ANATOMY_TEST

You have 642 questions in this exam. 1. Case study: A patient presents with a large, bilateral swelling in the middle of her throat (anterior neck). You diagnose a goiter (enlarged thyroid gland). The thyroid gland is located in the_______ of the neck. A. Visceral space B. Submandibular triangle C. Carotid sheath D. Posterior triangle E. Retropharyngeal space Show answer Correct Answer: A 2. Case study: A patient presents with a large, bilateral swelling in the middle of her throat (anterior neck). You diagnose a goiter (enlarged thyroid gland). Of the following statements about the thyroid gland, which is CORRECT? A. Its arterial supply is exclusively via the superior thyroid arteries B. Its venous drainage is via the inferior thyroid veins only C. Its isthmus lies posterior to the trachea D. The recurrent laryngeal nerves run along its posterior surface E. Normally, the thyroid gland is immobile Show answer Correct Answer: D 3. Case study: A patient presents with a large, bilateral swelling in the middle of her throat (anterior neck). You diagnose a goiter (enlarged thyroid gland). If surgery is necessary to remove the patient's thyroid gland, what is the CORRECT order of anatomic structures encountered, from superficial to deep? A. Skin, investing fascia, pretracheal fascia, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands B. Skin, pretracheal fascia, investing fascia, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands C. Skin, pretracheal fascia, investing fascia, parathyroid glands, thyroid gland D. Skin, investing fascia, pretracheal fascia, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands E. Skin, thyroid gland, pardthyroid glands, investing fascia, pretracheal fascia Show answer Correct Answer: A 4. Case study: A patient who had surgery in the left carotid triangle complained to her physician that she has little sense of touch to the skin over the left side of her neck and difficulty swallowing. The patient's hyoid bone is shifted (deviated) to the right side. The patient's tongue is not affected. The physician suspects that the cervical plexus of nerves to the left side of her patient's neck was harmed during the surgical procedure. Loss of touch sensation to the skin over the anterior triangle would result from injury to which nerve? A. Lateral supraclavicular nerve B. Spinal accessory nerve C. Hypoglossal nerve D. Medial supraclavicular nerve E. Transverse cervical nerve

Show answer Correct Answer: E 5. Case study: A patient who had surgery in the left carotid triangle complained to her physician that she has little sense of touch to the skin over the left side of her neck and difficulty swallowing. The patient's hyoid bone is shifted (deviated) to the right side. The patient's tongue is not affected. The physician suspects that the cervical plexus of nerves to the left side of her patient's neck was harmed during the surgical procedure. The shifted position of the patient's hyoid bone to the right indicates loss of tone by muscles that attach to the hyoid bone on the left side of the neck. Of the following muscles, which muscle does NOT attach directly to the hyoid bone? A. Sternohyoid muscle B. Digastric muscle C. Sternothyroid muscle D. Thyrohyoid muscle E. Omohyoid muscle Show answer Correct Answer: C 6. Case study: A patient who had surgery in the left carotid triangle complained to her physician that she has little sense of touch to the skin over the left side of her neck and difficulty swallowing. The patient's hyoid bone is shifted (deviated) to the right side. The patient's tongue is not affected. The physician suspects that the cervical plexus of nerves to the left side of her patient's neck was harmed during the surgical procedure. Identify the muscle that does NOT lower (depress) the hyoid bone. A. Sternohyoid muscle B. Digastric muscle C. Omohyoid muscle D. Thyrohyoid muscle E. None of the above muscles lower (depress) the hyoid bone Show answer Correct Answer: B 7. Case study: A patient who had surgery in the left carotid triangle complained to her physician that she has little sense of touch to the skin over the left side of her neck and difficulty swallowing. The patient's hyoid bone is shifted (deviated) to the right side. The patient's tongue is not affected. The physician suspects that the cervical plexus of nerves to the left side of her patient's neck was harmed during the surgical procedure. Of the following nerves, which is embedded in the carotid sheath and therefore vulnerable to injury during surgical procedures to the carotid artery? A. Spinal accessory nerve B. Ansa cervicalis C. Cervical sympathetic chain D. Phrenic nerve E. Suprascapular nerve Show answer Correct Answer: B

8. Case study: A patient who had surgery in the left carotid triangle complained to her physician that she has little sense of touch to the skin over the left side of her neck and difficulty swallowing. The patient's hyoid bone is shifted (deviated) to the right side. The patient's tongue is not affected. The physician suspects that the cervical plexus of nerves to the left side of her patient's neck was harmed during the surgical procedure. If an infection were to occur after such the surgical procedure and the infection reached the retropharyngeal space, could the infection track into the superior mediastinum? A. Yes B. No Show answer Correct Answer: A 9. Case study: You are a second-year resident in neurology (time flies, doesn't it?). One of your patients is a teenager who sustained fractures to the base of his skull from a highspeed automobile crash. The patient was ejected from the vehicle because he was not wearing a seat belt. The skull fractures are primarily located along the base of the middle cranial fossa. A first-year medical student, on morning rounds with you, asks you to answer the following questions, after your neurological exam reveals that the patient has no sense of touch to the skin over his cheek (maxilla) and chin (mandible). Which cranial nerve is normally responsible for sensation to both areas of the face that are affected in this patient? A. Abducens nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Facial nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve E. Hypoglossal nerve Show answer Correct Answer: B 10. Case study: You are a second-year resident in neurology (time flies, doesn't it?). One of your patients is a teenager who sustained fractures to the base of his skull from a highspeed automobile crash. The patient was ejected from the vehicle because he was not wearing a seat belt. The skull fractures are primarily located along the base of the middle cranial fossa. A first-year medical student, on morning rounds with you, asks you to answer the following questions, after your neurological exam reveals that the patient has no sense of touch to the skin over his cheek (maxilla) and chin (mandible). What are the names of the foramina through which the two affected sensory branches leave the cranial cavity? A. Superior orbital fissure and foramen rotundum B. Foramen rotundum and foramen ovale C. Foramen ovale and foramen spinosum D. Inferior orbital fissure and foramen rotundum E. Foramen ovale and the hiatus for the greater petrosal nerve Show answer Correct Answer: B 11. Case study: You are a second-year resident in neurology (time flies, doesn't it?). One of your patients is a teenager who sustained fractures to the base of his skull from a highspeed automobile crash. The patient was ejected from the vehicle because he was not wearing a seat belt. The skull fractures are primarily located along the base of the middle cranial fossa. A first-year medical student, on morning rounds with you, asks you to answer the following questions, after your neurological exam reveals that the patient has no sense of touch to the skin over his cheek (maxilla) and chin (mandible).

Where are the cell bodies of the affected general sensory nerves located? A. Cranial nerve I ganglion B. Cranial nerve VII ganglion C. Cranial nerve VIII ganglion D. Cranial nerve X ganglion E. Cranial nerve V ganglion Show answer Correct Answer: E 12. Case study: You are a second-year resident in neurology (time flies, doesn't it?). One of your patients is a teenager who sustained fractures to the base of his skull from a highspeed automobile crash. The patient was ejected from the vehicle because he was not wearing a seat belt. The skull fractures are primarily located along the base of the middle cranial fossa. A first-year medical student, on morning rounds with you, asks you to answer the following questions, after your neurological exam reveals that the patient has no sense of touch to the skin over his cheek (maxilla) and chin (mandible). Is it reasonable to expect that general sensation to the front (anterior 2/3) of the patient's tongue is also lost? A. Yes B. No Show answer Correct Answer: A 13. Case study: You are a second-year resident in neurology (time flies, doesn't it?). One of your patients is a teenager who sustained fractures to the base of his skull from a highspeed automobile crash. The patient was ejected from the vehicle because he was not wearing a seat belt. The skull fractures are primarily located along the base of the middle cranial fossa. A first-year medical student, on morning rounds with you, asks you to answer the following questions, after your neurological exam reveals that the patient has no sense of touch to the skin over his cheek (maxilla) and chin (mandible). Would you expect the patient to have taste at the posterior 1/3 of his tongue? A. Yes B. No Show answer Correct Answer: A 14. Case study: You are a second-year resident in neurology (time flies, doesn't it?). One of your patients is a teenager who sustained fractures to the base of his skull from a highspeed automobile crash. The patient was ejected from the vehicle because he was not wearing a seat belt. The skull fractures are primarily located along the base of the middle cranial fossa. A first-year medical student, on morning rounds with you, asks you to answer the following questions, after your neurological exam reveals that the patient has no sense of touch to the skin over his cheek (maxilla) and chin (mandible). A sharp blow to the side of the head, over the temporal region, is frequently associated with rupture of the principal artery that supplies the meninges. What is the name of the artery? A. Basilar artery B. Anterior cerebral artery C. Cavernous sinus D. Middle meningeal artery E. Posterior meningeal artery Show answer

Correct Answer: D 15. Aqueous humor: A. Is the only source of nutrients for the ciliary body B. Is the only source of nutrients for the iris C. Is produced in the posterior chamber D. Replaces spent vitreous humor E. Is the only source of nutrients for the lens of the eye Show answer Correct Answer: E 16. Some fibers from the hypoglossal nerve have cell bodies that synapse in the submandibular ganglion. A. TRUE B. FALSE Show answer Correct Answer: B 17. Of the following statements about the ventricular system of the brain, which is FALSE? A. It consists of the two lateral ventricles and the midline third and fourth ventricles B. Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by the choroid plexus; the latter being located in the superior sagittal sinus C. Cerebrospinal fluid drains from the fourth ventricle through one median aperture and paired lateral apertures into the subarachnoid space known as the cisterna magna D. Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within and around the brain and spinal cord E. The main site of cerebrospinal fluid absorption into the venous system is through the arachnoid granulations Show answer Correct Answer: B 18. Post-ganglionic sympathetic fibers innervating the dilator pupillae muscle begin in the: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Superior cervical ganglion C. Brain D. Trigeminal ganglion E. Spinal cord (T1 - L2) Show answer Correct Answer: B 19. The internal acoustic meatus contains nerves that have all of the following functions, EXCEPT: A. Parasympathetic B. General sensory C. Special sense D. Motor E. Sympathetic Show answer

Correct Answer: E 20. The oculomotor nerve innervates all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. Superior rectus muscle B. Ciliary muscle C. Medial rectus muscle D. Lateral rectus muscle E. Sphincter pupillae muscle Show answer Correct Answer: D 21. Which of the following statements about the glossopharyngeal nerve is FALSE? A. Some of its fibers pass through the foramen ovale to enter the infraternporal fossa B. Some of its fibers pass through the middle ear C. The lesser petrosal nerve contains pre-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers that are destined for the otic ganglion D. A sign of deficit in this nerve is loss of taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue E. This nerve probably contributes to the gag reflex because it provides some general sensory innervation to portions of the pharynx Show answer Correct Answer: D 22. The vocal ligaments: A. Are formed by the superior free edge of the cricothyroid ligament B. Are formed by the junction of the aryepiglottic and thyroepiglottic ligaments C. Are formed by the inferior free edge of the thyrohyoid ligament D. Contain the cricothyroid muscle E. Are attached to the superior margin of the epiglottis Show answer Correct Answer: A 23. Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT pass through the cavernous sinus? A. III B. IV C. VI D. VIII E. VII Show answer Correct Answer: D 24. Choose the INCORRECT combination of connections. A. Facial vein, inferior ophthalmic vein, pterygoid venous plexus B. Frontal sinus, middle meatus C. Middle meatus, lacrimal canaliculi D. Chorda tympani, submandibular ganglion E. VIII, mental nerve Show answer

Correct Answer: C 25. All of the following statements about the superior laryngeal nerve are true, EXCEPT: A. It is a branch of the vagus nerve B. It supplies general sensory innervation to the mucosa above the vocal cords C. Some of its fibers are motor fibers D. One of its branches accompanies the superior laryngeal artery into the larynx E. It supplies the cricoarytenoid muscle Show answer Correct Answer: E 26. The ophthalmic artery uses which of the following foramina to reach the eye? A. Optic canal B. Foramen spinosum C. Superior orbital fissure D. Foramen rotundum E. Inferior orbital fissure Show answer Correct Answer: A 27. Care must be taken during surgery of the parotid gland so as not to damage the: A. External carotid artery B. Chorda tympani nerve C. Greater petrosal nerve D. Main trunk of VIII E. Levator labii alequae nasi muscle Show answer Correct Answer: A 28. Inability of a patient to gaze directly to the right with both eyes simultaneously could indicate deficits in which of the following combinations: A. The medial rectus muscle of the right eye and cranial nerve VI on the left side B. The lateral rectus muscle of the left eye and the inferior rectus muscle of the right eye C. The medial rectus muscle of the right eye and cranial nerve IV on the left side D. The lateral rectus muscle of the right eye and cranial nerve III on the left side E. Left cranial nerve VI and right cranial nerve V Show answer Correct Answer: D 29. Nerves associated with the middle ear and tympanic membrane include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Branches of the facial nerve B. Branches of the glossopharyngeal nerve C. Branches of VI D. Branches of VIII E. Sympathetic fibers Show answer

Correct Answer: C 30. Case study: Each lettered area (A-E) may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

What statement is FALSE about the nerve that supplies general sensory innervation to the area marked A? A. It is a branch of VIII B. It gives general sensory innervation to the parotid gland also C. It is a purely sensory nerve D. It will encircle the middle meningeal artery E. Taste fibers from the glossopharyngeal nerve will join with it Show answer Correct Answer: E 31. Case study: Each lettered area (A-E) may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Voluntary muscles contained in the submucosal layer in the area marked B, are innervated by: A. The (long) buccal nerve B. The buccal branch of the facial nerve C. The cervical branch of the facial nerve D. The temporal branch of the facial nerve E. The infraorbital nerve Show answer Correct Answer: B 32. Case study: Each lettered area (A-E) may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

The artery that supplies the mandibular teeth and gingiva is the inferior alveolar artery. The inferior alveolar artery is a direct branch of an artery that terminates in what area of the figure? A. C B. D C. E D. F E. G Show answer Correct Answer: B 33. Case study: Each lettered area (A-E) may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

The difference in the blood supply between area A and area C is that area A receives blood supply from branches of the external carotid artery whereas area C receives blood supply from branches of the internal carotid artery. A. TRUE B. FALSE

Show answer Correct Answer: A 34. Identify the DISCORDANT pair of matched cranial nerves and foramina: A. Olfactory nerve: cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone B. Optic nerve: optic foramen canal of the sphenoid bone C. Facial nerve: internal auditory meatus of the temporal bone D. Hypoglossal nerve: jugular foramen of the occipital bone E. Facial nerve: stylomastoid foramen of the temporal bone Show answer Correct Answer: D 35. The thyroarytenoid muscles: A. Abduct the vocal cords B. Adduct the vocal cords C. Are innervated by the external laryngeal nerves D. Relax the vocal cords E. All of the above are true Show answer Correct Answer: D 36. The palatoglossal arch contains a muscle that is innervated by what cranial nerve? A. XII B. X C. VIII D. IX E. VII Show answer Correct Answer: B 37. General sensory innervation of the cornea: A. Is supplied by VIII B. Is supplied by VI C. Is supplied by the oculomotor nerve D. Is supplied by the facial nerve E. Enters the eyeball exclusively through short ciliary nerves Show answer Correct Answer: B 38. Identify the drainage pattern for the dural venous sinuses that is NOT direct (sequential): A. Superior sagittal sinus to the confluens of sinuses B. Inferior sagittal sinus to the straight sinus C. Transverse sinus to the sigmoid sinus D. Sigmoid sinus to the origin of the internal jugular vein E. Superior sagittal sinus to the cavernous sinus

Show answer Correct Answer: E 39. A tumor compressing structures in the pterygopalatine fossa would affect all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Blood supply to the nasal cavity B. Blood supply to the soft palate C. General sensory innervation to the incisor teeth D. Parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland E. Taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue Show answer Correct Answer: E 40. Case study: MRI detected an aneurysm associated with the lingual artery in the floor of the mouth. You will attempt to locate and surgically repair this vascular defect. The lingual artery is usually a direct branch of what artery? A. Maxillary artery B. Internal carotid artery C. External carotid artery D. Facial artery E. Sphenopalatine artery Show answer Correct Answer: C 41. Case study: MRI detected an aneurysm associated with the lingual artery in the floor of the mouth. You will attempt to locate and surgically repair this vascular defect. By ligating the artery with the aneurysm for surgical repair, what structure will experience decreased blood flow? A. The mandibular teeth B. The skin of the lower lip C. The parotid gland D. The sublingual gland E. The masseter muscle Show answer Correct Answer: D 42. Case study: MRI detected an aneurysm associated with the lingual artery in the floor of the mouth. You will attempt to locate and surgically repair this vascular defect. If the surgical approach is from inside the mouth, what muscle would you have to go through to reach the main portion of the lingual artery? A. Styloglossus muscle B. Hyoglossus muscle C. Geniohyoid muscle D. Mylohyoid muscle E. Anterior belly of the digastric muscle Show answer Correct Answer: B

43. For what anatomical reason can infections in the skin of the face, scalp or diploic bone of the neurocranium reach the dural venous sinuses? A. Valves do not exist in the veins of the face, scalp or diploic bone and they communicate directly with the dural venous sinuses B. Arteries to the face, scalp and diploic bone communicate directly with arteries to the brain C. Capillaries of the face, scalp and diploic bone communicate directly with capillaries of the brain D. Arteries to the face, scalp and diploic bone communicate directly with veins from the brain E. Valves exist in the arteries of the face, scalp or diploic bone that function to direct blood to the dural venous sinuses Show answer Correct Answer: A 44. Inability to shift the mandible to the left would indicate paralysis of the A. Right lateral pterygoid muscle B. Left medial pterygoid muscle C. Left lateral pterygoid muscle D. Right medial pterygoid muscle E. Right temporalis muscle Show answer Correct Answer: A 45. A child with a history of a cold and sore throat, a bulging, inflamed tympanic membrane and a severe ear ache probably suffers from an infection of the middle ear (otitis media). What is the most probable path that the infection took to arrive in the midd A. External acoustic meatus, through tympanic membrane, middle ear B. Mastoid air cells, through tympanic membrane, middle ear C. Cavernous sinus, internal acoustic meatus, inner ear, through oval window, middle ear D. Pharynx, pharyngotympanic tube, through tympanic membrane, middle ear E. Pharynx, pharyngotympanic tube, middle ear Show answer Correct Answer: E 46. Ligation of the maxillary artery will completely cut off the blood supply to the pharynx. A. TRUE B. FALSE Show answer Correct Answer: B 47. The dural venous sinuses are located between which matched structures listed below? A. Neurocranium and the periosteal layer of the dura mater B. Periosteal and meningeal layers of the arachnoid mater C. Carotid sheath D. Meningeal and periosteal layers of the dura mater E. Pia mater and the brain Show answer

Correct Answer: D 48. The malleus: A. Is in direct contact with the oval window B. Is in direct contact with the tympanic membrane C. Lies between the incus and the oval window D. Provides a point of insertion for the stapedius muscle E. None of the above Show answer Correct Answer: B 49. The sphincter pupillae muscle: A. Contracts when it receives signals from post-ganglionic sympathetic fibers B. Contracts when it receives signals originating from the otic ganglion C. Contracts when it receives post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers that originate in the ciliary ganglion D. Dilates when it receives signals from the facial nerve E. Is an extension of the sclera of the eyeball Show answer Correct Answer: C 50. The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the: A. Occipital artery B. Maxillary artery C. Sphenopalatine artery D. Internal carotid artery E. Lingual artery Show answer Correct Answer: B 51. All of the following statements about the ophthalmic artery are true, EXCEPT: A. It gives off a branch that is the sole arterial supply for the retina B. It enters the orbit through the optic canal C. It has long posterior ciliary branches that run in the choroid layer of the retina D. One of it's terminal branches is the infraorbital artery E. It gives off a branch to the lacrimal gland Show answer Correct Answer: D 52. Which statement is FALSE concerning the venous drainage of the head? A. The facial vein has communications with the cavernous sinus B. The facial vein drains into the internal jugular vein C. The superficial temporal and maxillary veins join to form the external jugular vein D. The facial vein has communications with the pterygoid plexus E. The retromandibular vein has an anterior and posterior division Show answer Correct Answer: C

53. Of the following intrinsic muscles of the larynx, which tenses (stretches) the vocal folds? A. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle B. Lateral cricoarytenoid muscle C. Thyroarytenoid muscle D. Transverse arytenoid muscle E. Cricothyroid muscle Show answer Correct Answer: E 54. The infratemporal fossa communicates with the cranial cavity via the foramen rotundum A. T B. F Show answer Correct Answer: B 55. The oculomotor nerve innervates all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. Inferior oblique muscle B. Dilator pupillae muscle C. Medial rectus muscle D. Inferior rectus muscle E. Ciliary muscle Show answer Correct Answer: B 56. Which statement is FALSE about the parotid gland? A. It has a duct that pierces the buccinator muscle B. It's pre-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers synapse in the otic ganglion C. It encases the facial nerve and it's motor branches D. It's secretions empty directly into the floor of the mouth E. It is traversed by the retromandibular vein Show answer Correct Answer: D 57. Acting together, the sternocleidomastoid muscles will flex the head forward A. T B. F Show answer Correct Answer: A 58. The cranial dura has septal reflections. Of the reflections that are listed below, identify the one that encloses both the superior and inferior sagittal sinuses: A. Flax cerebri B. Flax cerebelli C. Tentorium cerebelli

D. Diaphragma sellae E. None of the above Show answer Correct Answer: A 59. All of the following nerves exit the cranial cavity through the jugular foramen, EXCEPT the: A. Accessory nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Vagus nerve E. None of these nerves exit through the jugular foramen Show answer Correct Answer: B 60. If the right sixth cranial nerve is cut in half, which of the following movements of the right eye is lost? A. Elevation B. Depression C. Lateral gaze D. Medial gaze E. None of these motions are lost Show answer Correct Answer: C 61. The facial nerve supplies parasympathetic innervation to all of the following structures, EXCEPT the: A. Lacrimal gland B. Submandibular gland C. Sublingual gland D. Parotid gland E. Mucosal lining of the nasal cavity Show answer Correct Answer: D 62. The nasolacrimal duct empties into the: A. Sphenoethmoidal recess B. Inferior meatus C. Middle meatus D. Maxillary sinus E. Infundibulum Show answer Correct Answer: B 63. The palatoglossus and levator palatini muscles are both innervated by: A. V3 B. X C. XII D. IX

E. XI Show answer Correct Answer: B 64. The only nerve that does NOT pass through the cavernous sinus is: A. The oculomotor nerve B. The trochlear nerve C. V3 D. V1 E. The abducens nerve Show answer Correct Answer: C 65. Fibers running in the nerve of the pterygoid canal are: A. Purely sensory B. Pre- ganglionic sympathetic and pre-ganglionic parasympathetic C. Pre-ganglionic sympathetic and post-ganglionic parasympathetic D. Post-gangiionic sympathetic and pre-ganglionic parasympathetic E. Destined to synapse in the otic ganglion Show answer Correct Answer: D 66. Which cranial nerve: foramen pair is INCORRECTLY matched? A. Optic nerve: Optic canal B. Maxillary division of V: Foramen spinosum C. Abducens nerve: Superior orbital fissure D. Mandibular division of V: Foramen ovale E. Hypoglossai nerve: Hypoglossal canal Show answer Correct Answer: B 67. All of the following statements are true about the superior cervical ganglia, EXCEPT: A. They are located near C1 vertebra B. They are the largest of the cervical sympathetic ganglia C. They contribute fibers to a plexus that will eventually reach structures in the eye D. Fibers leaving these ganglia are usually pre-ganglionic E. Fibers from these ganglia that reenter the ventral rami of cervical nerves do so exclusively via gray communicating rami Show answer Correct Answer: D 68. General sensory innervation of the lacrimal gland is: A. Supplied by V1 B. Supplied by V2 C. Supplied by the oculomotor nerve D. Supplied by the facial nerves

