Answer Key EXAM DRILL 2 - Community Health Nursing Nursing Practice Ii - CHN and Care of The Mother and Child

ANSWER KEY
EXAM DRILL 2 – Community Health Nursing

NURSING PRACTICE II - CHN and CARE of the MOTHER and CHILD
General Instructions
1. This test booklet contains 100 test questions.
2. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your answer sheet.
3. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes
shaded will invalidate your answer.
4. AVOID ERASURES
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/ Answer Sheet
Set.
2. Write the subject title “Nursing Practice I” on the box provided.
3. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test booklet is Set A; Set box “B” if
your test booklet is Set B.
Multiple Choice
Situational
Situation 1: Patrice has to deal with the indigenous people in the area.
1. The family’s response to health and illness is reflected in
A. its utilization of existing health services

B. the type of illness and causes of death in the family
C. the number of vulnerable members of the family
D. the degree of assistance given to family
2. To effectively give nursing care to an indigenous family, the nurse should first
A. understand their culture

B. assess health beliefs and practices
C. work with their traditional healers
D. share experiences in community health work
3. To modify harmful practices among indigenous families, the most important factor is to:
A. ensure that change blends to their culture

B. increase health knowledge of the family
C. involve the families in bringing out change
D. persuade the families to change practices
4. An indicator that behavior change is maintained and sustained is when:
A. change is incorporated to everyday life

B. barriers to change has been removed
C. there is awareness for the need to change
D. the family verbalizes the awareness on the need for change
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Situation 2: The public health nurse performs various roles and responsibilities in CHN
practice.
5. The nurse actively participates in the development of the community health plan. She
ensures that the nursing component of the plan is incorporated in her role as:
A. Supervisor C. Collaborator
B. Coordinator D. Independent
6. When the nurse conducts scientific investigation of a phenomenon towards improving

health care, she performs her role as
A. Health monitor C. Community Organizer
B. Program manager D. Researcher
7. Utilization of screening methods to determine deviations from health will entail the
exercise of this role.
A. Health monitor C. Provider of care
B. Advocate of change D. Supervisor
8. This major role transcends in the performance of the other CH Nurse’s roles:
A. Client advocate C. health educator
B. manager D. Provider of care
9. When the nurse initiates people’s participation, she is performing her role as
A. Manager
B. Community Organizer
C. Supervisor
D. Health educator
Situation 3: The following questions refer to the public health nurses’ roles and functions.
10. As a service provider, the PHN can provide family planning services by
A. supporting beneficiary choice with C. giving accurate information about
necessary service alternative choices for family planning
B. supporting changes in choice with D. performing all of these activities
necessary service
11. For a group of children, where interactions with causative agents of diseases have taken
place, the nurse’s concern is to provide:
A. diagnostic and curative care C. rehabilitation
B. promotive and preventive care D. all of these
12. As a supervisor, the PHN does the following EXCEPT:

A. providing nursing care to families with complicated nursing problems
B. assessing the effects of her nursing care provided to the family
C. assisting the doctor in treatment of cases
D. reviewing the management of patients done by the midwife
13. In the health project implementation, the public health nurse is being supervised by the
A. Nurse supervisor C. Physician
B. Municipal mayor D. Manager
14. In the provision of CHN services, PH Nurse practice will provide care to:
1 – a pregnant women in the family
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2 – dysfunctional family in a community
3 – young adults in the community
4 – an ethnic community
A. All these C. 1 & 2
B. 1, 2, & 3 D. 1 only
15. In the care of population groups, the nurse must focus on

A. displaced families C. sick segments of the community
B. vulnerable groups D. healthy individuals
16. The context of care of the community is/are the

A. emphasis of the local government
B. current health and socioeconomic conditions of the people
C. problems and needs
D. perceived needs and priority of the people
Situation 4. The individual is taken as the clientele in CHN.
17. An individual will take preventive health actions if he/she believes that:
A. his/her disease/illness entails a lot of C. he/she may have a replace of the
expenses disease
B. he/she is susceptible to the disease D. there is no cure for the disease
18. Patrice did a home visit to a postpartum client, Elida, G4P4. She hasn’t taken a bath for
three weeks now. How can the nurse encourage her to take a bath?
A. Make an aromatic bath consisting of B. Discuss with her the importance of
the boiled mixture of plants with personal hygiene.
volatile oils. C. Respect her decision.
D. Give a sponge bath
19. Ben wishes to undergo HIV antibody test. The nurse can assist Ben through the
following EXCEPT
A. conducting the test in the center C. explaining the window period of the
ensuring anonymity and confidentiality infection
B. making an initial risk assessment on D. referring Ben to the appropriate
possible exposure and infection health facility
20. Lucy is five months pregnant. In assessing her nutritional–metabolic pattern in the
nursing history, the following should be asked EXCEPT:
A. Eating patterns and food preferences
B. Fluid intake
C. Wound healing patterns
D. Disturbances in bowel elimination
Situation 5 – Patrice applies the concepts of Family Health Nursing in the care of the
Mendoza family. Ruel and Aida Mendoza have three children: Roy, 6 years old, Steve, 4
years and Necie, 2 year old. They live in the house of Julia, Aida’s mother.
21. This is an example of a family that is

