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Combined Defence Services Exam

October 2000
ENGLISH
SPOTTING ERRORS otherwise I would have made him my
Directions (Qs. 1 to 15) : In this assistant. (c)/ No error. (d)
section, a number of sentences are 4. Is there further reasons (a)/ you
given. These sentences are in three can give me for your failure (b)/ to do
separate par ts labelled as (a), (b) and
parts as you promised ? (c)/ No error. (d)
(c). Read each sentence to find out 5. During the final minutes of his
whether ther e is an er
there errror in any par t.
part. speech (a)/ the speaker requested to
No sentence has mor more e than one er errror
or.. (b)/ the audience to have patience. (c)/
When you find an error in any one of No error. (d)
the par
parts ts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your 6. He is running temperature since
response. Y ou may feel that ther
You theree is no last Friday (a)/ and doctors suspect (b)/
error in a sentence. In that case, letter that he is down with typhoid. (c)/ No
(d) will signify a ‘No error’ response. error. (d)
You arare e to indicate only one rresponse
esponse 7. Travel agents around the world
for each item. (If you indicate more have come to rely on computers (a)/ to
than one response, your answer will book seats in air flights or rooms in
be considered wrong.) Errors may be hotels, (b)/ either today or a year from
in grammar
grammar,, wor wordd usage or idioms. now. (c)/ No error. (d)
There may be a word missing or there 8. She expressed her gratitudes, (a)/
may be a word which should be to all those, (b)/ who had supported
removed. her. (c)/ No error (d).
You ar aree not rrequir
equired to cor
equired corrrect the 9. When the meeting was over, (a)/
er
errror
or.. You ar
You e rrequir
are equired only to indicate
equired he was very tired (b)/ so that he went
your response. home immediately. (c)/ No error. (d)
1. There are a number of reasons (a)/ 10. Modern man must pull himself off
I do not like him, (b)/ but his selfishness together (a)/ and act his part in life
is intolerable. (c)/ No error. (d) (b)/ as God’s own most favourite
2. I have read an interesting book creature. (c)/ No error. (d)
yesterday (a)/ and underlined the new 11. There would be fewer follies, (a)/
words (b)/ which are simple but and happiness and good feeling all
effective. (c)/ No error. (d) round (b)/ if we applied the scientific
3. He cannot be trusted (a)/ with attitude for all our affairs.(c)/ No
important secret informations; (b)/ error. (d)
CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 1
12. Meera told to the teacher (a)/ (a) To improving
that she couldn’t come for the rehearsals (b) Of improving
(b)/ the next day. (c)/ No error. (d) (c) For improving
13. I am told that Anjali has been (d) No improvement
(a)/ suffering from fever (b)/ since ten 19. Let’s go for a picnic, shouldn’t
days. (c)/ No error. (d) we ?
14. The armed forces have been (a) Won’t (b)Shan’t
working around the clock (a)/ to bring (c) Shall (d)No improvement
a semblance of normality (b)/ in the 20. If I have the money, I should have
flood-affected areas. (c)/ No error. (d) bought this house.
15. Just when Alfred Nobel’s (a) Had (b) Would have
discoveries were beginning to bring him (c) Should have (d) No improvement
rewards, (a)/ which were to make him 21. If you are told of a downright lie
one of the richest man of his day, (b)/ about goods to induce you to buy them,
an anti-Nobel campaign was started in you may have a remedy.
France. (c)/ No error. (d) (a) About a downright lie
(b) A downright lie
(c) Downright lie
SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
(d) No improvement
Directions (Qs. 16 to 30) : Look at
22. His father forbade him about
the underlined par
partt of each sentence.
entering politics.
Below each sentence are given three
(a) From (b) On
possible substitutions for the underlined (c) To (d) No improvement
par t. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is
part. 23. To some extent, every child takes
better than the underlined par t, indicate
part, after his father.
your response against the corresponding (a) Upon (b) For
letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the (c) Off (d) No improvement
substitutions improves the sentence, 24. The boss said, “I shall look at the
indicate (d) as your response. Thus a matter”.
‘No improvement’ response will be (a) About (b) In
signified by the letter (d). (c) Into (d) No improvement
16. More he gets, more he wants. 25. I did nothing but laughed.
(a) The more he gets, the more (a) Laughing (b) Laugh
(b) The more he gets, more (c) Laughed aloud (d) No
(c) More gets, the more improvement
(d) No improvement 26. The highest recorded speed of
17. We had a grand party and we shorthand under championship
enjoyed very much. conditions, is 300 words per minute.
(a) Enjoyed very much (a) In (b) For
(b) We enjoyed ourselves very much. (c) With (d) No improvement
(c) Enjoyed much 27. There were many petty Rajput
(d) No improvement Kingdoms in India prior than the coming
18. All this has been done with a of the Mohammadans.
view to improve the living conditions of (a) Prior from (b) Prior up to
the poor. (c) Prior to (d) No improvement

2 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE


28. Until the last twenty-eight years, (c) A fascinating
he has been working in various units of (d) An enriching
this plant. 35. The perspicuity of the lawyer’s
(a) For (b) Since arguments was remarkable.
(c) During (d) No improvement (a) Logic (b) Precision
29. I hope you will be able to steer (c) Lucidity (d) Profundity
ahead of the anti-social elements. 36. A man of unsound mind, he was
(a) Steer out (b) Steer free exonerated from all responsibility for
(c) Steer clear (d) No improvement his actions.
30. Had Alizee been well, she could (a) Exculpated (b) Prevented
participate in the competition. (c) Excused (d) Liberated
(a) Would participate 37. He is known to be a prolific writer.
(b) Would have participated (a) Versatile (b) Productive
(c) Will have participated (c) Great (d) Powerful
38. He tried to alleviate the sufferings
(d) No improvement
of his neighbour.
(a) Abate (b) Dissipate
SYNONYMS
(c) Remove (d) Relieve
Directions (Qs. 31 to 40) : In this
39. Her evidence totally refuted the
section, you find a number of sentences,
charges.
par ts of which ar
parts aree underlined. You may
You
(a) Refused (b) Denied
also find only a group of words which (c) Disproved (d) Repelled
is underlined. For each underlined 40. If a leader wants to be popular
par t, four wor
part, ds/phrases (a), (b), (c)
words/phrases he should master the art of being civil
and (d) ar aree listed below
below.. Choose the to everyone.
word/phrase nearest in meaning to the (a) Polite (b) Civilised
underlined par t.
part. (c) Friendly (d) Obedient
31. He could rise to this stature
because of his invincible courage. ANTONYMS
(a) Inviolable Directions (Qs. 41 to 50) : In this
(b) Unmanageable section, each item consists of a word or
(c) Unbeatable a phrase which is underlined in the
(d) Immeasurable given sentence. It is followed by four
32. Though he is a teacher, his speech words or phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d).
lacks distinctness. Select the word or phrase which is
(a) Clarity (b) Precision closest to the opposite in meaning of
(c) Distinction (d) Fluency the underlined word or phrase.
33. The judge was both a judicious 41. The professor had to share a hotel
and impartial man. room with a garrulous tax collector.
(a) Judicial (b) Wise (a) Dumb (b) Speechless
(c) Intelligent (d) Kind (c) Tongue-tied (d) Silent
34. Reading fiction is an absorbing, 42. It was fortuitous that I met her in
creative and entertaining hobby. that party.
(a) A concentrating (a) Unlucky (b) Bad
(b) An engrossing (c) Distressing (d) Abominable
CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 3
43. He is zealous only in the initial 51. The fertility of the land is barely
stages of a project. sufficient to _________ twelve people to
(a) Absent-minded (b) Distraught the acre.
(c) Inattentive (d) Indifferent (a) Revive (b) Raise
44. The climate in the north of Europe (c) Sustain (d) Help
is really dreadful. 52. Beggars are unable to
(a) Pleasant (b) Amiable __________ their power of choice as
(c) Comfortable (d) Gratifying they are denied any alternative.
45. He glanced through the letter (a) Exercise (b) Select
perfunctorily. (c) Declare (d) Prove
(a) Nicely (b) Ceremoniously 53. Poetry is the ___________ of deep
(c) Carefully (d) Particularly and intense feelings of human heart.
46. It is not difficult to take note of (a) Spurt (b) Outcome
his immaculate style of writing. (c) Flow (d) Outpouring
(a) Stained (b) Uneven 54. What we considered a luxury at
(c) Impure (d) Flawed one time has now become ________.
47. He is very fastidious about his (a) Indispensable (b) Necessary
choice of food. (c) Fashionable (d) Stylish
(a) Sloppy (b) Thoughtless 55. It requires a man of __________
(c) Careless (d) Indiscreet to complete this challenging task.
48. However hard you may try to (a) Means (b) Determination
mitigate his problems, you will not (c) Fame (d) Riches
succeed. 56. But during famine, death had no
(a) Augment (b) Increase purpose, no logic, no necessity, it is the
(c) Expand (d) Enlarge result of man’s incompetence and
49. Genuine jewellery is available _______.
only in this shop. (a) Indulgence (b) Waywardness
(a) False (b) Cheap (c) Callousness (d) Injustice
(c) Imitation (d) Duplicate 57. There is an emphasis on truth, a
50. His speech was full of frequent dependence on it, ___________ for it,
facetious remarks. in these early adventures of the Indian
(a) Stupid (b) Grave mind.
(c) Dull (d) Sarcastic (a) A craze (b) A passion
(c) A desire (d) A regard
SELECTING WORDS—SIMPLE 58. He is very obedient, even ______,
SENTENCES to his superior officer.
Directions (Qs. 51 to 60) : In these (a) Servile (b) Polite
questions, each of the sentences has a (c) Obliging (d) Indulgent
blank space and four words are given 59. An announcement was being
after the sentence. Select the word from made at distance and I could not
the alter natives (a), (b), (c) and (d) that
alternatives __________ a single word.
you consider m ost appropriate for the
most (a) Cipher (b) Decode
blank space. (c) Distinguish (d) Decipher

4 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE


60. I cannot make ___________ what (d) To hold your head up and avoid
she wants. looking at the person
(a) Up (b) For (c) It (d) Out 62. The successful way of apology is
that it
COMPREHENSION (a) Should not be mixed up with other
Directions (Qs. 61 to 90) : In this activities.
section, you have six shor
shortt passages. (b) Could be made casually even
After each passage you will find several when you are busy
questions based on that passage. First, (c) Should be hinted at indirectly to
read Passage I and answer the questions the person concerned
based on it. Then go on to the next (d) Could be made seriously while
passage. doing other activities
63. You should apologise for your
PASSAGE I bad behaviour at a party by sending
I consider myself something of an (a) Flowers to the guest of your hostess
authority on apologies, because a quick (b) Flowers to your hostess at your
temper has provided me with plenty of leisure
opportunities to make them. In one of (c) Flowers to your hostess with a note
my earliest memories, my mother is of apology
telling me, “Don’t look at the ground (d) Only a note of apology the next
when you say, ‘I’m sorry’. Hold your day
head up and look the person in the 64. The phrase ‘leaf through a book’
eye, so he’ll know you mean it”. means to
My mother thus conveyed the first (a) Copy from a book
principle of successful apology : it must (b) Turn over the pages of a book
be direct. You must never pretend to be quickly
doing something else. You do not leaf (c) Read a book seriously
through a sheaf of correspondence while (d) Turn over a new leaf
apologising to a subordinate after 65. The author considers himself to
blaming her for a mistake that turned be an authority on apologies because
out to be your fault. You do not (a) His mother trained him how to
apologise to a hostess, whose guest of apologise
honour you insulted, by sending flowers (b) He has read many books on how
the next day without mentioning your to apologise
bad behaviour. (c) He has apologised many a time
61. According to the author’s mother, (d) He has been offered apologies in
the best way to apologise is many ways
(a) To say ‘sorry’ while looking at the
ground PASSAGE II
(b) To look the person in the eye, even Drug addicts in some countries form
if you don’t say ‘sorry’ small groups, the customs of which may
(c) While saying ‘I’m sorry’ look the be unknown to outsiders. They often
person in the eye speak a language that is so full of

CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 5


expressions and words created by 70. According to the passage, it is
themselves that their speech has become wrong to conclude that
unintelligible to those that are not living, (a) Drug users have evolved a
or in some way associated, with them. language
It is amazing to find that, to understand (b) Drug users form small groups
some of today’s so-called pop music, (c) Some drug users travel outside
one requires some acquaintance with their own countries
the peculiar language of those enslaved (d) All drug addicts are Americans
to drugs. A great part of the vocabulary
is international with a preponderance PASSAGE III
of American terms or corruptions of Education is for life, not merely for a
these. This makes it easy for those in livelihood. So long as we are unmindful
search of drugs in a country not their of this truth, the quality of our
own to communicate with those that educational curriculum as well as that
have some to dispose of. of our teachers and students is likely to
remain inadequate. It is not enough for
66. We learn from the passage that
a society to have experts. It needs human
(a) All pop singers like drugs
beings who can think, feel and act
(b) Many pop musicians often use the
generously, the kind of people who
code language of drug addicts
cannot be replaced by computers and
(c) Pop music is understood by drug
robots. The great fault of our present
users only age is its emphasis on efficiency at the
(d) All drug users compose music cost of humanity.
67. The drug users’ speech is 71. When the author says that
unintelligible to others because education is for life rather than for a
(a) It is incoherent livelihood, he means to say that
(b) The use of drugs has affected their (a) Education is a generally useful
pronunciation thing in life
(c) Their language has peculiar words (b) The primary purpose of education
and expressions is to train people to be proper
(d) They communicate only among human beings
themselves (c) Education is useful for earning a
68. Drug addicts living
(a) Get easily assimilated in the (d) Education can enable one to
society in which they live become rich
(b) Have their own culture 72. The author says that it is not enough
(c) Imitate American culture for a society to have experts because
(d) Are cultural revolutionaries (a) Experts are egocentric
69. The international nature of their (b) Experts do not have an overall
vocabulary helps drug addicts to view of things because of their
(a) Buy drugs from one another with being highly specialised
ease (c) Along with efficiency, educated
(b) Get to know one another better people need to be sympathetic and
(c) Pass for Americans sensitive to the needs of society
(d) Conceal their nationalities (d) Experts are highly eccentric people
6 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE
73. The author is critical of the present Hall because the meetings there were
education system because it of Non-Associated Societies—the
(a) Overemphasizes efficiency Associated Societies being high-and-
(b) Neglects social sciences mighty affairs with a long history, such
(c) Is science-oriented as the Dialectic, Philomathic and
(d) Is obsessed with computers Diagnositc, which, in those days,
74. Proper human beings cannot be certainly didn’t admit women.
replaced by computers and robots 76. The author of the passage feels
because nostalgic because
(a) Computers and robots are non- (a) He doesn’t belong to the present
human generation
(b) Computers and robots react (b) He represents the past generation
mechanically (c) He is conscious of time passing
(c) Only human beings can have swiftly
specialised knowledge (d) Things have changed since he was
(d) Only proper human beings can a student
think creatively and act generously 77. The author observes that the
75. The main idea of the author in academic life of a university
this passage is that (a) Changes faster than the social life
(a) Educated people should be (b) Does not change as fast as the
sympathetic towards human social life
suffering (c) Does not change because of a
(b) Education should emphasize generation gap
improve-ment in quality of life (d) Changes abruptly after a long gap
rather than efficiency 78. When the author was a student
(c) Specialisation improves efficiency at Edinburgh, English Literature Society
(d) To attain efficiency is the only goal used to meet
of education (a) Where it meets even now
(b) Where the Dialectic Society used
PASSAGE IV to meet
Grandchildren at university now — (c) Near the place the student shop
how time passes ! is located now
I wonder if they—or anyone else— (d) Where the Diagnostic Society
would be interested in what student life meets now
was like in the ’30s ? Well, here goes ...... 79. The English Literature Society was
The academic part of a student’s life considered to be a Non-Associated
doesn’t change all that much through Society because
the generations, but the style of social (a) Its activities were deemed to be
life has changed. (For better or worse— insignificant
who are we to say ?) The ‘English Lit.’ (b) It refused to be associated with
more properly, Edinburgh University any other society
English Literature Society, met on (c) It was an exclusive society of the
Tuesday evenings in the Non Soc Hall, Department of English
which is roundabout where the student (d) It indulged in unconventional
shop is now. It was called the Non Soc literary movements

CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 7


80. The membership of the Associated 82. Martin Luther’s army
Societies was (a) Invaded the seats of White power
(a) Open to all students and authority
(b) Restricted to students of History (b) Sieged the fortress of White pride
(c) Restricted to students of Psychology and glory
(d) Open to only men (c) Evolved a strategy to overthrow
the White regime and replace it
PASSAGE V by a Black regime
Martin Luther King’s active career (d) Fought against hatred, segregation
extended from 1957 to 1968. During and all kinds of discrimination
this brief career he led numerous protest 83. Martin Luther King appealed to
demonstrations in the South as well as the conscience of White Americans by
in the North of the USA. He challenged (a) Preaching against them
the moral complacency of America and (b) Highlighting their discriminatory
fought for the rights of the Negro. He attitude towards the Blacks
hated the eye-for-an-eye method like (c) Questioning their self-righteousness
Gandhiji and fought with the weapon (d) Appealing to the international
of non-violence—a weapon, said King, organisations against their
that ‘cuts without wounding and exploitation
ennobles the man who wields it. It is a 84. The ‘Black Power’ militants
sword that heals’. And he raised a vast (a) Were jealous of Martin Luther
army. It was an army that would move King’s popularity
but not maul. It was an army to storm (b) Did not approve of Martin Luther
bastions of hatred, to lay siege to the King’s commitment to non-violence
(c) Believed in a violent revolution
fortress of segregation, to surround
(d) Did not participate in the
symbols of discrimination. It was an
movement led by Martin Luther
army whose allegiance was to God and
King
whose strategy and intelligence were
85. The phrase ‘move but not maul’
the eloquently simple dictates of
refers to an army that would
conscience. His creed of non-violence
(a) Move forward and never look
was criticised and challenged by ‘Black
back
Power’ militants who would not renounce
(b) Defeat the White forces in the
the use of violence to achieve their
battlefield
goals. Nevertheless, his faith in non- (c) Make the White forces surrender
violence never wavered. by overpowering them
81. The similarity between Martin (d) Appeal to the conscience of the
Luther King and Gandhiji was that both White Americans without hurting
(a) Fought for the rights of the them
Negroes
(b) Fought for the rights of PASSAGE VI
untouchables It was 7 a.m. on Sunday, June 4,
(c) Were demagogues 1944. Field Marshall Erwin Rommel,
(d) Had firm faith in non-violence Commander- in-Chief of the German
8 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE
Army Group B—guarding the occupied 89. The contents of the cardboard
French Coast facing the English box had for Rommel
Channel—was travelling in a car (a) Strategic importance
next to the driver’s seat. He was tired (b) Great monetary significance
of waiting for the Allied invasion to (c) Sentimental value
begin. (d) Not much value
Leaving on this particular dismal 90. Rommel was keen to be with his
Sunday morning suited Rommel fine. The wife on that day because it was
timing of the trip could not have been (a) Their wedding day
(b) Her birthday
better for the weather was so bad that
(c) Their son’s birthday
the Allies would not even think of a
(d) Hitler’s birthday
landing. Beside him on the seat was a
cardboard box containing a pair of ORDERING OF WORDS IN A
handmade grey-shade shoes, size 5½, SENTENCE
for his wife Lucie-Maria. There was an Directions (Qs. 91 to 100) : In each
especial and very human reason why of the following items, some par ts of
parts
he wanted to be with her on Tuesday, the sentence have been jumbled up. Y ou
You
June 6. It was her birthday. ar
aree rrequir
equir ed to rrear
equired ear range these par
earrange ts,
parts,
86. Rommel was labelled as PP,, Q, R and S, to pr oduce
produce
(a) A famous German detective during the correct sentence. Choose the proper
the Second World War. sequence fr om the given alter
from natives (a),
alternatives
(b) The Commander-in-Chief of the (b), (c) and (d).
German army in occupied France 91. The only time when this dynamic
(c) A war-weary old man cricketer (P)/ was on the 1979 tour of
(d) A German messenger during the England (Q)/ failed with the bat (R)/
war the tag of an all-rounder did not fit
87. Rommel was going back to him (S)
Germany because The proper sequence should be
(a) He was afraid of facing the Allies (a) S P R Q (b) P R S Q
(b) He was bored with the war (c) S R P Q (d) S Q P R
92. Kapil left in an aeroplane (P)/
(c) He was annoyed with the weather
after reading a sailing magazine (Q)/
in France
had decided (R)/ to build his own boat
(d) He was homesick and wanted to
nine years earlier (S)
see his wife The proper sequence should be
88. Rommel considered June 4, the (a) P R Q S (b) R S Q P
best time to leave because (c) R Q P S (d) P S R Q
(a) The weather conditions ruled out 93. When it becomes an honour of a
an Allied invasion lifetime (P)/ in recognition of their great
(b) All his junior Generals were performance (Q)/ illustrious personalities
present there (R)/ win an award (S)
(c) By then the enemy was not ready The proper sequence should be
for the attack (a) R P Q S (b) P Q R S
(d) He had to consult Hitler (c) Q R S P (d) R S Q P

CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 9


94. The newspaper reported that 100. Standing carelessly with his
according to one estimate (P)/ and many sword, (P)/ the fat major (Q)/ held
of them assume epidemic proportions horizontally behind him and with his
(Q)/ most illnesses in India (R)/ are legs far apart (R)/ looked after the
related to water-borne diseases (S) receding horseman and laughed (S)
The proper sequence should be The proper sequence should be
(a) P R Q S (b) P R S Q (a) P Q R S (b) Q P R S
(c) R Q S P (d) R Q P S (c) P Q R S (d) P R S Q
95. The zoologist says that having
been bitten by them once (P)/ ORDERING OF SENTENCES
trembled to make a second attempt at Directions (Qs. 101 to 105) : In the
catching (Q)/ the snakes (R)/ the snake- following items, each passage consists
charmers (S) of six sentences. The first and the sixth
The proper sequence should be sentences are given in the beginning.
(a) P R Q S (b) S Q P R The middle four sentences in each item
(c) R P Q S (d) P S Q R have been removed and jumbled up.
96. If you had told me I would not
These ar e labelled PP,, Q, R and S. Y
are ou
You
have given it to you (P)/ that you had
are required to find out the proper
already (Q)/ bought this book (R)/ as
sequence of these four sentences from
a birthday present (S)
the given alter -natives (a), (b), (c) and
alter-natives
The proper sequence should be
(d).
(a) Q R P S (b) P Q R S
(c) S P Q R (d) S R Q P 101.
97. All precautionary measures were S1 : The discovery of radioactivity
taken to prevent the capture of booths was the foundation stone of
(P)/ during the election (Q)/ by the atomic research.
Government (R)/ by the terrorists (S) S6 : It is a thought well worth serious
The proper sequence should be consideration.
(a) S P R Q (b) Q S P R P : This higher value it has because
(c) R P S Q (d) R Q S P it has brought relief and cure to
98. The Government has assured the many suffering persons.
people that in the Kargil operation (P)/ Q : Today, because of its rarity
who have sacrificed their lives (Q)/ will radium is one of the most
be properly looked after (R)/ the families commercially valuable elements
of all those soldiers (S) in the world.
The proper sequence should be R : One might claim that in radium
(a) P S R Q (b) S Q P R alone atomic research has given
(c) S R Q P (d) S P R Q us something capable of saving
99. All through collecting and storing more lives than the atomic
up food (P)/ the long warm summer bombs have destroyed.
days (Q)/ an ant was very busy (R)/ S : But it has a higher value than
for the winter (S) pounds, shillings and pence.
The proper sequence should be The proper sequence should be
(a) S R Q P (b) Q P S R (a) R S P Q (b) Q S P R
(c) Q R P S (d) R S Q P (c) P S R Q (d) S R P Q
10 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE
102. 104.
S1 : The object of advertisement, of S1 : Ants seem to be able to do
course, is to present goods in everything but think.
the most favourable light S6 : All the work it does is done for
possible. the community.
S6 : They correct the distortion and P : An ant has ver y little
so help the consumer to come individuality and is not beset by
to a reasonable decision. any anti-social urges or desires
P : The shopper must expect to get as men and women so often are.
Q : When an individual ant is
only a one-sided view from an
subjected to any kind of
advertisement.
intelligence test it generally
Q : Advantages are paraded, but
comes out of it rather badly.
drawbacks are not mentioned. R : Any food an ant finds is shared
R : This is why the independent and it will unhesitatingly sacrifice
reports of goods which are itself if the nest is threatened.
made in S : There are no equivalents of
newspapers and magazines are police in an ant’s nest because
so valuable. there would be nothing for them
S : For a more balanced picture he to do.
must make his own enquiries. The proper sequence should be
The proper sequence should be (a) Q P S R (b) P Q R S
(a) S Q P R (b) R S P Q (c) Q R S P (d) S P R Q
(c) Q P S R (d) Q P R S 105.
103. S1 : Now Kannan shook the box,
S1 : In what ways does mass held the slit up to light and tried
production differ from the older to find out how much it
methods of manufacture ? contained.
S6 : He would have been ashamed S6 : After a while he put it down
if any serious fault had and looked about for something
appeared in his work. with which to widen the slit.
P : The blacksmith had made a
P : He was proud of the fruits of
good job of it—the slit was
his labour.
exactly of the thickness of a
Q : He put into his work all his skill,
coin, which could go one way
all his experience. through it.
R : His reputation, his standing Q : But not one coin came out of it.
among his fellows, depended on R : He held the box upside down
his skill and on his character. and shook it violently till he felt
S : Formerly a craftsman, or skilled deaf with the clanging of coins.
workman, often made the whole S : No power on earth could shake
of an article himself by hand. a coin out of it again.
The proper sequence should be The proper sequence should be
(a) S P Q R (b) S Q P R (a) P Q R S (b) R Q P S
(c) Q P R S (d) P S Q R (c) P S R Q (d) S P Q R
CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 11
SELECTING WORDS 111. (a) practical (b) visionary
Directions (Qs. 106 to 120) : In the (c) dreaming
following passage, you are given blank 112. (a) earthy (b) mundane
spaces marked 106 to 120. Against (c) wild
each of these numbers below the 113. (a) swayed (b) fascinated
passage a choice of three words marked (c) tempted
(a), (b) and (c) is suggested to replace 114. (a) private (b) solitary
the respective blank space in the (c) quiet
passage. Choose the best word from 115. (a) singular (b) eccentric
these three and indicate your choice. (c) idiosyncratic
On a stormy night, in the tempestuous 116. (a) effected (b) resulted
times of the French Revolution, a young (c) told
man was returning to his lodgings, at a 117. (a) declined (b) diseased
late hour, across the old part of Paris. (c) deceased
The lightning ...(106)... and loud claps 118. (a) impaired (b) reduced
of thunder rattled ...(107)... the lofty, (c) weakened
narrow streets—but I ...(108)... first tell 119. (a) imaginative (b) creative
you something about ...(109)... young (c) fanciful
man. Gottfried Wolfgang had studied 120. (a) impressive (b) ideal
for ...(110)... time at Gottingen, but (c) idealistic
being of a ...(111)... nature, he had
wandered into those ...(112)... and
speculative doctrines which had
...(113)... most other German students
too. His ...(114)... life, his intense
application, and the ...(115)... nature
of his studies had ...(116)... on his mind
and body. His imagination was
...(117)...
...(117).... His health too was ...(118)...
...(118)....
He had been indulging in ...(119)...
speculations on spiritual essences until
he had an ...(120)... world of his own
around him.
106. (a) glistened (b) gleamed
(c) glimmered
107. (a) on (b) off
(c) through
108. (a) might (b) should
(c) could
109. (a) a (b) that
(c) this
110. (a) a brief (b) a little
(c) some

12 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE


immediately’. ‘So’ is wrongly 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (b) 31. (c)
placed in part ‘c’. It should 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (c)
better be placed in part ‘b’. 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c)
So, we should mark only that 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (d)
part where ‘so’ is wrongly 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (c)
placed. 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (c) 51. (c)
10. (c) : It should be ‘as God’s most 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (b)
favourite creature’. ‘Own’ is 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (c)
redundant here 60. (d) 61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (d)
11. (c) : It should be ‘if we applied 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (c)
the scientific attitude to all our 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (d) 71. (b)
affairs’ 72. (c) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (b)
12. (a) : It should be ‘Meera told her 76. (a) 77. (b) 78. (c) 79. (d)
teacher’ 80. (d) 81. (d) 82. (d) 83. (b)
13. (c) : It should be ‘for ten days’ 84. (c) 85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (d)
14. (a) : It should be ‘The armed 88. (a) 89. (c) 90. (b) 91. (d)
forces have been working 92. (c) 93. (d) 94. (b) 95. (d)
round the clock’ 96. (a) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (c)
15. (b) : It should be ‘which were to 100. (b) 101. (b) 102. (c) 103. (b)
make him one of the richest 104. (a) 105. (b) 106. (b) 107. (b)
men of his day’ 108. (b) 109. (b) 110. (b) 111. (b)
16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 112. (c) 113. (b) 114. (b) 115. (c)
20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (d) 116. (c) 117. (b) 118. (a) 119. (c)
24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 120. (b)

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1. The total surface area of the earth (c) 2 and 3
is (d) 1 and 3
(a) 510 million sq km 3. Match List I with List II and then
(b) 610 million sq km select the correct answer using the codes
(c) 710 million sq km given below the Lists :
(d) 810 million sq km List I List II
2. Consider the following statements (Active volcano) (Country)
regarding the Arab conquest of A. Etna 1. Hawaii
Sindh : B. Mauna Loa 2. Java
1. It did not prove to be permanent
C. Fujiyama 3. Sicily
2. It was adequately supported by
D. Merapu 4. Japan
the Caliphs.
A B C D
3. It lasted for about three centuries.
Which of these statements are (a) 3 1 2 4
correct ? (b) 1 3 2 4
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 3 4 2
(b) 1 and 2 (d) 3 1 4 2

CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 13


4. Consider the following statements 10. The mean monthly temperature
regarding the Vijayanagar empire : and rainfall of a city are plotted in the
1. It was named after the city of given diagram
Vijayanagara
2. Krishnadeva Raya was the greatest
of all the Vijayanagar rulers
3. Kings of Vijayanagar ruled on
behalf of Shaivite deity Virupaksha
4. Vijayanagar empire successfully
resisted the march of the Delhi
Sultans to the South
Which of these statements are
correct ?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
5. ‘Mansar lake’ is located in The city in question is
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (a) Allahabad (b) Amritsar
(b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Delhi (d) Jaipur
(c) Punjab 11. Match List I with List II and then
(d) Uttar Pradesh select the correct answer using the codes
6. Who among the following Hindu given below the Lists :
List I List II
religious teachers was called to the
(Chemical (Molecular
Ibadat Khana of Emperor Akbar ?
compound) formula)
(a) Hari Vijaya Suri
A. Plaster of Paris 1.Ca(OH)2
(b) Purushottama
B. Slaked lime 2.CaCO3
(c) Banuchandra Upadhayya
C. Gypsum 3.2CaSO4, H2O
(d) Vijaya Sen Suri
D. Mohr salt 4.CaO
7. The largest source of Foreign Direct
E. Quicklime 5. FeSO4,
Investment in India is
(NH4)2SO4,
(a) Germany
6H2O
(b) Japan 6.CaSO4, 2H2O
(c) Mauritius A B C D E
(d) Italy (a) 6 2 3 4 1
8. The headquarters of World Trade (b) 1 2 3 4 5
Organisation are in (c) 3 1 4 5 6
(a) Montreal (b) Seattle (d) 3 1 6 5 4
(c) Geneva (d) The Hague 12. Shyok is a tributary of
9. Kishtwar town is situated on the (a) Brahmaputra
banks of (b) Indus
(a) Beas (b) Chenab (c) Chenab
(c) Jhelum (d) Ravi (d) Sutlej
14 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE
13
13.. In 1998, the contribution of 19. The principle that distinguishes
Agriculture Sector to the GDP of India Jainism from Buddhism is the
was about (a) Practice of the eight-fold path
(a) 37% (b) 30% (b) Rejection of the infallibility of the
(c) 47% (d) 17% Vedas
14. Consider the following devices : (c) Belief in rebirth
1. Moderator (d) Attribution of a soul to all beings
2. Control rod and things
3. Shield 20. Uranium Corporation of India
4. Electrostatic precipitator Limited is situated in
Which of these devices are used in a (a) Maharashtra
nuclear power reactor ? (b) West Bengal
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Bihar
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Rajasthan
15. A girl is swinging on a swing in 21. The Indus Valley people were
a sitting position. How will the period
familiar with the use of
of swing be affected if the girl stood
(a) Tin, copper and iron
up ?
(b) Tin, lead and copper
(a) The period will decrease
(c) Copper and lead
(b) The period will increase
(d) Copper alone
(c) The period will remain the same
22. The venue of the first ever
(d) The swinging will stop
16. According to the 1991 Census, Afro-Asian Games to be held in
the number of metropolitan towns then 2001 is
in India was (a) Cape Town
(a) 18 (b) 23 (c) 28 (d) 33 (b) Dhaka
17. Which one of the following (c) New Delhi
awards is given for Agricultural (d) Singapore
Research ? 23. Match List I with List II and then
(a) Dr. Homi Bhabha Award select the correct answer using the codes
(b) Borlaug Award given below the Lists :
(c) Ramon Magsaysay Award List I List II
(d) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award A. Friedel-Crafts 1. Acid chloride/
18. If the volume occupied by one reaction ketone
mole of a gas at normal temperature B. Fermentation 2. Yeast/ethanol
and pressure is 22.4 litres, then the C. Sandmeyer’s 3. Aniline/
volume occupied by 5.6 grams of reaction chlorobenzene
nitrogen (Atomic weight = 14) at normal D. Saponification 4. Oil/soap
temperature and pressure will be A B C D
(a) 2.24 litres (a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 4.48 litres (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 11.2 litres (c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 22.4 litres (d) 2 1 4 3
CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 15
24. Match List I with List II and then (b) Spill out at once
select the correct answer using the codes (c) Not spill out
given below the Lists : (d) Be thrown out with high speed
List I List II 28. Which one of the following
A. Ho Chi Minh 1. Founder of Articles of the Constitution of India
democracy makes special provision for the State of
movement in Jammu and Kashmir ?
Myanmar (a) Article 356 (b) Article 360
B. Sun Yat-sen 2. First PM of (c) Article 368 (d) Article 370
Singapore 29. Match List I with List II and then
C. Suu Kyi 3. Vietnam’s select the correct answer using the codes
Aung San revolutionary given below the Lists :
leader List I List II
D. Lee Kuan Yew 4. First President A. 78 AD 1. Sack of Somnath
of Republic of Temple
China B. 476 AD 2. Birth of the
A B C D astronomer
(a) 4 3 2 1 Aryabhatta
(b) 3 4 2 1 C. 1026 AD 3. Commencement of
(c) 4 3 1 2 the Saka Era
(d) 3 4 1 2 D. 647 AD 4. Death of
25. The first Governor-General of Harshavardhana
India was appointed under the A B C D
provisions of the Act of
(a) 2 3 4 1
(a) 1773 (b) 1784
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1833 (d) 1858
(c) 3 2 1 4
26. Match List I with List II and then
(d) 3 2 4 1
select the correct answer using the codes
30. Which one of the following
given below the Lists :
statements is correct ?
List I List II
(a) CO is an acidic oxide
A. Chymotrypsin 1. Cellulose
(b) NO is a neutral oxide
B. Polysaccharide 2. Endrin
(c) N2O5 is a mixed oxide
C. Rodenticide 3. Enzyme
D. Dye 4. Fluorescein (d) PbO2 is a peroxide
A B C D 31. The President of India can
(a) 3 1 2 4 proclaim National Emergency
(b) 1 3 2 4 (a) On the advice of the Council of
(c) 1 3 4 2 Ministers
(d) 3 1 4 2 (b) On the advice of the Prime
27. A bucket containing water is Minister
rotated in a vertical circle with high (c) On the advice of the leader of the
speed. At the highest point, when the ruling party or set of parties in
bucket is upside down, the water will power
(a) Spill out slowly (d) At his own discretion