E. Contained in short ciliary nerves Show answer Correct Answer: A 69. The anterior cranial fossa contains all of the following foramina, EXCEPT the: A. Anterior ethmoidal foramina B. Foramina in the cribriform plate C. Optic canals D. Foramen cecum E. Posterior ethmoidal foramina Show answer Correct Answer: C 70. The rectus capitus anterior muscle is innervated by ventral rami from what cervical spinal levels? A. C1, C2 B. C3, C4 C. C4, C5 D. C1, C2, C3, C4 E. C3, C4, C5 Show answer Correct Answer: A 71. Branches of the external carotid artery in the neck include all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. Superior thyroid artery B. Lingual artery C. Costocervical trunk D. Ascending pharyngeal artery E. Facial artery Show answer Correct Answer: C 72. The posterior communicating artery of the cerebral arterial circle (of Willis) directly connects the posterior cerebral artery to the: A. Anterior communicating artery B. Ophthalmic artery C. Internal carotid artery D. Anterior cerebral artery E. Vertebral artery Show answer Correct Answer: C 73. The recurrent laryngeal nerves are vulnerable to injury duringsurgical procedures in the neck. If a recurrent laryngeal nerve is severed (cut), which intrinsic muscle of the larynx will be spared on the same side as the cut? A. Cricothyroid muscle B. Oblique arytenoid muscle

C. Thyroarytenoid muscle D. Posterior arytenoid muscle E. Lateral cricoarytenoid muscle Show answer Correct Answer: A 74. The following statements about the anterior scalene muscle are true, EXCEPT: A. It attaches onto the first rib B. It laterally flexes the neck C. It anteriorly flexes the neck D. The subclavian artery usually passes posterior to it E. It is contained in the submandibular triangle Show answer Correct Answer: E 75. The descending palatine artery arises within the: A. Pterygopalatine fossa B. Infratemporal fossa C. Infraorbital canal D. Temporal fossa E. Cranial cavity Show answer Correct Answer: A 76. A landmark that is NOT usually identifiable by merely looking at your patient is the: A. Laryngeal prominence B. Jugular notch C. Inferior border of the mandible D. Hyoid bone E. Clavicle Show answer Correct Answer: D 77. All of the following muscles are innervated by V3, EXCEPT the: A. Masseter muscle B. Temporalis muscle C. Buccinator muscle D. Mylohyoid muscle E. Anterior belly of the digastric muscle Show answer Correct Answer: C 78. Which of the statements about the carotid body is true? A. It is located at the bifurcation of the maxillary and superficial temporal arteries B. It senses changes in blood pressure C. It is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve

D. It is a swelling in the walls of the carotid artery E. It is an aggregate of lymphoid tissue Show answer Correct Answer: C 79. A muscle that is contained exclusively in the anterior triangle of the neck is the: A. Sternocleidomastoid muscle B. Platysma muscle C. Omohyoid muscle D. Digastric muscle E. Trapezius muscle Show answer Correct Answer: D 80. The vestibulocochlear organ (internal ear) consists of the bony labyrinth, perilymph, membranous labyrinth, and endolymph A. T B. F Show answer Correct Answer: A 81. The oculomotor nerve has both motor and special sensory functions A. T B. F Show answer Correct Answer: B 82. Which of the following muscles is NOT innervated by either a cranial nerve or ventral ramus from the cervical plexus? A. Splenius capitis muscle B. Omohyoid muscle C. Sternocleidomastoid muscle D. Medial scalene muscle E. Anterior belly of the digastric muscle Show answer Correct Answer: A 83. Sensory innervation to the mandibular teeth and bone is supplied by the: A. Posterior superior alveolar nerve B. Greater palatine nerve C. Buccal nerve D. Inferior alveolar nerve E. Auriculotemporal nerve Show answer

Correct Answer: D 84. Fibers that exit the pterygopalatine ganglion include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers B. General sensory fibers from V2 C. Post-ganglionic sympathetic fibers D. General sensory fibers from V3 E. None of these fibers exit the pterygopalatine ganglion Show answer Correct Answer: D 85. Nerves that contain taste fibers include all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. Chorda tympani nerve B. Glossopharyngeal nerve C. Distal (lower) 1/3 of the lingual nerve D. Inferior alveolar nerve E. Greater palatine nerve Show answer Correct Answer: D 86. Ligation of the maxillary artery will completely cut off the blood supply to the palate A. T B. F Show answer Correct Answer: B 87. The lateral cricoarytenoid and aretynoid muscles have similar action on the vocal folds. What is the common action? A. Adduction B. Abduction C. Relaxation D. Stretch E. Twist Show answer Correct Answer: A 88. The ciliary muscle: A. Relaxes when it receives parasympathetic innervation from CN VII B. Contracts when it receives parasympathetic innervation from CN VII C. Contracts when it receives parasympathetic innervation from CN III D. Tenses the suspensory ligaments of the lens when it contracts E. Causes the lens to become more round when it relaxes Show answer Correct Answer: C

89. All of the following nerves are involved in innervation of the pharynx, EXCEPT the: A. Trigerninal nerves B. Facial nerves C. Glossopharyngeal nerves , D. Vagus nerves E. Sympathetic nerves Show answer Correct Answer: B 90. The anterior chamber of the eye is: A. Filled with vitreous humor B. Where the lens is located C. Is separated from the posterior chamber by the iris D. Contains the optic disc E. Where aqueous humor is secreted Show answer Correct Answer: C 91. Which statement about the muscles that move the auditory ossicles and tympanic membrane is FALSE? A. The tensor tympany muscle attaches to the malleus B. The nerve supply to the tensor tympany muscle arises from the 7th cranial nerve C. The tensor tympany muscle tenses the tympanic membrane by pulling the handle of the malleus medially D. The stapedius muscle attaches to the stapes E. The stapedius muscle prevents excessive movement of the stapes Show answer Correct Answer: B 92. Which of the following nerves does NOT originate from the ansa cervicalis? A. Nerve to the sternothyroid B. Transverse cervical nerve C. Nerve to the superior belly of the omohyoid D. Nerve to the sternohyoid E. None of these nerves arise from the ansa cervicalis Show answer Correct Answer: B 93. The pathway for conduction of sound includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Collection of sound waves by the auricle B. Movement of the tympanic membrane C. Movement of the auditory ossicles D. Vibrations of the perilymph are transmitted to the basilar membrane E. Bending of the hair cells in the utricle and saccule Show answer Correct Answer: E

94. Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by the arachnoid villi along the superior sagittal sinus A. T B. F Show answer Correct Answer: B 95. Blood supply to the pharynx includes branches of all the following arteries, EXCEPT the: A. Facial arteries B. External carotid arteries C. Maxillary arteries D. Vertebral arteries E. Ascending pharyngeal arteries Show answer Correct Answer: D 96. Case study: Use the following figure of the skull with protruded tongue to answer the next 2 questions. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

In the figure, the deviation of the tongue is evidence of damage to the right hypoglossal nerve A. T B. F Show answer Correct Answer: B 97. Case study: Use the following figure of the skull with protruded tongue to answer the next 2 questions. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

The principal muscle producing the tongue movement depicted in the figure is the: A. Geniohyoid muscle B. Styloglossus muscle C. Genioglossus muscle D. Palatoglossus muscle E. Hyoglossus muscle Show answer Correct Answer: C 98. Into which lettered area do the terminal branches of the lacrimal nerve (V) emerge? A. (from figure) B. (from figure) C. (from figure) D. (from figure) Show answer

Correct Answer: A 99. Into which lettered area do the terminal branches of the buccal nerve (V) emerge? A. (from figure) B. (from figure) C. (from figure) D. (from figure) Show answer Correct Answer: C 100. Which statement is true about the nerve labeled D? A. It will give motor fibers to the platysma muscle B. It emerges onto the surface through the anterior triangle C. It is a purely sensory nerve D. It is branch of the spinal accessory nerve E. It arises from dorsal rami of cervical spinal nerves Show answer Correct Answer: C 101. The arterial pulse that is found in front of the upper part of the ear is from the A. transverse facial atery B. facial artery C. superficial temporal artery D. posterior auricular artery E. maxillary artery Show answer Correct Answer: C 102. In surgery of the thyroid gland, the external laryngeal nerve may be injured and must be identified before ligating the A. inferior thyroid artery B. superior thyroid srtery C. superior pharyngeal artery D. inferior laryngeal artery E. ascending palatine artery Show answer Correct Answer: B 103. The parotid duct reaches the oral vestibule by piercing the A. masseter muscle B. buccinator muscle C. levator anguli oris muscle D. superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle E. middle pharyngeal constrictor muscle Show answer

Correct Answer: B 104. The mucosa of the larynx inferior to the true vocal folds receives its innervation from the A. recurrent laryngeal nerve B. superior laryngeal nerve C. external branch of superior laryngeal nerve D. internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve E. none of the above Show answer Correct Answer: A 105. Case study: Match each numbered question with the most appropiate lettered area (A-E). A letter may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Trauma to this region would be most likely to result in an epi or extradural hematoma. A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E Show answer Correct Answer: E 106. Case study: Match each numbered question with the most appropiate lettered area (A-E). A letter may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Intersection of the sagittal and coronal sutures. A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E Show answer Correct Answer: B 107. Case study: Match each numbered question with the most appropiate lettered area (A-E). A letter may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Site of attachment of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E Show answer Correct Answer: A 108. Case study: Match each numbered question with the most appropiate lettered area (A-E). A letter may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Region crossed by the auriculotemporal nerve. A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E Show answer Correct Answer: D 109. Injury to the right hypoglossal nerve will result in the tongue deviating to the ____ upon protrusion. A. right B. left C. middle D. roof of mouth E. none of the above Show answer Correct Answer: A 110. All of the following structures course immediately beside or pass through the parotid gland, except the A. nerve supply to the obicularis oculi muscle B. blood supply to the anterior temporal region C. nerve supply to the musculature of the tongue D. lymph nodes draining the cheek and upper eyelid E. veins draining the pterygoid muscles Show answer Correct Answer: C 111. To test for trochlear nerve (CN IV) damage, have the patient gaze A. in (medially.) then down B. in, then up C. out (laterally), then down D. out, then up E. in, then out. Show answer Correct Answer: A 112. Which of the following muscles is innervated by cranial nerve XII? A. geniohyoid B. mylohyoid C. palatoglossus D. hyoglossus E. stylopharyngeus Show answer Correct Answer: D

113. The piriform recess is located A. above the palatine tonsil B. beneath the middle nasal concha C. on either side of the larynx, within the laryngopharynx D. posterior to the salpingopharyngeal folds, within the nasopharynx E. between the glossoepiglottic folds Show answer Correct Answer: C 114. What functions are carried out by the sympathetic innervation in the head and neck? A. Increased salivation, pupillary dilation B. Decreased salivation, puplliary constriction C. Vasoregulation, sweating, pupillary constriction D. Vasoregulation, sweating, pupillary dilation E. All of the above are true Show answer Correct Answer: D 115. The following structures can be easily palpated in a live subject, except the A. hyoid bone B. sternocleidomastoid muscle C. pulse of the common carotid artery D. styloid process of the temporal bone E. thyroid cartilage Show answer Correct Answer: D 116. You have a patient with an infection in the mastoid air cells. The infection probably entered directly through the A. torus tubaris B. umbo C. semicircular canals D. external auditory canal E. epitympanic recess Show answer Correct Answer: E 117. The scalenus medius muscle A. lies anterior to the roots of the brachial plexus B. lies anterior to the subclavian artery C. is located immediately posterior to the phrenic nerve D. separates the subclavian artery from the subclavian vein E. none of the above Show answer Correct Answer: E

118. Which of the following arteries is not correctly paired with the artery from which it branches? A. inferior thyroid artery - thyrocervial trunk B. superior laryngeal artery - lingual artery C. occipital artery - external carotid artery D. vertebral artery - subclavian artery E. inferior alveolar artery - maxillary artery Show answer Correct Answer: B 119. Identify the incorrect statement about the fascial planes of the neck. A. They form natural lines of cleavage between compartments of the neck. B. They limit the spread of pus from infections in the neck. C. The pretracheal fascia forms the "roof" (superficial limiting membrane) of the anterior and posterior triangles of the neck. D. Infections in the retropharyngeal space may spread into the superior mediastinum. E. The retropharyngeal space is a potental space between the prevertebral fascia and buccopharyngeal fascia. Show answer Correct Answer: C 120. Case study: Match each numbered question with the most appropriate lettered area (A-E). A letter may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Depresses the larynx. A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E Show answer Correct Answer: C 121. Case study: Match each numbered question with the most appropriate lettered area (A-E). A letter may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Paralysis of this muscle results in weakness in turning the head to the left. A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E Show answer Correct Answer: D 122. Case study: Match each numbered question with the most appropriate lettered area (A-E). A letter may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Region where the internal laryngeal nerve enters the larynx. A. A

B. B C. C D. D E. E Show answer Correct Answer: A 123. Case study: Match each numbered question with the most appropriate lettered area (A-E). A letter may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Innervated by the facial nerve. A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E Show answer Correct Answer: E 124. CSF passes into the circulatory system across a small, meningeal process called _____ which are found in the ______. A. arachnoid granulations - lateral ventricles B. arachnoid granulations - superior sagital sinus C. Choroid plexus - lateral, third, and fourth ventricles D. Choroid plexus - subarchnoid cisterns E. choroid plexus - superior sagitall sinus Show answer Correct Answer: B 125. Opening the vocal cords is produced by the A. cicrothyroid muscle. B. posterior cricoarytenoid muscle. C. transverse arytenoid muscle D. thyroarytenoid muscle. E. none of the above. Show answer Correct Answer: B 126. Choose the correct statement. A. The hard palate is formed by portions of the maxillary and the sphenoid bones. B. Elevation of the soft palate is achieved by a muscle innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. C. A muscle which both elevates the pharynx and pulls the soft palate down is innervated by CNXII. D. Blood to the pharynx is supplied by branches from the external carotid, facial, and maxillary arteries. E. The nerves involved with the paryngeal plexus are cranial nerves IX, X, XII, and pre-ganglionic sympathetic. Show answer Correct Answer: D

127. The structure located at the center of the tympanic membrane, representing attachment of the manubrium of the malleus to the membrane is the ____. A. pars tensa B. malleolar prominence C. malleolar folds D. umbo E. cone of light Show answer Correct Answer: D 128. Directing the gaze downward when the eye is abducted requires the A. lateral rectus muscle B. inferior rectus muscle C. superior oblique muscle D. inferior oblique muscle E. medial rectus muscle Show answer Correct Answer: B 129. Most (about 80%) of the blood to the dura mater is supplied by the _____ artery which enters the middle cranial fossa through the _____. A. middle meningeal artery; foramen spinosum B. anterior meningeal artery; anterior ethmoid foramen C. vertebral arteries; foramen magnum D. posterior meningeal artery; jugular foramen E. internal carotid arteries; carotid canals Show answer Correct Answer: A 130. The artery which is the sole supply for the retina is the A. lacrimal artery B. opthalmic artery C. central artery of the retina D. anterior ciliary artery E. posterior ethmoidal artery Show answer Correct Answer: C 131. The occipital artery, as it arises from the external carotid artery, normally has which nerve associated with it laterally? A. hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII) B. glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) C. carotid nerve D. vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) E. auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerveV3) Show answer

Correct Answer: A 132. The temporomandibular joint usually dislocates anteriorly. Which of the following statements is not relevant to this condition? A. dislocation usually occurs during opening of the mouth B. the head of the mandible moves anteriorly C. the articular disc moves posteriorly D. dislocation may accompany fractures of the mandible E. dislocation can be caused by contraction of the lateral pterygoid muscles during a yawn Show answer Correct Answer: C 133. The pterygoid venous plexus drains the infratemporal fossa via the A. external jugular vein B. internal jugular vein C. posterior auricular vein D. maxillary vein E. superficial temporal vein Show answer Correct Answer: D 134. All of the following structures lie in close proximity to the trachea, EXCEPT the A. recurrent laryngeal nerve B. inferior thyroid artery C. esophagus D. internal laryngeal nerve E. common carotid artery Show answer Correct Answer: D 135. The pterygomandibular raphe serves as an attachment for which of the following muscles? A. buccinator and superior constrictor B. middle constrictor and medial pterygoid C. superior constrictor and lateral pterygoid D. middle constrictor and lateral pterygoid E. superior constrictor and medial pterygoid Show answer Correct Answer: A 136. The true and false vocal folds extend from the _____ to the _____. A. thyroid cartilage; cricoid cartilages B. cricoid cartilage; arytenoid cartilages C. thyroid cartilage; arytenoid cartilages D. arytenoid cartilages; epiglottic cartilages E. none of the above Show answer

Correct Answer: C 137. If you are doing a myringotomy on one of your patients for recurrent otitis media (infection of the middle ear), it would be best to incise the tympanic membrane in the inferior-posterior quadrant. A. TRUE B. FALSE Show answer Correct Answer: A 138. The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens into the A. sphenoethmoidal recess B. superior meatus C. middle meatus D. inferior meatus E. bulla ethmoidalis Show answer Correct Answer: C 139. Muscles which depress or flatten the tongue include the A. styloglossus B. palatoglossus C. hyoglossus D. transverse intrinsic muscles E. none of the above Show answer Correct Answer: C 140. The medial boundary of the infratemporal fossa is formed by the A. styloid process of the temporal bone B. medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone C. lateral pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone D. infratemporal surface of the maxillary bone E. zygomatic arch Show answer Correct Answer: C 141. Choose the CORRECT match of nerves of the orbit and their action A. short ciliary nerve entirely sensory from the eyeball B. lacrimal nerve sensory from the medial part of the upper eyelid C. frontal nerve sensory from the forehead D. oculomotor nerve secretion of tears E. nasociliary nerve parasympathetic innervation of the superior tarsal muscle Show answer Correct Answer: C

142. The duct of the submandibular gland empties into the oral cavity A. at the base of the tongue via foramen caecum B. opposite the lower second molar tooth C. via several small openings along the sublingual fold D. beside the lingual frenulum through the sublingual caruncle E. opposite the maxillary second molar tooth Show answer Correct Answer: D 143. The facial vein is a clinically important vein for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A. it has valves to direct venous flow unidirectionally toward the neck B. it connects to the cavernous sinus C. it carries blood from the nose and lips D. it connects to the pterygoid plexus of veins E. its drainage field includes the medial canthus of the eye Show answer Correct Answer: A 144. The muscle whose action is to dampen movement of the stapes is innervated by the A. chorda tympani nerve B. trigeminal nerve C. facial nerve D. vagus nerve E. cranial nerve VIII Show answer Correct Answer: C 145. Which of the following does NOT pass through the space labeled "A"? A. oculomotor nerve B. superior ophthalmic vein C. frontal nerve D. opthalmic artery E. abducens nerve Show answer Correct Answer: D 146. Damage to the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen would affect A. facial expression B. taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue C. salivation D. sensation from the eyebrows E. lacrimation Show answer Correct Answer: A

147. The hyoid bone serves as attachment for which of the following muscles? A. middle pharyngeal constrictor B. inferior pharyngeal constrictor C. sternothyroid D. genioglossus E. none of the above Show answer Correct Answer: A 148. Of the following statements about the lymphatic drainage of the head and neck, which is INCORRECT? A. the superficial structures of the head drain into groups of lymph nodes that form a ring around the head B. lymphatic pathways generally follow those taken by vascular structures C. superficial lymphatics connect with upper and lower deep cervical lymph nodes D. efferent lymphatics from the deep lymph nodes drain into the venous system where the internal jugular and subclavian veins join E. most of the superficial lymph nodes cannot be palpated when they are inflammed Show answer Correct Answer: E 149. Arterial blood reaches the face directly or indirectly via branches of all of the following arteries EXCEPT the A. facial artery B. transverse facial artery C. superficial temporal artery D. maxillary artery E. inferior thyroid artery Show answer Correct Answer: E 150. The following nerve does not lie in the posterior triangle of the neck. A. phrenic nerve B. brachial plexus trunk C. descendens cervicalis D. spinal accessory nerve E. accessory phrenic nerve Show answer Correct Answer: C 151. For a tracheotomy, a vertical midline incision in the neck just below the thyroid cartilage must cut through what muscles? A. no muscles B. thyrohyoid muscle C. sternothyroid muscle D. sternohyoid muscle E. all of the above Show answer

Correct Answer: A 152. The submandibular triangle is bordered by the mandible and two bellies of the digastric muscle, the anterior belly of which A. is innervated by the facial nerve B. runs from the hyoid bone tothe angle of the mandible C. is innervated by the mylohyoid bone D. aids in closing the mandible E. none of the above Show answer Correct Answer: C 153. Secromotor stimulus to the parotid gland A. originates in the glossopharyneal nerve B. passes through the tympanic plexus and via the auriculotemporal nerve C. synapses in the otic ganglia D. all of the above E. none of the above Show answer Correct Answer: D 154. Which of the following is true of the opthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve? A. it provides sensory innervation for most of the globe and motor innervation tosmooth muscle in the globe B. the opthalmic nerve as a single structure does not reach the interior of the globe C. it passes through the inferior orbital fissure D. it follows the optic nerve and enters the bony orbit with it E. one of its branches gives motor innervation to the lacrimal gland Show answer Correct Answer: B 155. What functions are carried out by the sympathetic innervation in the head and neck? A. increased salivation, pupillary dilation B. decreased salivation, pupillary constriction C. vasoregulation, sweating, pupillary constriction D. vasoregulation, sweating, pupillary dilation E. all of the above are true Show answer Correct Answer: D 156. What structure forms the floor of the posterior triangle of the neck? A. infrahyoid muscles B. prevertebral fascia C. the 3 scalenes muscles D. investing fascia E. pretracheal fascia

Show answer Correct Answer: B 157. The common carotid artery usually bifurcates into the external and internal carotids at which one of the following levels? A. C2 B. C4 C. C6 D. C7 E. C8 Show answer Correct Answer: B 158. The fascial plane enclosing the muscles forming the borders of the posterior triangle of the neck is the A. retropharyngeal fascia B. prevertebral fascia C. investing fascia D. pretracheal fascia E. superficial fascia Show answer Correct Answer: C 159. Which is a true statement concerning the vagus nerve at the root of the neck? A. it passes anterior to both subclavian artery and subclavian vein B. it passes posterior to the subclavian vein but anterior to the subclavian artery C. it passes posterior to both subclavian vein and artery D. None of the above Show answer Correct Answer: B 160. The lingual artery in the carotid triangle is crossed twice by what nerve? A. mylohyoid B. glossopharyngeal C. hypoglossal D. superior laryngeal E. vagus Show answer Correct Answer: C 161. The nerve fibers which parallel the course of and are found immediately deep to the carotid sheath in the neck form the A. vagus nerve B. ansa cervicalis C. sympathetic chain D. recurrent laryngeal nerve E. hypoglossal nerve