A. nuclear and patriarchal C. patriarchal and extended
B. matriarchal and nuclear D. matriarchal and extended
22. Which of the following, if present, will be the top priority problem of the Mendoza family?
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A. Unemployment of Ruel C. Congestion
B. Family size beyond what family D. Ascariasis of Roy
resources can provide
23. ‘Nanay Julia had a stroke and died. The death of a family member is a
A. Health threat C. Stress point
B. Health deficit D. B and C
24. Aida remarked about Roy’s ascariasis as “natural lang sa bata (common among
children)”. The salience of the problem is
A. Serious but not requiring immediate C. Low salience
action D. Data not sufficient
B. Moderate salience
25. The youngest child has marasmus. The success of the intervention is measured in terms
of weight gain. If the weight gain of 2 pounds is reflected in the objective, such is
referred to as a/an:
A. Criterion
B. Standard
C. Anthropometric data
D. Vital sign of malnutrition
Situation 6: Sarah, 26 years old, is a postpartum case who was referred to the public health
nurse for family nursing care. Her one-month-old son was premature at birth. Her other
children are aged 4, 3 and 2 years.
26. Patrice must be aware that the objective of family nursing care is to:
A. coordinate with the other agency representatives for the care of the family
B. evaluate effects of nursing interventions done
C. analyze family dynamics and learn new things
D. help the family achieve optimum wellness
27. In working with Sarah’s family, the nurse must remember that her patient is/patients
are:
A. Sarah, the postpartum mother C. The premature infant
B. Sarah and her 1 month-old child D. The family as a unit
28. In your fist home visit, you conducted a family assessment. The most important part of
your assessment is to:
A. ask the family what their needs are
B. assess the interrelations of the family members
C. assess the family’s environmental condition
D. explore the families past generations
29. Advising Sarah to always wash her hands before caring for her premature infant is in
keeping with this principle of premature infant care:
A. Prevention of infection C. Proper feeding
B. Minimal handling D. Effects the interventions will have on
the family
30. The nursing interventions done to Sarah and the members of her family must be
evaluated in terms of:
A. the interventions’ impact on Saran and the premature infant
B. the difference in the family interrelationships
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C. the difference in the individuals’ lifestyle
D. the effects the interventions will have on the family
Situation 7: Being the public health nurse, Patrice provides nursing care to the family.
31. The nurse performs this to determine the family’s nursing problems/ needs:
A. family health care plan information C. assessment
B. goal setting D. evaluation
32. An appropriate source of information about the family is/are:
A. interview results with the members of C. analysis of the family’s situation
the family D. actual observation of family’s
B. family service and progress records situation
33. The family presents several problems. Which of the following criteria is considered in
determining the priority health problems?
A. involvement of the members of the C. preventive potential of the problem
family in the problem D. expected consequence of the problem
B. cooperation and support of the family
34. This is an important factor that serves as basis in preparing the family health care plan:
A. data gathered from the health center D. needs as expressed by the midwife
B. needs and problems as seen and assigned in the area where the family
accepted by the family resides
C. needs and problems gathered and
recognized by the nurse herself
35. The family health care plan includes the following components listed in sequence:
A. objectives, statement of problems, intervention
B. evaluation, statement of problems objectives, interventions, evaluation
C. statement of problems, objectives, interventions, evaluation
D. objectives, interventions, evaluation, statement of problem
Situation 8: Patrice met Marian, the school nurse.
36. Patrice establishes a working relationship with Marian. This is emphasizing the
component of the school health nursing called:
A. School health services C. School health instruction
B. Healthful school living D. School-community linkage
37. On July 23, there will be a fire drill in the school. This is an activity of this component of
school health nursing:
38. Isolation of communicable diseases, referral, and follow-through are being performed by
the school health nurse in relation to
39. Which of the following is not an activity of the school nurse in implementing the
component of healthful school living
A. Drug-watch committee C. Rehabilitation of substance abusers
B. Environmental sanitation D. Food sanitation
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40. What is the role of the nurse in the component of healthful school living
A. Health educator-counselor
B. Provider of care
C. Health monitor
D. Community health organizer
Situation 9 – Patrice also visited Steph, the factory nurse, and talked about occupational
health nursing.
41. The most basic concern of Steph is

A. Health of all workers D. Harmony between management and
B. Industrial peace workers
C. Dignity of labor
42. A major physical health problem in the spinning section of this textile factory is
A. occupational asthma or bysinossis C. security of tenure
B. tuberculosis D. urinary tract infection
43. Women workers are often complaining about UTI and varicosities. Steph must
recommend to the management this intervention/these interventions:
A. Breaks every two hours C. Additional fixture like chairs in the
B. Faucet for drinking water work area
D. All of these
44. Steph noted that there were two cases of malignant lymphomas in the dye section of the
factory. She is conducting a series case study. This is an activity under what level of
disease-prevention?
A. Primary C. Tertiary
B. Secondary D. Intermediate
45. In applying concept of primary health care, Steph will:

A. establish a referral network with the company hospital
B. strengthen clinic services
C. train workers on first aid
D. spend a segment of duty hours on the hospital to ensure care of confined workers
Situation 10 – Community Diagnosis is an assessment tool for determining community

health status. Patrice coordinates with the members of the health team to determine the
health situation of Pasong Tala.
46. The most practical type of community survey accounting for the bulk of data is:
A. Census C. Questionnaire
B. Sample survey D. Interview
47. The best instrument for the community survey is the:

