2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION

BOOK 2

1. A periapical infection of a mandibular third molar 4. The washing of hands must be performed before
may spread by direct extension to the putting on and after removing gloves because it

1. parapharyngeal space. 1. reduces the number of skin bacteria

2. submandibular space. which multiply and cause irritation.
3. pterygomandibular space. 2. completely eliminates skin bacteria.
4. submental space. 3. minimizes the transient bacteria which
could contaminate hands through small
A. (1) (2) (3) pinholes.
B. (1) and (3) 4. allows gloves to slide on easier when the
C. (2) and (4) hands are moist.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
2. Allergic reactions to amide-type local anesthetic E. All of the above.
solutions are most likely caused by sensitivity to

A. lidocaine hydrochloride.
B. epinephrine. 5. For prevention of cross infection, which of the
C. methylparaben. following impression materials can be treated with
D. contaminants. a disinfecting spray solution/ agent?

A. Irreversible hydrocolloid (alginate).

B. Polyether.
3. The most appropriate radiographic examination for C. Polysulfide.
a 4 year old without visible or clinically detectable D. Polysiloxane.
caries or anomalies, and with open proximal E. All of the above.
contacts is

A. maxillary and mandibular anterior

occlusals. 6. One week after an amalgam restoration is placed
B. a pair of posterior bitewings. in the mandibular first premolar, the patient returns
C. maxillary and mandibular posterior complaining of a sharp pain of short duration when
periapicals. eating or drinking something cold. Teeth respond
D. none. normally to electric pulp testing and heat and the
radiographs are normal. The most likely diagnosis
is

A. hypercementosis.
B. reversible pulpitis.
C. pulpal microabscess.
D. acute apical periodontitis.

7. The most frequent cause of malocclusion is

A. thumbsucking.
B. mouth breathing.
C. heredity.
D. ectopic eruption.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
BOOK 2

8. Which of the following is the LEAST likely 11. A radiographic examination of a 10 year old child
primary site for the development of oral squamous reveals retention of deciduous teeth and presence
cell carcinoma in the elderly? of many unerupted supernumerary teeth. This is
characteristic of
A. Dorsum of the tongue.
B. Floor of the mouth. A. cleidocranial dysplasia.
C. Lateral border of the tongue. B. ectodermal dysplasia.
D. Tonsillar fossa. C. dentinogenesis imperfecta.
D. congenital hypothyroidism.

9. Which of the following pharmacokinetic change(s)

occur(s) with aging? 12. A 12-year old child presents with characteristic
tetracycline discoloration of the maxillary and
1. Absorption is altered by a decrease in the mandibular incisors and permanent first molars.
gastric pH. The probable age at which this child received
2. Metabolism is decreased by a reduced tetracycline therapy was
liver mass.
3. Distribution is altered by a decrease in A. 6 years.
total body fat. B. 4 years.
4. Excretion is reduced because of lessened C. 1 year.
renal blood flow. D. before birth.

A. (1) (2) (3)

B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) 13. The roots of primary molars in the absence of their
D. (4) only permanent successors
E. All of the above.
1. sometimes are partially resorbed and
become ankylosed.
2. may remain for years with no significant
10. As a dentist in Canada, it is ethical to refuse to resorption.
treat a patient on the basis of 3. may remain for years partially resorbed.
4. are always resorbed.
1. religious beliefs.
2. physical handicap. A. (1) (2) (3)
3. infectious disease. B. (1) and (3)
4. recognition of lack of skill or knowledge. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
A. (1) (2) (3) E. All of the above.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. 14. A 6-year old patient has a larger than average
diastema between the maxillary central incisors.
The radiographic examination shows a mesiodens.
In order to manage the diastema, you should
extract the mesiodens

A. after its complete eruption.

B. once the patient has reached the age of
12.
C. only if it develops into a cystic lesion.
D. as soon as possible.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
BOOK 2

15. A single hypoplastic defect located on the labial 19. An 8 year old patient with all primary molars still
surface of a maxillary central incisor is most likely present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp relationship of
due to a/an permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars
and good alignment of the lower incisors. The
A. dietary deficiency. management of this patient should be to
B. endocrine deficiency.
C. tetracycline therapy. A. refer for orthodontic consultation.
D. trauma to the maxillary primary central B. use a cervical headgear to reposition
incisor. maxillary molars.
E. high fluoride intake. C. disk the distal surfaces of primary
mandibular second molars.
D. place patient on appropriate recall
schedule.
16. In primary molars, radiographic bony changes
from an infection are initially seen
20. The facial and lingual walls of the occlusal portion
A. at the apices. of a Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam in
B. in the furcation area. deciduous teeth should
C. at the alveolar crest.
D. at the base of the developing tooth. A. be parallel to each other.
B. diverge toward the occlusal surface.
C. converge toward the occlusal surface.
D. not follow the direction of the enamel
17. In children, the most common cause of a fistula is rods.
a/an