Show answer Correct Answer: C 162. The nerves and blood vessels to the scalp are found in which layer? A. skin B. connective tissue C. aponeurosis D. loose areolar connective tissue E. pericranium Show answer Correct Answer: B 163. Which of the following structures does not pass through the jugular foramen? A. jugular bulb B. cranial nerve VIII C. cranial nerve IX D. cranial nerve X E. cranial nerve XI Show answer Correct Answer: B 164. All of the following are found in the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus except for A. the trochlear nerve B. the maxillary nerve C. the abducens nerve D. the ophthalamic nerve E. the oculomotor nerve Show answer Correct Answer: C 165. All of the following are true concerning the chorda tympani except for A. it is a branch of the facial nerve B. it carries taste from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue C. it carries postganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the submandibular ganglion D. it joins the lingual nerve E. it passes through the tympanic cavity Show answer Correct Answer: C 166. The thyroid gland in some cases may have a thyroid ima artery that supplies the isthmus of the thyroid. If present it would take origin from the A. inferior thyroid artery B. directly from the thyrocervical trunk C. superior thyroid artery D. brachiocephalic trunk E. directly from the subclavian artery

Show answer Correct Answer: D 167. Transmits vertebral artery A. jugular foramen B. foramen spinosum C. foramen magnum D. internal acoustic meatus E. foramen ovale Show answer Correct Answer: C 168. Transmits facial nerve A. jugular foramen B. foramen spinosum C. foramen magnum D. internal acoustic meatus E. foramen ovale Show answer Correct Answer: D 169. Transmits vagus nerve A. jugular foramen B. foramen spinosum C. foramen magnum D. internal acoustic meatus E. foramen ovale Show answer Correct Answer: A 170. Transmits vestibular nerve A. jugular foramen B. foramen spinosum C. foramen magnum D. internal acoustic meatus E. foramen ovale Show answer Correct Answer: D 171. Transmits dura mater A. jugular foramen B. foramen spinosum C. foramen magnum D. internal acoustic meatus E. foramen ovale

Show answer Correct Answer: C 172. Transmits accessory meningeal artery A. jugular foramen B. foramen spinosum C. foramen magnum D. internal acoustic meatus E. foramen ovale Show answer Correct Answer: E 173. All of the following are part of the circular chain of lymph nodes except for the A. submental nodes B. submandibular nodes C. parotid nodes D. jugulo-digastric nodes E. occipital nodes Show answer Correct Answer: D 174. Case study: You have been chosen as part of a select crew to embark on a fantastic voyage into the cranial cavity via a miniature submarine that will be injected into the facial vein. You have been appointed as navigator and must provide the most direct route to the cavernous sinus. For the following (3) questions, list in proper sequence the three structures you must pass through in order to get to the cavernous sinus. First A. pterygoid plexus B. maxillary vein C. deep facial vein D. emissary vein through foramen ovale E. retromandibular vein Show answer Correct Answer: C 175. Case study: You have been chosen as part of a select crew to embark on a fantastic voyage into the cranial cavity via a miniature submarine that will be injected into the facial vein. You have been appointed as navigator and must provide the most direct route to the cavernous sinus. For the following (3) questions, list in proper sequence the three structures you must pass through in order to get to the cavernous sinus. Second A. pterygoid plexus B. maxillary vein C. deep facial vein D. emissary vein through foramen ovale E. retromandibular vein

Show answer Correct Answer: A 176. Case study: You have been chosen as part of a select crew to embark on a fantastic voyage into the cranial cavity via a miniature submarine that will be injected into the facial vein. You have been appointed as navigator and must provide the most direct route to the cavernous sinus. For the following (3) questions, list in proper sequence the three structures you must pass through in order to get to the cavernous sinus. Third A. pterygoid plexus B. maxillary vein C. deep facial vein D. emissary vein through foramen ovale E. retromandibular vein Show answer Correct Answer: D 177. The anterior division of the mandibular nerve is motor except for the A. buccal nerve B. deep temporal nerve C. nerve to lateral pterygoid D. masseteric nerve E. A and B Show answer Correct Answer: A 178. The mandibular nerve exits the cranial cavityby way of the A. foramen magnum B. foramen ovale C. foramen rotundum D. foramen hallucidum E. foramen spinosum Show answer Correct Answer: B 179. What is the innervation of the msucle which lies immediately superficial to the anterior belly of the digastric A. mylohyoid nerve B. facial nerve C. hypoglossal nerve D. transverse cervical nerve E. none of the above are correct Show answer Correct Answer: B 180. Which of the following does not contribute to the formation of the cerebral arterial circle (of Willis)?

A. posterior cerebral artery B. posterior communicating artery C. anterior cerebral artery D. anterior communicating artery E. middle communicating artery Show answer Correct Answer: E 181. Choose the one false statement concerning the scalp. A. the scalp has innervation from V1 and V2 B. the scalp has innervation from V1 and V3 C. the spinal nerves to the scalp are from both ventral and dorsal primary rami D. the spinal nerves to the scalp are only from anterior primary rami E. the scalp receives motor innervation from the facial nerve Show answer Correct Answer: D 182. The buccinator muscle is innervated by A. a buccal branch of the mandibular nerve B. a buccal branch of the facial nerve C. a buccal branch of the maxillary nerve D. a buccal branch of the hypoglossal nerve E. none of the above Show answer Correct Answer: B 183. The ansa cervicalis is formed by the ventral roots of A. C3, 4, 5 B. C2, 3, 4 C. C1, 2, 3 D. none of the above Show answer Correct Answer: C 184. In a patient, the eyelid was drooping and the pupil dilated. Which nerve could be involved in this lesion? A. oculomotor nerve B. trochlear nerve C. abducens nerve D. long ciliary nerve E. frontal nerve Show answer Correct Answer: A 185. Which of the following nerve is not a branch of the ophthalmic division (VI) of the trigeminal nerve? A. supratrochlear nerve

B. lacrimal nerve C. short ciliary nerve D. long ciliary nerve E. nasociliary nerve Show answer Correct Answer: C 186. The ganglia that is found on the medial side of the mandibular trunk of the trigeminal nerve receives its preganglionic parasympathetic fibers from the A. chorda tympani nerve B. facial nerve C. vagus nerve D. trigeminal nerve E. glossopharyngeal nerve Show answer Correct Answer: E 187. The boundaries of the carotid triangle are the A. sternomastoid, omohyoid, and trapezius B. sternomastoid, omohyoid, and clavicle C. sternomastoid, omohyoid, and sternohyoid D. sternomastoid, omohyoid, and posterior belly of digastric E. none of the above Show answer Correct Answer: D 188. The bone of the skull which contains the foramen ovale is the A. sphenoid bone B. ethmoid bone C. frontal bone D. temporal bone E. zygomatic bone Show answer Correct Answer: A 189. The cell bodies of the parasympathetic preganglionic nerve fibers to the ciliary muscle of the accomodation are located in the A. thoracic spinal cord segments B. superior cervical ganglion C. brain D. ciliary ganglion E. facial nerve Show answer Correct Answer: C 190. Which of the following cranial nerves is not a part of the cranial parasympathetic system?

A. vagus nerve B. glossopharygeal nerve C. oculomotor nerve D. trigeminal nerve E. facial nerve Show answer Correct Answer: D 191. The two vessels which are directly joined by the superior petrosal sinus are the A. inferior petrosal and cavernous sinuses B. sphenoparietal and transverse sinuses C. sigmoid and superior sagittal sinuses D. cavernous and transverse sinuses E. superior sagittal and inferior petrosal sinuses Show answer Correct Answer: D 192. The artery off the thyrocervical trunk which passes medially over the first portion of the vertebral artery is the A. suprascapular B. transverse cervical C. inferior thyroid D. internal thoracic E. deep cervical Show answer Correct Answer: C 193. The ocular muscle on whose superior surface the frontal nerve is situated has the following action A. elevation of the eyeball B. elevation of the upper eyelid C. temporal rotation of the eyeball D. nasal rotation of the eyeball E. adduction of the eyeball Show answer Correct Answer: B 194. The collateral circulation between the carotid system and the subclavian system would take place through which matching set of arteries? (Pick the best obvious answer_ A. occipital and posterior arteries B. lingual and superior thyroid arteries C. lingual and facial arteries D. vertebral and inferior thyroid arteries E. superior thyroid and inferior thyroid arteries Show answer Correct Answer: E

195. Of the following structures listed below, which one would not be endangered by a surgeon operating on the parotid gland for a tumor? A. branches of the auriculotemporal nerve B. facial nerve C. lingual nerve D. external carotid artery E. retromandibular vein Show answer Correct Answer: C 196. Which cervical spinal nerves give rise to the motor nerve over which the suprascapular artery passes to enter the posterior triangle of the neck? A. C2 and C3 B. C1, C2, and C3 C. C2, C3, C4, and C5 D. C3, C4, and C5 E. C6, C7, and C8 Show answer Correct Answer: D 197. Into what larger vessel does the vein usually empty which drains the inferior pole of the thyroid gland? A. internal jugular vein B. brachiocephalic vein C. subclavian vein D. external jugular vein E. vertebral vein Show answer Correct Answer: B 198. The nerve that is responsible for sensory innervation to the cornea is via the A. short ciliary nerve B. oculomotor nerve C. long ciliary nerve D. supratrochlear nerve E. anterior ethmoidal nerve Show answer Correct Answer: C 199. The name of the bone that the internal carotid artery enters to reach the intercranial cavity is the A. frontal bone B. occipital bone C. sphenoid bone D. temporal bone E. maxillary bone Show answer Correct Answer: D

200. A 44 year old woman finds a bump in the axillary tail of her right breast. She subsequently has a mammogram. A carcinoma is detected. The physician's record states that an irregular mass was felt in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast at the ten o'clock position, approximately 2 cm from the areola. The following statements are TRUE, EXCEPT: A. Interference with the lymphatic drainage of the breast may have occurred in the right axillary region B. Lymphatic vessels may have carried cancer cells from the breast to the right axillary lymph nodes C. Malignant cells from the right axillary lymph nodes may have dislodged and entered the venous system primarily through the thoracic duct D. The breast cancer may have produced a leatherlike, thickened appearance of the overlying skin E. If surgical procedures require partial removal of the breast (i.e., lumpectomy) in the right axillary region, the lateral cutaneous branches of the 4th through 6th intercostal nerves may be damaged Show answer Correct Answer: C 201. The following statements are TRUE regarding muscles of the thoracic wall, EXCEPT: A. The serratus anterior muscle is paralyzed when the long thoracic nerve is injured B. Damage to the medial pectoral nerve causes paralysis of both the pectoralis major and minor muscles C. The pectoralis minor muscle is a useful surgical landmark for structures in the axilla because its attachment to the coracoid process forms a "bridge" superficial to the axillary vessels and brachial plexus D. Respiration is adversely affected when the dorsal rami that innervate the serratus posterior superior muscles are severed E. The distal attachment of the subclavius muscle is on the inferior surface of the clavicle where the subclavius provides some protection to the subclavian artery when the clavicle fractures Show answer Correct Answer: D 202. When a physician inserts a hypodermic needle through an intercostal space to remove fluid from the pleural cavity (i.e., thoracocentesis), the needle is inserted inferior to the rib to avoid damage to the intercostal nerves and vessels A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 203. The xiphisternal joint is an important clinical landmark because it is a midline marker for the upper limit of the liver, the central tendon of the diaphragm, and the inferior border of the heart A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 204. Rib counting along the anterior chest wall in physical examinations starts with the second pair of ribs adjacent to the easily palpable sternal angle (i.e., angle of Louis) A. True B. False Show answer

Correct Answer: A 205. The following are TRUE statements regarding the thoracic apertures, EXCEPT: A. From an anatomical standpoint, the superior thoracic aperture is synonymous with the thoracic inlet B. The superior thoracic aperture is bounded anteriorly by the superior border of the manubrium C. The posterior landmark of the inferior thoracic aperture is the 12th thoracic vertebra D. The superior thoracic aperture is much more spacious than the inferior thoracic aperture E. The esophagus passes through both the superior and inferior thoracic apertures Show answer Correct Answer: D 206. The following statements are TRUE regarding the intrinsic back muscles, EXCEPT: A. Their nerve supply comes from the dorsal rami of spinal nerves B. The transversospinal muscle group contains the multifidus muscle bundles that normally span 5-7 vertebrae C. The rotatores are best developed in the thoracic region D. The intermediate layer of intrinsic back muscles consists of the erector spinae muscle group, the chief extensor of the vertebral column E. Acting unilaterally, the erector spinae muscles laterally bend and rotate the torso to the side of the contracting muscles Show answer Correct Answer: B 207. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding regional characteristics of the vertebral column: A. The circumference of the vertebral foramen is greatest in the thoracic region B. The spinous processes of lumbar vertebrae are long, thin, and point inferiorly C. Primary curvatures of the adult vertebral column are seen in the thoracic and sacral regions D. Transverse foramen are normally present in C7 and T1 vertebrae E. All of the statements above are true Show answer Correct Answer: C 208. Lower back pain is often a result of protusion of a nucleus pulposus posterolaterally where the anulus fibrosis is relatively thin and not covered by the posterior longitudinal ligament A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 209. The following statements are TRUE regarding abnormal curvatures of the vertebral column, EXCEPT: A. Kyphosis is an accentuation of the secondary cervical curvature B. Scoliosis is often a result of a difference in the length of the lower limbs C. Obesity can cause lower back pain and lordosis because of the increased weight of the abdominal contents (i.e., "potbelly") D. Kyphosis can result in elderly patients from erosion of the body of one or more vertebrae E. Scoliosis is abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column

Show answer Correct Answer: A 210. The following muscles attach to the transverse processes of the vertebrae, EXCEPT the: A. Levator scapula muscle B. Rhomboid major muscle C. Semispinalis muscle D. Levator costarum muscle E. Splenius cervicus muscle Show answer Correct Answer: B 211. The following are TRUE statements regarding the cervical vertebrae, EXCEPT: A. C7 is called the vertebra prominens B. The atlas has no spinous process C. A distinguishing feature of the axis is the blunt toothlike dens (odontoid process) D. The spinous processes of C3-C6 are bifid E. The transverse processes lack foramena Show answer Correct Answer: E 212. A 46 year old male is diagnosed with congestive heart failure resulting from cardiac tamponade (i.e., excessive pericardial fluid in the pericardial cavity). The tamponade is due to fluid leakage from the pericardial capillaries. Contributions of fluid may arise from all of following arteries, EXCEPT the: A. Pericardiophrenic arteries B. Musculophrenic arteries C. Esophageal arteries D. Superior phrenic arteries E. None of the above may have contributed fluid Show answer Correct Answer: E 213. Pain from the pericardium is often conveyed by the phrenic nerves to the skin of the ipsilateral supraclavicular region (top of shoulder on the same side) A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 214. Congenital abnormalities of the interatrial septum (i.e., atrial septal defects) are most often due to incomplete closure of the _______________: A. Fossa ovalis B. Coronary sinus C. Ductus arteriosis D. Foramen ovale E. Inferior vena cava

Show answer Correct Answer: D 215. A patient presents himself to the emergency room with severe angina (i.e., chest pain). Upon cardiac catherization, it is found that he has a signficant occlusion in his right coronary artery, just distal to the right sinus of the aortic valve. His collateral circulation is minimal. The following arteries may have reduced blood flow, EXCEPT the: A. Right (acute) marginal artery B. Atrioventricular nodal artery C. Posterior interventricular artery D. Sinuatrial nodal artery E. Anterior interventricular artery Show answer Correct Answer: E 216. Regarding the chambers of the normal heart (i.e., atria and ventricles), the following structures are matched with their specific chamber. Select the DISCORDANT pair: A. Thick myocardium - Left ventricle B. Conus arteriosus (infundibulum) - Right ventricle C. Coronary sinus - Right atrium D. Septal papillary muscle - Left ventricle E. Crista terminalis - Right atrium Show answer Correct Answer: D 217. The following statements about the thoracic duct are TRUE, EXCEPT: A. It drains lymph from the entire head and neck B. It carries lymph centrally to the bloodstream C. It may enter the left subclavian vein D. It may enter the left internal jugular vein E. It starts in the abdominal cavity as a dilation called the cisterna chyli Show answer Correct Answer: A 218. When examining a normal aortic angiogram, all of the following are TRUE, EXCEPT: A. The left common carotid artery arises from the aortic arch B. The brachiocephalic trunk divides into the right common carotid and right subclavian arteries C. The right internal thoracic artery arises from the right subclavian artery D. The left subclavian artery arises from the aortic arch E. None of the above are true statements Show answer Correct Answer: E 219. All of the following are direct branches of the thoracic aorta, EXCEPT the: A. Posterior intercostal arteries B. Anterior intercostal arteries C. Esophageal arteries D. Superior phrenic arteries

E. Some of the bronchial arteries Show answer Correct Answer: B 220. When obstruction of the inferior vena cava occurs, the azygos vein offers an alternative means of venous drainage to the heart A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 221. The following statements are TRUE regarding the vessels of the superior mediastinum, EXCEPT: A. The right brachiocephalic vein is over twice as long as the left brachiocephalic vein B. The superior vena cava returns blood to the right atrium from all the structures superior to the diaphragm with the exception of the heart and lungs C. The usual branches of the arch of the aorta include the brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid artery, and the left subclavian artery D. The ligamentum arteriosum passes from the root of the left pulmonary artery to the inferior surface of the arch of the aorta E. The superior vena cava is located to the right of the trachea Show answer Correct Answer: A 222. An aneurysm in the arch of the aorta could affect all of the following structures, EXCEPT the: A. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve B. Left vagus nerve C. Left subclavian artery D. Left common carotid artery E. Hemiazygos vein Show answer Correct Answer: E 223. The following structures are located in the posterior mediastinum, EXCEPT the: A. Esophagus B. Trachea C. Thoracic aorta D. Hemiazygos vein E. Thoracic duct Show answer Correct Answer: B 224. The subdivision of the nervous system that is involved with the innervation of skeletal muscles and the conscious senses of hot, cold, pain, and touch is the ___________ nervous system: A. Central B. Special Sensory C. Peripheral

D. Autonomic E. Motor Show answer Correct Answer: C 225. Concerning spinal nerves, select the DISCORDANT pair: A. Cervical nerves: 7 pairs B. Thoracic nerves: 12 pairs C. Lumbar nerves: 5 pairs D. Sacral nerves: 5 pairs E. Coccygeal nerves: 1 pairs Show answer Correct Answer: A 226. Select the FALSE statement about the autonomic nervous system A. It is the visceral motor system of the body B. It innervates smooth muscle, the sinuatrial node of the heart, and glands C. The efferent nerve fibers and ganglia are organized into sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions D. Conduction of impulses from the CNS to the effector organ involves only one neuron in both divisions E. The sympathetic division mediates the so-called fright, fight, flight responses Show answer Correct Answer: D 227. The __________ are prolonged from the pia mater, penetrate through the arachnoid mater, and attach to the inner suface of the dura mater along its lateral aspects A. Subdural trabeculae B. Denticulate ligaments C. Epidural trabeculae D. All of the above E. None of the above Show answer Correct Answer: B 228. The neurovascular bundle within each intercostal space lies: A. Between the external and internal intercostal muscles B. Deep to all three layers of intercostal muscles C. Between the innermost and internal intercostal muscles D. Superficial to all three layers of intercostal muscles E. Cannot be punctured by a needle Show answer Correct Answer: C 229. Which one of the following statements about lumbar (spinal) puncture to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is FALSE? A. Palpation of the lumbar spines and iliac crests is done to aid placement of the needle B. The needle pierces the ligamentum flavum

C. The needle usually is inserted inferior to the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra D. The needle tip pierces the dura mater E. The needle pierces the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine Show answer Correct Answer: E 230. Splanchnic nerves are: A. Mainly preganglionic parasympathetic fibers B. Mainly preganglionic sympathetic fibers C. Mainly special visceral sensory fibers D. All of the above E. None of the above Show answer Correct Answer: B 231. The following statements are TRUE regarding radiographs, EXCEPT: A. Bone is more radiolucent (black) than fat (white) B. In an AP radiograph, X-rays traverse the patient from anterior (A) to posterior (P) C. CT scans show transverse radiographic images displayed as if the viewer is standing at a supine patient's feet D. The standard view of the thorax is posteroanterior (i.e., PA) E. Most radiological examinations are performed in at least two projections at right angles to one another Show answer Correct Answer: A 232. With paralysis of the latissimus dorsi muscle (i.e., due to accidental ablation of the thoracodorsal ventral rami during surgery in the inferior axially region), the patient is unable to raise their trunk as occurs during climbing (pulling one's self up by the arms) A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 233. To test the function of the trapezius muscle and the spinal acessory nerve (cranial nerve XI), the patient attempts to raise their shoulders as a physician presses down on their shoulders A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 234. The following statements are TRUE regarding the surface anatomy of the back and anterior thoracic wall, EXCEPT: A. The posterior median line is a vertical line along the tips of the spinous processes of the vertebrae B. The anterior axillary line is formed by the border of the latissimus dorsi C. The scapular lines cross the inferior angles of the scapulae, parallel to the posterior median lines D. The sternum lies subcutaneously in the anterior median line

E. The sternal angle is formed at the junction of the manubrium with the body of the sternum Show answer Correct Answer: B 235. The thoracolumbar fascia covers the erector spinae muscles in the lumbar region of the back and serves as an attachment for the latissimus dorsi muscle A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 236. Of the following statements about the phrenic nerves, which is INCORRECT? A. They arise from the cervical plexus B. They provide motor and sensory innervation to the diaphragm C. They provide sensory innervation to the pericardium D. They course posterior to the hilum (root) of each lung E. Irritation is one source of hiccups Show answer Correct Answer: D 237. A child is chewing gum which accidentally falls into her trachea. The gum is more likely to fall into the right main bronchus because it is wider, shorter, and more vertical than the left main bronchus A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 238. Of the following statement regarding the pleurae, which statement is TRUE? A. Air enters the right and left pleural cavities following a pneumothorax to the left pleural sac B. A pneumothorax is uncommon following wounds to the neck because the cervical pleura is completely protected by bones of the thoracic inlet C. The parietal pleura closely invests the lungs D. The visceral pleura and mediastinal portion of the parietal pleura are continuous at the root of the lung and form the pulmonary ligament E. None of the above statements are true Show answer Correct Answer: D 239. When examining the bronchi with a bronchoscope, the carina is not a useful internal anatomic landmark for the orifices of the main bronchi A. True B. False Show answer

Correct Answer: B 240. The following statements are TRUE regarding the pulmonary circulation, EXCEPT: A. Bronchial arteries supply blood for nutrition to structures comprising the root of the lungs B. The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium C. In the left lung, the pulmonary artery enters the hilum posterior and inferior to the main bronchus D. The left bronchial arteries usually arise from the thoracic aorta E. The pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs Show answer Correct Answer: C 241. Regarding the bronchi, select the DISCORDANT pair: A. Left superior lobe - 5 segmental bronchi B. Left main bronchus - passes superior to arch of the aorta C. Respiratory bronchioles - give rise to alveolar ducts D. Right main bronchus - posterior to the pulmonary artery at the hilum of the right lung E. Right middle lobe - 2 segmental bronchi Show answer Correct Answer: B 242. The structures of the superficial perineal space (pouch) include all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. Bulbourethral glands in the male B. Superficial transverse perineal muscles in both sexes C. Ischiocavernosus muscles in both sexes D. Greater vestibular glands in the female E. Bulbospongiosus muscles in both sexes Show answer Correct Answer: A 243. The greater splanchnic nerves contribute mainly to the: A. Superior hypogastric plexus B. Aorticorenal ganglion C. Renal plexus D. Celiac ganglion E. Inferior mesenteric ganglion Show answer Correct Answer: D 244. Select the WRONGLY matched statement concerning abdominal vessels. A. Lesser curvature of the stomach: left gastric artery B. Ascending colon: right colic artery C. Superior rectal vein: portal venous system D. Left renal vein: superficial to the abdominal aorta E. Pancreas: inferior mesenteric artery Show answer Correct Answer: E