A. Telephone interview questionnaire C. Group interview guide
B. Self -accomplished questionnaire D. Personal interview schedule
48. In dealing with the health data, particularly births and deaths, Patrice needs to check
civil registries. Based on the Civil Registry Law, records and reports in a municipality are
accepted and kept by the:
A. Municipal Health Officer Mayor B. Municipal Treasurer
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C. Mayor D. Municipal Secretary
49. Keno Kopya is a construction worker in Pasay City. Scaffolding collapsed and he was hit
badly. He was rushed to the UP – PGH in Manila where he expired. His remains were
taken to Pasong Tala in Dasmariñas where he lives and was, then, buried in Carmona
cemetery. His death will be reported and registered in :
A. Pasay City
B. Dasmariñas
C. Manila
D. Carmona
50. Primary Health care endorses the concept of team work. Which of the following factors
would make health services effective and efficient?
A. Team Planning C. Workshops
B. Group work D. Team Building
Answer: A
Rationale: More than ever, primary health care puts the concept of teamwork to the force.
Team Planning by health personnel in the same level and the various health levels will be
essential for the effectiveness and efficiency of health services.
Source: Community Health Nursing Services in the Philippines 9th Edition by DOH, p 69-70.
51. Nurse Nelia is scheduled will conduct a home visit to the Hernandez family. The first step
during a home visit is one of the following:
A. count the available appliances C. greet client and introduce self
B. explain purpose of the visit D. wash hands and perform procedure
Answer: C
Rationale: A home visit is a professional face to face contact made by a nurse to the
patient or the family to provide necessary health care activities and to further attain an
objective of the agency. It is made to the client or to a responsible member of the family.
The first step in home visit is to greet client or household member and introduce your self.
Source: Community Health Nursing Services in the Philippines 9th Edition by DOH, p52-53.
52. Which among the following is the most important principle during a home visit?
A. inquiry about health and welfare
B. performance of health assessment
C. use of available information about the client
D. evaluation of past service
Answer: C
Rationale: Planning for a home visit is an essential tool in achieving best results. When we
plan to go on a home visit, it is necessary to assemble the records of the patients and list
the names to be visited, study the case and have a written nursing care plan. There are 5
principles involved during home visits: (1) A home visit must have a purpose or objective;
(2) Planning for a home visit should make use of all available information about the patient
and his family through family records; (3) In planning a visit, we should consider and give
priority to the essential needs of the individual and his family; (4) Panning and delivery of
care should involve the individual and family; (5) The plan should be flexible.
Source: Public Health Nursing in the Philippines 10th edition by DOH, p51.
53. The frequency of home visit is determined by which of the following?
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A. Administration of medication
B. Need for health teaching
C. Result of the health studies
D. Acceptance of the family
Answer: D
Rationale: There is no definite rule as to the frequency of a home visit. Since the
population in a given community is much more than what the nurse can handle,
prioritization of needs for a home visit is necessary. The frequency of home visit should take
into consideration the following factors: (1) The physical, psychological, and educational
needs of the individual and family; (2) The acceptance of the family for the services offered,
the willingness and interest to cooperate; (3) The policy of a given agency and the emphasis
placed on a given health program; (4) A careful evaluation of past services given to a family
and how this family made use of such nursing services; (5) The ability of the patient and
his/her family to recognize their own needs, their knowledge of available resources and their
abilities to use these resources on their own accord.
Source: Community Health Nursing Services in the Philippines 9th Edition by DOH, p53.
54. Which among the following principles is the most important when doing proper bag
technique?
A. replace supplies fully every visit
B. avoid transfer of infection
C. clean supplies ready for use
D. PHN bag is indispensable equipment
Answer: B
Rationale: 'The bag technique is a tool by which the nurse, during her visit will enable her
to perform a nursing procedure with ease and deftness, to save time and effort, with the
end view of rendering effective nursing care to clients. There are 4 principles of bag
technique. (1) Performing the bag technique will minimize, if not prevent the spread of any
infection. (2) It saves time and effort in performing nursing procedures. (3) The bag
technique should show the effectiveness of the total care given to an individual or family.
(4) The bag technique can be performed in a variety of ways depending on the agency's
policy, the home situation or as long as principles of avoiding transfer of infection is always
observed.
55. Which of the following herbal plants is used for respiratory problems and fever?
a. Lagundi
b. Sambong
c. Niyog-niyogan
d. Yerba Buena
Answer: A
Rationale: Lagundi (Vitex negundo) is a shrub growing wild in vacant lots and waste land.
Matured branches are planted. The flowers are blue and bell-shaped. The small fruits turn
black when ripe. It is better to collect the leaves when are in bloom. This herbal medicine
can be used in asthma, cough, fever, dysentery, colds, pain, skin diseases (dermatitis,
scabies, ulcer, eczema), headache, rheumatism, sprain, contusions, insect bites and
aromatic bath for sick.
B is incorrect. Sambong is a plant that reaches 1 to 3 meters in height with rough hairy
leaves. Young plants around mother plant may be separated when they have three or more
leaves. It is used as anti edema, diuretic, and anti urolithiasis.
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C is incorrect. Niyog-Niyogan is a vine which bears tiny fruits and grows wild in the
backyards. The seeds must come from mature, dried but newly opened fruits. It is used as
an anti helminthic – used to expel round worm ascariasis.
Source: Public Health Nursing in the Philippines 10th edition by DOH , p.324
56. Older persons use which of the following aromatic herbs for body pain, rheumatism and
arthritis?
A. sambong
B. Yerba Buena
C. tsaang gubat
D. Ulasimang Bato
Answer: B
Rationale: Yerba Buena (Mentha cordifella) is a small multi-branching aromatic herb. The
leaves are small, elliptical and with toothed margin. The stem creeps to the ground, and
develops roots. It may also be propagated through cuttings. It can be used for headache,
stomachache, rheumatism, arthritis, cough and cold, swollen gums, toothache, menstrual
and gas pain, nausea and fainting, insect bites and pruritis.
57. Which of the following herbal plants is used for a lifestyle-related DM?
A. Ulasimang Bato
B. Bawang
C. Carmona Retusa
D. Ampalaya
Answer: D
Rationale: Ampalaya (Memordica charantia) can be used in lowering blood sugar level and
Diabetes Mellitus ( mild non insulin dependent)
A is incorrect. Ulasimang bato (Peperonia pellucida) is a weed, with heart-shaped leaves
that grow in shady parts of the garden and yard, used in lowering uric acid (rheumatism
and gout).
B is incorrect. Bawang is used for hypertension, toothache and lowering the cholesterol level
in the blood.
C is incorrect. Carmona Retusa or Tsaang Gubat is a shrub with small, shiny nice looking
leaves that grows in wild cultivated areas and forests. Mature stem are used for planting. It
can be use in treatment of stomachache.
Source: Public Health Nursing in the Philippines 10th edition by DOH, p326-328
58. Which of the following FP method is recommended to exclusively breastfeeding mothers?

A. symptom thermal
B. cervical mucous
C. BBT
D. LAM
Answer: D
Rationale: LAM or Lactating Amenorrhea Method is a temporary introductory postpartum
method of [postponing pregnancy based on physiological infertility experienced by
Breastfeeding Women. Its advantages are: It is universally available to all post partum
women. Using LAM, protection from an unplanned pregnancy begins immediately
postpartum. There are no other commodities required and it contributes to improve
maternal and child health and nutrition. However, it is considered as an introductory, short
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term family planning method which is effective only for a maximum of 6 month postpartum.
Also, the effectiveness of LAM may decrease if a mother and child are separated for
extended period of time and full or nearly full BF may be difficult to maintain for up to 6
months due to a variety of social circumstances.
59. Which among the following records is used when rendering prenatal care in the RHU?
A. prenatal record
B. home based mothers’ record
C. target client list
D. mother’s book
Answer: B
Rationale: The Home Based Mother's Record (HMBR) shall be used when rendering
prenatal care as a guide in the identification of risk factors, danger signs, and to be able to
do appropriate measure. Health promotion messages and information on danger signs must
be given emphasis.
Source: Community Health Nursing Services in the Philippines 9th Edition by DOH
60. Which of the following is given to all pregnant mothers?