16 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE


32. Which one of the following industry in Kurnool where the fuel
graphs correctly represents the distance- available is
time variation for a body released (a) Methane
vertically downward from the top of a (b) Ethylene
building ? (c) Hydrogen
(d) Heavy water
35. ORT (oral rehydration therapy) is
associated with the treatment of
(a) (a) Anaemia (b) Beriberi
(c) Cancer (d) Diarrhoea
36. In 1498, Vasco da Gama
reached
(a) Trivandrum (b) Cochin
(c) Calicut (d) Ratnagiri
(b) 37. Which one of the following places
ranks second among the coldest places
in the world ?
(a) Dras (Jammu and Kashmir)
(b) Kullu (Himachal Pradesh)
(c) Manali (Himachal Pradesh)
(c) (d) Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh)
38. Which one of the following has
been the main accusation against the
software company Microsoft ?
(a) Cheating shareholders
(b) Monopoly trade
(c) Tax evasion
(d) Funding political parties
(d) 39. The correct chronological order
in which (1) V. P. Singh; (2) Chandra
Shekhar; (3) Morarji Desai and
(4) Charan Singh occupied the office of
the Prime Minister of India is
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1
33. The founder of the Pala dynasty (c) 3, 4, 1, 2
of Bengal was (d) 4, 3, 1, 2
(a) Dharmapala (b) Gopala 40. The total sum of the goods and
(c) Devapala (d) Mahipala services produced within a country in a
34. A project has been taken up year minus depreciation is called the
by BHEL Corporate R & D, Hyderabad (a) Gross National Product
for development and field-testing of (b) Net National Product
50 kW phosphoric acid fuel cell (c) Gross Domestic Product
(PAFC) power plant in a chlor-alkali (d) Net Domestic Product
CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 17
41
41.. Which one of the following is (a) They have very efficient grinding
not true of the Foreign Exchange teeth
Management Act, 1999 ? (b) They possess an enlarged section
(a) Removal of quantitative restrictions of the gut containing bacteria
on import of items which break down the cellulose
(b) Introducing a new chapter for for them
boosting export (c) They produce the enzyme cellulose
(c) Indian companies are at liberty to which digests the cellulose;
access AGR/GDR humans do not make this enzyme
(d) There is no negative limit for FDI (d) Humans do not need to digest
42. Bacteria reproduce cellulose
(a) Only sexually 46. Paraffin wax is obtained from
(b) Only asexually (a) Petroleum
(c) Mostly sexually (b) Coal
(d) Mostly asexually (c) Animal fat
43. Who among the following (d) Vegetable oils
cricketers has not had the distinction of 47. Which one of the following
being the highest wicket taker at one countries is not a part of the Horn of
time or another in Test cricket ? Africa ?
(a) Dennis Lillee (a) Somalia
(b) Imran Khan (b) Ethiopia
(c) Richard Hadlee (c) Eritrea
(d) Courtney Walsh (d) Rwanda
44. While Venus is seen only for one 48. The details of Coronation
to two hours either after sunset or before ceremony are narrated in the
sunrise, Jupiter is seen for the whole (a) Vishnu Purana
night whenever it is visible in the sky. (b) Kenopanishad
The reason for this is that (c) Atharva Veda
(a) Venus is much smaller than (d) Aitareya Brahmana
Jupiter 49. Carborundum is
(b) Venus is much closer to the earth (a) Calcium carbide
than Jupiter (b) Calcium carbonate
(c) The orbit of Venus is inside the (c) Silicon carbide
earth’s orbit whereas the orbit of (d) Silicon dioxide
Jupiter lies outside the orbit of the Directions (Qs. 50 to 60) : These
earth questions consist of two statements, one
(d) Venus reflects lesser amount of labelled as ‘Asser tion A
‘Assertion A’’ and the other
sunlight than Jupiter labelled as ‘Reason R’. Y ou ar
You aree to
45. Man cannot digest cellulose. examine these two statements carefully
Herbivores, such as rabbits and cows, and decide if the Asser tion A and the
Assertion
can. The most important reason for this Reason R are individually true and if so,
is that whether the Reason is a correct
18 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE
explanation of the Asser tion. Select your
Assertion. 54.
answers to these items using the codes Assertion (A) :
given below
below.. The density of the large outer
Codes : planets of the solar system is very
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the low.
correct explanation of A Reason (R) :
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not The large outer planets consist of
a correct explanation of A substances like hydrogen, helium
(c) A is true but R is false and hydrogen compounds.
(d) A is false but R is true 55.
50. Assertion (A) :
231
Assertion (A) : A radioactive element 90 X on
The snow line in the Western emitting a beta particle would form
Himalayas is lower than that in 231
Y.
91
the Eastern Himalayas.
Reason (R) :
Reason (R) :
A neutron has turned into a proton
Western Himalayas are at a higher
in the process.
latitude.
56.
51.
Assertion (A) :
Assertion (A) : When copper wire is placed in a
About seventy-five percent of the solution of silver nitrate, a thin
working population of the Aravalli layer of silver is deposited on it.
mountain region is engaged in Reason (R) :
agriculture. Copper is more electronegative
Reason (R) : than silver.
The greater parts of Aravallis 57.
receive scanty rainfall. Assertion (A) :
52. Sulphanilic acid exists as a
Assertion (A) : zwitterion while p-amino benzoic
Sugarcane grows well in the hot acid does not.
and humid climate. Reason (R) :
Reason (R) : SO3H group is more acidic than
Its yield per unit area is the highest COOH group and is capable of
in Punjab. transferring its H+ to the weak NH2
53. group.
Assertion (A) : 58.
Melting point of basic lava flowing Assertion :
out of a volcanic eruption is very Alauddin Khalji imposed curbs on
low. the power of the nobility.
Reason (R) : Reason (R) :
Basic lava is found in a liquid form Nobles were against Alauddin at
and flows through a large distance the time of his struggle with
before it solidifies. Jalaluddin.

CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 19


59. (b) 1, 2, 4, 3
Assertion (A) : (c) 3, 4, 1, 2
Nearly one-half of the population (d) 3, 4, 2, 1
of the world is found near the sea 64. A ship met with an accident at
coasts up to a height of 100 metres 30°E and 35°N. The ship was sailing
above mean sea level (m.s.l.). in the
Reason (R) : (a) Baltic Sea
In these areas the land is levelled. (b) Black Sea
Hence, occupations are easily (c) Mediterranean Sea
available. (d) Red Sea
60. 65. ‘AD VALOREM’ means, according
Assertion (A) :
to
Gandhiji advocated setting up of
(a) Weight
small-scale industries in villages.
(b) Number
Reason (R) :
(c) Value
Small-scale industries would
(d) Volume
provide employment to rural
population. 66. The record low rate of inflation
61. ‘Dumping’ in the context of in India up to financial year 1999-2000
international trade refers to was
(a) Exporting goods at prices below (a) 1.5 percent
the actual cost of production (b) 2.0 percent
(b) Exporting goods without paying (c) 2.5 percent
the appropriate taxes in the (d) 3.0 percent
receiving country 67. The distance to which Television
(c) Exporting goods of inferior quality signals can reach is proportional to
(d) Exporting goods only to re-import (h is the height of the TV transmitting
them at cheaper rates tower)
62. Rainfall in the doldrums is of the 1
nature of (a) (b) h (c) h (d) h2
h
(a) Orographic precipitation
(b) Natural precipitation 68. In April 2000, the World Bank
(c) Frontal precipitation announced the approval of 111 million
(d) Convectional precipitation dollars credit to Andhra Pradesh for
63. Consider the following events : improving the
1. Siraj-ud-Daulah’s invasion of the (a) Use of information technology in
British factory at Kasimbazar State administration
2. Black Hole Tragedy (b) Opportunities for the rural poor of
3. Battle of Plassey the State
4. Treaty of Alinagar (c) Telecommunication network in the
The correct chronological sequence of State
these events is (d) Public transport facilities in the
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 State.