245. Normally, the ovarian and testicular veins have specific drainage patterns. Of the following statements, which is CORRECT? A. The right ovarian vein drains into the right renal vein B. The left testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava C. The left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein D. The right testicular vein drains into the right renal vein E. The right and left ovarian or testicular veins drain into the same vessel Show answer Correct Answer: C 246. One of the following structures is NOT retroperitoneal in the abdomen. Which structure? A. Cecum B. Pancreas C. Third part of the duodenum D. Left kidney E. Right adrenal gland Show answer Correct Answer: A 247. The following statements describing the vermiform appendix are correct, EXCEPT it: A. Originates from the cecum where the three taenia coli muscles meet B. Has a mesentery C. May have a variable location around the cecum D. Is normally intraperitoneal E. Is supplied by the middle colic artery Show answer Correct Answer: E 248. Pain arising from an abdominal viscus is characterized by all of the following signs and symptoms, EXCEPT: A. The pain is dull B. The pain is very localized (focal) C. The pain radiates to the part of the body served by somatic sensory fibers associated with the same spinal cord segment which receives visceral sensory input from the affected viscus D. The pain may be very severe E. The afferent (sensory) fibers may be carried to the spinal cord by sympathetic or parasympathetic nerves Show answer Correct Answer: B 249. Of the following structures, which is NOT a principal support of the uterus? A. Transverse cervical (cardinal) ligaments B. Obturator internus muscle C. Levator ani muscles D. Uterosacral ligaments E. Broad ligaments

Show answer Correct Answer: B 250. During a digital rectal exam, all of the following structures can be palpated through the wall of the rectum, EXCEPT the: A. Prostate gland in the male B. Descending colon in both sexes C. Posterior wall of the vagina in the female D. Enlarged seminal vesicles in the male E. Hollow of the sacrum in both sexes Show answer Correct Answer: B 251. The major duodenal papilla is normally found within the wall of the: A. Superior part of the duodenum B. Ascending part of the duodenum C. Descending part of the duodenum D. Horizontal part of the duodenum E. Duodenal bulb Show answer Correct Answer: C 252. The spinal segments that usually contribute to the pudendal nerve are: A. S2, S3, S4 B. L4, L5, S1 C. L5, S1 S2 D. S1 E. S5 Show answer Correct Answer: A 253. The pelvis of the male and female typically has structural differences. In this regard, identify the statement that is FALSE. A. The pelvic inlet is usually transversely heart-shaped in the male but round or oval in the female B. The pelvic outlet is usually larger in the female C. The sacrum is usually shorter, wider and flatter in the female D. The false pelvis is usually deeper in the female E. The ischial tuberosities are usually father apart in the female Show answer Correct Answer: D 254. The following statements about the kidneys are correct, EXCEPT: A. They are separated from the renal fascia by a layer of perirenal fat B. The right kidney is usually lower than the left kidney C. The left and right renal veins are the same length D. They have lymphatic drainage into the lumbar (aortic) lymph nodes E. Urine within the renal pelvis drains directly into the ureters

Show answer Correct Answer: C 255. The medial umbilical folds on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall are caused by the: A. Urachus B. Inferior epigastric vessels C. Obliterated umbilical veins D. Obliterated umbilical arteries E. Round ligaments of the uterus Show answer Correct Answer: D 256. As chief resident of obstetrics and gynecology, it is your task to teach third-year medical students the relations of the vagina. Of the following relations of a normal vagina, which is INCORRECT? A. The anterior part is in contact with the bladder and urethra B. The posterior part is in contact with the rectum C. The anterior fornix is the deepest of the 4 fornices D. The posterior fornix is related to the rectouterine pouch (of Douglas) E. The posterior fornix is the most common site of perforation of the fornices by a surgical instrument placed through the vagina Show answer Correct Answer: C 257. Which statement about the ureters is FALSE? A. They course posterior to the common iliac arteries B. In the male, they cross beneath the ductus deferens ("water under the bridge") C. Their blood supply comes from the renal, common iliac and superior vesicle arteries D. In the female, they cross beneath the uterine arteries ("water under the bridge") E. Urine is propelled down the ureters by peristaltic contractions of their smooth muscle Show answer Correct Answer: A 258. Your patient is in acute distress, showing all the symptoms of acute hemorrhagic shock. After careful evaluation, you suspect a duodenal ulcer has perforated the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum. Hemorrhage is probably from which of the following arteries? A. Splenic artery B. Superior mesenteric artery C. Gastroduodenal artery D. Left gastric artery E. Left hepatic artery Show answer Correct Answer: C 259. The abdominal aorta has paired and unpaired branches. Of the following branches, which is unpaired? A. Celiac artery B. Inferior phrenic artery

C. Renal artery D. Middle adrenal artery E. Gonadal artery Show answer Correct Answer: A 260. Select the INCORRECTLY matched pair concerning lymphatic drainage for the following organs. A. Cervix of the uterus: superficial inguinal lymph nodes B. Prostate gland: internal iliac lymph nodes C. Lower part of the anal canal: inguinal lymph nodes D. Ovaries: lumbar (aortic/preaortic) lymph nodes E. Testes: lumbar (aortic/preaortic) lymph nodes Show answer Correct Answer: A 261. Which one of the following portions of the urinary bladder is INCORRECTLY matched with an associated structure? A. Apex of the bladder: obliterated urachus B. Neck of the bladder in a male: prostate gland C. Inferior angle of the trigone: urethral orifice D. Blood supply to the bladder: branches of the internal pudendal arteries E. Micturition (urination): parasympathetic nerves cause contraction of the smooth muscle (detrusor muscle) of the bladder Show answer Correct Answer: D 262. The celiac trunk: A. Is the arterial supply to the embryonic midgut B. Is accompanied by the celiac vein C. Arises from the lateral surface of the abdominal aorta, at about the level of the first lumbar vertebra D. Gives rise to the splenic, left gastric and common hepatic arteries E. Is surrounded by the aorticorenal ganglion Show answer Correct Answer: D 263. Of the following statements about the rectum, which is TRUE? A. It receives its blood supply from only one artery B. It is an important anastomotic site for the portal and caval (systemic) venous systems C. Its smooth muscle is innervated by somatic nerves D. It has no circular smooth muscle in its wall E. It is surrounded by peritoneum along its entire length (about 12 cm long, normally) Show answer Correct Answer: B 264. The upper left quadrant of the abdomen contains the following organs, or parts of organs, EXCEPT the:

A. Left suprarenal gland B. Spleen C. Head of the pancreas D. Splenic flexure of the colon E. Left kidney Show answer Correct Answer: C 265. The ejaculatory duct opens into the: A. Membranous urethra B. Prostatic urethra C. Spongy urethra D. Lateral lobes of the prostate gland E. Duct of the bulbourethral glands Show answer Correct Answer: B 266. The fourth segment of the duodenum becomes intraperitoneal at the duodenojejunal flexure. This flexure is held in place by one of the following structures. Which structure? A. Greater omentum B. Hepatoduodenal ligament C. Lesser omentum D. Suspensory ligament (of Trietz) E. Lienorenal ligament Show answer Correct Answer: D 267. In the living, which of the following normally is the LEAST mobile structure? A. Transverse colon B. Pancreas C. Greater omentum D. Vermiform appendix E. Stomach Show answer Correct Answer: B 268. Answer options A-E match abdominal structures and their corresponding vertebral level. Which matched pair is INCORRECT? A. Caval hiatus in the diaphragm: T8 B. Esophageal hiatus in the diaphragm: T10 C. Aortic hiatus in the diaphragm: T12 D. Umbilicus: L4/L5 E. Pyloris: L4 Show answer Correct Answer: E

269. Of the following structures, which is NOT contained in or directly attached to the broad ligaments of the uterus? A. Ovarian ligaments B. Fallopian tubes C. Round ligaments of the uterus D. Uterine arteries E. Superior rectal arteries Show answer Correct Answer: E 270. A sharp blow to the side of the head, over the temporal region, is frequently associated with rupture of the principal artery that supplies the meninges. What is the name of the artery? A. Basilar artery B. Anterior cerebral artery C. Cavernous sinus D. Middle meningeal artery E. Posterior meningeal artery Show answer Correct Answer: D 271. The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the: A. Occipital artery B. Maxillary artery C. Sphenopalatine artery D. Internal carotid artery E. Lingual artery Show answer Correct Answer: B 272. The dural venous sinuses are located between which matched structures listed below? A. Neurocranium and the periosteal layer of the dura mater B. Periosteal and meningeal layers of the arachnoid mater C. Carotid sheath D. Meningeal and periosteal layers of the dura mater E. Pia mater and the brain Show answer Correct Answer: D 273. Identify the drainage pattern for the dural venous sinuses that is NOT direct (sequential): A. Superior sagittal sinus to the confluens of sinuses B. Inferior sagittal sinus to the straight sinus C. Transverse sinus to the sigmoid sinus D. Sigmoid sinus to the origin of the internal jugular vein E. Superior sagittal sinus to the cavernous sinus Show answer Correct Answer: E

274. For what anatomical reason can infections in the skin of the face, scalp or diploic bone of the neurocranium reach the dural venous sinuses? A. Valves do not exist in the veins of the face, scalp or diploic bone and they communicate directly with the dural venous sinuses B. Arteries to the face, scalp and diploic bone communicate directly with arteries to the brain C. Capillaries of the face, scalp and diploic bone communicate directly with capillaries of the brain D. Arteries to the face, scalp and diploic bone communicate directly with veins from the brain E. Valves exist in the arteries of the face, scalp or diploic bone that function to direct blood to the dural venous sinuses Show answer Correct Answer: A 275. Identify the DISCORDANT pair of matched cranial nerves and foramina: A. Olfactory nerve: cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone B. Optic nerve: optic foramen canal of the sphenoid bone C. Facial nerve: internal auditory meatus of the temporal bone D. Hypoglossal nerve: jugular foramen of the occipital bone E. Facial nerve: stylomastoid foramen of the temporal bone Show answer Correct Answer: D 276. Of the following statements about the ventricular system of the brain, which is FALSE? A. It consists of the two lateral ventricles and the midline third and fourth ventricles B. Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by the choroid plexus; the latter being located in the superior sagittal sinus C. Cerebrospinal fluid drains from the fourth ventricle through one median aperture and paired lateral apertures into the subarachnoid space known as the cisterna magna D. Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within and around the brain and spinal cord E. The main site of cerebrospinal fluid absorption into the venous system is through the arachnoid granulations Show answer Correct Answer: B 277. The internal acoustic meatus contains nerves that have all of the following functions, EXCEPT: A. Parasympathetic B. General sensory C. Special sense D. Motor E. Sympathetic Show answer Correct Answer: E 278. The ophthalmic artery uses which of the following foramina to reach the eye? A. Optic canal B. Foramen spinosum C. Superior orbital fissure D. Foramen rotundum E. Inferior orbital fissure

Show answer Correct Answer: A 279. Some fibers from the hypoglossal nerve have cell bodies that synapse in the submandibular ganglion. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 280. Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT pass through the cavernous sinus? A. III B. IV C. VI D. V3 E. V2 Show answer Correct Answer: D 281. Which of the following statements about the glossopharyngeal nerve is FALSE? A. Some of its fibers pass through the foramen ovale to enter the infratemporal fossa B. Some of its fibers pass through the middle ear C. The lesser petrosal nerve contains pre-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers that are destined for the otic ganglion D. A sign of deficit in this nerve is loss of taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue E. This nerve probably contributes to the gag reflex because it provides some general sensory innervation to portions of the pharynx Show answer Correct Answer: D 282. A tumor compressing structures in the pterygopalatine fossa would affect all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Blood supply to the nasal cavity B. Blood supply to the soft palate C. General sensory innervation to the incisor teeth D. Parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland E. Taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue Show answer Correct Answer: E 283. Care must be taken during surgery of the parotid gland so as not to damage the: A. External carotid artery B. Chorda tympani nerve C. Greater petrosal nerve D. Main trunk of V3 E. Levator labii alequae nasi muscle

Show answer Correct Answer: A 284. Choose the INCORRECT combination of connections. A. Facial vein, inferior ophthalmic vein, pterygoid venous plexus B. Frontal sinus, middle meatus C. Middle meatus, lacrimal canaliculi D. Chorda tympani, submandibular ganglion E. V3, mental nerve Show answer Correct Answer: C 285. Inability to shift the mandible to the left would indicate paralysis of the: A. Right lateral pterygoid muscle B. Left medial pterygoid muscle C. Left lateral pterygoid muscle D. Right medial pterygoid muscle E. Right temporalis muscle Show answer Correct Answer: A 286. The difference in the blood supply between area A and area C is that area A receives blood supply from branches of the external carotid artery whereas area C receives blood supply from branches of the internal carotid artery. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 287. All of the following statements about the superior laryngeal nerve are true, EXCEPT: A. It is a branch of the vagus nerve B. It supplies general sensory innervation to the mucosa above the vocal cords C. Some of its fibers are motor fibers D. One of its branches accompanies the superior laryngeal artery into the larynx E. It supplies the cricoarytenoid muscle Show answer Correct Answer: E 288. The vocal ligaments: A. Are formed by the superior free edge of the cricothyroid ligament B. Are formed by the junction of the aryepiglottic and thyroepiglottic ligaments C. Are formed by the inferior free edge of the thyrohyoid ligament D. Contain the cricothyroid muscle E. Are attached to the superior margin of the epiglottis Show answer

Correct Answer: A 289. The thyroarytenoid muscles: A. Abduct the vocal cords B. Adduct the vocal cords C. Are innervated by the external laryngeal nerves D. Relax the vocal cords E. All of the above are true Show answer Correct Answer: D 290. The malleus: A. Is in direct contact with the oval window B. Is in direct contact with the tympanic membrane C. Lies between the incus and the oval window D. Provides a point of insertion for the stapedius muscle E. None of the above Show answer Correct Answer: B 291. Nerves associated with the middle ear and tympanic membrane include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Branches of the facial nerve B. Branches of the glossopharyngeal nerve C. Branches of V1 D. Branches of V3 E. Sympathetic fibers Show answer Correct Answer: C 292. A child with a history of a cold and sore throat, a bulging, inflamed tympanic membrane and a severe ear ache probably suffers from an infection of the middle ear (otitis media). What is the most probable path that the infection took to arrive in the middle ear? A. External acoustic meatus, through tympanic membrane, middle ear B. Mastoid air cells, through tympanic membrane, middle ear C. Cavernous sinus, internal acoustic meatus, inner ear, through oval window, middle ear D. Pharynx, pharyngotympanic tube, through tympanic membrane, middle ear E. Pharynx, pharyngotympanic tube, middle ear Show answer Correct Answer: E 293. If the surgical approach is from inside the mouth, what muscle would you have to go through to reach the main portion of the lingual artery? A. Styloglossus muscle B. Hyoglossus muscle C. Geniohyoid muscle D. Mylohyoid muscle E. Anterior belly of the digastric muscle

Show answer Correct Answer: B 294. The palatoglossal arch contains a muscle that is innervated by what cranial nerve? A. XII B. X C. V3 D. IX E. VII Show answer Correct Answer: B 295. Ligation of the maxillary artery will completely cut off the blood supply to the pharynx. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 296. Post-ganglionic sympathetic fibers innervating the dilator pupillae muscle begin in the: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Superior cervical ganglion C. Brain D. Trigeminal ganglion E. Spinal cord ( T1 - L2 ) Show answer Correct Answer: B 297. The oculomotor nerve innervates all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. Superior rectus muscle B. Ciliary muscle C. Medial rectus muscle D. Lateral rectus muscle E. Sphincter pupillae muscle Show answer Correct Answer: D 298. General sensory innervation of the cornea: A. Is supplied by V3 B. Is supplied by V1 C. Is supplied by the oculomotor nerve D. Is supplied by the facial nerve E. Enters the eyeball exclusively through short ciliary nerves Show answer Correct Answer: B

299. The sphincter pupillae muscle: A. Contracts when it receives signals from post-ganglionic sympathetic fibers B. Contracts when it receives signals originating from the otic ganglion C. Contracts when it receives post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers that originate in the ciliary ganglion D. Dilates when it receives signals from the facial nerve E. Is an extension of the sclera of the eyeball Show answer Correct Answer: C 300. Aqueous humor: A. Is the only source of nutrients for the ciliary body B. Is the only source of nutrients for the iris C. Is produced in the anterior chamber D. Replaces spent vitreous humor E. Is the only source of nutrients for the lens of the eye Show answer Correct Answer: E 301. Inability of a patient to gaze directly to the right with both eyes simultaneously could indicate deficits in which of the following combinations: A. The medial rectus muscle of the right eye and cranial nerve VI on the left side B. The lateral rectus muscle of the left eye and the inferior rectus muscle of the right eye C. The medial rectus muscle of the right eye and cranial nerve IV on the left side D. The lateral rectus muscle of the right eye and cranial nerve III on the left side E. Left cranial nerve VI and right cranial nerve V Show answer Correct Answer: D 302. A spinal cord injury at the level of C6 will: A. Eliminate innervation to the main extensor of the humerus B. Eliminate innervation to the extensor muscles of the arm and forearm C. Spare the innervation to the dorsal interosseous muscles D. Paralyze the levator scapulae muscle E. Eliminate all innervation to the deltoid muscle Show answer Correct Answer: A 303. Extension of the humerus would be severely limited by damage to the: A. Long thoracic nerve B. Thoracodorsal nerve C. Upper subscapular nerve D. Suprascapular nerve E. Medial pectoral nerve Show answer Correct Answer: B

304. The superficial vein that terminates in the femoral vein within the femoral sheath is the: A. Lesser saphenous vein B. Sural vein C. Obturator vein D. Great saphenous vein E. Tibial vein Show answer Correct Answer: D 305. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve receives innervation from spinal levels: A. L1, L2 B. L2, L3 C. L3, L4 D. L4, L5 E. L5, S1 Show answer Correct Answer: B 306. All of the following muscles cross multiple joints, EXCEPT the: A. Brachioradialis muscle B. Extensor digitorum muscle C. Extensor carpi radialis longus muscle D. Extensor pollicis longus muscle E. Flexor carpi ulnaris muscle Show answer Correct Answer: A 307. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the musculocutaneous nerve? A. It receives contributions from spinal cord levels C5 - C7 B. It is a terminal branch of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus C. It pierces the coracobrachialis muscle D. It terminates as the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve E. It innervates all of the flexors of the humerus Show answer Correct Answer: E 308. The major motor sign in paralysis of the quadriceps femoris muscle is: A. Extension of the leg B. Flexion of the leg C. Flexion of the thigh D. Adduction of the thigh E. Abduction of the thigh Show answer Correct Answer: A

309. Innervation of the teres major muscle is accomplished by a nerve that emerges through the quadrangular space. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 310. Identify the correct superficial-to-deep sequence, from the lateral aspect of the knee. A. Skin, tibial collateral ligament, lateral meniscus B. Skin, fibular collateral ligament, popliteus muscle tendon, lateral meniscus C. Skin, popliteus muscle tendon, tibial collateral ligament, lateral meniscus D. Skin, popliteus tendon, fibular collateral ligament, lateral meniscus E. Skin, anterior cruciate ligament, popliteus muscle tendon Show answer Correct Answer: B 311. Which statement is FALSE about the brachioradialis muscle? A. It originates in the anterior compartment of the arm B. It shares an action with the brachialis muscle C. The nerve that innervates it is a terminal branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus D. It shares an action with the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle E. It shares innervation with the triceps brachii muscle Show answer Correct Answer: D 312. The anular ligament in the forearm: A. Spans the space between the ulna and radius B. Encircles the head of the ulna C. Encircles the styloid process of the radius D. Goes from the olecranon fossa to the olecranon process E. Encircles the head of the radius Show answer Correct Answer: E 313. The nerve that passes through the obturator foramen: A. Is the nerve to the obturator internus muscle B. Innervates the anterior compartment of the thigh C. Arises from spinal levels L1 to L2 D. Innervates the medial compartment of the thigh E. Contributes to the cutaneous innervation of the gluteal region Show answer Correct Answer: D 314. Damage to the lateral cord of the brachial plexus would have all of the following effects, EXCEPT: A. Loss of motor innervation to the anterior compartment of the arm B. Decrease in motor innervation to the anterior compartment of the forearm

C. Elimination of motor innervation to the hypothenar compartment muscles D. Loss of innervation to rotator cuff muscles E. Sensory deficit over the shoulder region Show answer Correct Answer: A 315. All of the muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert onto the: A. Fibula B. Talus C. Calcaneus D. First metatarsal E. Cuboid Show answer Correct Answer: C 316. Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the humerus and DOES NOT have an attachment to the scapula? A. Coracobrachialis muscle B. Pectoralis minor muscle C. Biceps brachii muscle D. Pectoralis major muscle E. Deltoid muscle Show answer Correct Answer: D 317. The medial and lateral femoral circumflex arteries are usually direct branches off of the: A. Obturator artery B. Popliteal artery C. Profunda femoris artery D. External iliac artery E. First perforating artery Show answer Correct Answer: C 318. All of the following are true about the superior gemellus muscle, EXCEPT that it: A. Is to the femur what a rotator cuff muscle is to the humerus B. Does not emerge from the pelvis C. Shares innervation with the piriformis muscle D. Lies between the piriformis and the obturator internus muscles E. Receives innervation from spinal levels L5, S1, S2 Show answer Correct Answer: C 319. The adductor part of the adductor magnus muscle is innervated by the same nerve as the tensor fascia lata muscle. A. True

B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 320. The inferior gluteal artery is a direct branch of the external iliac artery. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 321. All of the muscles innervated by the deep fibular nerve: A. Evert the foot B. Dorsiflex the foot C. Invert the foot D. Plantarflex the foot E. None of the above Show answer Correct Answer: B 322. The short head of the biceps femoris muscle is innervated by: A. The same nerve as the pectineus muscle B. The same nerve as the piriformis muscle C. The common fibular part of the sciatic nerve D. The tibial part of the sciatic nerve E. The same portion of the sciatic nerve as innervates the semitendinosus muscle Show answer Correct Answer: C 323. The glenohumeral joint is a relatively unstable joint. Factors that work to stabilize the joint include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. A fibrocartilage labrum deepens the articular surface B. The teres major muscle participates in the rotator cuff muscles C. The subscapularis muscle participates in the rotator cuff muscles D. The coracoacromial ligament prevents dislocation superiorly E. The deltoid muscle helps prevent dislocation inferiorly Show answer Correct Answer: B 324. The common palmar digital arteries are direct branches of an arch that is formed mainly by the ulnar artery. A. True B. False Show answer

Correct Answer: A 325. The fibularis brevis muscle inserts into: A. Calcaneus B. Navicular C. Base of first metatarsal D. Proximal phalanx E. Base of the fifth metatarsal Show answer Correct Answer: E 326. Consider that the inferior gluteal nerve is severed by a knife just as the nerve emerges from the greater sciatic foramen. Which of the following statements is true? A. The adductor part of the adductor magnus muscle would be affected B. Abduction of the thigh would be eliminated C. Muscles in the posterior compartment of the leg would be paralyzed D. Adduction of the thigh would be eliminated E. Extension of the thigh would be the action most affected Show answer Correct Answer: E 327. The obturator internus muscle: A. Emerges from the pelvis through the obturator foramen B. Emerges from the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen C. Emerges from the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen D. Shares innervation with the obturator externus E. Abducts the thigh Show answer Correct Answer: B 328. The superior gluteal nerve innervates all of the following structures, EXCEPT the: A. Tensor fascia lata muscle B. Gluteus minimus muscle C. Quadratus femoris muscle D. Gluteus medius muscle E. Hip joint Show answer Correct Answer: C 329. The common fibular nerve: A. Gives rise to the nerve that supplies the anterior compartment leg muscles B. Branches to supply the intrinsic muscles of the foot C. Is closely approximated to the neck of the tibia D. Innervates the muscles that plantar flex the foot E. While part of the sciatic nerve, innervates nothing in the posterior thigh Show answer