A. chloroquine C. iodized salt
B. iron D. all
Answer: D
Rationale: All pregnant women shall be given Tetanus Toxoid Immunization according to
the WHO recommended schedule. Iron supplementation shall be given from the 5th month
of pregnancy up to 2 months post partum. (100-200 mg orally per daily per orem for 210
days). In goiter endemic areas, all pregnant women shall be given one iodized oil capsule
every year. In malaria infested areas, all pregnant women shall be given prophylaxis in the
form of Chloroquine (150 mg base/ tablet) 2 tablets per week for the whole duration of
pregnancy.
61. Which of the following should you explain to the mother regarding the characteristics of
tetanus?
a. prevented by BCG immunization
b. usually introduced though a skin injury
c. caused by non-spore forming organism
d. person-to-person transmission
Answer: B
Rationale: Tetanus or lockjaw is an acute exotoxin mediated infection caused by the
anaerobic, spore-forming, gram positive bacillus Clostridium tetani. Normally, transmission
is through a puncture wound that is contaminated by soil, dust, or animal excreta
containing C. tetani, or by way of burns or minor wounds. After the bacillus enters the body,
it causes local infection and tissue necrosis. It also produces toxins that then enter the
bloodstream and lymphatics and eventually spread to the nervous system tissue. Tetanus
occurs worldwide, but it's more prevalent in agricultural regions and developing countries
that lack mass immunization programs. It is one of the most common causes of neonatal
deaths in developing countries , where infants of unimmunized mothers are delivered under
unsterile conditions. In such infants, the unhealed umbilical cord is the portal of entry. The
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incubation period varies from 3 days to 1 month or more, falling between 7 and 14 days in
high proportion of cases. This communicable disease is not transmitted from man to man.
Source: Handbook of infectious disease by Longworth, p.304.
62. Which of the following of sign (s) is an indication of tetanus?

a. muscular contraction of the neck muscles
b. abdominal rigidity
c. risus sardonicus
d. all of these
Answer: D
Rationale: If tetanus remains localized, signs of onset are spasm and increases muscle
tone near the wound. If the tetanus is generalized (systemic), indications include marked
muscle hypertonicity, hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, profuse sweating, low grade fever,
and painful, involuntary muscle contractions: (1) neck and facial muscles, especially cheek
muscles – lockjaw (trismus),and grotesque, grinning expression called risus sardonicus. (2)
Somatic muscles – arched- back rigidity (opisthotonos), board-like abdominal rigidity. (3)
Intermittent tonic convulsions lasting several minutes, which may result in cyanosis and
sudden death by asphyxiation.
Source: Handbook of infectious disease by Longworth, p.304
63. To prevent tetanus infection, you informed the mothers that they should be given
tetanus toxoid starting:
A. strictly in the third trimester C. strictly in the first trimester
B. strictly in the second trimester D. anytime during pregnancy
Answer: D
Rationale: Neonatal Tetanus is one of the public health concerns hat we need to address
among newborns. To protect them from deadly disease tetanus toxoid immunization is
important for pregnant women and child bearing age women. Both mother and child are
protected against tetanus and neonatal tetanus. A series of 2 doses of tetanus toxoid
vaccination must be received by a woman 1 month before delivery to protect baby from
neonatal tetanus. And the 3 booster dose shots to complete the five doses following the
recommended schedule provide full protection for both the mother and the child. When 2
doses of TT injection is given at 1 month interval between each dose during pregnancy or
even before pregnancy period the baby is protected against neonatal tetanus. Completing
the 5 doses following the schedule provide lifetime immunity. The 1st dose of tetanus
Toxoid(TT1) is given as early as possible during pregnancy; TT2 should be given with at
least a month interval after the 1st dose, this will give 80% protection for infants from
neonatal tetanus and gives 3 years protection for the mother. The 3rd dose, TT3, is given
with at least 6 months interval from TT2. It will give 95% protection to infants and give 5
years protection for the mother. TT4 is give at least one year after the 3rd dose. This will
give 99% protection to the mother for 10 years and infants born to the mother will be
protected from the said disease. The last dose, TT5 , should be administered after a year
following the TT4 , it will yield 99% protection to all infants born to that mother and give a
lifetime protection for the mother.
Source: Public Health Nursing in the Philippines 10th edition by DOH, p 150.
64. All of the following may have a home delivery EXCEPT

a. more than 5 deliveries c. full term
b. imminent delivery d. no PROM
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Answer: A
Rationale: At risk pregnancies and mothers who develop obstetrical complications during
labor should be immediately referred to the nearest facility or institution with capability to
manage obstetric emergencies but obstetric first aid should be administered first before
transport. Actively practicing but untrained birth attendants (hilots) should be identified,
trained and supervised by a personnel of the nearest BHS/RHU trained on maternal care.
The following are qualifications for home delivery: (1) full term; (2) less than 5
pregnancies ; (3) cephalic presentation; (4) without existing diseases such as diabetes,
bronchial asthma, heart disease, hypertension, goiter, tuberculosis, severe anemia. (5) No
history of complications like hemorrhage during previous deliveries. (6) No history of
difficulty delivery and prolonged labor (more than 24 hours for primi and more than 12
hours for multigravida). (7) No previous caesarian section; (8) imminent deliveries- those
who are about to deliver and can no longer reach the nearest health facility in time for
delivery. In case of imminent deliveries by risk mothers they should still be referred to
appropriate level of health facility if the risk remains after delivery but if the risk condition
has disappeared then no referral is needed. (8) No PROM or premature rupture of
membranes; (9) Adequate pelvis; (10) Abdominal enlargement is appropriate for age of
gestation.
65. Unlicensed personnel or TBAs may attend to home deliveries only:

a. when properly endorsed to the midwife
b. when mother is her neighbor
c. when there is no licensed personnel during delivery
d. when the RHU is closed
Answer: C
Rationale: Home deliveries for normal pregnancies attended by licensed health personnel
shall be encouraged. Trained hilots (TBAs) may be allowes to attend home deliveries only in
the following circumstances: (1) In areas where there are no licensed health personnel on
maternal care. (2) When, at the time of delivery, such personnel are not available.
66. The first post partum check-up visit should be done:

a. within 48 hours c. ASAP
b. within 12 hours d. within 24 hours
Answer: D
Rationale: For home deliveries, the first postpartum visit shall be done within 24 hours
after the delivery, the next visit shall be at least one week after the delivery, and third visit
two to four weeks thereafter. The visit to the health facility shall be within four to six weeks
after delivery.
67. During your post partum check-up of the mother, you must include the following
activities EXCEPT:
A. check for bleeding C. take vital signs
B. hygiene D. jaundice
Answer: D
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Rationale: Post partum check up for mothers should include: check for bleeding and
infection; Check for VS, breastfeeding practices and Postpartum counseling to include birth
spacing, cord care, hygiene, breastfeeding and nutrition.
Source: Community Health Nursing Services in the Philippines 9th Edition by DOH. P105
68. PHC is a strategy that focuses on which of the following groups?

