplifier with double feedback limiters that drive a highspeed relay (1-2 milliseconds) is an analog computer, usually involved in controlled programming. bang-bang circuit 106. The arrangement of connecting wires in a circuit to prevent undesirable coupling and feedback. dress 107. What is that device used in biotelemetry for monitoring physiologic activity of an animal, such as pH values of stomach acid? radio pill 108. Refers to noise produced by erratic jumps of bias current between two levels at random intervals in operational amplifiers and either semiconductor devices. popcorn noise 109. A conductor in which two oscillating circuits have the same resonant frequency is called systony 110. Refers to triode electron tube having an anode that can be moved or vibrated by an externally supplied force. vibrotron