A. acute periapical abscess.

B. chronic periapical abscess. 21. A large carious exposure occurs on a permanent
C. acute periodontal abscess. first molar of a 7-year old. There is no periapical
D. dentigerous cyst. involvement and the tooth is vital. The treatment
should be to

A. cap the exposure with calcium hydroxide

18. The absence of a pulp chamber in a deciduous and place zinc-oxide and eugenol.
maxillary incisor is most likely due to B. perform a pulpotomy and place calcium
hydroxide.
A. amelogenesis imperfecta. C. perform a pulpectomy.
B. hypophosphatasia. D. extract the tooth and place a space
C. trauma. maintainer.
D. ectodermal dysplasia.
E. cleidocranial dysostosis.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
BOOK 2

22. A patient telephones and tells you he has just 26. In a Factor VIII hemophiliac, which of the
knocked out his front tooth but that it is still intact. following laboratory findings is typical?
Your instructions should be to
A. Prolonged clotting time.
A. put the tooth in water and come to your B. Prolonged bleeding time.
office at the end of the day. C. Abnormally low blood platelet count.
B. wrap the tooth in tissue and come to your D. Prothrombin time 30% of normal.
office in a week's time.
C. put the tooth in alcohol and come to your
office immediately.
D. place tooth under the tongue and come to 27. Ludwig's angina may cause death by
your office immediately.
E. place the tooth in milk and come to your A. heart failure.
office immediately. B. asphyxia.
C. convulsions.
D. paralysis of muscles of respiration.
E. pyemia.
23. In a 4-year old child, the primary central incisor
has discoloured following a traumatic injury. The
treatment of choice is
28. An acute periapical abscess originating from a
A. pulpotomy. mandibular third molar generally points and drains
B. pulpectomy. in the
C. observation.
D. extraction. A. submandibular space.
B. pterygomandibular space.
C. buccal vestibule.
D. buccal space.
24. The most appropriate treatment following the
extraction of a first primary molar in a 4-year old
child is
29. When sutures are used to reposition tissue over
A. regular assessment of arch development. extraction sites, they should be
B. to perform space analysis.
C. insertion of a space maintainer. 1. placed over firm bone where possible.
D. extraction of the contra-lateral molar. 2. interrupted, 15mm apart.
E. extraction of the opposing molar. 3. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps
without blanching.
4. tight enough to produce immediate
hemostasis.
25. A patient presenting with diplopia, exophthalmos,
nasal bleeding and swelling, may suffer from a A. (1) (2) (3)
fracture of the B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
A. neck of the condyle. D. (4) only
B. body of the mandible. E. All of the above.
C. zygomatic bone.
D. maxillary tuberosity.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
BOOK 2

30. The design of a mucoperiosteal flap should 34. An excisional biopsy of a nodule 5mm in diameter
on the lateral border of the tongue was diagnosed
1. provide for visual access. as a fibroma. This patient should have
2. provide for instrument access.
3. permit repositioning over a solid bone A. hemisection of the tongue.
base. B. radiotherapy to site of biopsy.
4. be semilunar in shape. C. no additional therapy.
D. re-excision with wider margins.
A. (1) (2) (3) E. radium implantation around biopsy site.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. 35. During extraction of a maxillary third molar, the
tuberosity is fractured. The tooth with the
tuberosity remains attached to the surrounding soft
tissue. You should
31. Which of the following nerves should be
anesthetized for extraction of a maxillary lateral A. remove both and suture.
incisor? B. leave both and stabilize, if possible.
C. remove both, fill the defect with Gelfoam
1. Nasociliary. and suture.
2. Nasopalatine. D. reflect the mucoperiosteum, remove the
3. Sphenopalatine. tooth, leaving the tuberosity in place and
4. Anterior superior alveolar. suture.

A. (1) (2) (3)

B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) 36. In an acute upper airway obstruction, the entry to
D. (4) only the airway on an emergency basis should be made
E. All of the above. at the

A. cricoid cartilage.
B. thyroid notch.
32. The most likely complication associated with the C. thyroid membrane.
extraction of an isolated maxillary second molar is D. cricothyroid membrane.
E. first tracheal ring.
A. a dry socket.
B. nerve damage.
C. fracture of the malar ridge.
D. fracture of the tuberosity.