20 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE


69. A person can lift readily, a bucket dissolution of a panchayat, elections are
full of water from a well through a thick to be compulsorily held within
nylon rope but will be unable to do the (a) 2 months
same when he uses a thin multifibre (b) 4 months
metallic wire instead of the thick nylon (c) 6 months
rope. (d) 8 months
This is because 73. A dispute relating to the election
(a) The hand experiences greater of the President of India is decided by
force through the nylon rope than the
through the metal wire (a) Election Commission
(b) The hand experiences less force (b) Chief Justice of India
through the nylon rope than (c) Supreme Court
through the metal wire (d) Parliament
(c) More pressure is exerted on the 74. Match List I with List II and then
hand when the metal wire is used select the correct answer using the codes
as compared to the pressure given below the Lists :
exerted when a nylon rope is used List I List II
(d) Less pressure is exerted on the A. Hangul 1. Kaziranga
hand when the metal wire is used B. Tiger 2. Dachigam
as compared to the force exerted C. Indian lion 3. Sundarbans
when a nylon rope is used D. Rhinoceros 4. Gir Forest
70. Consider the following A B C D
statements : (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
AIDS, the most dreaded disease of
(c) 2 3 1 4
recent times, spreads through
(d) 3 1 4 2
1. Blood transfusion
75. Which one of the following
2. Sharing the same toilets and rooms
agencies has the power to declare any
3. Social kissing
industrial unit as a potentially sick unit ?
4. Sexual contact
(a) BIFR (b) MRTPC
Which of the above statements are
(c) FICCI (d) IRBI
correct ?
76. Consider the following
(a) 2, 3 and 4
statements :
(b) 1, 3 and 4 The foreign exchange reserves of
(c) 1 and 4 India consist of
(d) 1, 2 and 4 1. Foreign currency assets held by
71. Late Ustad Zia Mohiuddin Dagar the RBI
brought back the grandeur of 2. Gold holdings of the RBI
(a) Tanpura 3. Special Drawing Rights
(b) Rudra Veena Which of these statements are correct
(c) Sur Bahar (a) 1 and 3
(d) Chalo (b) 1 and 2
72. According to the 73rd Constitution (c) 2 and 3
Amendment Act, in the event of (d) 1, 2 and 3
CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 21
77. Which one of the following is the given below the Lists :
characteristic vegetation of regions List I List II
between the snow line and about 3000 (Name of book) (Author)
metres above mean sea level of the A. 3001 : Final 1. Steven
Himalayan region ? Odyssey Weinberg
(a) Thick forests of birch, fir, spruce B. A Brief History 2. Stephen
and other trees of Time Hawking
(b) Forests of oak, deodar, chestnut C. The First Three 3. Carl Sagan
and maple trees Minutes
(c) A few dwarf shrubs D. Cosmos 4. Arthur
(d) Forests of khair, sandalwood, C. Clarke
palas and other trees A B C D
78. Match List I with List II and then (a) 2 4 3 1
select the correct answer using the codes (b) 4 2 3 1
given below the Lists : (c) 4 2 1 3
List I List II (d) 2 4 1 3
A. 1905 1.Transfer of capital 82. The first Muslim ruler to introduce
from Calcutta to Delhi the system of price control was
B. 1911 2.Rowlatt Act (a) Balban
C. 1918 3.Appointment of Simon (b) Jalaluddin Khalji
Commission (c) Alauddin Khalji
4. 1927 4.Partition of Bengal (d) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
A B C D 83. Gandhiji believed that Satyagraha
(a) 4 1 3 2 is a weapon of
(b) 4 1 2 3 (a) The poor
(c) 1 4 3 2 (b) The weak
(d) 1 4 2 3 (c) The untouchables
79. India is a (d) None of these
(a) Union of Federal States 84. Which one of the following States
(b) Federal Union of States had a higher literacy rate than the rest
(c) Union of States according to the 1991 Census ?
(d) Union of States and Union (a) Assam (b) Haryana
Territories (c) Karnataka (d) Sikkim
80. In the nuclear reaction 85. Alberuni came to India along with
(a) Mahmud Ghazni
7
3 Li + 11 H → 224 He (b) Muhammad bin Qasim
the mass defect is 0.0186 amu, which (c) Muhammad Ghuri
in terms of energy would work out to (d) Timur
(a) 0.278 × 10–11 eV 86. If a wire of resistance 1 ohm is
(b) 0.278 MeV stretched to double its length, its
(c) 17.36 MeV resistance will become
(d) 27.8 MeV 1 1
81. Match List I with List II and then (a) ohm (b) ohm
4 2
select the correct answer using the codes (c) 2 ohms (d) 4 ohms
22 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE
87. In the year 1905, Gopal Krishna (a) Alleviation of urban poverty
Gokhale founded the (b) Promotion of tribal art
(a) Servants of India Society (c) Rural housing and rehabilitation
(b) Asiatic Society (d) Drinking water supply
(c) Brahmo Samaj 93. Ian Wilmut and his team of scientists
(d) Bharat Sewak Samaj at the Roslin Institute for Agricultural
88. The axis of rotation of the earth Sciences have developed a live mammal
is tilted by 23.5° to the plane of from a single cell derived from the udder
revolution around the sun. The latitude tissue of a mother animal by transplanting
of Mumbai is less than 23.5° whereas its nucleus into an egg cell from which its
the latitude of Delhi is more than 23.5°. own original nucleus was eliminated.
Which one of the following statements Which one of the following statements in
in this regard is correct ? this regard is false ?
(a) The sun can come overhead at (a) This is the first true clone of a
both these places mammalian species in the
(b) The sun will never come overhead laboratory which has raised social
at either of these places and ethical issues in carrying out
(c) At Mumbai the sun can come such research
overhead, but it will never do so (b) Scientists believe that this research
at Delhi would finally lead to cloning of
(d) At Delhi, the sun can come genes
overhead, but it will never do so (c) The monkey used in this research
at Mumbai was named Dolly
89. In the context of exports, which (d) The research showed that
one of the following pairs is not correctly totipotency is achievable in
matched ? animals in the same manner as in
(a) Cape Town : Wool and wine plants
(b) Adelaide : Wheat and 94. Which one of the following
wool organisations has recently been set
(c) Perth : Rice and corn up by the Government of India to
(d) San Francisco : Fruits and wine provide single-point interface between
90. Which one of the following pairs foreign investors and the government
is correctly matched ? machinery ?
(a) Zia-ud-din : Tarikh-i- (a) Foreign Investment Monitoring
Barni Muhammadi Agency
(b) Shams-i-Siraj : Tarikh-i-Feroze (b) Foreign Investment Implementation
Afif Shahi Agency
(c) Ibn Batuta : Fatwa-i-Jahandari (c) Foreign Investment Monitoring
(d) Amir Khusro : Tabqat-i-Nasiri Authority
91. India’s economic planning cannot (d) Foreign Investment Implementation
be said to be Authority
(a) Indicative (b) Imperative 95. The largest postal network in the
(c) Limited (d) Democratic world is in
92. A new department has been (a) USA (b) China
established in Union Government for (c) India (d) Brazil
CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 23
96. Polyethylene bags are harmful to (d) Mahatma Gandhi Grameen Vikas
the environment because they Yojana
(a) Cannot be disposed of by burning 101. The British Prime Minister who
(b) Cannot be recycled declared his ‘Communal Award’ scheme
(c) Are water resistant to India in 1932 was
(d) Are not biodegradable (a) Winston Churchill
97. As per Indian Constitution, in the (b) Clement Attlee
event of any conflict between the Union (c) Ramsay McDonald
laws and State laws, (d) Neville Chamberlain
(a) The matter is referred to the 102.
Supreme Court
(b) The State laws shall prevail
(c) The Union laws shall prevail
(d) The matter is referred to the
Parliamentar y Committee
specifically constituted to resolve
the dispute
98. Match List I with List II and select
the correct answer using the codes given The shaded area in the given map of
below the Lists : India shows the distribution of
List I List II (a) Coffee (b) Coconut
(Disease) (Deficient Vitamin) (c) Groundnut (d) Tobacco
A. Scurvy 1. Vitamin A 103. Consider the following seaports :
B. Rickets 2. Vitamin B 1. Chennai
C. Night blindness 3. Vitamin C 2. Machilipatnam
D. Beriberi 4. Vitamin D 3. Nagapattinam
A B C D 4. Tuticorin
(a) 4 3 1 2 The correct sequence of these ports
(b) 3 4 2 1 as one moves from north to south is
(c) 4 3 2 1 (a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
(d) 3 4 1 2 (c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3
99. In baseball, the two opposing 104. Biological Oxygen Demand
teams consist of (BOD) is a standard criterion for
(a) 10 players each (a) Measuring oxygen levels in
(b) 9 players each animals
(c) 8 players each (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest
(d) 7 players each ecosystems
100. In Budget 2000-2001, the new (c) Pollution assay in aquatic systems
scheme announced for uplift of the rural (d) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
infrastructure is 105. Santhal was associated with
(a) Grameen Vikas Yojana (a) Tribal Rebellion
(b) Bharatiya Gramodaya Yojana (b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya (c) Salt Satyagraha
Yojana (d) Indigo Revolt
24 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE
106. ‘Khamsin’ is a hot and dry local (c) Red, yellow and green
wind experienced in (d) Blue, yellow and red
(a) Iran (b) Egypt 111. If it is 6.00 a.m. at Greenwich,
(c) Niger (d) Saudi Arabia then it will be 11.00 a.m. at
107. Match List I with List II and then (a) 90°E (b) 60°E
select the correct answer using the codes (c) 75°E (d) 15°W
given below the Lists : 112. To ensure the early completion
List I (District) List II (State) of selected irrigation and multipurpose
A. Anantapur 1. Punjab projects, the Government of India
B. Bijapur 2. Rajasthan launched a programme to provide
C. Bharatpur 3. Karnataka Central loans to States. The programme
D. Ferozepur 4. Andhra Pradesh in question is
A B C D (a) Command Area Development
(a) 4 3 2 1 Project
(b) 4 3 1 2 (b) Catchment Area Benefit
(c) 3 4 1 2 Programme
(d) 3 4 2 1 (c) National Irrigation Development
108. The materials used for making Project
vessels for cooking purposes should have (d) Accelerated Irrigation Benefit
(a) Low specific heat and high thermal Programme
conductivity 113.
(b) Low specific heat and low thermal
conductivity
(c) High specific heat and low thermal
conductivity
(d) High specific heat and high
thermal conductivity
109. Match List I with List II and then
select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II The dots in the given map of India
A. Pir Panjal 1. Arunachal Pradesh represent the location of
B. Dhauladhar 2. Uttar Pradesh (a) Bauxite deposits
C. Nag Tibba 3. Jammu & Kashmir (b) Copper deposits
D. Mishimi Hills 4. Himachal Pradesh (c) Lead deposits
A B C D (d) Manganese deposits
(a) 4 3 1 2 114. Consider the following
(b) 3 4 2 1 budgetary features :
(c) 3 4 1 2 1. Bringing export income under tax net
(d) 4 3 2 1 2. Considerably higher allocation for
110. In a colour television set, the defence
pictures of which one of the following 3. Cut in subsidy on fertilisers
sets of colours is superimposed to Which of the above are reflected in
generate true colour picture ? the current year’s Union Budget ?
(a) Red, green and blue (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Yellow, green and blue (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 25
115. ‘Indian Standard Meridian’ (c) Groundnut and cardamom
passes through the States of UP, MP, cultivation
(a) AP and Karnataka (d) Cotton and cardamom cultivation
(b) AP and Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu ANSWERS
(d) Orissa and AP 1. (a) 2. (b)
116. Who among the following pairs 3. (d) : Stromboli is in Sicily.
of artistes adapted Guitar and 4. (c)
Saxophone for Hindustani music ? 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b)
(a) Sheikh Chinna Maulana and 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (d)
Krishnan 12. (b) : In Ladakh (J&K).
(b) Viswa Mohan Bhatt and Kadri 13. (c) 14. (a)
Gopal Nath
(c) Umayalpuram K. Sivaram and l
Palghat Raghu 15. (a) : T = 2π
g
(d) Valayapatti Shanmuga Sundaram
l = length of swing.
and T. K. Moorthy
16. (b) 17. (b)
117. Quarks are supposed to be
particles that make up 18. (b) : 28g (1 mole of nitrogen)
(a) Light (b) Sound occupies 22.4 litres
(c) Electrons (d) Protons ∴ 5.6 gram of nitrogen occupies
118. Which one of the following is 22.4
most prone to earthquakes ? × 5.6 = 4.48 litres
28
(a) Coastal plains
(b) Old shields 19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (b)
(c) Plateaus 22. (c) : During first half of November.
(d) Young folded mountains 23. (b) 24. (d)
119. G-77 Summit is a forum for 25. (a) : Warren Hastings.
(a) North-South Cooperation 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c)
(b) East-West Cooperation 30. (b) 31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b)
(c) South-South Cooperation 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (a)
(d) North-North Cooperation 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (d)
120. 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (c)
46. (a) 47. (d) 48. ( ) 49. (c)
50. (d) : Western Himalayas (5000 m)
and Eastern Himalayas
(4000 m).
51. ( ) 52. (c)
53. (d) : 600 °C
54. (d) : Low and very low.
55. (a)
The shaded areas in the given map
of India show the main concentration of 56. (a) : Both A and R are correct.
(a) Cotton and banana cultivation 57. (a) : Both A and R are correct.
(b) Groundnut and arecanut 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (a) 61. (a)
cultivation 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (c)
26 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE
66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (c) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (d)
70. (c) 71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (c) 97. (c) 98. (d) 99. (b) 100. (c)
74. (b) 101. (c) 102. (b) 103. (b) 104. (c)
75. (a) : Board for Industrial & 105. (a) 106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (a)
Financial Reconstruction. 109. (b)
76. (d) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (c) 110. (d) : Primary colours–Red, Blue and
80. (c) 81. (b) 82. (c) 83. (d) Yellow.
84. (d) : Assam (53.42%); Haryana 111. (c) 112. (d) 113. (b) 114. (b)
(55.85%); Karnataka 115. (d) 116. (b)
(56.04%); Sikkim (56.94%). 117. (c) : Quarks make up large particles
85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (a) 88. (c) of protons and neutrons.
89. (c) 90. (b) 91. (b) 92. (a) 118. (a) 119. (c) 120. (d)

ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS
1. If x = 4, y = 12 and x α y,
2 1
then (a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 3
(a) 4y = 3x (b) x = 3y 3 2
(c) y = 3x (d) 4x = 3y 7. If a, b, c, ...., x, y, z are 26
2. The missing number in the series natural numbers, then the value of (x – a)
5, 13, 9, 17, 13, 21, ......... (x – b) (x – c) .... (x – y) (x – z) is
is (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 13 (d) 26
(a) 29 (b) 25 (c) 13 (d) 17 8. If 12 + 22 + 32 + ... + 5122 = m,
3. The compound interest for two then 22 + 42 + 62 + ... + 10242 is equal
years on a capital is Rs. two more than to
the simple interest for the same period. (a) 3m (b) 4m (c) m2 (d) m3
If the rate of interest is 5% per year, 9. The expression
then the capital would be 5 7
(a) Rs. 800 (b) Rs. 840 5 6  3 13 
8 of 11 ÷ 8 2 
3
(c) Rs. 880 (d) Rs. 882 3 1 9  11 + 22  of 5
6 9  
4. An amount on compound interest 7 8
becomes double in four years. It will equals
become eight times in 1 5 7
(1) 8 years (2) 12 years (a) 1 (b) (c) (d)
2 12 9
(3) 16 years (4) 20 years
10. If Rs. 370 are divided among 10
5. Twenty litres of a mixture contains
men, 12 women and 20 boys such that
milk and water in the ratio of 5 : 3. If
each man gets an amount equal to that
four litres of this mixture is replaced by
four litres of milk, then the ratio of the received by one woman and one boy
milk to that of the water in the new together and that each woman gets
mixture will be twice the amount received by a boy,
(a) 5 : 3 (b) 4 : 3 then the amount received by 10 men
(c) 7 : 3 (d) 2 : 3 would be
(a) Rs. 100 (b) Rs. 150
6. 6+ 6+ 6 + .... is equal to (c) Rs. 120 (d) Rs. 130
CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 27
11. A car starting from station A at 16. A prime number N, in the range
8 AM reaches station B at 12 noon. 10 to 50, remains unchanged when its
If another car starting from station B at digits are reversed. The square of such
9 AM reaches station A at 11 : 30 AM, a number is
then the two cars will meet each other (a) 1936 (b) 1089
at (c) 484 (d) 121
(a) 10 : 30 AM (b) 11 : 00 AM 17. In a six-digit number, the sum of
the digits in the even places is 9 and
3
(c) 10 : 9 AM (d) 10 : 23 AM the sum of the digits in the odd places
13 is 20. All such numbers are divisible by
12. If m persons working m hours a (a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 11
day for each of the m days produce m 18. Which one of the following
units of work, then the units of work numbers is divisible by 15 ?
produced by n persons working n hours (a) 30560 (b) 29515
a day for each of the n days is (c) 23755 (d) 17325
n3 n2 m2 m3 19. If m and n are positive integers,
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 3 (d) 2 then the digit in the unit’s place of
m m n n
13. The salary received by an officer 5n + 6m is always
A is 5% more than that received by the (a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) n + m
1 20. If two numbers are in the ratio of
officer B, but 12 % less than that 2 : 3 and the product of their HCF and
2
received by the officer C. If the officer LCM is 33750, then the sum of the
C received x% more than what is numbers is
received by the officer B, then the value (a) 250 (b) 425 (c) 325 (d) 375
of x will be 21. If A, B and C are three numbers,
(a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 20% (d) 30% such that, the LCM of A and B is B and
14. A person incurs a loss of 6% by the LCM of B and C is C, then the LCM
selling a watch at Rs. 423. In order to of A, B and C is
get a profit of 6%, the person should A +B+C
sell the watch at (a) A (b) B (c) C (d)
3
(a) Rs. 486 (b) Rs. 477 22. If log1020 = 1.3010 and log1030 =
(c) Rs. 586 (d) Rs. 577 1.4771, then log10(60000) is equal to
15. Consider the following statements : (a) 0.7781 (b) 1.7781
For any positive integer n, the number (c) 2.7781 (d) 4.7781
10n – 1 is divisible by 23. If log 10 x + log 10 y = 3 and
1. 9 for n = odd only. log10x – log10y = 1, then x and y are
2. 9 for n = even only. respectively
3. 11 for n = odd only. (a) 100 and 10 (b) 10 and 100
4. 11 for n = even only.
(c) 1000 and 100 (d) 100 and 1000
5. 9 for n = odd or even.
Which of the above statements are (loga x )
correct ?
24.
(logab x ) equals
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (a) logab (b) 1 + logab
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 4 and 5 (c) logba (d) 1 + logba
28 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE
25. If log 2 = 0.3010, then the p−l q−m
number of digits in 264 is (a) q − m (b) p − l
(a) 20 (b) 32 (c) 128 (d) 301 l +p p+m
(c) q + m (d) p + l
1
26. If 2 minutes is represented by 33. The HCF of (x4 – y4) and (x6 – y6)
2
is
30 units, then the unit of time is
(a) x2 – y2 (b) x2 + y2
(a) 5 sec (b) 6 sec
(c) x3 + y3 (d) x3 – y3
(c) 7 sec (d) 8 sec
34. If x + y + z = 0, then
27. The expression
x2 + xy + y2 equals
f(x) = a0xn + a1xn–1 + a2xn–2 + ...
(a) y2 + yz + z2 (b) y2 – yz + z2
... + an–1x + an
(c) z2 – zx + x2 (d) z2 + zx + x2
is a polynomial of degree n
(a) Only when n is a positive integer  1   1 
(b) If n is a negative integer and 35. 1 + x + 1  1 +
 x +

2 
  
an ≠ 0
 1   1 
(c) If n is a positive integer and 1 +  1 + 
 x + 3   x + 4 
a0 ≠ 0  
(d) If n is any integer is equal to
28. 9x2 – (x2 – 4)2 can be factorised 1 1
as (a) 1 + (b)
x +5 x+5
(a) (x – 1) (x + 4) (x – 4) (x + 1)
(b) – (x – 1) (x – 4) (x + 1) (x + 4) x +5 x +1
(c) (d)
(c) (x + 1) (x2 – 4) x +1 x +5
(d) (3x – 1) (3x – 2) (x2 + 4) 36. The area of the region bounded by
29. xy (z2 + 1) + z(x2 + y2) can be x − 1 ≤ 1, y − 2 ≤ 2 and 2x + y = 4 is
factorised as (a) 1 unit (b) 2 units
(a) (xy + z) (yz + x) (c) 3 units (d) 4 units
(b) (zx + y) (xy + z) 37. A lady has 25-paise coins and
(c) (yz + x) )(zx + y) 50-paise coins. If in all, she has 80
(d) (x2 + y2) (z + x) coins totalling Rs. 21, then the difference
30. If the polynomial between the number of 25-paise and
x19 + x17 + x13 + x11 + x7 + x5 + x3 50-paise coins is
is divided by (x2 + 1), then the remainder is (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 72 (d) 76
(a) 1 (b) x2 + 4 (c) – x (d) x 38. The cost price of a table and a
31. If the polynomial chair together is Rs. 430. If the table
2x3 – 9x2 + 15x + p, when divided by costs 15% more than the chair, then the
(x – 2), leaves – b as remainder, then cost (in rupees) of the table and the
p is equal to chair are respectively
(a) –16 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 10 (a) 196 and 175
32. If (x + a) is the HCF of (b) 230 and 200
x2 + px + q and x2 + lx + m, then the (c) 200 and 170
value of ‘a’ is given by (d) 240 and 190
CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 29
1 1
39. The sum of the digits of a two- −
3
x = 3 + 3 3
digit number is 9. If the number obtained 46. If , then 3x3 – 10
by reversing the digits of the number is
exceeds the given number by 27, then (a) – 3x (b) 3x (c) – 9x (d) 9x
the number is 47. If 2x – 1 + 2x + 1 = 320, then the
(a) 54 (b) 45 (c) 36 (d) 27 value of x is
40. The set of linear inequations, (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
x + y < 0, x > 0, y > 0 has 48. (A ∩ B)’ is equal to
(a) 3 solutions (b) 1 solution (a) A’ ∩ B’ (b) A’ ∪ B’
(c) No solution (c) A’ ⊂ B’ (d) B’ ⊂ A’
(d) An infinite number of solutions 49. For any three sets, A, B and C,
41. The course of an enemy submarine A ∩ (B ∪ C) is equal to
as plotted on a set of rectangular axes (a) (A ∪ C) ∩ (B ∪ C)
is 2x + 3y = 5. On the same axes, the (b) (A ∩ B) ∪ (A ∩ C)
course of the destroyer is indicated by (c) (A∪B) ∩ C (d) (A ∩ B) ∪ C
x – y = 10. The point (x, y) at which the 50. Which one of the following is a
submarine can be destroyed is null set ?
(a) (–7, 3) (b) (–3, 7) (a) {0} (b) {x : x < 0 or x > 0}
(c) (3, –7) (d) (7, –3) (c) {x : x2 = 9 or x = 4}
42. The set of values of k, for which (d) {x : x ≠ x}
x2 + 5kx + 16 = 0 has no real root, is 51. If ABCD is a parallelogram with
8 8 the diagonals intersecting at O, then
(a) k ≥ (b) k ≤ the number of distinct pairs of congruent
5 5
8 8 triangles formed is
(c) − < k < (d) –8 < k < 8 (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
5 5
52. The lines ax + by + c = 0,
43. If a > 0, b > 0, c > 0 and
bx + cy + a = 0 and cx + ay + b = 0
a ≠ b ≠ c, then both the roots of the
are concurrent only when
equation, (x – a) (x – b) + (x – b) (x – c) (a) a + b + c = 0
+ (x – c) (x – a) = 0, will always be (b) a2 + b2 + c2 = 2abc
(a) Distinct (b) Equal (c) a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc
(c) Negative (d) Not real (d) a + b + c = abc
44. In a group of children, each child 53. If the slope of one of the lines
exchanges a gift with every other child. x2 – 4xy + y2 = 0 is k times the slope of the
If the number of gifts is 132, then the other, then the value of k is equal to
number of children in the group is
(a) 3 ± 7 (b) 7 ± 2 3
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13
(c) 7 ± 4 3 (d) 3 ± 2 7
45. is equal to 54. If the exterior angle of a regular
2 2 2 2 2
polygon is equal to the acute angle of
(a) 0 (b) a right-angled isosceles triangle, then
2
the polygon is a regular
31 (a) Pentagon (b) Hexagon
(c) 2 (d)
232 (c) Octagon (d) Heptagon
30 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE
55. AB is a straight line and O is 61. ABCD is a rectangle. The
a point lying on AB. A line OC is quadrilateral PQRS formed by the bisectors
drawn from O such that /COA = 36°. of the angles of ABCD will be a
OD is a line within the /COA such (a) Rectangle (b) Square
(c) Trapezium
that /DOA =   /COA. If OE is
1
(d) Cyclic quadrilateral
 3 62. Five passengers start from the
a line within the /BOC such that same point in five directions covering
1 the same distance in a given time. If
/EOC = /BOC, then the /DOE must this situation is to be seen in the light of
4
be a four-sided closed figure with one of
(a) 60° (b) 45° (c) 36° (d) 30° the diagonals representing the fifth
56. The transversal EG intersects the distance, then the resulting figure is
parallel lines AB and CD at F and G (a) A parallelogram with equal sides
respectively. If /AFE = 60° and HI and one angle as 45°
bisects the /EGD, then /DGI is equal to (b) A quadrilateral with one angle as
(a) 95° (b) 100° (c) 120° (d) 140° 60°
57. In an equilateral triangle ABC, if (c) A rhombus with one angle as 60°
(d) A rhombus with one angle as 30°
the side BC is trisected at D, then 9AD2
63. If a circle touches the side BC of
will be equal to
a ∆ABC at P and also sides AB and AC
(a) 5 AB2 (b) 6 AB2
2 produced at Q and R respectively, then
(c) 7 AB (d) 8 AB2
AQ is equal to
58. ABC is a triangle. D and E are
two points on AB and AC such that 1
(a) (Perimeter of ∆ABC)
AB AC 2
= = 2m for 0 < m < 1. From
AD AE 1
D and E, lines are drawn parallel to AC (b) (Perimeter of ∆ABC)
4
and AB to meet at a point O. This point 1
O will lie on the line BC if the value of (c) (Perimeter of ∆ABC)
6
m is (d) None of the above
1 1 1 64. In the given figure, AB = 6 cm
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d)
2 3 4 and O is the middle point of AB. Semi-
59. The incentre of a triangle is the circles are drawn on AB, AO and OB.
point of intersection of its If C is the centre of the small circle
(a) Medians which touches all the semi-circles, then
(b) Perpendicular bisectors of the sides the radius of this small circle is
(c) Altitudes
(d) Angular bisectors C
60. If PQRS is a square and M is the
midpoint of PQ , then
(a) SM = RM
(b) SM = MP + PS A M O N B
(c) SM = MQ + MR (a) 3 cm (b) 2.25 cm
(d) SM ≠ MR (c) 1 cm (d) 2 cm
CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 31
65. If A and B are two fixed points circles, then the area of the shaded
and P is a point moving in such a way portion in the given figure is
that PA + PB = constant, then the locus
of P is a/an
(a) Circle (b) Ellipse
(c) Straight line (d) Parabola
66. If three sides of a triangle are
6 cm, 8 cm, and 10 cm, then the altitude
of the triangle, using the largest side as
its base, will be (a) π R2 – π r2 (b) π R2
(a) 8 cm (b) 6 cm (c) π r2 (d) π R2 + π r2
(c) 4.8 cm (d) 4.4 cm 71. The cross-section of a canal is in
67. A rectangle and a parallelogram the shape of a trapezium. The canal is
are drawn between the same parallel 15 m wide at the top and 9 m wide at
lines on a common base of 10 cm. If the bottom. If the area of the cross-
the perimeter of the rectangle is 36 cm, section is 720 m2, then the depth of the
then the area of the parallelogram is canal is
(a) 100 cm2 (b) 80 cm2 (a) 58.4 m (b) 58.6 m
(c) 81 cm2 (d) 60 cm2 (c) 58.8 m (d) 60 m
68. If a wheel covers a distance of 72. The dimensions of the field shown
440 m in 20 rotations, then the diameter in the given figure are : AC = 150 m,
 22  AH = 120 m, AG = 80 m, AF = 50 m,
of the wheel is  π = 
 7  EF = 30 m, GB = 50 m, HD = 20 m.
C
(a) 3.5 m (b) 7 m
(c) 14 m (d) 21 m
D H
69. In the given figure, OAB is a
triangle and ABCD is a parallelogram.
If OA = AD = 3 cm, OB = 4 cm, /AOB
G B
= 90° and /OAB = /BAD, then the
area of the figure AOBCDA is E F
D
3 cm
A
A
The area of this field is
5
(a) 6500 m2 (b) 6550 m2
3 cm