Correct Answer: A 330. The anastomotic blood supply around the scapula originates, either directly or indirectly, from all of the following arteries, EXCEPT the: A. Subclavian artery B. Axillary artery C. Subscapular artery D. Transverse cervical artery E. Brachial artery Show answer Correct Answer: E 331. The following statements are true about muscles in the posterior compartment of the forearm, EXCEPT: A. They produce the actions of extension of the wrist and hand, and supination of the forearm B. They share innervation with the posterior compartment of the arm C. They contribute to adduction of the thumb D. They contribute to abduction of the thumb E. The most superficial group of muscles in this compartment all have their proximal attachment from the humerus Show answer Correct Answer: C 332. Which of the following muscles acts on two joints? A. Vastus medialis muscle B. Sartorius muscle C. Adductor magnus muscle D. Piriformis muscle E. Adductor longus muscle Show answer Correct Answer: B 333. Branches of the brachial artery will participate in anastomotic circulation around the: A. Elbow joint B. Scapula C. Glenohumeral joint D. Acromioclavicular joint E. Head of the humerus Show answer Correct Answer: A 334. The inferior gluteal nerve will be spared any deficit if a spinal cord injury occurs at or below the level of: A. L4 B. L5 C. S1 D. S2 E. S3

Show answer Correct Answer: E 335. The fibular artery: BAD QUESTION: A & D ARE RIGHT A. Is the blood supply to the lateral compartment of the leg B. Is a branch of the popliteal artery C. Accompanies the tibial nerve into the foot D. Sends communicating branches to the lateral compartment of the leg E. Is a branch of the anterior tibial artery Show answer Correct Answer: A 336. Which of the following arteries does not participate in the blood supply of the hip joint? A. Medial femoral circumflex artery B. Lateral femoral circumflex artery C. Femoral artery D. Obturator artery E. Pudendal artery Show answer Correct Answer: E 337. The supraspinatus muscle is responsible for: A. Adduction of the humerus B. Abduction of the humerus above the horizontal plane C. Lateral rotation of the humerus D. Initiation of abduction of the humerus E. Superior rotation of the scapula Show answer Correct Answer: D 338. The deep fibular nerve gives no cutaneous innervation to the lower limb. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 339. The lateral thoracic artery: A. Is a branch of the subclavian artery B. Is a branch of the brachial artery C. Accompanies the long thoracic nerve to the serratus anterior muscle D. Accompanies the thoracodorsal nerve to the serratus anterior muscle E. Emerges through the triangular space Show answer Correct Answer: C

340. The femoral artery is contained in what compartment of the femoral sheath? A. Lateral compartment B. Intermediate compartment C. Medial compartment D. Deep compartment E. Superficial compartment Show answer Correct Answer: A 341. All of the following statements are true regarding the lumbrical muscles of the hand, EXCEPT: A. They arise from the tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle B. They are four in number C. They assist in extension of the middle and distal phalanges D. They are all innervated by the median nerve E. They attach onto the proximal phalanges Show answer Correct Answer: D 342. Which of the following is a muscle that acts to directly depress the glenoid fossa? A. Pectoralis minor muscle B. Serratus anterior muscle C. Pectoralis major muscle D. Latissimus dorsi muscle E. Supraspinatus muscle Show answer Correct Answer: A 343. The anterior fascial compartment of the leg contains the: A. Superficial peroneal nerve B. The fibular artery C. Extensor hallucis muscle D. Peroneus brevis muscle E. Flexor digitorum longus muscle Show answer Correct Answer: C 344. A patient is able to flex and adduct her wrist but unable to flex the distal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. In addition, there is weakness in flexing the metacarpal phalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits as well as extending those same digits. The injury is: BAD QUESTION A & B ARE RIGHT A. To the ulnar nerve where it passes between the pisiform and hamate bones (Guyon's canal) B. To the ulnar nerve as it passes around the medial epicondyle of the humerus C. To the ulnar nerve as it passes around the lateral epicondyle of the humerus D. To the radial nerve as it passes around the lateral epicondyle of the humerus E. To the median nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel Show answer

Correct Answer: B 345. With maximal flexion of the vertebral column, scoliosis is revealed by abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 346. The secondary lumbar curvature becomes prominent when an infant begins to walk and stand up. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 347. A male patient, 46 years of age, has signficant lower back pain in the lumbosacral area. After ordering a sagittal MRI of the area, you see that he has ruptured an intervertebral disc between L5/S1. The rupture is a result of the nucleus pulposus protruding through the anulus fibrosus posteriorly and pressing on the L5 spinal roots/nerve. Which ligament is touched by the ruptured nucleus pulposus first? A. Anterior longitudinal ligament B. Ligamentum flavum C. Posterior longitudinal ligament D. Interspinous ligament E. Supraspinous ligament Show answer Correct Answer: C 348. Vertebrae can be identified by surface palpation, radiography, computerized tomography, or magnetic resonance imaging. Using these techniques, vertebrae in each region of the vertebral column can usually be identified because of special characteristics that include all of the following, EXCEPT A. C7 vertebra has a long spinous process that forms a prominence under the skin and is therefore easily palpated when the neck is flexed B. The anterior projecting edge of the body of S1 vertebra is the sacral promontory, an important obstetrical landmark C. The spinous processes of most thoracic vertebrae are long and slope posteroinferiorly, protecting structures within the vertebral canal D. L5 vertebra has a massive vertebral body that supports the majority of upper body weight E. Lower thoracic vertebrae are characterized by a large spinal canal that provides room for the spinal cord enlargement that sends innervation to the upper limbs Show answer Correct Answer: E 349. Back strain refers to some degree of stretching or microscopic tearing of muscle fibers or ligaments of the back. The muscles usually involved are those producing movements of the lumbar intervertebral joints, especially the columns of the erector spinae muscle group. The following statements are true regarding the erector spinae muscle group, EXCEPT A. The common attachment inferiorly for the erector spinae muscle group as a whole includes the posterior part of the iliac crest, posterior sacrum, sacroiliac ligaments, the sacral median crest, and the lumbar spinous processes

B. The group is innervated by dorsal primary rami C. The erector spinae muscle group divides into three columns that include the iliocostalis, longissimus, and semispinalis muscles D. Acting bilaterally, the group extends the vertebral column and head E. Acting unilaterally, the group laterally bends/rotates the vertebral column Show answer Correct Answer: C 350. Identify the TRUE statement regarding the transversospinal muscle group A. The multifidis spans 4-6 vertebrae B. The multifidis is the most superficial of the three layers C. They are innervated by ventral primary rami D. The rotatores attach to the mamillary processes of lumbar vertebrae E. The rotatores attach to the transverse processes of inferior vertebrae and spinous processes of superior vertebrae, spanning 1-2 vertebral segments Show answer Correct Answer: E 351. All of the following muscles attach to the ribs, EXCEPT the A. Latissimus dorsi muscle B. Serratus posterior superior muscle C. Semispinalis muscle D. Iliocostalis muscle E. Levatores costarum muscles Show answer Correct Answer: C 352. During surgical operation on scapular lymph nodes, the thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8) is accidentally injured. What muscle is most likely affected? A. Serratus posterior inferior muscle B. Latissimus dorsi muscle C. Serratus anterior muscle D. Levator scapulae muscle E. Longissimus muscle Show answer Correct Answer: B 353. During a carotid endarterectomy, the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) is damaged. Lesions to the spinal accessory nerve cause weakness and atrophy of which of the following muscles? A. Trapezius muscle B. Levator scapulae muscle C. Rhomboid major muscle D. Splenius cervicus muscle E. None of the above muscles are affected Show answer Correct Answer: A

354. All of the following are true statements regarding the serratus posterior inferior muscle, EXCEPT A. It depresses the lower ribs B. It is innervated by intercostal nerves C. It attaches to the spinous processes of the last two thoracic vertebrae and the first two lumbar vertebrae D. It lies deep to the latissimus dorsi muscle E. It is categorized as an intrinsic back muscle Show answer Correct Answer: E 355. The dorsal scapular nerve (C5) affects the actions of the rhomboid muscles. If the dorsal scapular nerve is injured on one side, paralyzing the rhomboid muscles, the scapula on the injured side is located further from the midline than the scapula on the normal side. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 356. All of the following muscles attach to the ligamentum nuchae (nuchal ligament), EXCEPT the A. Splenius capitis muscle B. Rhomboid minor muscle C. Trapezius muscle D. Serratus posterior interior muscle E. All of the above muscles attach to the ligamentum nuchae (nuchal ligament) Show answer Correct Answer: D 357. The first rib is clinically important because so many structures cross and attach to it. These structures include all of the following, EXCEPT the A. Subclavian vessels (artery and vein) B. Subclavius muscle C. Anterior and middle scalene muscles D. Serratus anterior muscle E. Pectoralis minor muscle Show answer Correct Answer: E 358. The pectoralis minor muscle is a useful anatomical and surgical landmark for structures in the axilla. With the coracoid process, the pectoralis minor forms a "bridge" under which vessels and nerves pass to the arm. All of the following structures pass under this "bridge", EXCEPT the A. Axillary artery B. Axillary vein C. Brachial plexus D. Cephalic vein E. All of the above pass under this "bridge" Show answer

Correct Answer: D 359. The sternal angle is a very important clinical landmark because it is easily palpable, lies adjacent to the left and right 2nd ribs, and is located at the level of the intervertebral disc between T4 and T5. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 360. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the breasts is of practical importance in treating carcinoma of the breast (breast cancer). Impaired lymph drainage often presents clinically on mammograms as a thickened, leatherlike appearance of the skin in areas surrounding the carcinoma. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 361. All of the following statements are true regarding the female breast, EXCEPT A. They rest on the deep fascia of the pectoralis major and serratus anterior muscles B. The areolae contain numerous sebaceous glands that enlarge during pregnancy and secrete an oily substance that provides a protective lubricant for the nipple C. The suspensory ligaments firmly attach the mammary gland to the dermis D. Their blood supply is partially delivered by branches (anterior intercostals) of the internal thoracic artery E. The retromammary space prevents movement of the breast on the pectoral fascia Show answer Correct Answer: E 362. The thoracic duct begins in the abdomen as a sac, the cisterna chyli, and ascends through the thorax and enters the junction of the right internal jugular vein and right subclavian vein. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 363. Thoracentesis is insertion of a hypodermic needle into the pleural cavity to drain accumulated fluid. During this procedure, the needle must pass through the intercostal muscles and parietal pleura into the pleural cavity. From superficial to deep, identify the correct order of structures the needle must pass before it enters the pleural cavity. A. External intercostal muscle - Innermost intercostal muscle - Internal intercostal muscle - Parietal pleura B. External intercostal muscle - Internal intercostal muscle - Parietal pleura - Innermost intercostal muscle C. Parietal pleura - Innermost intercostal muscle - Internal intercostal muscle - External intercostal muscle D. External intercostal muscle - Internal intercostal muscle - Innermost intercostal muscle - Parietal pleura E. None of the above are the correct order Show answer Correct Answer: D

364. In Dr. Elstad's case presentation, the patient experienced hoarseness due to an impaired left recurrent laryngeal nerve. All of the following are true regarding the anatomical course of this nerve, EXCEPT A. It is derived from the left vagus nerve B. Its ascends to the larynx in the groove between the esophagus and trachea C. It branches from the left vagus nerve as that nerve curves medially at the inferior border of the aortic arch D. It can be impaired in patients who have bronchogenic carcinoma E. It courses anterior to the ligamentum arteriosum Show answer Correct Answer: E 365. The pleural sacs are separate. Therefore, a pneumothorax may collapse one lung without affecting the other lung. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 366. All of the following statements regarding the lungs and their airways are true, EXCEPT the A. Right main bronchus is wider, shorter, and runs more vertically than the left main bronchus B. At the hilum, the bronchus is located centrally and posteriorly in the right and left lungs C. The right lung has 3 lobes and the left lung has 2 lobes D. The pulmonary ligament hangs inferiorly from the pleural sleeve around the lung root E. The lingula is located on the superior lobe of the right lung Show answer Correct Answer: E 367. A 64 year old female presents with a pulmonary thromboembolism (obstruction of a pulmonary artery due to a blood clot). After a pulmonary angiogram, it was determined that the blood clot occluded the apical segmental pulmonary artery that supplies the superior lobe of her left lung. The blood clot traveled to this segmental pulmonary artery from a leg vein. Track the appropriate course of the blood clot to the obstructed artery. A. Inferior vena cava - right atrium - tricuspid valve - right ventricle - pulmonary trunk - left pulmonary artery - left superior lobar artery - left apical segmental artery B. Inferior vena cava - right atrium - mitral valve - right ventricle - pulmonary trunk - left pulmonary artery - left superior lobar artery - left apical segmental artery C. Inferior vena cava - left atrium - mitral valve - left ventricle - pulmonary trunk - left pulmonary artery left superior lobar artery - left apical segmental artery D. Inferior vena cava - right atrium - tricuspid valve - right ventricle - pulmonary trunk - left pulmonary artery - left bronchial artery - left apical segmental artery E. Coronary sinus - right atrium - tricuspid valve - right ventricle - pulmonary trunk - left pulmonary artery - left superior lobar artery - left apical segmental artery Show answer Correct Answer: A 368. Pericardiocentesis (drainage of pericardial fluid) may be used as a treatment for cardiac tamponade (heart compression). During this procedure, a needle may be placed just inferior to the left border of the

infrasternal angle and passed superoposteriorly into the pericardial cavity to avoid puncturing the lung A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 369. Knowledge of auscultatory areas of the chest are critical when listening to valves of the heart and its major outflow tracts (arteries). Identify the DISCORDANT pair. A. Pulmonary valve = 2nd left intercostal space (parasternal) B. Aortic valve = 2nd left intercostal space (parasternal) C. Mitral valve = 4th to 5th left intercostal space just medial to the midclavicular line D. Tricuspid valve = 4th to 5th left intercostal space (parasternal) E. All of the above are true matches Show answer Correct Answer: B 370. All of the following are branches of the right coronary artery, EXCEPT the A. SA nodal artery (~60% of the time) B. AV nodal artery C. Posterior interventricular artery D. Right marginal artery E. Circumflex artery Show answer Correct Answer: E 371. Identify the TRUE statement regarding the venous drainage of the heart A. The coronary sinus drains into the left atrium B. The anterior cardiac veins begin over the anterior surface of the left ventricle, cross over the atrioventricular groove (coronary groove), and directly drain into the left atrium C. The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus and this vein starts at the apex of the heart and ascends with the anterior ventricular branch of the left coronary artery D. The middle and small cardiac veins drain most of the areas supplied by the left coronary artery E. All of the above statements are true Show answer Correct Answer: C 372. A patient presents with a clinically significant atrial septal defect (ASD). The ASD is most likely due to incomplete closure of the following structure. A. Foramen ovale B. Ligamentum arteriosum C. Ductus arteriosis D. Sinus venarum E. Coronary Sinus Show answer Correct Answer: A

373. A patient presents with a right bundle branch block due to ischemia (lack of blood flow) to the AV nodal artery. Identify the structure that carries part of the right bundle branch of the AV bundle A. Pectinate muscles B. Anterior papillary muscle of the left ventricle C. Moderator band (septomarginal trabecula) D. Crista terminalis E. Chordae tendineae Show answer Correct Answer: C 374. Because arterial blood pressure is higher in the systemic than the pulmonary circulation, the papillary muscles are larger and the myocardium is thicker in the left ventricle when compared to the right ventricle A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 375. The following arteries are direct branches of the thoracic aorta, EXCEPT the A. Left bronchial artery B. Superior phrenic arteries C. Esophogeal arteries D. Pericardial arteries E. Anterior intercostal arteries Show answer Correct Answer: E 376. The fact that the phrenic nerves pass anterior to the roots of the lungs provides an important means of distinguishing them from the vagus nerves, which pass posterior to the roots of the lungs. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 377. The left brachiocephalic vein is over twice as long as the right brachiocephalic vein and it passes from the left to the right side, passing posterior to the three major branches of the arch of the aorta. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 378. Computerized tomography (CT) scans show radiographic images of the body that resemble transverse anatomical sections. The scan is oriented so it appears the way an examiner would view it when standing at the foot of the bed and looking toward a supine person's head. A. True B. False

Show answer Correct Answer: A 379. The central nervous system includes all of the following components, EXCEPT the A. Spinal nerves B. Dura mater C. Spinal cord D. Cerebrospinal fluid E. Brain Show answer Correct Answer: A 380. Select the correct number of paired spinal nerves: A. Cervical = 7 B. Thoracic = 12 C. Lumbar = 6 D. Sacral = 4 E. Coccygeal = 2 Show answer Correct Answer: B 381. Sensory fibers course through the ventral roots of the spinal cord A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 382. During lumbar puncture to withdraw (cerebrospinal fluid), the needle's course will be through which sequence of layers/spaces, from superficial to deep? A. Subarachnoid space, arachnoid mater, subdural space, dura mater, ligamentum flavum, skin B. Arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, subdural space, dura mater, ligamentum flavum, skin C. Skin, ligamentum flavum, dura mater, subdural space, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space D. Skin, ligamentum flavum, subdural space, dura mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space E. Ligamentum flavum, skin, dura mater, subdural space, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space Show answer Correct Answer: C 383. Preganglionic sympathetic fibers arise from which region of the central gray area of the spinal cord? A. C1 - C8 B. C1 - T1 C. C1 - L1 or L2 D. L1 - L5 E. T1 - L1 or L2 Show answer

Correct Answer: E 384. Parasympathetic fibers course through the vagus nerves A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 385. Select the INCORRECT statement about the lymphatic drainage of the following pelvic or perineal organs: A. Lymphatic drainage generally follows the path of an organ's blood supply B. The cervix of the uterus has most of its lymph drainage to the internal iliac lymph nodes C. The prostate gland has most of its lymph drainage to the internal iliac lymph nodes D. The ovaries have most of their lymph drainage to the aortic lymph nodes E. The testes have most of their lymph drainage to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes Show answer Correct Answer: E 386. Which of the following structures is NOT a specialization of the external abdominal oblique aponeurosis? A. Inguinal ligament B. Lacunar ligament C. Intercrural fibers D. Internal spermatic fascia E. Medial and lateral crura of the superficial inguinal ring Show answer Correct Answer: D 387. Compared to the jejunum, the ileum: A. Few lymphoid nodules B. Has a thicker wall C. Has more plicae circulares D. Has few, large arterial arcades E. None of the above Show answer Correct Answer: E 388. Which of the following statements regarding the spleen is INCORRECT? A. It lies in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen B. It is the largest single mass of lymphoid tissue in the body C. The splenic artery arises directly from the aorta in most individuals D. It is surrounded by peritoneum (intraperitoneal organ) E. The splenic vein contributes to the formation of the portal vein Show answer Correct Answer: C

389. Which of the following structures is NOT found in the superficial space of the perineum of the female? A. Transverse perinei superficialis muscles B. Bulbourethral glands C. Greater vestibular glands D. Ischiocavernosus muscles E. Vagina Show answer Correct Answer: B 390. Which statement is INCORRECT about the vermiform appendix? A. It has its own mesentery B. It is a blind outpocketing of the cecum C. It is vascularized by an end-artery D. It opens into the cecum above the ileocecal junction in the adult E. It is located at the union of the 3 teniae coli muscles Show answer Correct Answer: D 391. Imagine that you are assisting with the surgical removal of a gallbladder. The surgeon asks you to describe its key features. Your list probably would include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. The fundus of the gallbladder usually lies at the tip of the ninth costal cartilage, in the midclavicular line B. The body of the gallbladder lies in contact with the visceral surface of the liver C. The neck of the gallbladder is tapered, narrow, and twisted D. The cystic duct of the gallbladder courses independently to the duodenum E. The gallbladder is supplied by the cystic artery Show answer Correct Answer: D 392. Your patient is in acute distress, showing all the symptoms of acute shock. After careful evaluation you suspect a duodenal ulcer has perforated the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum. Hemorrhage is probably from which of the following arteries? A. Splenic artery B. Superior mesenteric artery C. Gastroduodenal artery D. Left gastric artery E. Right hepatic artery Show answer Correct Answer: C 393. The pelvic diaphragm is formed by the: A. Levator ani and pyriformis muscles B. Piriformis and internal obturator muscles C. Levator ani and coccygeus muscles D. Obturator internus and coccygeus muscles E. Levator ani and obturator internus muscles Show answer

Correct Answer: C 394. Of the following arteries, which does NOT provide branches to the pancreas? A. Left gastric artery B. Gastroduodenal artery C. Splenic artery D. Superior mesenteric artery Show answer Correct Answer: A 395. Which statement is true about hepatic veins? A. They enter the porta hepatis B. In cross section of the liver, they are always grouped with an hepatic artery and hepatic duct C. They drain blood into the portal vein D. They carry oxygenated blood like the pulmonary veins E. All statements are false Show answer Correct Answer: E 396. The celiac ganglia: A. Are sympathetic ganglia B. Receive preganglionic sympathetic fibers from the greater splanchnic nerves C. Are traversed by vagal (parasympathetic) fibers, but which do not synapse in the ganglia D. Give rise, through synapses, to postganglionic sympathetic fibers that are distributed to the abdominal foregut E. All of the above Show answer Correct Answer: E 397. Of the fornices of the vagina, which one extends the most superiorly, and also is closest to the rectouterine pouch and rectum? A. Left fornix B. Right fornix C. Anterior fornix D. Posterior fornix E. None of the above Show answer Correct Answer: D 398. All of the following are true about the inferior epigastric artery, EXCEPT: A. It anastomoses with the superior epigastric artery B. It gives rise to the cremaster artery C. It arises from the femoral artery D. Inguinal hernias protruding medial to it are referred to as "direct" E. It forms the lateral umbilical fold Show answer

Correct Answer: C 399. The principal motor and sensory innervation of the perineum is provided by branches from the: A. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve B. Pudendal nerve C. Superior gluteal nerve D. Femoral nerve E. Genitofemoral nerve Show answer Correct Answer: B 400. All of the following statements about the urinary bladder are true, EXCEPT: A. Its musculature generally is known as the detrusor muscle B. It receives its blood supply from the superior vesicle and inferior vesicle arteries (and from the vaginal artery in the female) C. Its venous blood is drained by the prostatic plexus of veins in the male D. It is an extraperitoneal organ E. Its parasympathetic nerve supply causes the bladder wall to contract and its internal sphincter to contract Show answer Correct Answer: E 401. Which structure contains the voluntary sphincter of the urethra? A. Urogenital diaphragm B. Pelvic diaphragm C. Wall of the bladder at its neck D. Thoracoabdominal diaphragm E. None of the above Show answer Correct Answer: A 402. Digital rectal examination of the prostate gland can reveal all of the following features about the prostate gland, EXCEPT: A. Softness when normal B. It is not palpable C. Firmness when hypertrophied D. Warmth when inflamed E. Tenderness when inflamed Show answer Correct Answer: B 403. Which of the following structures is retroperitoneal? A. Pancreas B. Spleen C. Transverse colon D. Sigmoid colon E. Vermiform appendix