33. Trismus is most frequently caused by

A. tetanus.
B. muscular dystrophy.
C. infection.
D. mandibular fracture.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
BOOK 2

37. Alteration of the intestinal flora by some 41. In the surgical removal of an impacted mandibular
chemotherapeutic agents can interfere with third molar, which of the following would be
reabsorption of a contraceptive steroid thus considered to be the most difficult?
preventing the recirculation of the drug through
the enterohepatic circulation. Which of the A. Mesio-angular.
following can interfere with this mechanism? B. Horizontal.
C. Vertical.
1. Codeine. D. Disto-angular.
2. Penicillin V.
3. Acetaminophen
4. Tetracycline.
42. Continued smoking will impair wound healing
A. (1) (2) (3) following a surgical procedure because of
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) A. stain development.
D. (4) only B. increased rate of plaque formation.
E. All of the above. C. increased rate of calculus formation.
D. contraction of peripheral blood vessels.
E. superficial irritation to tissues by smoke.

38. The most common complication of a venipuncture

is
43. A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a
A. syncope.
B. hematoma. A. fracture of the zygomatic arch.
C. thrombophlebitis. B. horizontal fracture of the maxilla.
D. embolus. C. fracture of the malar complex involving
the floor of the orbit.
D. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla.
E. cranio-facial dysjunction.
39. Benign neoplasms

1. grow slowly.
2. are generally painless. 44. If an odontogenic infection involves the
3. can be managed conservatively. pterygomandibular space, the most obvious
4. can metastasize. clinical sign will be

A. (1) (2) (3) A. trismus.

B. (1) and (3) B. facial swelling.
C. (2) and (4) C. swelling in the submandibular area.
D. (4) only D. rise in body temperature above 39°C
E. All of the above. (102ºF).

40. For which of the following teeth is the risk of root

fracture increased if a rotational force is used
during extraction?

A. Upper canine.
B. Lower canine.
C. Upper first bicuspid.
D. Lower first bicuspid.
E. Upper lateral incisor.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
BOOK 2

45. Which of the following will impede healing 48. A surgical flap not repositioned over a bony base
following the surgical closure of an oro-antral will result in
fistula?
1. slower healing.
1. Poor flap design. 2. foreign body inflammatory reaction.
2. Excessive tissue tension. 3. wound dehiscence.
3. Blowing the nose. 4. necrosis of bone.
4. Sinus infection.
A. (1) (2) (3)
A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3)
B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4)
C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only
D. (4) only E. All of the above.
E. All of the above.

49. An 8-year old patient with all primary molars still

46. Vestibuloplasty is a preprosthetic surgical present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp relationship of
procedure used to permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars.
The management of this patient should be to
A. facilitate reliable impression making.
B. provide adequate posterior inter-arch A. plan serial extractions for more normal
space. adjustment of the occlusion.
C. allow placement of teeth over the residual B. refer the patient to an orthodontist for
ridge. consultation.
D. increase the supporting surface area C. place a cervical headgear to reposition
maxillary molars.
D. disk the distal surfaces of primary
mandibular second molars to allow
47. Bacterial infection may be confirmed by normal adjustment of permanent molars.
E. observe.
1. white blood cell count.
2. hemoglobin level.
3. erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
4. platelet count. 50. A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a patient
with a 3mm anterior functional shift should be
A. (1) (2) (3) taken with the patient in
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) A. maximum intercuspation.
D. (4) only B. initial contact.
E. All of the above. C. normal rest position.
D. maximum opening.
E. protrusive position.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
BOOK 2

51. If a patient loses a permanent maxillary first molar

before the age of 11, the 55. A 7 year old patient has a left unilateral posterior
cross-bite and a left functional shift of the
1. premolar drifts distally. mandible. The most appropriate treatment for this
2. maxillary second molar erupts and moves patient is
mesially.
3. opposing tooth erupts into the space A. bilateral expansion of the maxillary arch.
created. B. unilateral expansion of maxillary arch.
4. overbite increases. C. placement of a maxillary repositioning
splint.
A. (1) (2) (3) D. observation until the permanent teeth
B. (1) and (3) erupt.
C. (2) and (4) E. bilateral constriction of the mandibular
D. (4) only arch.
E. All of the above.

56. The predominant type of movement produced by a

52. Excessive orthodontic force used to move a tooth finger spring on a removable appliance is
may
A. torque.
1. cause hyalinization. B. tipping.
2. cause root resorption. C. rotation.
3. crush the periodontal ligament. D. translation.
4. impair tooth movement.

A. (1) (2) (3)

B. (1) and (3) 57. To prevent mesial drift of a permanent first molar,
C. (2) and (4) the ideal time to place a distal-extension space
D. (4) only maintainer is
E. All of the above.
A. as soon as the tooth erupts through the
gingival tissue.
B. after the permanent second molar has
53. The angle SNA can be used to evaluate the erupted.
C. immediately after extraction of the
A. maxillary protrusion. primary second molar.
B. overbite. D. as soon as the extraction site of the
C. upper incisor inclination. primary second molar has completely
D. facial height. healed.
E. mandibular angle.