2
(c) 6600 m (d) 6650 m2
C
73. If three cubes of copper, each
with an edge of 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm
O 4 cm B respectively, are melted to form a single
(a) 18 cm2 (b) 21 cm2 cube, then the diagonal of the new cube
(c) 24 cm2 (d) 27 cm2 will be
70. If r and R are the respective radii (a) 18 cm (b) 19 cm
of the smaller and the bigger semi- (c) 19.5 cm (d) 20.8 cm
32 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE
74. The volume of a rectangular solid a height of 28 cm and are fully
is 210 cm3 and the surface area is 214 submerged. The diameter of the beaker
cm2. If the area of the base is 42 cm2, is 5.6 cm. If the water in the beaker
then the edges of the rectangular solid rises by 17.5 cm, then the number of
are balls dropped in it will be
(a) 3, 4 and 5 cm (a) 63 (b) 100
(b) 4, 5 and 6 cm (c) 300 (d) 780
(c) 5, 6 and 7 cm 81. Consider the following statements :
(d) 6, 7 and 8 cm 1. sin θ is an increasing function of
75. If the area of the curved surface θ in the first quadrant.
of a right-circular cone of diameter 2. cos θ is a decreasing function of
14 cm is 550 cm2, then the volume of θ in the first and second quadrants.
the cone is π
(a) 1230 cm3 (b) 1231 cm3 3. 0 < sin θ < cos θ for 0 < θ <
3
4
(c) 1232 cm (d) 1233 cm3
76. A right-pyramid is on a regular π π
4. sin θ < cos θ < 0 for < θ <
hexagonal base. Each side of the base 4 2
is 10 m and the height is 60 m. The Which of the above statements are
volume of the pyramid is correct ?
(a) 5000 m3 (b) 5100 m3 (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 5195 m 3
(d) 5196 m3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
77. The diameter of the base of a 82. Graphs of y = sin x and y =
right-circular cylinder is 42 cm. If the π
cos x, where 0 ≤ x ≤ , intersect at
area of the curved surface is 1320 cm2, 2
then the height of the cylinder is the point whose abscissa is
(a) 8 cm (b) 9 cm π π π
(c) 10 cm (d) 12 cm (a) (b) (c) (d) 0
6 4 3
78. A solid cylinder of base radius 7 83. If A = 2B = 3C = 90°, then
cm and height 24 cm is surmounted cos2A – cot2B + cosec2C is
by a cone of the same base radius and (a) 1 (b) –1
same vertical height. A hemisphere (c) 3 (d) 2
surmounts the cylinder at the other end. 84. Which one of the following
Surface area of the solid will be statements is correct ?
(a) 527 π cm2 (b) 609 π cm2 (a) tan1c = tan2c (b) tan1c < tan2c
(c) 707 π cm2 (d) 805 π cm2 (c) tan1c > tan2c (d) tan1c = 1
79. If a spherical ball of radius r is 85. If α = 45°, then the value of
melted and recast into 3 smaller spheres 2 sin(α – 45°) + sin (α + 45°)
of equal size, then the radius of each of + 5 cos 2α . cos(135° – α) is
the smaller spheres will be 1 1
r r r (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) (d)
r 3 2 2
(a) (b) (c) 3 (d) 86. If θ is an interior angle of a
3 3 3 3
80. Solid spherical balls each of regular polygon of n sides such that
diameter 1.4 cm are dropped into a tan θ = 3 , then n is equal to
cylindrical beaker containing water upto (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 33
87. The value of the product two boats are 60 m apart, then the
cot 1° . cot 2° . cot 3° ... cot 89° is height of the light-house is