Show answer Correct Answer: A 404. The perineal body is formed by the fusion of the: A. Superficial transverse perineal muscles B. Posterior edge of the deep transverse perineal muscle C. External anal sphincter D. Bulbospongiosus (bulbovestibuli) muscle(s) E. All of the above Show answer Correct Answer: E 405. An important portal - systemic anastomosis for venous drainage is: A. Superior rectal and middle/inferior rectal veins B. Esophageal vein and left gastroepiploic vein C. Superior mesenteric vein and right renal vein D. Internal iliac and external iliac veins E. None of the above Show answer Correct Answer: A 406. Regional lymph nodes that drain the uterus include all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. Lumbar lymph nodes B. External iliac lymph nodes C. Internal iliac lymph nodes D. Sacral lymph nodes E. Femoral lymph nodes Show answer Correct Answer: E 407. Identify the FALSE statement about the peritoneal cavity: A. It has an outpocketing called the lesser sac or bursa B. It is bounded superiorly by the diaphragm C. It is a closed sac in the male D. It is a closed sac in the female E. Pain from its parietal layer is focal and sharp Show answer Correct Answer: D 408. Which statement about the abdominal mesenteries is INCORRECT? A. They are sometimes called "ligaments" B. They usually transmit arteries, veins, nerves, and lymphatics C. The falciform ligament is a remnant of the ventral mesentery D. The greater omentum extends from the stomach to the transverse colon E. The lesser omentum extends from the stomach to the spleen Show answer

Correct Answer: E 409. Which of the following contains the ovarian artery and vein? A. Ovarian ligament B. Broad ligament of the uterus C. Mesosalpinx D. Suspensory ligament of the ovary E. None of the above Show answer Correct Answer: D 410. Of the following statements about the duodenum, which is FALSE? A. It is subdivided into four parts B. It is anterior to lumbar vertebrae 1-3 C. The bile duct and main pancreatic duct enter the anterior wall of its second (descending) part D. Its blood supply is from branches from both the celiac artery and superior mesenteric artery E. Duodenal ulcers are commonly located in the duodenal ampulla or cap (first part) Show answer Correct Answer: C 411. A deep penetrating knife wound to the gluteal region that cuts the pudendal nerve in the pudendal canal will result in all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Decreased ability to voluntarily control urine flow B. Decreased ability to voluntarily control fecal flow C. Decreased sensation to the penis or clitoris D. Decreased secretion by the seminal vesicles E. Decreased sensation to the anal triangle Show answer Correct Answer: D 412. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the right kidney? A. It is lower (more inferior) than the left kidney B. Its renal vein is longer than that of the left kidney C. Its renal artery is longer than that of the left kidney D. It is related to the liver E. Its inferior pole is usually palpable by bimanual examination in the right lumbar region Show answer Correct Answer: B 413. Select the INCORRECT statement about the uterus: A. In adult women, it is normally anteverted and anteflexed B. The fundus is located at the uterine opening into the vagina C. A principal support is the transverse cervical (cardinal) ligaments D. It is covered by the broad ligament E. Its blood supply is primarily derived from the uterine arteries Show answer

Correct Answer: B 414. Identify the INCORRECT statement about teniae coli: A. They are longitudinal bands of muscle B. They begin at the base of the vermiform appendix, where it is atached to the cecum C. They are 3 in number D. They are skeletal muscle E. They are responsible for the haustra Show answer Correct Answer: D 415. Identify the INCORRECT regional location among the following list of organs: A. Liver -- Right upper quadrant B. Pyloric sphincter -- Transpyloric plane C. Vermiform appendix -- Umbilical region D. Spleen -- Left upper quadrant E. Sigmoid colon -- Left lower quadrant Show answer Correct Answer: C 416. Severing (cutting) the spermatic cord immediately after it emerges from the superficial inguinal ring will interrupt all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. Cremaster reflex B. Cremaster artery C. Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve D. Ductus deferens E. Iliohypogastric nerve Show answer Correct Answer: E 417. Dissection of the posterior wall of the abdomen and pelvis will show that one of the following relationships of the ureter is false. Identify that FALSE relationship. A. It is retroperitoneal throughout its course in both sexes B. It enters the pelvis by crossing anterior to the iliac vessels in both sexes C. It is closely related to the lateral fornix of the vagina in the female D. It is narrowed at its entrance into the bladder in both sexes E. It passes above (superior to) the ductus deferens in the male Show answer Correct Answer: E 418. The mesosalpinx has what structure between its layers? A. Ovary B. Uterine tube C. Uterus D. Vaginal artery E. Round ligament of the uterus

Show answer Correct Answer: B 419. The vagal trunks enter the abdomen through the: A. Esophageal hiatus B. Inferior vena cava hiatus C. Aortic hiatus D. Medial arcuate ligament E. Lateral arcuate ligament Show answer Correct Answer: A 420. The perineum is divided into two triangles by a line connecting the: A. Anterior superior iliac crests B. Pubic tubercles C. Inferior pubic rami D. Sacral promontory to the pubic symphysis E. Ischial tuberosities Show answer Correct Answer: E 421. Select the DISCORDANT pair: A. Adrenal glands -- Superior mesenteric artery B. Abdominal portion of the foregut -- Celiac artery C. Midgut -- Superior mesenteric artery D. Hindgut -- Inferior mesenteric artery E. Uterus -- Anterior division of the internal iliac artery Show answer Correct Answer: A 422. The free edge of the lesser omentum contains the structures that pass to the porta hepatis. Which of the following is NOT included among those structures? A. Common hepatic artery B. Bile duct C. Portal vein D. Lymphatics and autonomic nerves E. Main pancreatic duct Show answer Correct Answer: E 423. The inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm is called the: A. Superficial perineal membrane B. Colles' fascia C. Scarpa's fascia D. Deep perineal membrane E. Fascia lata

Show answer Correct Answer: A 424. A patient complains that she has dull pain in her belly, pointing to her waist. Upon questioning, you determine that the pain is in her pelvis, along the midline from the pubic bone in front to the sacrum in back. Which organ or organs, from the options provided, would be reasonable causes of your patient's pain? A. Vermiform appendix B. Sigmoid colon, left ureter C. Spleen D. Transverse colon, pylorus of the stomach, duodenum, pancreas E. Urinary bladder, uterus/cervix/vagina, rectum Show answer Correct Answer: E 425. The dural venous sinuses are located between two layers of the arachnoid mater. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 426. Septic thrombosis (an infected blood clot) in the cavernous sinus (known as thrombophlebitis of the cavernous sinus) often results in the development of acute meningitis. What is the usual superficial venous connection through which an infected blood clot courses to the cavernous sinus? A. Lingual vein B. Superficial temporal vein C. Facial vein D. Inferior alveolar vein E. Retromandibular vein Show answer Correct Answer: C 427. The cerebral arterial circle (of Willis) is formed by all of the following branches, EXCEPT the A. Superior cerebellar arteries B. Posterior communicating arteries C. Internal carotid arteries D. Anterior cerebral arteries E. Anterior communicating arteries Show answer Correct Answer: A 428. The basilar artery is formed by union of which arteries? A. Internal carotid arteries B. Middle meningeal arteries C. Anterior ethmoidal arteries D. Ophthalmic arteries E. Vertebral arteries

Show answer Correct Answer: E 429. The pterion is an important clinical landmark because it overlies the A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Anterior branches of the middle meningeal artery C. Confluence of sinuses D. Anterior cerebral arteries E. Straight sinus Show answer Correct Answer: B 430. Through which bone of the base of the skull are located the optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and foramen spinosum? A. Frontal bone B. Ethmoid bone C. Sphenoid bone D. Temporal bone E. Occipital bone Show answer Correct Answer: C 431. The neck is divided into two large triangles by which muscle? A. Trapezius muscle B. Strap muscles C. Subclavius muscle D. Sternocleidomastoid muscle E. Anterior scalene muscle Show answer Correct Answer: D 432. Which statement is FALSE about the cervical plexus of nerves? A. The cutaneous branches emerge around the middle of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle B. They arise from ventral rami of C1 to C4 nerves C. The posterior branches are sensory nerves for the anterolateral aspect of the neck and superior part of the thorax D. The anterior branches are motor nerves to the infrahyoid muscles E. The phrenic nerves arise from ventral rami of C1 to C2 nerves exclusively Show answer Correct Answer: E 433. Over which muscle in the neck do the phrenic nerves course? A. Anterior scalene muscles B. Middle scalene muscles C. Posterior scalene muscles D. Sternocleidomastoid muscles

E. Trapezius muscles Show answer Correct Answer: A 434. Which artery is NOT a direct branch of the thyrocervical trunk? A. Suprascapular artery B. Vertebral artery C. Transverse cervical artery D. Inferior thyroid artery E. No answer option provided Show answer Correct Answer: B 435. The carotid sheath extends from the base of the skull to the root of the neck. The inferior part of this sheath contains the: A. Common carotid artery, inferior jugular vein, sympathetic chain B. Common carotid artery, external jugular vein, sympathetic chain C. Internal carotid artery, external jugular vein, vagus nerve D. Internal carotid artery, internal jugular vein, phrenic nerve E. Common carotid artery, internal jugular vein, vagus nerve Show answer Correct Answer: E 436. Boundaries of the anterior triangle of the neck are the A. Inferior border of the mandible, anterior of border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, anterior midline of the neck B. Inferior border of the mandible, anterior border of the omohyoid muscle, and anterior midline of the neck C. Inferior border of the mandible, superior border of the digastric muscle, and anterior midline of the neck D. Inferior border of the mandible, anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, and anterior border of the omohyoid muscle E. Inferior border of the mandible, superior border of the omohyoid muscle, and anterior midline of the neck Show answer Correct Answer: A 437. Direct tributaries of the internal jugular vein in the neck include all of the following, EXCEPT the A. Retromandibular vein B. Lingual vein C. Facial vein D. Superior and middle thyroid veins E. Inferior thyroid vein Show answer Correct Answer: E

438. All of the following structures can be palpated in the neck, EXCEPT the A. Parathyroid glands B. Hyoid bone C. Laryngeal prominence D. Sternoclavicular joint E. Thyroid gland Show answer Correct Answer: A 439. Select the FALSE statement about the sympathetic trunks in the neck. A. They receive no white rami communicantes from cervical spinal nerves B. Their preganglionic fibers arise from the upper thoracic portions of the spinal cord C. They typically have superior, middle and inferior ganglia D. They are contained within the carotid sheath E. They contribute postganglionic fibers to the deep petrosal nerve Show answer Correct Answer: D 440. Identify the CORRECT order of visceral layers of the neck, from superficial to deep. A. Pharynx/esophagus, larynx/trachea, thyroid/parathyroids B. Larynx/trachea, pharynx/esophagus, thyroid/parathyroids C. Thyroid/parathyroids, larynx/trachea, pharynx/esophagus D. Thyroid/parathyroids, pharynx/esophagus, larynx/trachea E. Larynx/trachea, thyroid/parathyroids, pharynx/trachea Show answer Correct Answer: C 441. The bifurcation of the right recurrent laryngeal nerve from the right vagus nerve is lower (more caudal) than the bifurcation of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve from the left vagus nerve. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 442. Thyroidectomy (surgical removal of the thyroid gland) requires special care to preserve one or more of the parathyroid glands. Which statement is FALSE about the parathyroid glands? A. They are essential for life (for calcium regulation) B. They are located on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland C. Most people have 4 parathyroid glands D. The superior parathyroid glands are usually at the level of the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage E. They have separate (unique) arterial and venous supply from that to the thyroid gland Show answer Correct Answer: E 443. Select the INCORRECT statement about the lymphatics/lymph nodes that are located in the neck. A. The thoracic duct typically drains into the junction of the right jugular vein and subclavian vein

B. The thoracic duct drains lymph from all parts of the body, except the right half of the head and neck, and the right upper extremity C. The superficial cervical lymph nodes accompany the external jugular vein D. The deep cervical lymph nodes accompany the internal jugular vein E. Lymph is drained from the thyroid and parathyroid glands Show answer Correct Answer: A 444. The hyoid group of muscles steady or move the hyoid bone and larynx. Identify the CORRECT statement about the hyoid muscles. A. The 4 suprahyoid muscles are the mylohyoid, geniohyoid, stylohyoid, and omohyoid muscles B. The 4 infrahyoid muscles are the sternohyoid, omohyoid, sternothyroid, and digastric muscles C. All of the hyoid muscles (suprahyoid and infrahyoid muscles) are innervated exclusively by the cervical plexus of nerves D. The two bellies of the digastric muscle arise from two separate pharyngeal arches E. The action of all 4 infrahyoid muscles is to steady the hyoid bone and larynx or to depress the hyoid bone and larynx Show answer Correct Answer: D 445. Which of the following nerves is considered purely motor? A. Oculomotor nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Facial nerve D. Trigeminal nerve E. Optic nerve Show answer Correct Answer: B 446. Which cranial nerve has a branch that would be affected by a bone tumor at the stylomastoid foramen? A. VII B. X C. IX D. XII E. V Show answer Correct Answer: A 447. The direct branch of the facial nerve that carries the special sense of taste from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue A. Passes through the superior orbital fissure B. Also carries parasympathetic fibers to the palate C. Exits the skull through the stylomastoid foramen D. Eventually joins with fibers of the inferior alveolar nerve E. Can be injured by erroneous placement of a tympanic membrane shunt Show answer

Correct Answer: E 448. Cessation of parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland (and subsequent chief complaint of dry eye) could result from which of the following? A. Increased pressure in the cavernous sinus B. Compression at the superior orbital fissure C. A tumor in the optic nerve D. Compression at the internal acoustic meatus E. Severing the lingual nerve during 3rd molar surgery Show answer Correct Answer: D 449. The supratrochlear nerve is a terminal branch of what nerve? A. Ophthalmic nerve B. Frontal nerve C. Nasociliary nerve D. Lacrimal nerve E. V2 nerve Show answer Correct Answer: B 450. All of the following are true statements about the auriculotemporal nerve, EXCEPT A. It encircles the middle meningeal artery B. It is a branch of V3 C. Its cutaneous field borders the cutaneous field of V1 D. It has sensory and motor functions E. Its cutaneous field borders the cutaneous field of the lesser occipital nerve Show answer Correct Answer: D 451. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the muscles of facial expression? A. The digastric muscle is a muscle of facial expression B. Some muscles of facial expression are innervated by the long buccal nerve C. They are in the same subcutaneous plane as the platysma muscle D. Some muscles of facial expression get their motor supply by the zygomaticofacial nerve E. All muscles of facial expression are attached to bone Show answer Correct Answer: C 452. Acting together, the lateral pterygoid muscles A. Protrude the mandible B. Retract the mandible C. Close the mandible D. Open the mandible E. Have no effect on the mandible Show answer

Correct Answer: A 453. The mental foramen is found A. In the maxilla B. In the mandible C. In the zygomatic bone D. Immediately inferior to the orbit E. In the infratemporal fossa Show answer Correct Answer: B 454. The cranial meninges receive blood from a direct branch of the maxillary artery. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 455. Branches of the anterior ethmoidal nerve of V1 innervate the nasal cavity. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 456. Which statement is TRUE regarding the parasympathetic innervation to the nose? A. It is supplied by the oculomotor nerve B. Preganglionic fibers exit the cranial cavity through the jugular foramen C. Preganglionic fibers synapse in the pterygopalatine ganglion D. Postganglionic fibers run along with V1 E. There is no need for parasympathetic innervation to the nose Show answer Correct Answer: C 457. To gain access into the frontal sinus via the nasal cavity, one would enter through the A. Sphenoethmoidal recess B. Middle meatus C. Inferior meatus D. Superior meatus E. Nasolacrimal duct Show answer Correct Answer: B 458. All of the following bones contribute to the nasal skeleton, septum or lateral walls, EXCEPT the: A. Ethmoid bone B. Frontal bone C. Maxillary bone

D. Palatine bone E. Zygomatic bone Show answer Correct Answer: E 459. The sphenopalatine artery A. Accompanies the infraorbital nerve to its termination B. Enters the infratemporal fossa through the pterygomaxillary fissure C. Supplies blood to the lateral nasal wall and nasal septum D. Is a terminal branch of the middle superior alveolar artery E. Sends a branch into the pharyngeal canal Show answer Correct Answer: C 460. All of the following bones or bony landmarks are associated with the pharyngeal constrictors, EXCEPT the: A. Pterygoid hamulus B. Mandible C. Maxilla D. Occipital bone E. Greater horn of the hyoid bone Show answer Correct Answer: C 461. When determining if the submandibular duct is blocked, one would look for the duct to empty A. Near the maxillary second molar B. Near the mandibular first molar C. From the incisive foramen D. Near the midline in the anterior aspect of the floor of the mouth E. Into the buccal vestibule near the mandibular ramus Show answer Correct Answer: D 462. Which of the following is associated with the tensor veli palatini muscle? A. The middle pharyngeal constrictor B. The hamulus of the lateral pterygoid plate C. The hamulus of the medial pterygoid plate D. V1 nerve E. The greater petrosal nerve Show answer Correct Answer: C 463. Which statement is TRUE of the muscle contained in the anterior palatal arch? A. It acts upon the pharynx B. It is innervated by the hypoglossal nerve C. It is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve

D. It is considered a muscle of facial expression E. It acts upon the tongue Show answer Correct Answer: E 464. Which statement is TRUE about the lingual artery? A. It is a branch of the facial artery B. It is a branch of the maxillary artery C. It gives rise to the submental artery D. It's branches provide blood supply to the mandibular teeth E. It lies deep to the hyoglossal muscle Show answer Correct Answer: A 465. The lingual nerve supplies which of the following? A. Motor innervation to the mylohyoid muscle B. Taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue C. Motor innervation to the genioglossus muscle D. General sensation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue E. General sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue Show answer Correct Answer: E 466. General sensory innervation to the interior of the tympanic membrane is via the A. Glossopharyngeal nerve B. Vagus nerve C. V3 nerve D. V2 nerve E. Auriculotemporal nerve Show answer Correct Answer: A 467. Tensing of the vocal cords relies entirely upon the vagus nerve for innervation. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 468. Cranial nerves contained in or running through the middle ear have all of the following functions, EXCEPT A. Motor B. Special sensory C. Parasympathetic D. General sensory E. Sympathetic

Show answer Correct Answer: E 469. Which of the following muscles does NOT originate from the common extensor tendon of the forearm? A. Extensor carpi radialis brevis B. Brachialis muscle C. Extensor carpi radialis longus muscle D. Extensor carpi ulnaris muscle E. Extensor digiti minimi muscle Show answer Correct Answer: B 470. Which of the following muscles originates from the common flexor tendon of the forearm? A. Flexor digitorum superficialis muscle B. Flexor digitorum profundus muscle C. Flexor pollicis longus muscle D. Pronator quadratus muscle E. Extensor carpi ulnaris muscle Show answer Correct Answer: A 471. Which of the following muscle combinations will work together to abduct the wrist? A. Pronator teres and brachioradialis muscles B. Palmaris longus and extensor digitorum muscles C. Extensor carpi radialis brevis and flexor carpi radialis muscles D. Extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor carpi ulnaris muscles E. Supinator and extensor pollicis longus muscles Show answer Correct Answer: C 472. Which statement is TRUE regarding adduction of the digits of the hand? A. The palmar interosseous muscles are the sole adductors of the digits B. The lumbrical muscles produce adduction of the digits C. There are two muscles that produce adduction of the thumb D. All of the adductors of the digits take at least part of their attachments from metacarpal bones E. Adduction of the digits will be affected by carpal tunnel syndrome Show answer Correct Answer: D 473. Muscles that act to flex the humerus include all of the following, EXCEPT the A. Coracobrachialis muscle B. Pectoralis major muscle C. Pectoralis minor muscle D. Deltoid muscle E. Biceps brachii muscle

Show answer Correct Answer: C 474. Muscles that attach to the scapula include all of the following, EXCEPT the A. Serratus anterior muscle B. Triceps brachii muscle C. Teres major muscle D. Pectoralis minor muscle E. Pectoralis major muscle Show answer Correct Answer: E 475. Which nerve controls all adduction of the digits of the hand? A. Ulnar nerve B. Median nerve C. Radial nerve D. Upper subscapular nerve E. Musculocutaneous nerve Show answer Correct Answer: A 476. Which of the following nerves is the only nerve originating from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus? A. Ulnar nerve B. Medial pectoral nerve C. Suprascapular nerve D. Lateral pectoral nerve E. Thoracodorsal nerve Show answer Correct Answer: D 477. Which of the following nerves does NOT innervate muscles that abduct the digits? A. Median nerve B. Radial nerve C. Ulnar nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve Show answer Correct Answer: D 478. Damage to the lower subscapular nerve would affect which of the following muscles? A. Teres major muscle B. Teres minor muscle C. Supraspinatus muscle D. Infraspinatus muscle E. Serratus anterior muscle

Show answer Correct Answer: A 479. Severance of the radial nerve in the arm would obliterate extension in the metacarpophalangeal joint of the index finger. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 480. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a spinal cord injury at spinal level C8? A. The brachialis muscle will be paralyzed B. The muscles innervated by the radial nerve that would most likely be affected would be the most proximal ones C. The hypothenar muscles would be completely paralyzed D. Innervation to the deltoid muscle would be affected E. The patient would be unable to flex their humerus Show answer Correct Answer: C 481. The intertubercular groove of the humerus is the location of the A. Tendon of the pectoralis minor muscle B. Tendon of the long head of the triceps brachii muscle C. Tendon of the coracobrachialis muscle D. Tendon of the short head of the biceps brachii muscle E. Tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii muscle Show answer Correct Answer: E 482. The head of the radius articulates with three carpal bones. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 483. The superior ulnar collateral artery is a direct branch of which artery? A. Ulnar artery B. Radial artery C. Brachial artery D. Profunda brachii artery E. Axillary artery Show answer Correct Answer: C

484. The lateral thoracic artery accompanies which nerve? A. Long thoracic nerve B. Thoracodorsal nerve C. Upper subscapular nerve D. Medial pectoral nerve E. Median nerve Show answer Correct Answer: A 485. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the axillary artery? A. It is a continuation of an artery that emerges from between the same two muscles as the brachial plexus in the neck B. It gives rise directly to the circumflex scapular artery C. It emerges through the quadrangular space D. It gives rise to the thyrocervical trunk E. It divides into the radial and ulnar arteries Show answer Correct Answer: A 486. The primary ventral rami of the brachial plexus (ventral rami = roots) A. Emerge from between the middle and posterior scalene muscles B. Are formed from spinal levels C7 to T3 C. Do not give rise to any nerves directly D. Form the trunks of the brachial plexus E. Combine to form the cords of the brachial plexus Show answer Correct Answer: D 487. Which of the following muscles produces the main movement of the proximal radioulnar joint? A. Extensor carpi ulnaris muscle B. Pronator teres muscle C. Triceps brachii muscle D. Brachioradialis muscle E. Brachialis muscle Show answer Correct Answer: B 488. The ulnar collateral ligament secures the ulna to the humerus. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 489. Muscles that strengthen the rotator cuff of the glenohumeral joint include all of the following, EXCEPT the A. Infraspinatus muscle

B. Teres minor muscle C. Supraspinatus muscle D. Subscapularis muscle E. Teres major muscle Show answer Correct Answer: E 490. Which of the following statements is TRUE of the extensor retinaculum of the wrist? A. It is a direct extension of the axillary fascia B. The median nerve runs deep to it C. The tendon of the brachioradialis muscle runs through it D. It contains a compartment for the thenar muscles E. It prevents the tendons of the posterior compartment of the forearm from "bowstringing" when the hand is extended at the wrist Show answer Correct Answer: E 491. The sartorius muscle A. Is a medial rotator of the thigh B. Is innervated by the same nerve as the tensor fascia lata C. Crosses only one joint D. Lies deep to the adductor longus muscle E. Will flex the leg at the knee joint Show answer Correct Answer: E 492. Flexors of the thigh include all of the following, EXCEPT the A. Rectus femoris muscle B. Sartorius muscle C. Vastus medialis muscle D. Tensor fascia lata muscle E. Iliacus muscle Show answer Correct Answer: C 493. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the long head of the biceps femoris muscle? A. It arises from the same point as the gracilis muscle B. It shares innervation with the gracilis muscle C. It crosses two joints D. It will plantar flex the foot at the ankle E. It will extend the leg at the knee Show answer Correct Answer: C 494. Which statement is TRUE regarding muscles of the posterior compartment of the leg? A. All pass deep to the extensor retinaculum