58. The best space maintainer to prevent the lingual

54. A single tooth anterior crossbite found in a 9 year collapse that often occurs following the early loss
old should of a mandibular primary canine is a

A. self-correct. A. Nance expansion arch.

B. be treated with a removable appliance. B. lingual arch.
C. have 2 arch orthodontic treatment. C. band and loop space maintainer.
D. be treated in the complete permanent D. distal shoe space maintainer.
dentition.
E. be observed and treated when the cuspids
have erupted.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
BOOK 2

59. A removable orthodontic appliance, producing a 63. A 3 year old requires the extraction of a deciduous
light force on the labial of a proclined maxillary maxillary second molar. The local anesthetic
central incisor will cause technique of choice is

A. lingual movement of the crown and A. a posterior superior alveolar block.

lingual movement of the root apex. B. buccal and palatal infiltration.
B. intrusion of the central incisor and lingual C. a tuberosity block plus subperiosteal
movement of the crown. infiltration of the mesio-buccal root.
C. lingual movement of the crown and labial D. an infra-orbital block.
movement of the root apex.
D. intrusion of the central incisor.

64. A patient suddenly becomes pale and sweaty after

an injection of 4ml of lidocaine 2% with
60. Recurring tooth rotations occur most frequently epinephrine l:l00,000. The radial pulse is slow and
after orthodontic correction due to steady. The respiration is slow. The blood pressure
is 80/60. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. density of the cortical bone.
B. persistence of tongue and finger habits. A. A toxic reaction to lidocaine.
C. free gingival and transseptal fibres. B. A toxic reaction to epinephrine.
D. oblique fibres of the periodontal ligament. C. An allergic reaction to the local
anesthetic.
D. Incipient syncope.
E. An impending adrenal insufficiency.
61. In its classic form, serial extraction is best applied
to patients with Class I occlusions with crowding
of
65. Immediately following a posterior superior
A. less than 10mm in each of the upper and alveolar block injection, the patient's face becomes
lower arches and 35% overbite. quickly and visibly swollen. The immediate
B. 10mm or more in each of the upper and treatment should be to
lower arches and 35% overbite.
C. less than 10mm in each of the upper and A. use pressure followed by cold packs over
lower arches and 70% overbite. the swelling.
D. 10mm or more in each of the upper and B. use hot packs over the swelling.
lower arches and 70% overbite. C. refer the patient to a hospital.
D. administer 100mg hydrocortisone
intravenously.
E. administer diphenhydramine
62. Following loss of a permanent mandibular first hydrochloride (Benadryl) 50mg
molar at age 8, which of the following changes are intravenously.
likely to occur?

1. Distal drift of second premolar.

2. No movement of second premolar. 66. What is the maximum number of cartridges
3. Mesial drift of second permanent molar. (1.8ml) of a 2% local anesthetic solution that can
4. No movement of second permanent be administered without exceeding a total dose of
molar. 300mg?

A. (1) (2) (3) A. 2

B. (1) and (3) B. 4
C. (2) and (4) C. 6
D. (4) only D. 8
E. All of the above. E. 10
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
BOOK 2

67. Acetaminophen in therapeutic doses 72. Before performing surgery on a patient who is
taking warfarin, which of the following should be
1. retards platelet function. evaluated?
2. has strong anti-inflammatory properties.
3. produces CNS stimulation. A. Bleeding time.
4. has antipyretic properties. B. Clotting time.
C. Prothrombin time.
A. (1) (2) (3) D. Coagulation time.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. 73. In the treatment of an acute anaphylactic reaction,
the first drug that should be administered is

A. hydroxyzine.
68. In an infection caused by non-penicillinase B. epinephrine.
producing staphylococcus, the drug of choice is C. hydrocortisone.
D. diphenhydramine.
A. penicillin V.
B. cephalexin.
C. tetracycline.
D. vancomycin. 74. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for
patients with which of the following?

1. Mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation.

69. Systemic or topical cortisone therapy is used in the 2. Cardiac pacemaker.
treatment of 3. Prosthetic heart valves.
4. All heart murmurs.
A. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
B. erythema multiforme. A. (1) (2) (3)
C. submaxillary cellulitis. B. (1) and (3)
D. ptyalism (excessive saliva). C. (2) and (4)
E. herpes simplex. D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

70. Epinephrine should NOT be used as a

vasoconstrictor for patients with uncontrolled 75. In a standard dental cartridge (carpule) containing
1.8ml 2% lidocaine with epinephrine 1/100,000,
A. hyperthyroidism. the amount of vasoconstrictor is
B. hyperparathyroidism.
C. myxoedema. A. 18.0 mg.
D. asthma. B. 0.018 mg.
C. 1.8 mg.
D. 0.18 mg.
E. 180.0 mg.
71. A patient who is jaundiced because of liver disease
has an increased risk of