(a) 0 (b)
1
2
(c) 1 (d) ∞ (a) 60 3 ( )
(b) 30 3 + 1

88. If A = sin θ + cos θ, then


4 4
(
(c) 30 3 − 1 ) (d) 60 ( 3 − 1)
1 1 94. A flag-staff is fixed at the top
(a) 0 < A < (b) ≤ A ≤1
2 2 of a tower. The angles of elevation
3 3 of the top and the bottom of this flag-
(c) 1 < A ≤ (d) ≤ A ≤ 2 staff at a point distant ‘a’ metres from
2 2
89. If x = r cos θ cos φ, y = r cos θ the foot of the tower are α and β
sin φ and z = r sin θ, then x2 + y2 + z2 respectively. The height of the flag-staff
is equal to (in metres) is
1 (a) a (sin α – sin β)
(a) 1 (b) r (c) r2 (d) 2 (b) a (cos β – cos α)
r (c) a (tan α – tan β)
90. If sec θ + tan θ = p, then cos θ is
(d) a tan (α – β)
p2 + 1 p2 − 1 95. The angle of elevation of the top
(a)
p2 − 1
(b)
(p 2
+1 )
2 of an incomplete tower at a point 40 m
from its base is 45°. If the elevation of
2p 4p2 the completed tower at the same point
(c)
p2 + 1
(d)
(
p2 + 1 )
2 is 60°, then the height through which
the tower has been raised is
91. In any ∆ABC, if a, b and c are
the sides opposite to the angles A, B (a) 40 3 m
sin( A − B)
and C respectively, then sin( A + B) is (b) 40 ( 3 + 1) m
equal to
 1 
a2 − b2 b2 − a2 (c) 40 1 −  m
(a) (b)  3
c2 c2
c2 − b 2 b2 − c 2
(
(d) 40 3 − 1 m )
(c) 2 (d) 2 96. The cumulative frequency
a a
distribution is represented by
92. If the angle of elevation of the
(a) Ogive (b) Bar diagram
sun is 60°, then the length of the shadow
(c) Logistic curve (d) Histogram
of a vertical pillar of height h will be
97. A student represents his scores in
h Mathematics, Statistics and Economics
(a) (b) h 3
3 in a pie-chart. The central angle for
h Mathematics is 120°. He scored 96 in
(c) h 2 (d)
2 Statistics and 84 in Economics. The
93. The angle of depression from the central angle for Statistics is
top of a light-house of two boats are (a) 116° (b) 128°
45° and 30° towards the east. If the (c) 192° (d) 212°
34 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE
98. For obtaining the secondary data,
one may rely on
ANSWERS
(a) Direct personal interview 1. (c) : x α y ⇒ x = ky
(b) Indirect personal interview through x = 4, y = 12
a team of investigators appointed ⇒ 4 = 12k ⇒ k = 1/3
for the purpose 1
(c) Personal scrutiny of periodicals ∴ x = y or y = 3x
3
(d) Questionnaires filled by a group 2. (d) : Pattern is
of enumerators appointed for the 5 + 8 = 13 & 13 – 4 = 9
purpose 9 + 8 = 17 & 17 – 4 = 13
99. Monthly salary distribution of 25 13 + 8 = 21 & 21 – 4 = 17
employees of a financial company is (missing number)
given below : 3. (a) : Simple interest on Rs. x for
2 years at the rate of 5% is
Salar
Salaryy range Number of x
(in Rs.) Employees .
10
3000—4000 3 Also compound interest on
4000—5000 7 capital x for 2 years at the
5000—6000 10 41
rate of 5% is x
6000—7000 5 400
It was decided by the management 41 x
∴ x− = 2
of the company to give bonus equal to 400 10
20 percent of the lower limit of the class ⇒ x = 800.
to which the employees belonged. The 4. (b)
total amount of the bonus paid to all the 5. (c) : If the quantity of milk and
employees is water is 5x and 3x, then
(a) Rs. 24,200 (b) Rs. 23,800 5x + 3x = 20 or x = 5/2
(c) Rs. 23,400 (d) Rs. 23,000 ∴ Quantity of milk and water
100. Consider the data given in the 25 15
is and respectively.
following table : 2 2
Now in 4 litres of mixture taken
Variable Frequency 5
x y out, there will be litres of
2
10 3 3
15 10 milk and litres of water.
2
20 f ∴ After 4 litres of mixture is
25 7 taken out, 16 litres of mixture
35 5 is left and there will be
If the mean of the given data is 20.6, 25 5
− = 10 litres of milk and
then the missing frequency f is 2 2
(a) 21 (b) 25 15 3
− = 6 litres of water.
(c) 26 (d) 27 2 2
CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 35
∴ After 4 litres of milk is 2xt x
Hence, = x− (1 + t )
added, the 20 litres of 5 4
mixture will have 15 3
⇒ t = = 1hour 9 minutes .
10 + 4 = 14 litres of milk 13 13
and 6 + 0 = 6 litres of water. Hence the two cars meet at
Hence the required ratio
 3 
= 14 : 6 or 7 : 3 9 + 1hour 9 minutes  or
 13 
6. (d) : Let
x = 6+ 6+ 6+ 6 + ...  3 
at 10 hours 9 minutes a.m.
 13 
Then x = 6 + x
⇒ x2 – x – 6 = 0 12. (a)
⇒ (x – 3) (x + 2) = 0 13. (c) : Let the salary of B be Rs. y.
⇒ x = 3 Then the salary of C will be
7. (a)  5y 
Rs.  y + 100 
8. (b) : Given 12 + 22 + 32  
+ ... + 5122 = m Now Salary of A is
We have (i) 5% more than the salary
22 + 42 + 62 + 10242 5y
= 22 [12 + 22 + 32 + ... + 5122] of B = y + ...(1)
100
= 4m (ii) 12½% less than the salary
9. (c) xy
10. (b) : Note that if a boy gets Rs. x, of C = y +
100
then a woman gets Rs. 2x
25  xy 
and a man gets Rs. 3x. − y +  ...(2)
2 × 100  100 
11. (c) : Speed = u
A P B From (1) and (2),
x 12 noon 5y
8 am y +
100
I xy 25  xy 
= y + − y + 
A Speed = v 100 2 × 100  100 
B
11.30 am P x On simplification, x = 20.
100 × 423
II 9 am 14. (b) : Cost price = Rs.
x 94
2x
Clearly, u = and v = . = Rs. 450
4 5 To earn 6% profit, the S.P. should
Let the two cars meet after time
106 × 450
t when car II starts from B. Then be Rs. = Rs. 477
2x 100
For car II : BP = t 15. (d)
5 16. (d) : If the number is xy, then its
For car I : BP = x – AP reverse is yx. Since the number
x
= x − (1 + t ) remains unchanged, therefore
4 10x + y = 10y + x,
36 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE
i.e. x = y Required area = ∆OAC
The possible numbers can be 1
11, 22, 33 & 44. = × OA × OC = 4 units
∴ The required prime number 2
37. (c) : Let the number of 25-paise
is 11.
17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (a) coins be x and the number
20. (d) : If the numbers are 2x and of 50-paise coins be y.
3x, then 6x2 = 33750 Then x + y = 80 and
⇒ x2 = 5625 ⇒ x = 75 x y
+ = 21
∴ Numbers are 150 and 225 4 2
The sum of the numbers = 375 Solving, we get
21. (c) 22. (d) x = 76 and y = 4.
23. (a) : log10x + log10y = 3 and 38. (b) : If the cost of a chair is Rs. x,
log10x – log10y = 1. then the cost of a table is
⇒ log10x = 2 = log10102  15x 
⇒ x = 100 and Rs.  x + 100 
 
log10y = 1 = log1010 ⇒ y = 10 15x
24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (c) ∴ x+x+ = 430
100
28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (a)
⇒ x = 200
32. (b) 33. (a)
39. (c) : If the number is xy, then
34. (d) : Given x + y + z = 0 ...(1)
x + y = 9 and
Now, x2 + xy + y2
(10y + x) – (10x + y) = 27.
= (x + y)2 – xy
Now solve.
= (–z)2 + x(x + z)
40. (b) 41. (d)
[using (1)]
42. (c) : For no real solution, the
= z2 + xz + x2
discriminant should be
35. (c) : Given expression
negative.
x +2 x +3 x + 4
= . . 43. (a)
x +1 x + 2 x + 3 44. (c) : If the number of children is
x+5 x+5
. = n, then n(n – 1) = 132
x+4 x +1 45. (d) 46. (d)
36. (d) : y 47. (c) : Given equation is
1
C . 2x + 2.2x = 320 or
4 B 2
2
2x = 320 × = 128 = 27
5
∴ x = 7
48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d) 51. (d)
52. (c) : The condition for concurrency
A
x a b c
O 2
is b c a = 0
2x + y = 4
c a b

CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 37


53. (c) : x2 – 4xy + y2 = 0 Hence /HGC
2 = /FGH + /FGC = 120°
y y ⇒ /DGI = 120°.
⇒   − 4 + 1 = 0
x x 57. (c) : If AB = 3a, then BD = a
y 4 ± 16 − 4 and AD2 = AB2 + BD2
⇒ = = 2± 3 – 2AB . BD . Cos 60°.
x 2
∴ The slopes of the two lines 58. (a) : For m = 1, D becomes the
mid-point of AB and E
are 2 + 3 and 2 − 3 .
( )
becomes the mid-point of A.
Now 2 + 3 = k 2 − 3 Obviously the parallels DO
and EO will meet at O which
⇒ k = 7 + 4 3 and
( )
will be the mid-point of BC.
2− 3 = k2+ 3 59. (d) 60. (a) 61. (a)
⇒ k = 7−4 3 62. (a) : D C

∴ k = 7±4 3 60°
54. (c)
55. (a) :
E 60° 60°
A B
C
Here
AB = BC = CD = DA = BD
D 24° 36° 63. (a) :
144°
A 12° 36°
B
O
O
56. (c) :
E
H 60°
B A R Q
F P
C B

D C A
G
Here AQ = AR, BQ = BP
and CP = CR.
Now AQ + AR
= AB + BQ + AC + CR
I
⇒ AQ + AQ
= AB + BP + AC + CP
Q/AFE = 60° ⇒ /FGC = 60°
⇒ 2AQ = AB + AC + BC
/FGD = 180° – /FGC = 120°
Since HI is the bisector of 1
/FGD, therefore /FGH = 60° ⇒AQ = (Perimeter of ∆ABC)
2
38 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE
64. (c) : Given AB = 6cm, AO = 3cm, 71. (d) : 15 m
OB = 3cm, MO = 1.5cm,
ON = 1.5cm.
d
Let R be the radius of the
circle whose centre is C.
Then, in ∆CMO, 9m
720 = Area of the cross-section
MO 1.5
cos α = = and = Area of the trapezium
CM 1.5 + R 1
= d(9 + 15) = 12d
OC 3−R 2
sin α = = ⇒ d = 60m.
CM 1.5 + R
72. (b) : C
Now cos2a + sin2a
2 2
 1.5   3−R 
=   +


 1.5 + R  III
30
 1.5 + R    D
IV
H
20
⇒ R = 1
65. (b) 66. (c) 40
67. (b) : Note that the rectangle II
and the parallelogram will 50
G B
have the same area. IV
30
Moreover, if the perimeter E F
30
of the rectangle is 36 I 50
and one side is 10, then the
other side will be 8.
68. (b) : If r is the radius, then A
Required area
440 = I + II + III + IV + V
2πr = Circumference =
20 1 1
= × 30 × 50 + × 70 × (20 + 30)
⇒ Diameter = 2r = 7m. 2 2

69. (a) : From ∆OAB, sin α = 4/5 +


1
× 20 × 30 +
1
× 70 × 50
2 2
DM 1
∴ From ∆ADM, sin α = +
2
× 50 × 80
AB
1
12 = [1500 + 3500 + 600
⇒ DM = sin α × 3 = 2
5 + 3500 + 4000]
Hence area of the figure 1
= × 13100 = 6550m2
AOBCDA = Area of ∆AOB 2
+ Area of parallelogram ABCD 73. (d) : The volume of the new cube
= 63 + 83 + 103 = 1728cm3
1 12
= × 3• × 4 + 5 × = 18 cm2 ∴ The edge of the new cube
2 5
70. (b) = 3
1728 cm = 12 cm
CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE 39
Hence the diagonal of the 80. (c) : If the number of balls = n, then
new cube
4
× π × (.7 )3 × n
= 12 + 12 + 122 2 2
3
= 20.8 cm. approx. = π × (2.8)2 × 17.5
74. (c) : If the sides are a, b and c, ⇒ n = 300
then abc = 210, 81. (None) : 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
2(ab + bc + ca) = 214 and 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (b)
ab = 42 86. (a) 87. (c)
Solving we get,
1 2
a = 7, b = 6 and c = 5. 88. (b) : A = 1− sin 2θ
75. (c) : If l is the slant height, then 2
πrl = 550 ⇒ l = 25 ∴ 2(1 – A) = sin22θ
⇒ 0 < 2(1 – A) < 1
∴ Height h = l2 − r2
1
= 252 − 7 2 = 24 ⇒ ≤ A ≤1
2
Hence the volume
1 89. (c)
= πr 2h = 1232 cm3 90. (c) : p = sec θ + tan θ
3 ⇒ p – tan θ = sec θ
76. (d) : Volume of a pyramid
⇒ p2 + tan2θ – 2p tanθ = sec2θ
1 ⇒ p2 – 2p tanθ = 1
= × (Area of the base) × Height
3
p2 − 1
1 3 3 ⇒ tan θ =
= × × (10)2 × 60 2p
3 2
= 5196 m3. 2p
⇒ cos θ =
[Q Area of the regular hexagon p2 + 1
3 3 sin( A − B)
of side a = a2 sq. units]
2 91. (a) :
77. (c) sin( A + B)
78. (b) : 24
25 sin A cos B − cos A sin B
7 7 =
III sin A cos B + cos A sin B
II I 24
 a2 + c2 − b2   b2 + c2 − a2 
Required surface area a  − b 
 2ac   2b c 
= Surface Area of I =  2
 a + c 2 − b2   b2 + c2 − a2 
+ Surface Area of II a  + b 
 2ac   2b c 
+ Surface Area of III
= (2πrh + 2πr2 + πrl)cm2
= π{2 × 7 × 24 + 2 × 72 a2 − b 2
=
+ 7 × 25) c2
= 609π cm2 92. (a)
79. (c) 93. (b)
40 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE
94. (c) : Q 95. (d)
96. (a)
h 97. (b) : The central angle for Statistics
and Economics = 240°
P ∴ 180 marks = 240°
240 × 96
x ⇒ 96 marks =
180
α β = 128° = Central angle for Statistics.
A a O 98. (c) 99. (c)
From ∆OPA, x = a tan β 10 × 3 + 15 × 10 + 20 × f
From ∆OQA, h + x = a tan α 100. (b) : + 25 × 7 + 35 + 5
= 20.6
∴ x = a tan β = a tan α – h 3 + 10 + f + 7 + 5
⇒ h = a(tan a – tan β) ⇒ f = 25.

41 CDS EXAMINATION AT A GLANCE

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