B. All pass deep to the flexor retinaculum C. All of the posterior compartment leg muscles flex the leg D. One of the posterior compartment leg muscles laterally rotates the femur E. All are innervated by the femoral nerve Show answer Correct Answer: D 495. Muscles producing dorsiflexion of the foot include all of the following, EXCEPT the A. Tibialis anterior muscle B. Peroneus tertius muscle C. Peroneus brevis muscle D. Extensor hallucis longus muscle Show answer Correct Answer: C 496. The gluteus medius muscle A. Flexes the thigh at the hip joint B. Extends the thigh at the hip joint C. Attaches to the linea aspera of the femur D. Attaches to the same two bones as the iliacus muscle E. Is completely covered by the gluteus maximus muscle Show answer Correct Answer: D 497. The genitofemoral nerve is a purely sensory nerve. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 498. A deficit in the cutaneous field halfway down the anterior surface of the thigh A. Is due to damage to the sciatic nerve B. Would result from compression of the ventral roots of L5 to S2 C. Would result from damage to a nerve accompanying the artery in the adductor canal D. Could be the result of nerve damage during surgical procedures in the femoral sheath E. Would result from damage to the nerve that innervates the pectineus muscle Show answer Correct Answer: E 499. All of the following statements regarding the femoral nerve are true, EXCEPT A. It innervates muscles that arise from the pubis B. It innervates muscles that arise from the ilium C. It innervates a muscle that adducts the femur D. It innervates all of the muscles that flex the thigh E. It emerges into the leg under cover of the inguinal ligament

Show answer Correct Answer: D 500. The nerve that provides motor supply to the gluteus minimus muscle A. Also innervates a muscle of the anterior compartment of the thigh B. Emerges from the lesser sciatic foramen C. Emerges inferiorly to the piriformis muscle D. Arises from spinal cord levels L2 - L4 Show answer Correct Answer: A 501. The inferior cluneal nerves A. Are branches of the sciatic nerve B. Are branches of the posterior femoral cutaneous nerve C. Are branches of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve D. Supply a cutaneous field on the thigh E. Supply a cutaneous field that borders that of the sural nerve Show answer Correct Answer: B 502. Innervation to the peroneus brevis muscle A. Could be damaged by a fracture of the tibia B. Is by a nerve that is a direct branch of the femoral nerve C. Is by a nerve that is accompanied by an artery in the same compartment D. Is by the same distal nerve that innervates the peroneus tertius muscle E. Could be damaged by a fracture of the neck of the fibula Show answer Correct Answer: E 503. The linea aspera A. Is a landmark on the tibia B. Is an attachment for the long head of the biceps femoris muscle C. Is inferior to the medial epicondyle of the femur D. Serves as attachment for adductors of the thigh E. Is found on the inferior pubic ramus Show answer Correct Answer: D 504. The lateral malleolus A. Is an extension of the calcaneus bone B. Is a sesamoid bone C. Is the distal extension of the fibula D. Is immediately deep to the common peroneal nerve Show answer

Correct Answer: C 505. Which of the following statements about the obturator artery is TRUE? A. It enters the thigh immediately deep to the inguinal ligament B. It exits through the greater sciatic foramen C. It is a branch of the external iliac artery D. Its blood flow would be cut off by ligating the femoral artery E. It is found in the medial compartment of the thigh Show answer Correct Answer: E 506. The fibular artery pierces the interosseous membrane to run in the anterior compartment of the leg. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 507. The anterior cruciate ligament of the knee joint attaches to the anterior surface of the femur. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 508. The posterior cruciate ligament of the knee joint will prevent the tibia from sliding A. Posteriorly B. Anteriorly C. Laterally D. Medially Show answer Correct Answer: A 509. The first ligament to rupture with a plantar flexion-inversion ankle sprain is the A. Calcaneofibular ligament B. Posterior talofibular ligament C. Talotibial ligament D. Anterior talofibular ligament E. Tibiocalcaneal ligament Show answer Correct Answer: D 510. Posterior to the medial malleolus, the order of tendons from medial to lateral (anterior to posterior) is A. Posterior tibial, flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus B. Posterior tibial, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus C. Flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial

D. Flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, posterior tibial E. Flexor hallucis longus, posterior tibial, flexor digitorum longus Show answer Correct Answer: B 511. Of the deep fascia located in the anterolateral abdominal wall, which one forms the inguinal ligament? A. Internal abdominal oblique aponeurosis B. Transverse abdominal aponeurosis C. Internal spermatic fascia D. Transversalis fascia E. External abdominal oblique aponeurosis Show answer Correct Answer: E 512. Below the arcuate line in the anterior abdominal wall, the fascia (aponeurosis) of three anterolateral abdominal wall muscles course in which position? A. Posterior to the rectus abdominis muscle B. Anterior to the rectus abdominis muscle C. Through the rectus abdominis muscle D. They do not reach the rectus abdominis muscle E. None of the above are correct answers Show answer Correct Answer: B 513. The cremasteric muscle is an extension of the A. External abdominal oblique muscle B. Transverse abdominal muscle C. Internal abdominal oblique muscle D. Pyramidalis muscle E. Dartos muscle Show answer Correct Answer: C 514. Identify the INCORRECT statement about the lateral umbilical ligament (fold). A. It is formed by the inferior epigastric artery (and vein) B. The deep inguinal ring is lateral to the inferior epigastric artery C. It is medial to the obliterated umbilical artery D. A direct inguinal hernia passes through the anterior abdominal wall, medial to the lateral umbilical ligament E. An indirect inguinal hernia passes through the anterior abdominal wall, lateral to the lateral umbilical ligament Show answer Correct Answer: C 515. You are on service in the Emergency Department when a rock climber is transported for emergency

care after she fell. The patient is conscious but complains of not feeling her "legs". You determine she has no cutaneous sensation from her umbilicus to her toes. This initial neurologic exam result suggests that the patient sustained a spinal cord injury at which spinal cord level? A. T6 B. T8 C. T10 D. L2 E. L4 Show answer Correct Answer: C 516. T F The posterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by the transversalis fascia, which is reinforced medially by the conjoint tendon A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 517. While mountain biking down a ski slope, a male medical student hit a boulder. The collision caused him to fly into the handlebar of his bike. The biker was brought to the Emergency Department complaining of pain, tenderness and swelling of the perineum and lower part of the anterior abdominal wall. Based on this information, select the INCORRECT statement below. A. The patient most likely has a torn urethra B. Characteristically, a torn urethra would occur at the junction of the membranous and spongy parts of the male urethra C. Swelling of the lower part of the anterior abdominal wall is due to continuity of the superficial perineal space with the potential space deep to the membranous layer of the superficial fascia D. Colles' fascia is not contiguous with Scarpa's fascia E. Urine will not leak into the anal triangles or thighs Show answer Correct Answer: D 518. All of the following statements are true regarding the peritoneum, EXCEPT A. It is a serous membrane B. Intraperitoneal organs are almost completely covered with visceral peritoneum C. An example of an intraperitoneal organ is the pancreas D. The peritoneal cavity communicates with the exterior of the body in females but not in males E. Pain from the parietal peritoneum is sharp and focal Show answer Correct Answer: C 519. Identify the CORRECT statement about the parts of the peritoneum A. The lesser omentum connects the lesser curvature of the stomach and the proximal part of the duodenum to the liver B. The greater omentum connects the transverse colon to the liver C. The falciform ligament is derived from the dorsal mesogastrium (mesentery) of the embryo D. The gastrohepatic ligament conducts the portal triad E. The lesser omental bursa (sac) lacks an opening and therefore is an isolated compartment

Show answer Correct Answer: A 520. A patient complains of dull discomfort in her belly that is accompanied by pain over her right shoulder and right scapula. Given that this unit exam covers the abdomen, pelvis and perineum, select the most likely organs that may be the source of her complaints. A. Stomach B. Liver, duodenum and gallbladder C. Kidney and ureter D. Spleen E. Vermiform appendix Show answer Correct Answer: B 521. Select from the list of organs those that reasonably can be expected to lie within the lower right quadrant of the abdomen. Please assume that the GI tract rotated normally. A. Stomach, duodenum, spleen, pancreas and liver B. Descending colon and sigmoid colon C. Distal jejunum, cecum, vermiform appendix D. Distal duodenum and proximal jejunum E. Gallbladder Show answer Correct Answer: C 522. Diseases of the liver, such as chronic cirrhosis or cancer, may obstruct portal venous flow within the liver. Manifestations of this type of venous obstruction include expansion (dilation) of portal-caval anastomoses. Select the INCORRECTLY paired anastomoses between the portal and caval systems of veins. A. Left gastric vein: Esophageal veins B. Obliterated umbilical vein: Paraumbilical veins C. Superior rectal vein: Middle and inferior rectal veins D. Inferior mesenteric vein: Splenic vein E. Veins from the descending colon: Left lumbar veins and left renal vein Show answer Correct Answer: D 523. You are performing surgery on a patient to remove the tail of his pancreas because it is cancerous. A third year medical student is assisting your surgical team. As the tail of the pancreas is being resected (removed), a cut artery starts spurting crimson blood. After you clamp the two cut ends of the artery, you ask the medical student who is observing the surgery to describe the arterial supply to the pancreas. The medical student makes the following statements. Which statement is INCORRECT? A. The pancreas derives its blood supply from the celiac trunk and superior mesenteric artery B. The gastroduodenal artery ultimately gives rise to superior pancreaticoduodenal branches C. The superior mesenteric artery ultimately gives rise to inferior pancreaticoduodenal arteries D. The splenic artery supplies the spleen exclusively E. The pancreas may wrap around the splenic artery Show answer Correct Answer: D

524. Which of the following features about the duodenum is INCORRECT? A. It has four parts B. The head of the pancreas is nestled in the concavity of the duodenum C. The junction of the third and fourth parts of the duodenum is the location of the duodenal ampulla D. The duodenum is supplied by branches of both the celiac trunk and superior mesenteric artery E. The pancreas usually has two ducts that enter the duodenum Show answer Correct Answer: C 525. Select the CORRECT statement about the small intestine. A. The superior mesenteric artery courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before the artery supplies the jejunum and ileum B. The proximal jejunum has more arterial arcades than the distal ileum C. The mesentery of the distal ileum has less fat than the proximal jejunum D. Peyer's patches are more prominent in the proximal jejunum than the distal ileum E. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers to the jejunum and ileum arise from synapses with preganglionic sympathetic fibers located in the celiac ganglion Show answer Correct Answer: A 526. Concerning the lymphatic drainage of the GI tract, select the FALSE statement. A. Lymph arising from the GI tract drains to the cisterna chyli, from where the lymph flows into the thoracic duct B. The first set of lymph nodes that drain a GI organ typically are located around the organ C. The second set of lymph nodes that drain a GI organ typically are located at the origin of the principal veins that drain the organ D. Lymph arising from the GI tract carries absorbed lipids and may transmit metastatic cancer cells to the circulation E. Lymph from the rectum and anus drains to several groups of regional lymph nodes Show answer Correct Answer: C 527. Of the following nerves, which is NOT part of the somatic nerves of the posterior abdominal wall? A. Lumbar plexus B. Lumbosacral trunk C. Ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves D. Genitofemoral nerve E. Pelvic splanchnics Show answer Correct Answer: E 528. Regarding the muscles of the posterior abdominal wall, identify the DISCORDANT pair of statements. A. Hiatus for the inferior vena cava: Vertebral level T10 B. Hiatus for the aorta: Vertebral level T12 C. Quadratus lumborum: Lateral arcuate ligament D. Psoas major muscle: Medial arcuate ligament E. Psoas major muscle: Pierced on its anterior surface by the genitofemoral nerve

Show answer Correct Answer: A 529. Of the following statements about the abdominal aorta, which is INCORRECT? A. The left renal artery is shorter than the right renal artery B. The first branches are paired and supply the diaphragm as well as the adrenal glands C. The aorta gives paired branches directly to the adrenal glands D. The superior mesenteric artery typically courses directly over (anterior to) the left renal vein E. The testicular/ovarian arteries typically arise from the aorta as an unpaired trunk Show answer Correct Answer: E 530. T F Bile synthesized and secreted by the liver accumulates in the gallbladder when the duodenal sphincter (of Oddi) is constricted (closed) A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 531. Select the FALSE statement about the urinary system A. The left kidney is normally lower (more caudal) than the right kidney B. The ureters originate as enlarged funnels at the renal hila C. The ureters receive arterial branches from arteries that the ureters pass D. The abdominal parts of the ureters are retroperitoneal E. Peristalsis of the ureters is the result of waves of contraction of smooth muscle that comprise their wall Show answer Correct Answer: A 532. Imagine yourself as a third-year medical student and being asked to describe anatomic features that distinguish the hindgut from the foregut. Which of the following statements would you NOT make? A. The hindgut is principally supplied by the superior mesenteric artery B. The hindgut begins at the splenic flexure of the colon C. The hindgut has haustra D. The hindgut has 3 separate bands of longitudinal muscle whereas the foregut has a single layer of longitudinal muscle E. The hindgut has omental appendices Show answer Correct Answer: A 533. Which of the following statements about the liver is FALSE? A. The liver is the largest organ of the body B. The quadrate lobe is located anteriorly, between the gallbladder and obliterated umbilical vein (ligamentum teres hepatis) C. The bare area of the liver is on its inferior surface D. Its arterial blood supply is derived from the celiac truck E. The lesser omentum (sac) is inferior to the liver

Show answer Correct Answer: C 534. The portal vein is formed typically by union of the splenic vein with the inferior mesenteric vein A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 535. The pelvic diaphragm closes the pelvic outlet. Which list of muscles correctly identifies all of the components of the pelvic diaphragm? A. Coccygeus and piriformis muscles B. Coccygeus, iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus and puborectalis muscles C. Obturator internus, coccygeus, iliococcygeus and pubococcygeus muscles D. Iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus and puborectalis muscles E. Psoas and iliacus muscles Show answer Correct Answer: B 536. You are assisting a cardiovascular surgeon repair a dissecting aneurysm of the abdominal aorta. As the surgeon reflects the abdominal contents from the left to the right side of the body, she asks you to recite the venous tributaries to the inferior vena cava. One of your recitations is INCORRECT. Which one? A. The left renal vein receives the left gonadal vein B. The right gonadal vein enters the inferior vena cava directly C. The left renal vein does not receive veins from the left adrenal gland D. Hepatic veins drain portal venous blood to the inferior vena cava E. Lumbar veins drain into the inferior vena cava Show answer Correct Answer: C 537. Select the INCORRECT statement about the pelvis. A. The greater pelvis (false pelvis) is inferior to the arcuate line of the os coxae B. The os coxae is formed by fusion of the pubis, ischium and ilium C. The three bones that form the os coxae fuse at the acetabular fossa D. For a gynecoid pelvis (typically a female pelvis), the true pelvis is generally wider and shallower than an android pelvis (typically a male pelvis) E. A male pelvis typically has a narrower pubic arch and subpubic angle than a female pelvis Show answer Correct Answer: A 538. The levator ani muscle arises from the tendinous arch of the fascia of which pelvic wall muscle? A. Obturator internus fascia B. Piriformis fascia C. Puborectalis fascia D. Psoas major fascia E. Iliacus fascia

Show answer Correct Answer: A 539. Which vessel is NOT a usual branch of the posterior division of the internal iliac artery? A. Iliolumbar artery B. Inferior gluteal artery C. Superior gluteal artery D. Lateral sacral artery Show answer Correct Answer: B 540. Select the muscle that does NOT contribute to the perineal body. A. Bulbospongiosus muscle B. Superficial transverse perineal muscle C. External anal sphincter D. Piriformis muscle E. Deep transverse perineal muscle Show answer Correct Answer: D 541. Which matched pair of statements identifies an INCORRECT homology between males and females? A. Bulb of the penis: Bulb of the vestibule B. Crura of the corpus cavernosum penis: Crura of the corpus cavernosum clitoris C. Perineal body in the male: Perineal body in the female D. Sphincter urethrae in the male: Sphincter urethrae in the female E. Corpus cavernosum penis: Greater vestibular bulb Show answer Correct Answer: E 542. Of the boundaries of the ischioanal fossa that are listed below, which is INCORRECT? A. Laterally: Ischium and obturator internus muscle and fascia B. Inferiorly: Pelvic diaphragm C. Posteriorly: Sacrotuberous ligament and coccyx D. Medially: Anal canal E. Anteriorly: Posterior border of the UG diaphragm Show answer Correct Answer: B 543. T F The ureter crosses over the uterine artery in the female. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B

544. An obstetrician decides to perform bilateral pudendal nerve anesthesia to a woman in labor. The obstetrician asks you to describe that nerve and its path. Among your descriptions is one that is INCORRECT. Identify the incorrect statement from those listed below. A. The pudendal nerves arise from spinal cord levels L4-S1 B. The nerves leave the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramina C. The pudendal nerves hook around the ischial spines D. The pudendal nerves pass through the lesser sciatic foramina E. The pudendal nerves give rise to the inferior rectal nerves in the ischioanal fascia and continue anteriorly as the perineal nerves Show answer Correct Answer: A 545. The following statements about the GI tract are true, EXCEPT A. Folds of mucosa in the stomach are called rugae B. The pyloric antrum is the distal end of the duodenum C. The major duodenal papilla is an internal landmark at the junction of the 2nd and 3rd parts of the duodenum D. The sigmoid colon is suspended by a mesentery E. The rectum has three sharp lateral flexures externally that are caused by three internal infoldings (transverse rectal folds) Show answer Correct Answer: B 546. During a hysterectomy, the surgeon has to be careful not to clamp the ureters when she clamps the A. Broad ligaments B. Uterine tubes C. Uterine arteries D. A bleeding vessel in the anterior abdominal wall E. Ovarian ligaments Show answer Correct Answer: C 547. The uterus is supported in the pelvic cavity by a number of ligaments. Select the ligament from those listed below that does NOT support the uterus A. Broad ligament of the uterus B. Cardinal ligament of the uterus C. Round ligament of the uterus D. Ovarian ligament of the uterus E. Uterosacral ligament Show answer Correct Answer: D 548. T F The broad ligament of the uterus is subdivisible into the mesometrium, mesosalpinx and mesovarium A. True B. False Show answer

Correct Answer: A 549. Imagine that you specialize in gynecology. Further imagine that one of your patients is diagnosed with ovarian cancer and that lymph node staging indicates that the cancer has metastasized centrally. You explain to your patient and her husband that the cancer has spread from the ovaries to the first group of lymph nodes around the aorta that directly drains the ovaries. After some discussion, the husband asks you the following basic anatomy question: "Where are the lymph nodes located?" Your response is A. The origin of the inferior phrenic arteries B. The origin of the ovarian arteries C. The origin of the superior mesenteric artery D. The origin of the lumbar arteries E. The origin of the renal arteries Show answer Correct Answer: B 550. UNIT 2 40 T F The contents of the pudendal canal exit the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen and return to the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 551. Concerning innervation of the pelvic viscera, which statement is INCORRECT? A. Parasympathetic fibers arise from S2-S4 spinal cord segments B. The parasympathetic fibers to the pelvic viscera are also called pelvic splanchnic nerves C. The pelvic splanchnic nerves mix (converge) with the inferior hypogastric nerves (sympathetic nerves) before innervating the pelvic viscera D. The pudendal nerves carry only somatic sensory information E. Sympathetic nerves to the pelvic viscera arise from paravertebral ganglia from L1 (T12) to L2 levels Show answer Correct Answer: D 552. Imagine yourself as Dr. Albertine (yes, a very bad dream!), when he had hair. You want to give an anatomy lesson to your young kids (hence the hair on your head). You have them drink a lot of carbonated soda quickly while they are leaning to their right. You then instruct them to lean to their left when they have the urge (need?) to burp. Once the music and giggling are over, you explain the anatomy lesson to these two eager minds. Select the statement that you would NOT make. A. The esophagus enters the stomach on the stomach's right side, well below the top (fundus) of the stomach so the gas was stuck in the stomach until they leaned to the left B. The gas bubbles were stuck in their ears until they leaned to the left C. The carbonation filled their stomach, causing it to be stretched and therefore feel like it was about to explode D. The discomfort of their stomach was spread out over their tummy, rather than being sharp and specific (such as the feeling caused when being pricked with a pin - the subject of a future lesson) E. They will probably have to "P" soon (the subject of yet another future lesson) Show answer Correct Answer: B

553. The pterygomandibular raphae serves as a point of attachment for the A. Superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle B. Middle pharyngeal constrictor muscle C. Lateral pterygoid muscle D. Medial pterygoid muscle E. Tensor veli palatini muscle Show answer Correct Answer: A 554. The CORRECT boundaries of the posterior triangle of the neck are the A. Anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, inferior border of the mandible, and anterior midline of the neck B. Posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, clavicle, and anterior border of the trapezius muscle C. Anterior borders of both sternocleidomastoid muscles, inferior border of the mandible, suprasternal notch of the manubrium D. Anterior borders of both trapezius muscles, occipital bone, and the posterior midline of the neck E. Both bellies of the digastric muscle, and inferior border of the mandible Show answer Correct Answer: B 555. Of the following statements about the cervical plexus of the neck, which is INCORRECT? A. Spinal levels C1-C4 contribute to the cervical plexus B. The named sensory branches emerge from the middle of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle and ascend, descend and traverse the neck C. The named motor branches in the carotid triangle course along the wall of the carotid sheath D. The ansa cervicalis provides motor supply to the suprahyoid muscles E. The superior root of the ansa cervicalis arises from spinal cord level C1 Show answer Correct Answer: D 556. Select the CORRECT statement about the arteries of the neck A. The thyrocervical trunk typically gives rise to the inferior thyroid artery, transverse cervical artery and suprascapular artery B. Arterial branches to the face arise from the internal carotid artery C. The carotid sinus is located at the origin of the external carotid artery D. The facial artery courses superficial to the submandibular salivary gland E. The vertebral arteries arise from the external carotid arteries Show answer Correct Answer: A 557. T F The sympathetic chain in the neck courses in the carotid sheath A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B