A. postextraction bleeding.
B. cardiac arrest.
C. postoperative infection.
D. anaphylactic shock.
E. pulmonary embolism.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
BOOK 2

76. Tetracyclines 79. It is difficult to obtain satisfactory anesthesia in the

presence of infection near the injection site
1. have no side effects. because
2. may increase susceptibility to
superinfections. A. the swelling causes increased pressure on
3. are safe to use during pregnancy. the nerves.
4. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial B. increased blood supply carries the
activity. anesthetic solution away too fast.
C. acidity of the infected tissue inhibits
A. (1) (2) (3) action of the anesthetic agent.
B. (1) and (3) D. alkalinity of the infected tissue inhibits
C. (2) and (4) action of the anesthetic agent.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

80. In a standard inferior alveolar nerve block, which

muscle is penetrated by the needle?
77. Which of the following does NOT influence the
rate of induction during inhalation anesthesia? A. Buccinator.
B. Mylohyoid.
A. Pulmonary ventilation. C. Superior constrictor.
B. Blood supply to the lungs. D. Masseter.
C. Hemoglobin content of the blood. E. Medial (internal) pterygoid.
D. Concentration of the anesthetic in the
inspired mixture.
E. Solubility of the anesthetic in blood.
81. After an inferior alveolar nerve block injection, a
patient would develop seventh nerve paralysis if
the injection was made into the
78. A known insulin dependent diabetic patient feels
unwell following the administration of a local A. internal maxillary artery.
anesthetic and becomes pale and sweaty. This B. retroparotid space.
condition does not respond to placing the patient in C. internal pterygoid muscle.
a supine position. The most likely cause is D. retromandibular vein.
E. pterygoid plexus of veins.
A. syncope.
B. adrenal insufficiency.
C. hyperglycemia.
D. hypoglycemia. 82. The usual adult dosage of codeine administered
E. carotid sinus reflex. orally is

A. 500-1000mg.
B. 250-500mg.
C. 30-60mg.
D. 2-5mg.
E. None of the above.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
BOOK 2

83. An epinephrine-containing retraction cord has the 87. Which of the following would you prescribe for an
potential of anxious dental patient with a peptic ulcer?

A. interfering with the setting of the A. Reserpine.

impression material. B. Scopolamine.
B. causing tissue necrosis. C. Silica gel.
C. producing a systemic reaction. D. Diazepam.
D. discolouring gingival tissue. E. Calcium carbonate.

84. Cultures made from a dental abscess indicate the 88. Which of the following is/are (a) useful guide(s) in
infection is caused by beta hemolytic determining a patient’s occlusal vertical
streptococcus. Which of the following is the drug dimension?
of choice?
1. Appearance.
A. Penicillin. 2. Phonetics.
B. Erythromycin. 3. Observation of the rest position.
C. Tetracycline. 4. Pre-extraction profile records.
D. Cloxacillin.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
85. Which one of the following describes the position D. (4) only.
of the needle tip during administration of local E. All of the above.
anesthetic for the inferior alveolar nerve block?

A. Anterior to the pterygomandibular raphe.

B. Medial to the medial pterygoid muscle. 89. Generally, glass ionomer cements contain
C. Superior to the lateral pterygoid muscle.
D. Lateral to the sphenomandibular A. zinc oxide and distilled water.
ligament. B. zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid.
C. fluoro aluminosilica powder and
orthophosphoric acid.
D. fluoro aluminosilica powder and
86. A 57 year old man received 10mg of diazepam polyacrylic acid.
intravenously. He becomes unresponsive to verbal
stimuli, and his respirations are depressed to
10 per minute. Appropriate treatment is to
90. Upon setting, a mixture of plaster of Paris and
A. administer ephedrine. water will exhibit
B. observe the patient.
C. force the patient to drink coffee. A. loss in compressive strength.
D. support respiration with oxygen. B. expansion.
C. gain in moisture content.
D. contraction.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
BOOK 2

91. Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it is 95. Extreme resorption of an edentulous mandible can
observed that the tuberosities contact the bring the alveolar ridge to the level of the
retromolar pads at the correct occlusal vertical attachment of the
dimension. The treatment of choice is to
A. buccinator, styloglossus and geniohyoid
A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically to muscles.
provide the necessary clearance. B. mylohyoid, buccinator and styloglossus
B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to muscles.
provide the necessary clearance. C. superior constrictor, mylohyoid and
C. construct new dentures at an increased buccinator muscles.
occlusal vertical dimension to gain the D. mylohyoid, buccinator and genioglossus
necessary clearance. muscles.
D. proceed with construction of the denture
and reduce the posterior extension of the
mandibular denture to eliminate
interferences. 96. The location of a crown margin is determined by

1. esthetic requirements.
2. clinical crown length.
92. A hinge axis facebow records 3. presence of caries.
4. presence of an existing restoration.
A. Bennett angle.
B. centric relation. A. (1) (2) (3)
C. lateral condylar inclination. B. (1) and (3)
D. horizontal condylar inclination. C. (2) and (4)
E. opening and closing axis of the mandible. D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

93. Following the insertion of complete dentures, a

generalized soreness over the entire mandibular 97. A fracture in an all ceramic crown may be caused
alveolar ridge can be caused by by

A. Inadequate interocclusal distance. 1. inadequate ceramic thickness.

B. impingement on the buccal frenum. 2. sharp line angles in the tooth preparation.
C. high muscle attachments. 3. excessive occlusal load.
D. excess border thickness. 4. use of an inappropriate luting material.