A. maternal & child
B. communicable disease patients
C. post hospitalized cases
D. individual, families and communities
Answer: D
Rationale: WHO defines PHC as essential health care made universally accessible to
individuals and families in the community by means acceptable to them through their full
participation and at a cost that the community and the country can afford at every stages of
development. The concept of PHC is characterized by partnership and empowerment of the
people that shall permeate as a core strategy in the effective provision of essential health
services that are community based, accessible, acceptable and sustainable at a cost which
the community and the government can afford. It is a strategy, which focuses
responsibility for health on the individual, his family and the community. It includes
the full participation and active involvement of the community towards the development of
self reliant people, capable of achieving an acceptable level of health and well being.
69. As a nurse in the RHU you are planning for the family health care of the Reyes family.
Aside from the midwife, who among the following is also involved with your plan?
A. municipal health officer
B. nutritionist
C. doctor on duty
D. community health worker
Answer: D
Rationale: Team planning by he same personnel in the same level and the various health
levels will be essential for the effectiveness and efficiency of health services. As a nurse,
you will be planning family health care with the midwife and the community health worker.
Team work in primary health care entails joint planning, implementation, and evaluation of
community activities by the team members with the community health needs/problems as
based on action. Joint efforts in the implementation of health programs are demonstrated
by the health team where the nurse is the team leader with midwife and other community
health workers.
Situation 11: The following are the data you gathered from Barangay Talahib
1. total population: 120
2. total families included in the survey: 25
3. there were 85 cases of old and new cases of respiratory diseases
4. there were 29 new cases of respiratory diseases
5. there were 7 deaths reported for the past year
6. 3 of these deaths were due to respiratory diseases
70. Based on the above data: What variables would you need to compute for the prevalence
rate of respiratory diseases?
13
A. 1 & 2 C. 2 & 3
B. 1 & 3 D. 1 & 4
Answer: B
Rationale: Prevalence Rate measures the proportion of the population which exhibits a
particular disease at a particular time. This can only be determined following a survey of the
population concerned. It deals with total (old &new) number cases.
PR= No. of new and old cases of a certain disease registered at a given time X 100
Total No. of persons examined at same given time
71. What variables would you need to compute for the incidence rate of the respiratory
diseases?
A. 1 & 2 C. 2 & 3
B. 1 & 3 D. 1 & 4
Answer: D
Rationale: Incidence Rate measures the frequency of occurrence of the phenomenon
during a given period of time. It deals only with new cases.
IR = No. of new cases of disease registered during a specified period of time X 100,000
Estimated population as of July of same year
72. In computing for specific mortality rate for respiratory diseases, what numerator would
you use?
A. 3 C. 5
B. 4 D. 6
Answer: D
Rationale: Specific Mortality Rate or Specific Death Rate describes more accurately the risk
of exposure of certain classes or groups to a particular disease. To understand the forces of
mortality, the rates should be made specific provided the data are available for both the
population and the event in their specifications. Specific rates render more comparable and
thus, reveal the problems of public health.
SMR = Deaths in specific class or group registered in a given calendar year x 100,000
Estimated population as of July 1 in the same specified class or group of said year
73. An analysis of the data given above would lead us to the identification of
A. community diagnosis C. community health problems
B. problem tree D. health status problems
Answer: C
Rationale: Specific Death Rates renders more comparable, thus revealing the problems of
public health.
Source: Community Health Nursing Services in the Philippines 9th Edition by DOH, p331
74. Assuming that you have computed 300 infants eligible for Hepa B immunization, how
many doses of Hepa B would you need?
a. 300 c. 900
b. 600 d. 1,200
Answer: C
14
Rationale: Three doses of Hepa B Vaccine is given in every infant. It is given with a
minimum interval of 4 weeks. Assuming that 300 infants are eligible for DPT immunization
and there are 3 doses required per infant, 900 doses of DPT will be needed.
75. While the total number of measles doses need would be?
a. 300
b. 600
c. 900
d. 1,200
Answer: A
Rationale: Measles vaccine is given at the minimum age of 9 months, single dose. At least
80% of measles can be prevented by immunization at this age. Assuming that there are
also 300 infants eligible for Measles vaccine and there should be 1 dose in each infant,
therefore 300 doses are needed.
76. Which of these vaccines are the most sensitive to sunlight and are therefore kept frozen
at the RHU?
a. BCG & DPT c. OPV and measles
b. BCG & OPV d. all of these
Answer: C
Rationale: Vaccines are substances very sensitive at various temperatures. To avoid
spoilage and maintain its potency, vaccines need to be stored at correct temperature. OPV
and measles are the types of vaccine that is most sensitive to heat. Both of it should be
stored in a storage temprerature of -15°C to -25°Cor at the freezer. The vaccines that are
least sensitive to heat are: DPT, Hep B, BCG, and Tetanus toxoid. These vaccines could be
stored at temperature of +2°C to +8 °C or in the refrigerator.
77. Which of the following is a contraindication for immunization?