558. T F The platysma muscle is considered a muscle of facial expression because its motor supply is the facial nerve (CN VII) A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 559. Of the following muscles, which one will NOT depress (lower) the larynx by its action on the hyoid bone? A. Sternothyroid muscle B. Sternohyoid muscle C. Mylohyoid muscle D. Omohyoid muscle E. Thyrohyoid muscle Show answer Correct Answer: C 560. T F The thoracic duct returns lymph to the central venous circulation by emptying its contents at the junction of the left internal jugular vein and left subclavian vein A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 561. Select the INCORRECT statement about the neck A. The great auricular nerve courses with the external jugular vein as the latter ascends along the sternocleidomastoid muscle B. The parathyroid glands are usually 4 in number, they are located on the posterior aspect of the thyroid gland, and they are essential for life C. No lymph nodes are located around the internal jugular vein in the neck D. The brachial plexus emerges from the vertebral column, between the anterior and middle scalene muscles E. The investing fascia of the neck is deep fascia that splits and rejoins itself to surround both trapezius muscles and both sternocleidomastoid muscles Show answer Correct Answer: C 562. Imagine that you are in the Emergency Department when a patient is rushed in who sustained a crushing blow to the neck. Because of the neck injury, the EMTs had made a tracheostomy to establish an open airway. Once the patient was stabilized in the Emergency Department, the attending physician asked you to explain why the EMT personnel made the tracheostomy below the cricoid cartilage. Your answers, listed below, are correct, except for one answer. Please select the INCORRECT answer. A. The cricoid cartilage is the only complete ring in the respiratory tree B. The cricoid cartilage can be identified during digital examination of the neck by moving one's finger(s) downward from the laryngeal prominence of the thyroid cartilages; the first cartilage inferior to the thyroid cartilages is the cricoid cartilage C. The isthmus of the thyroid gland usually covers the cricoid cartilage or the upper tracheal cartilages so the isthmus has to be pushed superiorly out of the way, or cut D. The vocal folds (ligaments) are superior to the lamina of the cricoid cartilage so they will not be injured

by an infracricoid approach E. The inferior thyroid arteries cross the midline of the neck in the region of the cricoid cartilage so these arteries have to be identified and spared before making an infracricoid tracheostomy Show answer Correct Answer: E 563. The retropharyngeal space is an important space in the neck from a clinical perspective. Please identify the INCORRECT statement about this space. A. It is located between the portion of the pretracheal fascia that is deep (posterior) to the pharynx and esophagus (hence is also called the buccopharyngeal fascia) and the prevertebral fascia B. Infections in this space can ascend to the base of the skull C. Infections in this space cannot descend to the thoracic inlet D. The presence of this space allows the visceral compartment of the neck to be mobile (glide/slide) E. Radiographically, this space cannot be clearly identified in a normal neck because it is a potential space Show answer Correct Answer: C 564. The action of the posterior cricoarytenoid muscles is to A. Adduct the arytenoid cartilages B. Abduct the vocal processes of the arytenoid cartilages C. Relax the vocal ligaments D. Assist in closure of the vestibule E. Elevate the vocal ligaments Show answer Correct Answer: B 565. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the sensory innervation to the mucous membranes of the larynx? A. They are supplied by a nerve that originates in the posterior cranial fossa B. They are supplied by a nerve that exits the cranial cavity with the internal jugular vein C. They are supplied by the same nerve that uses the otic ganglion for synapses between pre- and postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers D. They are supplied by the same nerve that innervates the palatoglossal muscle E. They are supplied by the same nerve that provides motor innervation to the intrinsic muscles of the larynx Show answer Correct Answer: C 566. Which of the following bones is NOT paired? A. Parietal bone B. Ethmoid bone C. Maxillary bone D. Palatine bone E. Inferior nasal concha Show answer Correct Answer: B

567. The olfactory foramina A. Are located in the middle cranial fossa B. Are located in the anterior cranial fossa C. Are located immediately inferior to the optic foramen D. Have motor neurons running through them E. Are located in the sphenoid bone Show answer Correct Answer: B 568. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the scalp? A. It receives blood supply from branches of the internal carotid and vertebral arteries B. The tendinous aponeurosis is firmly attached to the pericranium (periosteum) C. It receives innervation from the trigeminal nerve exclusively D. It receives blood supply from branches of the internal carotid and external carotid arteries E. All of the above are true statements Show answer Correct Answer: D 569. The inferior sagittal sinus A. Drains directly into the confluence of sinuses B. Is found in the falx cerebelli C. Is formed between two layers of meningeal dura D. Drains into the superior petrosal sinus E. Contains valves, unlike the other venous dural sinuses Show answer Correct Answer: C 570. The cerebral aqueduct A. Connects the lateral ventricles B. Connects the third ventricle with the subarachnoid space C. Empties into the confluence of sinuses D. Connects the subarachnoid space with the inferior sagittal sinus E. Connects the third and fourth ventricles Show answer Correct Answer: E 571. Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT have a parasympathetic component? A. Facial nerve (CN VII) B. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) C. Vagus nerve (CN X) D. Abducent nerve (CN VI) E. Oculomotor nerve (CN III) Show answer Correct Answer: D

572. The ciliary ganglion A. Is a sympathetic ganglion B. Is used for parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland C. Is used by the facial nerve (CN VII) D. Would be affected by severance of the oculomotor nerve (CN III) E. Is a sensory ganglion Show answer Correct Answer: D 573. T F Divisions of the trigeminal nerve (CN V1, V2 and V3) exit exclusively through foramina contained in the middle cranial fossa A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 574. Lesions of the glossopharyngeal nerve would A. Affect the sympathetic innervation to the parotid gland B. Affect the parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular gland C. Affect taste to the anterior 1/3 of the tongue D. Result in general sensory deficit to the pharynx E. Result in loss of motor innervation to the risorius muscle Show answer Correct Answer: D 575. The inferior palpebral nerve is a terminal branch of the A. Infraorbital nerve B. Nasociliary nerve C. Lacrimal nerve D. Zygomatic nerve E. Facial nerve Show answer Correct Answer: A 576. Motor innervation of the orbicularis oculi muscle is by A. A branch of a nerve that exits through the infraorbital foramen B. A branch of a nerve that exits through the stylomastoid foramen C. A branch of the same nerve that innervates the temporalis muscle D. A branch of a nerve that would be affected by increased pressure in the cavernous venous sinus E. A branch of the same nerve that innervates the levator palpebrae superioris muscle Show answer Correct Answer: B 577. Which of the following structures is NOT found in the infratemporal fossa? A. Branches of the second part of the maxillary artery B. The middle meningeal artery

C. The otic ganglion D. The nerve that gives rise to the mental nerve E. The Vidian canal Show answer Correct Answer: E 578. T F All of the muscles that act on the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) are innervated by branches of CN V3 A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 579. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the opening of the maxillary air sinus in the nasal cavity? A. It is located at the base of the maxillary air sinus B. It is located in the same meatus as the opening for the nasolacrimal duct C. It is located in the same meatus as the frontonasal duct D. It empties into the sphenoid air sinus E. All of the above are true statements Show answer Correct Answer: C 580. Ligation of the facial artery at the inferior border of the mandible will A. Decrease blood flow to some parts of the nasal septum B. Decrease blood flow to the mandibular teeth C. Eliminate blood flow to the lower eyelid D. Decrease the blood flow to the cornea E. Eliminate blood flow to the lower lip Show answer Correct Answer: A 581. T F The palate receives blood supply from the maxillary and the facial arteries A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 582. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the innervation of the tongue? A. The motor innervation will be affected by a lesion in the hypoglossal canal B. Taste could be affected by a misplaced incision of the tympanic membrane C. Taste could be affected by increased pressure in the jugular foramen D. Loss of general sensation to the entire tongue could result from severance of the lingual nerve E. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the mucosa of the tongue course in the lingual nerve

Show answer Correct Answer: D 583. The pterygomandibular raphae serves as a point of attachment for the A. Superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle B. Middle pharyngeal constrictor muscle C. Lateral pterygoid muscle D. Medial pterygoid muscle E. Tensor veli palatini muscle Show answer Correct Answer: A 584. The left lateral pterygoid muscle, acting alone, will shift the mandible A. Laterally, to the right B. Laterally, to the left C. Anteriorly D. Posteriorly E. Down Show answer Correct Answer: A 585. Choose the CORRECT statement regarding the mouth and pharynx A. The hard palate is formed mostly by the maxillary and sphenoid bones B. Elevation of the soft palate is achieved by a muscle innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve C. A muscle that both elevates the pharynx and depresses the soft palate is innervated by CN XII D. A muscle that both opens the auditory tube and tenses the palate is innervated by CN III E. The nerves that contribute to the pharyngeal plexus are CN IX, CN X, preganglionic sympathetic fibers and CN XII Show answer Correct Answer: D 586. The muscle whose action is to tense the tympanic membrane is innervated by the A. Chorda tympani nerve B. Maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve C. Facial nerve D. Vagus nerve E. Glossopharyngeal nerve Show answer Correct Answer: B 587. All of the following structures are found in the middle ear, EXCEPT the A. Stapedius muscle B. Chorda tympani nerve C. Tensor tympani muscle D. Promontory E. Cochlea

Show answer Correct Answer: E 588. Which of the following structures separates the anterior and posterior chambers in the eyeball? A. The lens B. The cornea C. The iris D. The pupil E. The ciliary processes Show answer Correct Answer: C 589. Surgical resection of the parotid salivary gland is fraught with potential danger because the facial nerve emerges through this gland. Which of the following statements about this region is FALSE? A. The facial nerve emerges from the base of the skull through the jugular foramen B. The terminal branches of the facial nerve are the temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular and cervical branches C. The facial nerve provides motor fibers to the muscles of facial expression D. The facial nerve does not provide motor innervation to the buccinator muscle E. The facial nerve provides motor fibers to the posterior belly of the digastric muscle Show answer Correct Answer: A 590. T F The superior and inferior ophthalmic veins drain to the cavernous venous sinus A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: A 591. Branches of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve include the following branches, EXCEPT the A. Frontal nerve B. Supratrochlear nerve C. Lacrimal nerve D. Infraorbital nerve E. Nasociliary nerve Show answer Correct Answer: D 592. Lateral movement of the eyeball is effected by which nerve? A. Oculomotor nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Trochlear nerve E. Optic nerve Show answer

Correct Answer: C 593. The medial wall of the orbit is formed by all of the following bones, EXCEPT the A. Ethmoid bone B. Zygomatic bone C. Frontal bone D. Lacrimal bone E. Sphenoid bone Show answer Correct Answer: B 594. The cerebral arterial circle (of Willis) is directly formed by all of the following arteries, EXCEPT the A. Posterior cerebral arteries B. Middle cerebral arteries C. Posterior communicating artery D. Anterior communicating artery E. Vertebral arteries Show answer Correct Answer: E 595. T F Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by the arachnoid granulations and absorbed by the choroid plexus A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 596. Of the following muscles, which one hooks around the hamulus? A. Salpingopharyngeus muscle B. Tensor veli palatini muscle C. Palatopharyngeus muscle D. Levator veli palatini muscle E. Palatoglossus muscle Show answer Correct Answer: B 597. While working with a patient, you are asked by the attending physician to draw some blood from the patient's median cubital vein. You remember from gross anatomy that this vein is located in the A. Posterior aspect of the knee B. Femoral triangle C. Dorsal surface of the hand D. Anterior aspect of the elbow E. Deltopectoral triangle Show answer Correct Answer: D

598. All of the following are carpal bones, EXCEPT the A. Cuboid B. Trapezium C. Pisiform D. Hamate E. Capitate Show answer Correct Answer: A 599. When you rest your elbows on a desk, what bony landmark of the upper limb are you resting on? A. Styloid process of the radius B. Deltoid tuberosity of the humerus C. Olecranon process of the ulna D. Coronoid process of the ulna E. Radial tuberosity Show answer Correct Answer: C 600. All of the following muscles attach to the scapula, EXCEPT the A. Brachialis muscle B. Trapezius muscle C. Pectoralis minor muscle D. Subscapularis muscle E. Teres major muscle Show answer Correct Answer: A 601. While on rounds with your attending physician, you are informed that the patient you are about to meet has a rotator cuff injury. The attending physician states that the rotator cuff is comprised of a musculotendinous cuff surrounding the shoulder joint and consists of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus and subscapularis muscles. What muscle did he forget? A. Deltoid muscle B. Subclavius muscle C. Long head of the biceps brachii muscle D. Teres minor muscle E. Coracobrachialis muscle Show answer Correct Answer: D 602. Each of the following is a true statement regarding the coracoid process of the scapula, EXCEPT that it A. Attaches the coracobrachialis muscle B. Is located deep to the deltopectoral triangle C. Attaches the teres minor muscle D. Is superior to the glenoid cavity and projects anterolaterally E. Attaches the short head of the biceps brachii muscle Show answer

Correct Answer: C 603. In the anatomical position, the distal end of the radius articulates primarily with which of the following bones at the wrist joint? A. Triquetrum B. Capitate C. Pisiform D. Scaphoid E. Trapezium Show answer Correct Answer: D 604. The elbow is an example of a synovial _____________ joint A. Ellipsoid B. Hinge C. Ball and socket D. Plane E. Bicondylar Show answer Correct Answer: B 605. Loss of action of the muscle inserting on the crest of the lesser tubercle of the humerus would result from damage to the ________ nerve A. Radial B. Long thoracic C. Median D. Lower subscapular E. Axillary Show answer Correct Answer: D 606. A patient damages the nerve that is posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus. This would most likely result in loss of A. Extension of the metacarpophalangeal joints of digits 4-5 B. Flexion in the distal interphalangeal joint of digit 5 * C. Abduction of the thumb (digit 1) D. General cutaneous sensation from the skin overlying the thenar eminence E. Function of lumbricals 1-2 Show answer Correct Answer: B 607. All of the following structures pass through the carpel tunnel at the wrist (formed by the flexor retinaculum and carpal bones), EXCEPT the A. Median nerve B. Flexor digitorum profundus tendons C. Flexor carpi ulnaris tendon D. Flexor pollicis longus tendon E. Flexor digitorum superficialis tendons

Show answer Correct Answer: C 608. The posterior wall of the axilla is formed by the scapula, subscapularis muscle, teres major muscle and: A. Trapezius muscle B. Pectoralis major muscle C. Serratus anterior muscle D. Latissimus dorsi muscle E. Supraspinatus muscle Show answer Correct Answer: D 609. All of the following muscles attach to the medial epicondyle of the humerus, EXCEPT the A. Pronator teres muscle B. Flexor carpi radialis muscle C. Flexor digitorum profundus muscle D. Flexor carpi ulnaris muscle E. Palmaris longus muscle Show answer Correct Answer: C 610. The posterior cord of the brachial plexus generally contains nerve fibers from what level(s) of the spinal cord? A. C5 only B. C5, C6 and C7 only C. C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1 D. C7, C8 and T1 only E. C8 and T1 only Show answer Correct Answer: C 611. Each of the following arteries contributes to the collateral circulation around the elbow, EXCEPT the A. Superior ulnar collateral artery B. Anterior interosseous artery C. Radial collateral artery D. Middle collateral artery E. Deep brachial artery Show answer Correct Answer: B 612. Growth hormone is transported via the venous system from the pituitary gland to the heart, through the heart and then distributed systemically. Imagine that the growth hormone is flowing to the latissimus dorsi muscle. Identify a correct arterial sequence for the growth hormone to reach that muscle, starting at the subclavian artery. A. subclavian - axillary - subscapular - thoracodorsal

B. subclavian - axillary - acromioclavicular - acromial C. subclavian - axillary - supreme thoracic - intercostal D. subclavian - axillary - thyrocervical trunk - suprascapular E. subclavian - costocervical trunk - suprascapular Show answer Correct Answer: A 613. Identify the TRUE statement regarding the suprascapular nerve. A. It courses superior to the suprascapular ligament on route to the supraspinatus muscle B. It contains nerve fibers from C5 and C6 spinal cord segments C. It innervates the teres minor muscle D. It provides cutaneous innervation to the posterolateral surface of the shoulder E. It branches from the middle trunk of the brachial plexus Show answer Correct Answer: B 614. A patient complains of severe "pins and needles" sensations in her left hand, over parts of the thumb and parts of digits 1 and 2. During physical examination, the patient has difficulty unbuttoning her shirt and complains of weakness grasping objects with her hands. What nerve is most likely injured? A. Ulnar nerve B. Median nerve C. Radial nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve E. Axillary nerve Show answer Correct Answer: B 615. What artery courses posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus, with the ulnar nerve? A. Superior ulnar collateral artery B. Anterior ulnar recurrent artery C. Radial collateral artery D. Middle collateral artery E. Interosseous recurrent artery Show answer Correct Answer: A 616. The quadrangular space of the shoulder is an anatomical region bounded by the teres major and minor muscles, long head of the triceps brachii muscle and surgical neck of the humerus. This space contains the axillary nerve and the _____________ A. Circumflex scapular artery B. Radial nerve C. Posterior circumflex humeral artery D. Deep artery of the arm E. Thoracodorsal nerve Show answer Correct Answer: C

617. The ____________ nerve innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm A. Median B. Musculocutaneous C. Radial D. Ulnar E. Axillary Show answer Correct Answer: B 618. T F The superficial palmar arterial arch is formed primarily by the radial artery. A. True B. False Show answer Correct Answer: B 619. Which of the following muscles is an antagonist (has an opposing action) to the serratus anterior muscle, which is the primary protractor of the scapula? A. Levator scapulae muscle B. Rhomboid major muscle C. Pectoralis minor muscle D. Supraspinatus muscle E. Deltoid muscle Show answer Correct Answer: B 620. Jane Doe underwent radical mastectomy surgery to remove her left breast and all of the axillary lymph nodes on that side due to breast cancer. During one of her postoperative visits with her surgeon, Mrs. Doe pushed both hands against the wall to support herself while she removed her shoes with her feet. The surgeon noticed that while she did this the medial border and inferior angle of her left scapula pulled away from the posterior thoracic wall, giving a "winged scapula" appearance. This concerned the surgeon because it meant that she probably cut the _______________ nerve during the surgical procedure. A. Axillary nerve B. Musculocutaneous nerve C. Lower subscapular nerve D. Medial pectoral nerve E. Long thoracic nerve Show answer Correct Answer: E 621. Dislocation of the proximal radio-ulnar joint and stretching of the annular ligament will make what movement very painful? A. Elbow flexion B. Supination C. Elbow extension D. Shoulder abduction E. Radial deviation of the wrist

Show answer Correct Answer: B 622. All of the following statements concerning the great saphenous vein are true, EXCEPT that it A. Terminates in the femoral vein B. Courses posterior to the lateral condyle of the femur C. Courses anterior to the medial malleolus D. Can be used for coronary artery by-pass surgery E. Courses through the superficial fascia of the lower limb Show answer Correct Answer: B 623. Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the foot? A. The adductor hallucis muscle acts on digit 5 B. The flexor digitorum brevis muscle is located in the third layer of the foot C. The dorsal interossei muscles are located in the fourth layer of the foot D. The medial plantar nerve innervates the flexor digiti minimi brevis muscle E. The flexor hallucis brevis muscle has oblique and transverse heads Show answer Correct Answer: C 624. What region of the os coxae are you sitting on right now? A. Ischial tuberosities B. Inferior pubic rami C. Ischial spines D. Posterior inferior iliac spines E. Pectineal line of the pubis Show answer Correct Answer: A 625. The semimembranosus muscle provides what movement(s) in the lower extremity? A. Flexion of the hip and extension of the knee B. Flexion of the hip and flexion of the knee C. Extension of the hip and flexion of the knee D. Extension of the hip and extension of the knee E. Flexion of the hip only Show answer Correct Answer: C 626. Each of the following statements concerning the femoral triangle is correct, EXCEPT that the A. Femoral artery is lateral to the femoral vein B. Sartorius muscle, adductor longus muscle and inguinal ligament form its boundaries C. The femoral nerve is medial to the femoral artery D. The floor is formed by the iliopsoas and pectineus muscles E. The lymphatics are medial to the femoral vein Show answer

Correct Answer: C 627. Each of the following muscles laterally rotates the femur at the hip joint, EXCEPT the A. Obturator internus muscle B. Superior gemellus muscle C. Piriformis muscle D. Gluteus minimus muscle E. Obturator externus muscle Show answer Correct Answer: D 628. Identify the CORRECT statement regarding the posterior compartment of the leg (crus) A. The muscles plantar flex the foot and are innervated by the tibial nerve B. The muscles dorsiflex the foot and are innervated by the common fibular nerve C. The muscles plantar flex the foot and are innervated by the femoral nerve D. The muscles dorsiflex the foot and are innervated by the tibial nerve E. The muscles dorsiflex the foot and are innervated by the deep fibular nerve Show answer Correct Answer: A 629. Identify the muscle that attaches to the tibial tuberosity A. Pectineus muscle B. Vastus intermedius muscle C. Tensor fascia lata muscle D. Short head of the biceps femoris muscle E. Adductor brevis muscle Show answer Correct Answer: B 630. During a knife fight, a patient has his sciatic nerve cut as it exits the pelvis. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding this patient? A. Extension of the knee would be eliminated B. The long head of the biceps femoris muscle would be affected but not the short head C. There would still be cutaneous sensation over the anteromedial surface of the thigh D. The muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg would still be functional E. The sartorius and gracilis muscles would not be able to contract Show answer Correct Answer: C 631. The ___________ artery branches from the deep femoral artery (deep artery of the thigh) and courses between the pectineus and iliopsoas muscles to supply the head and neck of the femur A. Lateral descending femoral circumflex B. Superficial epigastric C. Lateral ascending femoral circumflex D. Medial femoral circumflex E. Obturator

Show answer Correct Answer: D 632. Blood supplied to the posterior compartment of the thigh is predominantly derived from the: A. Superior gluteal vessels B. Obturator vessels C. Perforating branches of the deep femoral vessels D. Femoral vessels E. Genicular vessels Show answer Correct Answer: C 633. The muscles and tendons in the plantar region of the foot are primarily supplied by the A. Anterior tibial artery B. Fibular artery C. Posterior tibial artery D. Superior genicular arteries E. Popliteal artery Show answer Correct Answer: C 634. All of the following muscles attach to the linea aspera of the femur, EXCEPT the A. Vastus lateralis muscle B. Adductor brevis muscle C. Semitendinosus muscle D. Adductor magnus muscle E. Short head of the biceps femoris muscle Show answer Correct Answer: C 635. Which of the following is NOT a direct branch of the popliteal artery? A. Superior medial genicular artery B. Anterior tibial artery C. Fibular artery D. Inferior lateral genicular artery E. Posterior tibial artery Show answer Correct Answer: C 636. The presence of an "anterior drawer sign" is indicative of damage to the A. Tibial collateral ligament B. Lateral meniscus C. Medial meniscus D. Posterior cruciate ligament E. Anterior cruciate ligament Show answer

Correct Answer: E 637. John Doe is a careless driver. Immediately after a street light changes from RED to GREEN, he presses his foot on the gas pedal to race off at rapid acceleration. Each of the following muscles aid John in speeding off, EXCEPT the A. Flexor digitorum longus muscle B. Peroneus longus muscle C. Gastrocnemius muscle D. Soleus muscle E. Tibialis anterior muscle Show answer Correct Answer: E 638. Each of the following statements regarding the adductor magnus muscle is correct, EXCEPT: A. It attaches distally along the linea aspera and adductor tubercle of the femur B. It is innervated by the femoral nerve C. It can adduct the thigh at the hip joint D. The femoral artery and vein course through the adductor hiatus on route to the popliteal fossa E. It attaches proximally to the ischial ramus Show answer Correct Answer: B 639. The artery of the round ligament of the head of the femur receives its blood supply via the A. Obturator artery B. Femoral artery C. Common iliac artery D. Superior gluteal artery E. Lateral femoral circumflex artery Show answer Correct Answer: A 640. Which ligament of the ankle is torn in an inversion sprain? A. Deltoid ligament B. Calcaneal ligament (tendon) C. Anterior talofibular (lateral collateral) ligament D. Deltoid (medial collateral) ligament E. Long plantar ligament Show answer Correct Answer: C 641. The popliteal fossa is bounded by the gastrocnemius, semimembranosus, semitendinosus and ____________ muscles. A. Gracilis B. Sartorius C. Adductor magnus D. Biceps femoris E. Plantaris

Show answer Correct Answer: D 642. The lateral compartment of the leg contains the fibularis (peroneus) longus and brevis muscles. This compartment is innervated by the ____________ nerve A. Tibial B. Common fibular (peroneal) C. Superficial fibular (peroneal) D. Deep peroneal E. Sural Show answer Correct Answer: C