A. (1) (2) (3)

B. (1) and (3)
94. In the design of a removable partial denture, C. (2) and (4)
guiding planes are made D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
B. parallel to the path of insertion.
C. at a right angle to the occlusal plane.
D. at a right angle to the major connector.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
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98. The gingival margin of the preparation for a full 102. The best way to protect the abutments of a Class I
crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown removable partial denture from the negative effects
that satisfies the requirements for retention and of the additional load applied to them is by
resistance, should be placed
A. splinting abutments with adjacent teeth.
A. 0.5mm subgingivally. B. keeping a light occlusion on the distal
B. on the enamel. extensions.
C. at least 1mm supragingivally. C. placing distal rests on distal abutments.
D. at the cemento-enamel junction. D. using cast clasps on distal abutments.
E. at the gingival margin. E. regular relining of the distal extensions.

99. In partial denture design, the major connector 103. Irreversible hydrocolloid materials are best
should removed from the mouth by

A. rigidly connect the bilateral components. A. a quick snap.

B. act as a stress-breaker. B. a slow teasing motion.
C. not interfere with lateral forces. C. twisting and rocking.
D. dissipate vertical forces. D. having the patient create a positive
pressure.

100. A survey of the master cast shows that the 3.5 and
3.7 abutments for a fixed partial denture have 104. Which of the following structures affects the
different paths of insertion with respect to 3.7. A thickness of the flange of a maxillary complete
semi-precision attachment is chosen rather than denture?
preparing the teeth again. Where should the male
part of the attachment ideally be located? A. Malar process.
B. Coronoid process.
A. Distal of the 3.5 retainer. C. Mylohyoid ridge.
B. Distal of the 3.6 pontic. D. Zygomatic process.
C. Mesial of the 3.7 retainer. E. Genial tubercle.
D. Mesial of the 3.6 pontic.

105. During the fabrication of new complete dentures,

101. Which of the following should be checked first which of the following can be modified to achieve
when a cast gold crown that fits on its die cannot the desired occlusion?
be seated on its abutment?
1. The compensating curve.
A. The occlusal contacts. 2. The orientation of the occlusal plane.
B. The taper of the preparation. 3. The cusp inclination.
C. The proximal contacts. 4. The condylar inclination.
D. The impression used to pour the cast.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
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106. While the teeth are set in wax, dentures are tried in 110. After initial setting, a chemically cured glass
to ionomer cement restoration should have a coating
agent applied to
A. verify the maxillomandibular records.
B. verify the vertical dimension of A. hasten the final set.
occlusion. B. protect the cement from moisture.
C. evaluate esthetics. C. retard the final set.
D. All of the above. D. protect the cement from ultraviolet light.
E. create a smooth finish.

107. A patient with complete dentures complains of

clicking. The most common causes are 111. Which of the following cements can chemically
bond to enamel?
A. reduced vertical dimension and
improperly balanced occlusion. 1. Zinc phosphate cement.
B. excessive vertical dimension and poor 2. Polycarboxylate cement.
retention. 3. Ethoxy benzoic acid cement.
C. use of too large a posterior tooth and too 4. Glass ionomer cement.
little horizontal overlap.
D. improper relation of teeth to the ridge and A. (1) (2) (3)
excessive anterior vertical overlap. B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
108. A maxillary complete denture exhibits more
retention and stability than a mandibular one
because it
112. Compared to unfilled resins, composite resins have
1. covers a greater area.
2. incorporates a posterior palatal seal. 1. reduced thermal dimensional changes.
3. is not subject to as much muscular 2. increased strength.
displacement. 3. reduced polymerization shrinkage.
4. is completely surrounded by soft tissue. 4. better polishability.

A. (1) (2) (3) A. (1) (2) (3)

B. (1) and (3) B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only D. (4) only
E. All of the above. E. All of the above.