a. lethargy c. Temperature of 38.2 0C
b. malnutrition d. all
Answer: A
Rationale: Moderate fever, malnutrition, mild respiratory infection, cough, diarrhea and
vomiting are not contraindications to vaccination. Generally, one should immunize unless
the child is so sick that he needs hospitalization. The absolute contraindications to
immunization are: (1) DPT2 or DPT3 to a child who has had convulsion or shock within 3
days the previous dose. Vaccines containing the whole cell pertussis component should not
be given to children with an evolving neurological disease(uncontrolled epilepsy of
progressive encephalopathy). (2) Liver vaccines like BCG vaccines must not be given to
individuals who are immunosuppressed due to malignant disease, therapy with
immunosuppressive agents or irradiation.
78. Which pillar of the Sentrong Sigla Movement requires the assessment of the health
organizations’ programs, infrastructure, human resources and community interventions?
a. Quality Assurance c. Health Promotion
b. Grants and Technical Assistance d. Award
Answer: A
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Rationale: There are 4 pillars of Sentrong Sigla(SS) movement namely – Quality assurance
pillar, Health Promotion pillar, Grants and Technical Assistance pillar and Award pillar. The
quality assurance pillar sets and updates standards and requirements for quality health
services in hospitals and RHUs. It supports continuing efforts for quality assurance,
conducts semestral evaluation of the facilities with SS seal and removes from the facility the
SS seal if it fails to maintain standards for 2 consecutive evaluation periods. Quality
Assurance assesses the : infrastructure/amenities, services, attitudes and behavior of health
workers, human resources, equipment, drugs , medicines and supplies, Health information
system and community intervention. Health Promotion Pillar creates awareness and demand
for improved quality services. It promotes concept of health as personal responsibility,
encourages community participation for health action and develops environment for health
action. Grants and Technical Assistance pillar, on the other hand, provides financial and
logistics assistance to Local Government Units. It also provides access to a pool of technical
experts to assist the LGUs in their continuing quality improvement program. The grants may
be used by the LGUs to develop capabilities of Health workers and to improve the health
facilities in line with SS standards. The awards pillar is responsible in giving recognition of
outstanding facilities (national and local). It also organizes events to recognize such
facilities.
Source: Community Health Nursing Services in the Philippines 9th Edition by DOH, p126-
127.
79. In monitoring and evaluating the services rendered by the RHU, this is an indispensable
tool that provides the summary of data on service delivery and program
accomplishment.
a. Target client list c. FHSIS
b. Reporting forms d. barangay health plan
Answer: A
Rationale: Target/Client List constitute the second "building block" of the FHSIS and are
intended to serve as: (1) to plan and carry out patient care and service delivery. This list
will be considerable value to midwives/nurses in monitoring service delivery to client in
general and in particular to groups of patients identified as "targets" or "eligible" for one
another program of the department; (2) to facilitate the monitoring and supervision of
services; (3) to report services delivered. The objective is to avoid having to go back to
individual patient/ family records in order to complete FHSIS Reporting Forms. (4) to
provide a clinic-level data base which can be accessed for further studies.
B is incorrect. Tally/Reporting Forms constitute the only mechanism through which data are
routinely transmitted from or facilities to another in the revised FHSIS. The majority of
FHSIS reports are prepared and submitted either monthly or quarterly.
80. From among the vital statistics included in the health profile compiled from the previous
year, you would like to determine the number of children (0-5 years old) who died due to
diarrhea for that year. The vital statistics that will give you this data would be the
a. Prevalence Rate
b. Infant mortality Rate
c. Proportionate Death rate
d. Case Fatality rate
Answer: C
16
Rationale: Proportionate mortality Rate shows the numerical relationship between deaths
from all causes (or group of causes), age (or group of age) and the total no. of deaths from
all causes in all ages taken together.
PMR= No. of registered deaths from specific cause or age for a given calendar year x 1000
No. of registration deaths from all causes, all ages in same year
A is incorrect. Prevalence Rate measures the proportion of the population which exhibits the
particular disease at a particular time. This can only be determined following survey of the
population concerned, deals with total (new or old) number of cases.
B is incorrect. Infant mortality Rate measures the risk of dying during the 1st year of life. It
is a good index of the general health condition of a community since it reflects the changes
in the environment and medical condition of the community.
IMR= Total number of death under 1 year of age registered in a given calendar year x 1000
Total no. of registered live births of the same calendar year
D is incorrect. Case fatality Ratio is the index of a killing power of a disease and is
influenced by incomplete reporting and poor morbidity data.
CFR = No. of registered deaths from a specific disease for a given year x 1000
No. of registered cases from the same specific disease in the same year
Source: Public Health Nursing in the Philippines 10th edition by DOH, p76 -78.
81. Which data is the most sensitive indicator of the total health status on the community?
a. Prevalence Rate
b. Infant Mortality Rate
c. Proportionate Death rate
d. Case Fatality rate
Answer: B
Rationale: infant Mortality rate is a good index of the general health condition if the
community since it reflects the changes in the environment and medical condition of a
community.
82. What alarmed you the most was that the case fatality rate for diarrhea for that year
was 40%. This implies that
a. 40% of the population died of diarrhea
b. 40% of the population had diarrhea
c. 40% of those who had diarrhea died
d. 40% of the those who had diarrhea did not receive medical attention
Answer: C
Rationale: Case Fatality Rate of 40% indicates that 40% of those who had diarrhea died of
it. The higher the CFR, the more fatal a disease is.
83. Based on some of your findings during the prenatal check up, the mother was classified
having a high risk pregnancy. This would imply the following EXCEPT
A. tubal ligation should be done as soon as she delivers
B. she is disqualified for home delivery
C. she may need to referred to the hospital for her delivery
D. she must be closely monitored and evaluated
17
Answer: A
Rationale: Patient with serious or potentially serious complications, following the initial
evaluation, shall be referred to the most skilled source of medical and hospital care. As a
first choice they will be referred if at all possible for continuing care or consultation. As a
second choice, they will be followed carefully by the rural health unit, city clinic or
puericulture center where they should be seen frequently by the physician. A thorough
evaluation of the needs of patients with mild complications will determine the frequency of
follow up of these cases. This mothers who are at high risk pregnancy are disqualified for
home delivery.
84. The minimum number of prenatal check-up for an expectant mother is