109. The best means of extending the working time of 113. The prime advantage of vacuum firing of porcelain
an irreversible hydrocolloid impression material is is
to
A. better colour.
A. extend spatulation time. B. less shrinkage.
B. add additional water. C. more translucency.
C. use cold water. D. increased strength.
D. add a small amount of borax.
E. add potassium sulfate.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
BOOK 2

114. Most zinc-oxide-eugenol cements are not suitable 118. At his first post insertion appointment, a patient
for permanent cementation of crowns and fixed with a new removable partial denture complains of
partial dentures because of a tender abutment tooth. The most likely cause is

A. high viscosity. A. overextended borders of the partial.

B. low pH. B. inadequate polishing of the framework.
C. high solubility in saliva. C. improper path of insertion.
D. adverse pulp response. D. the occlusion.

115. In patients wearing complete dentures, the most 119. The maxillary cast partial denture major connector
frequent cause of tooth contact (clicking) during design with the greatest potential to cause speech
speaking is problems is

A. nervous tension. A. a thick narrow major connector.

B. incorrect centric relation position. B. an anterior and a posterior bar.
C. excessive occlusal vertical dimension. C. a thin broad palatal strap.
D. lack of vertical overlap. D. narrow horseshoe shaped.
E. unbalanced occlusion.

120. Smooth surface caries begins at localized areas on

116. To improve denture stability, mandibular molar the
teeth should normally be placed
A. outer surface of enamel and dentin.
A. over the crest of the mandibular ridge. B. inner surface of the enamel.
B. buccal to the crest of the mandibular C. outer surface of the dentin.
ridge. D. outer surface of the enamel.
C. over the buccal shelf area. E. inner surface of the dentin.
D. lingual to the crest of the mandibular
ridge.

121. After initiating preventive management for a

16 year old patient with multiple extensive carious
117. A cast post and core is used to lesions, which of the following restorative
treatments is most appropriate?
1. provide intraradicular venting.
2. strengthen a weakened tooth. A. Place amalgam restorations over the next
3. redirect the forces of occlusion. few months.
4. provide retention for a cast crown. B. Excavate caries and place temporary
restorations within the next few weeks.
A. (1) (2) (3) C. Delay any treatment until the hygiene
B. (1) and (3) improves.
C. (2) and (4) D. Restore all teeth with composite resin
D. (4) only over the next few months.
E. All of the above.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
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122. To ensure maximum marginal strength for an 126. Sterilization of carious dentin without pulp injury
amalgam restoration the cavosurface angle should is assured by the application of

A. approach 45 degrees. A. phenol.

B. approach 90 degrees. B. 70% ethyl alcohol.
C. be bevelled. C. chlorhexidine.
D. be chamfered. D. absolute alcohol.
E. None of the above.

123. For a cast gold restoration, a gingival bevel is used

instead of a shoulder because a bevel 127. In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact
when using a spherical alloy, which of the
1. protects the enamel. following is/are essential?
2. increases retention.
3. improves marginal adaptation. 1. A larger sized condenser.
4. increases the thickness of gold. 2. A thinner matrix band.
3. An anatomical wedge.
A. (1) (2) (3) 4. Use of mechanical condensation.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) A. (1) (2) (3)
D. (4) only B. (1) and (3)
E. All of the above. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

124. Using pins to retain amalgam restorations

increases the risk of
128. Endodontic therapy is CONTRAINDICATED in
1. cracks in the teeth. teeth with
2. pulp exposures.
3. thermal sensitivity. A. inadequate periodontal support.
4. periodontal ligament invasion. B. pulp stones.
C. constricted root canals.
A. (1) (2) (3) D. accessory canals.
B. (1) and (3) E. curved roots.
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
129. What clinical evidence would support a diagnosis
of acute dento-alveolar abscess?

125. The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must 1. A negative reaction to the electric vitality
create a/an tester.
2. A positive reaction of short duration to
A. rough surface for improved bonding. cold.
B. space for an appropriate thickness of the 3. A positive reaction to percussion.
veneering material. 4. Presence of a draining fistula.
C. margin well below the gingival crest.
D. definite finish line. A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
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130. The radiographic appearance of internal resorption 134. Having just completed endodontic treatment on a
is maxillary central incisor, you are preparing the
canal for a post when you inadvertently perforate
A. radiolucent enlargement of the pulp the labial surface of the root. You would
cavity.
B. radiolucency around the apex of the root. A. extract the tooth.
C. radiolucency on the surfaces of the root. B. cement the post using zinc-oxyphosphate
D. localized radiopacities in the pulp cavity. cement.
E. radiopacity around the apex of the root. C. cement the post, then raise a flap and seal
the defect surgically with amalgam.
D. re-prepare the canal so the post is now
totally within the canal and cement the
131. Which of the following conditions would NOT post.
require antibiotic premedication before endodontic
therapy?