A. 3 C. 9
B. 6 D. 12
Answer: A
Rationale: There should be at least 3 prenatal visits during pregnancy following the
prescribed timing: The 1st prenatal visit should be made as early in pregnancy as possible,
during the 1st trimester. The second visit during the 2nd trimester and the third and
subsequent visits during the 3rd trimester. More visits should be done for those at risk/ with
complications.
85. As part of the routine prenatal check up, all expectant mothers are given
1. Tetanus toxoid 3. Vitamin A capsules
2. Iron supplement 4. Iodized capsule for goiter in endemic areas
A. 1, 2 & 3 C. 1, 2, 3 & 4
B. 2, 3 & 4 D. 1 only
Answer: C
Rationale: All pregnant women shall be given Tetanus Toxoid Immunization according to
the WHO recommended schedule. Iron supplementation shall be given from the 5th month
of pregnancy up to 2 months post partum. (100-200 mg orally per daily per orem for 210
days). In goiter endemic areas, all pregnant women shall be given one iodized oil capsule
every year. In malaria infested areas, all pregnant women shall be given prophylaxis in the
form of Chloroquine (150 mg base/ tablet) 2 tablets per week for the whole duration of
pregnancy. Vitamin A 10,000IU, is given twice a week starting the 4th month of pregnancy.
Do not give Vitamin A supplementation before the 4th month of pregnancy because it might
cause congenital problems in the baby.
Source: Public Health Nursing in the Philippines 10th edition by DOH, p120-121
86. To encourage all mothers to breastfeed you enumerate its benefits, which among the
following is not true of breastfeeding?
A. reduces incidence of infection in infants
B. may help space pregnancy
C. gives passive immunity
D. none of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Exclusive breastfeeding of infants recommended for the first six months of their
lives and breastfeeding with complimentary foods thereafter. Breastfeeding has many
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physical and psychological benefits for children and mother as well as economic benefits for
families and societies. The benefits of breastfeeding to infants are: (1) It provides a
nutritional complete food for the young infant. (2) It strengthens the infants immune
system, preventing many infections. (3) Safely rehydrates and provides essential nutrients
to a sick child, especially those suffering from diarrheal disease. (4) It reduces the infants
exposure to infection and increases IQ points. Its benefits for the mothers are: (1) Reduces
woman's risk for excessive blood loss after birth. (2) Provides natural methods of delaying
pregnancies. (3) Reduces the risk of ovarian and breast cancers and osteoporosis. To
household & community: (1) Conserve funds that otherwise would be spent on breast milk
substitute, supplies and fuel to prepare them. (2) saves medical cost to families and
government by preventing illnesses and by providing immediate postpartum contraception.
87. Aling Ana delivered a healthy, bouncing baby boy at home whom she named Joey.
Eager to ensure that Joey is protected against childhood communicable diseases the
midwife who attended to Aling Ana’s home delivery gave Joey his first vaccination at the
health center. Based on the EPI schedule, which of these would she give Joey?
A. BCG C. Hepatitis B Vaccine
B. DPT D. OPV
Answer: A
Rationale: BCG given at earliest possible age protects the possibility of TB meningitis &
other TB infectious in which infants are prone.
B is incorrect. DPT is given 6 weeks after birth.
C should be given within the first 24 hours according to IMCI. But since this is home
delivery and the immunization occurred at the health center, the schedule should be at 6
weeks, 10 weeks, 14 weeks.
D is incorrect. OPV is given at the same time as DPT.
88. Since Aling Ana was given 2 doses of tetanus toxoid during her pregnancy, you know
that Joey was also protected. What type of immunity did Joey receive?
A. Natural – Active C. Artificial - Active
B. Natural – Passive D. Artificial - Passive
Answer: B
Rationale: Immunity is the status or quality of being immune or insusceptible in certain
diseases. Thera are 2 types of immunity – active & passive. In active immunity, the host
produces antibodies in response to natural antigens. It is subdivided further to natural or
artificial. In natural active immunity, antibodies are formed in the presence of active
infection in the body; whereas in artificial active immunity, the antigens (vaccines or
toxoids) are administered to stimulate antibody production.
In passive or acquired immunity, the host receives natural or artificial antibodies produce by
another source. It can also be either natural or artificial. In natural passive immunity,
antibodies are transferred naturally from an immune mother to her baby through the
placenta or colostrums, wherein in artificial passive immunity, immune serum (antibody)
from an animal or another human is injected.
Source: Fundamentals of Nursing 7th edition by Kozier, p635.
89. Which of the following vaccine will you give intradermally to Joey?
A. BCG B. DPT C. Measles D. OPV
19
Answer: A
Rationale: BCG is the only vaccine routinely administered intradermally.
B is incorrect. DPT is given in intramuscular route.
C is incorrect. Meascles vaccine is administered subcutaneously.
D is incorrect. OPV is given via mouth/ taken orally.
Source: Public Health Nursing in the Philippines 10th edition by DOH, p152
90. After 2 days, Aling Ana consulted you in the health center. She wanted you to assess
Joey’s immunization site (refer to your answer in 89). You would immediately look at Joey’s
A. Left deltoid area C. Right deltoid area
B. Left vastus lateralis D. Right vastus lateralis
Answer: C
Rationale: BCG vaccine is routinely administered at the right deltoid region of the arm.
This is the preferred site.
91. You noticed that there was immediate reaction to the vaccine characterized by
inflammation at the injection site. You tell Aling Ana that this is indicative of
A. Secondary infection C. a normal reaction
B. Wrong technique / administration D. previous exposure to TB
Answer: C
Rationale: If the vaccine is injected correctly into the skin, a flat wheal with the surface
pitted like an orange peel will appear at the injection site, which is a normal reaction. if a
guinea pig that has been previously infected with tuberculosis organisms is reinjected
intracutaneously, the skin over the injected area undergoes necrosis and a superficial ulcer
develops; the ulcer heals quickly and infection of regional lymph nodes is retarded. The
phenomenon demonstrates development of ability to localize tubercle bacilli, which is the
principle underlying tuberculin tests (q.v.). Called also Koch's reaction.
92. This condition is also known as

A. Indolent ulceration C. Koch’s Phenomenon
B. Lymph glands enlargement D. none, it is a normal reaction
Answer: C
Rationale: if a guinea pig that has been previously infected with tuberculosis organisms is
reinjected intracutaneously, the skin over the injected area undergoes necrosis and a
superficial ulcer develops; the ulcer heals quickly and infection of regional lymph nodes is
retarded. The phenomenon demonstrates development of ability to localize tubercle bacilli,
which is the principle underlying tuberculin tests (q.v.). Called also Koch's reaction.
Source:http://www.mercksource.com
93. To maintain the “cold chain” the appropriate storage temperature for OPV and measles
is
A. Frozen at –2 to –8 degrees Celsius
B. Frozen at –25 to -15 degrees Celsius
C. Refrigerated at 2 to 8 degrees Celsius
D. Refrigerated at 15 – 25 degrees Celsius
20
Answer: B
Rationale: Vaccines are substances very sensitive at various temperatures. To avoid
spoilage and maintain its potency, vaccines need to be stored at correct temperature. OPV
and measles are the types of vaccine that is most sensitive to heat. Both of it should be
stored in a storage temperature of -15°C to -25°Cor at the freezer. The vaccines that are
least sensitive to heat are: DPT, Hep B, BCG, and Tetanus toxoid. These vaccines could be
stored at temperature of +2°C to +8 °C or in the refrigerator.
94. As a CHN, one of your responsibilities is the supervision of the midwife. You know very
well that the midwife under your supervision is adept in immunizing infants if she
administers DPT by observing the following?
A. aspirates first before injecting 0.5 ml, IM at the right vastus lateralis
B. aspirates first before injecting 0.05 ml, ID at the right deltoid
C. injects 0.5 ml, IM at the right vastus lateralis
D. injects 0.05 ml, SQ at the right upper arm
Answer: A
Rationale: DPT is given deep IM at the upper outer portion of the thigh or vastus lateralis
with dose of 0.5ml. Since this is deep IM, aspirating for blood is necessary to avoid a blood
vessel.
95. When asked by the midwife under your supervision about the content of the Hepatitis B
Vaccine. You immediately replied that it is a
A. Live attenuated virus

B. Weakened toxin
C. Plasma derived
D. Killed bacteria
Answer: C
Rationale:
EPI VACCINES: CONTENTS, FORMS, Exposure to Certain Conditions
Vaccine Contents Form Conditions when exposed Storage

to heat Temperature
BCG Live attenuated Freeze dried and - destroyed by heat, - 15 to -25 0C

bacterial vaccine to be sunlight
reconstituted with - not destroyed by
a special diluent freezing
DPT D – Toxoid which is a Liquid D – destroyed by - 15 to -25 0C

weakened toxin freezing/heat
P – killed bacteria P – damaged by heat
T – toxoid which is a T – damaged by heat and
weakened toxin freezing
Polio Vaccine Live attenuated virus Liquid Easily damaged by heat, not 2 to 8 0C
destroyed by freezing
21
Measles Vaccine Live attenuated virus Freeze dried and Easily damaged by heat, not 2 to 8 0C
to be destroyed by freezing
reconstituted with
a special diluent
Hepatitis B Plasma derived; RNA Liquid Damaged by heat or freezing 2 to 8 0C