A. Valvular heart disease. 135. Under normal conditions, the most definitive test
B. Cardiac prosthesis. to confirm the loss of pulp vitality is
C. Persistent odontogenic fistula.
D. Immuno-suppressive therapy. A. applying warm gutta percha to the crown.
E. Organ transplant. B. cutting into the dentin without
anaesthetic.
C. applying ethyl chloride to the crown.
D. performing a radiographic examination of
132. A 22 year old presents with a fracture of the incisal the tooth.
third of tooth 2.1 exposing a small amount of E. performing an electric pulp test.
dentin. The fracture occurred one hour previously.
There is no mobility of the tooth but the patient
complains that it is rough and sensitive to cold.
The most appropriate emergency treatment is to 136. Special attention is given to matrix adaptation for
the insertion of amalgam in a MO cavity in a
A. open the pulp chamber, clean the canal maxillary first premolar because of the
and temporarily close with zinc oxide and
eugenol. A. concavity in the cervical third of the
B. smooth the surrounding enamel and apply mesial surface of the crown.
glass ionomer cement. B. restoration being in the esthetic zone.
C. smooth the surrounding enamel and apply C. unusual position of the contact area.
a calcium hydroxide cement. D. buccolingual width of the tooth's mesial
D. place a provisional (temporary) crown. marginal ridge.
E. size of the interproximal gingival
embrasure.

133. The most important principle dictating location

and size of access to the root canal system is
137. In pin-retained restorations, the pin holes should
A. preservation of tooth structure. be parallel to the
B. removal of all caries.
C. straight line access to the canal. A. long axis of the tooth.
D. removal of all pulp horns. B. nearest external surface.
C. pulp chamber.
D. axial wall.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
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138. The "smear layer" is an important consideration in 142. In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact
when using a spherical alloy, which of the
A. plaque accumulation. following is/are essential?
B. caries removal.
C. pulp regeneration. 1. A larger sized condenser.
D. dentin bonding. 2. A thinner matrix band.
3. A properly placed wedge.
4. Use of mechanical condensation.

139. Planing the enamel at the gingival cavosurface of a A. (1) (2) (3)
Class II amalgam preparation on a permanent B. (1) and (3)
tooth C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
A. should result in a long bevel. E. All of the above.
B. is contraindicated because of the low
edge strength of amalgam.
C. is unnecessary since the tooth structure in
this area is strong. 143. In the mandibular first premolar, the occlusal
D. should remove unsupported enamel dovetail of an ideal disto-occlusal amalgam
which may fracture. preparation is usually not extended into the mesial
E. should result in a sharp gingivoproximal fossa because of the
line angle.
A. small lingual lobe.
B. large buccal cusp.
C. large buccal pulp horn.
140. Composite resin is CONTRAINDICATED as a D. prominent transverse ridge.
posterior restorative material in cases of

1. cusp replacement.
2. bruxism. 144. Which of the following drugs is used in the
3. lack of enamel at the gingival cavo- treatment of MILD allergic reactions?
surface margin.
4. inability to maintain a dry operating field. A. Isoproterenol.
B. Meperidine hydrochloride.
A. (1) (2) (3) C. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride.
B. (1) and (3) D. Propoxyphene.
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
145. The anatomical landmarks used to help establish
the location of the posterior palatal seal of a
maxillary complete denture include the
141. Following root canal therapy, the most desirable
form of tissue response at the apical foramen is A. pterygomaxillary notches and the fovea
palatinae.
A. cementum deposition. B. pterygomaxillary notches and the
B. connective tissue capsule formation. posterior nasal spine.
C. epithelium proliferation from the C. posterior border of the tuberosities and
periodontal ligament. the posterior border of the palatine bone.
D. dentin deposition. D. anterior border of the tuberosities, the
palatine raphe and the posterior border of
the palatine bone.
 2004 RELEASED WRITTEN EXAMINATION
BOOK 2

146. The most logical explanation for causing swelling 150. Osteomyelitis of the mandible may follow
beneath the eye caused by an abscessed maxillary
canine is that the 1. radiotherapy.
2. dentoalveolar abscess.
A. lymphatics drain superiorly in this region. 3. fracture.
B. bone is less porous superior to the root 4. Vincent’s angina.
apex.
C. infection has passed into the angular vein A. (1) (2) (3)
which has no valves. B. (1) and (3)
D. the root apex lies superior to the C. (2) and (4)
attachment of the caninus and levator D. (4) only
labii superioris muscles. E. All of the above.

147. Caries in older persons is most frequently found on

which of the following locations?

A. Pits and fissures.

B. Proximal enamel.
C. Root surfaces.
D. Incisal dentin.

148. A patient who uses nitroglycerine has

A. rheumatic heart disease.

B. asthma.
C. coronary artery disease.
D. high blood pressure.
E. cardiac arrhythmia.

149. A 15-year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on

tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This was
most probably caused by a/an

A. vitamin D deficiency.
B. generalized calcium deficiency.
C. high fever encountered by the patient
when he had measles at age 3.
D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the
development of tooth 1.5.
E. hereditary factor.