Vaccine recombinant
Tetanus Toxoid Weakened toxin Liquid Damaged by heat or freezing 2 to 8 0C
Source: Expanded program on immunization manual. (Revised Edition, 1995). Department of Health,
Government of the Philippines p. 35
96. Before giving DPT2, Juan’s mother told you that Juan had seizure after he had DPT1.
Your best course of action is
A. refer Juan to a neurologist
B. give DPT2 with anti-pyretic and anti-convulsant medication
C. not to give DPT2
D. teach mother home remedies for convulsion
Answer: C
Rationale: DPT2 or DPT3 should not be given to a child who has had convulsions or shock
within 3 days the previous dose. So the best course of action is to omit DPT2.
97. It is a policy of the DOH that all children below infants and children will be provided
compulsory immunization; this is enshrined as a law based on
A. PD 669 C. PD 969
B. PD 696 D PD 996
Answer: D
Rationale: Presidential Decree No. 996 (September 16, 1976) requires compulsory
immunization for all children below eight years old against communicable diseases.
98.As a health professional you are aware that AIDS can be acquired through the following
modes EXCEPT
A. Blood transfusion
B. Unsanitary toilets
C. Sexual contact
D. Sharing of syringe and needles
Answer: B
Rationale: AIDS/ Acquired Immunodeficiency syndrome is marked by progressive failure of
the immune system. Although it is characterized by gradual destruction of cell-mediated
(Tcell) immunity, it also affects humoral immunity and even autoimmunity because of the
central role of the CD4+ T lymphocyte in immune reactions. The resultant
immunodeficiency makes the patient susceptible to opportunistic infections, unusual
cancers, and other abnormalities that define AIDS. A retrovirus is the primary etiologic
agent. Transmission of HIV occurs by contact with infected blood or body fluids and is
associated with identifiable high risked behaviors. As a result, it is most common in
homosexual and bisexual men, I.V. drug users, neonates of HIV infected women, recipients
of contaminated blood or blood products, and heterosexual partners of persons in the
22
former group. The incubation period varies. Although the time from infection to the
development of detectable antibodies is generally 1-3 months, the time from HIV to
diagnosis of AIDS has an observe range of less than 1 year to 15 years or longer.
Source: Handbook of infectious disease by Longworth, p30.
99. A cornerstone of the AIDS Prevention Program is the early diagnosis of cases to
minimize transmission, which of the following is not a sign of HIV?
A. persistent diarrhea C. Kaposi’s Sarcoma
B. esophageal candidiasis D. loss of sensation in affected area
Answer: D
Rationale:AIDS is manifested by maculo popular rashes, loss of appetite, weight loss, fever
of unknown origin, malaise, persistent diarrhea, tuberculosis, esophageal candidiasis,
Kaposi's sarcoma, Pneumocystic carinii pneumonia, gaunt apprehensive looking,
forgetfulness, loss of libido, apathy, withdrawal and psychomotor retardation. In later
stage:confusion, disorientation, seizures, mutism, loss of memory, and coma.
100. Which on of the following is a principle in nursing care at home?

A. It is a policy of the Department of Health
B. It is an opportunity for teaching patient and members of the family
C. It is cost effective and efficiently done
D. The nurse has the responsibility to access the environment
Answer: B
Rationale: Giving to the individual patient the nursing care required by his/ her specific
illness or trauma to help him/ her reach a level of functioning at which he/ she can maintain
him/ herself, or die peacefully in dignity. There are 5 principles of Nursing Care at Home.
(1) Nursing care utilizes a medical plan of care and treatment. (2) The performance of
nursing care utilizes skills that would give maximum comfort and security to the individual.
(3) Nursing care given at home should be used as a teaching opportunity to the patient or
to any responsible member of the family. (4) the performance of nursing care should
recognize dangers in the patient's over-prolonged acceptance of support and comfort. (5)
Nursing care is a good opportunity for detecting abnormal signs and symptoms, observing
patient's attitude towards care given and the progress exhibited by the patient.
---End of Examination--
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Answer Key EXAM DRILL 2 - Community Health Nursing Nursing Practice Ii - CHN and Care of The Mother and Child

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ANSWER KEY

EXAM DRILL 2 – Community Health Nursing

1. The family’s response to health and illness is reflected in

A. its utilization of existing health services

A. understand their culture

A. ensure that change blends to their culture

4. An indicator that behavior change is maintained and sustained is when:

A. change is incorporated to everyday life

6. When the nurse conducts scientific investigation of a phenomenon towards improving

12. As a supervisor, the PHN does the following EXCEPT:

15. In the care of population groups, the nurse must focus on

16. The context of care of the community is/are the

Situation 4. The individual is taken as the clientele in CHN.

21. This is an example of a family that is

Situation 8: Patrice met Marian, the school nurse.

41. The most basic concern of Steph is

45. In applying concept of primary health care, Steph will:

Situation 10 – Community Diagnosis is an assessment tool for determining community

47. The best instrument for the community survey is the:

53. The frequency of home visit is determined by which of the following?

58. Which of the following FP method is recommended to exclusively breastfeeding mothers?

60. Which of the following is given to all pregnant mothers?

Source: Handbook of infectious disease by Longworth, p.304.

62. Which of the following of sign (s) is an indication of tetanus?

Source: Handbook of infectious disease by Longworth, p.304

64. All of the following may have a home delivery EXCEPT

65. Unlicensed personnel or TBAs may attend to home deliveries only:

66. The first post partum check-up visit should be done:

68. PHC is a strategy that focuses on which of the following groups?

77. Which of the following is a contraindication for immunization?

84. The minimum number of prenatal check-up for an expectant mother is

Source: Fundamentals of Nursing 7th edition by Kozier, p635.

92. This condition is also known as

A. Live attenuated virus

EPI VACCINES: CONTENTS, FORMS, Exposure to Certain Conditions

Vaccine Contents Form Conditions when exposed Storage

BCG Live attenuated Freeze dried and - destroyed by heat, - 15 to -25 0C

DPT D – Toxoid which is a Liquid D – destroyed by - 15 to -25 0C

Hepatitis B Plasma derived; RNA Liquid Damaged by heat or freezing 2 to 8 0C

Tetanus Toxoid Weakened toxin Liquid Damaged by heat or freezing 2 to 8 0C

100. Which on of the following is a principle in nursing care at home?

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