Male 65 years old enter the emergency room by ambulance after accident 2 hours ago.

Patient bleeding in lower extremities and look anemic. 1. Which first action of rescue after found that the patient is unconscious: a. call for help b. airway assessment c. check carotid pulse d. breathing assessment e. perform IV line 2. If the patient become cardiac arrest, Which of the following can be included in manage witness cardiac arrest within first minute of arrest: A. Recovery Position B. Precordial Thumb C. Anti arrhytmic agent D. Trendelenburg position E. Syncrhronized cardioversion 3. Which following condition may cause cardiac arrest to this patient? A. Acidosis Metabolic B. Drug overdose C. Vagal Stimulation D. Massive haemorrhage E. Stimulation of the heart 4. Which following statement is NOT APPROPRIATE with external cardiac compression? a. compression rate 100x/minute b. check circulation after each cycle c. push hard vertically downward 4-5 cm d. adrenaline i.v. each 3-5 minutes during compression e. ratio compression ventilation 30:2 for 1 or 2 rescue 65 y.o woman with numbness and tingling sensation over thumb and index finger of the left palm, especially in night time, since 2 years ago. Weakness when holding things, but still can do housework. Inspection: color f the skin is normal, no scar, no apparent tumor. Wasting thenar muscle (-). Palpable: temperature of the skin is the same compare to the right hand, no palpable tumor, no tenderness. Pressure of the volar wrist join increase numbness & tingling over the finger. 5. What is the suspect problem of the patient? A. Ulnar vessels and nerve problem B. Carpal Tumor Syndrome C. Median nerve problem because cooking D. Ulnar nerve injury E. Radial nerve disruption because trauma

6. What is the risk factor for this patient? A. Osteoporosis B. Osteopetrosis C. Atrophic Synovium D. Osteophyte E. Atrophic Tendon 7. What is the treatment for this patient? a. antibiotic injection b. wrist splint c. division transverse carpal ligament d. open surgery e. endoscopic release 8. If there was thenar muscle atrophy. What is your therapy for this patient? A. Steroid injection B. NSAIDs C. Rest and NSAIDs D. Wrist splint E. Open surgical division 35 yo man, history traffic accident, there was ecchymosis on the knee, came to your hospital with the position of the hip joint slight flexion, adduction, internal rotation. 9. What is your diagnosis? A. Fracture of the neck femur B. Anterior dislocation of the hip joint C. Fracture of the intertrochanteric femur D. Posterior dislocation of the hip joint E. Central dislocation of the hip joint 10. What is the additional sign you will be find? A. Leg length discrepancy B. Unlimited range of motion of hip joint C. Gallezi sign (-) D. Head of femur protude on the inguinal E. Head of femur protude on the lateral 11. What is the treatment for this patient A. Traction countertraction B. Milch maneuver C. Kocher maneuver D. Stimson technique E. Parvin method 12. What is make different treatment for children in the neck femur fracture? A. Vessel in the ligamentum teres B. Vessel in the retinacula C. Intraosseus vessels D. Femoral artery branch E. Artery surround on the femoral capsule

33 yo men a heavy construction work, hit by machine direct to the fore foot, from physical examination, there was pain, swelling, ecchymosis, deformity on the first toe and difficult ROM ambulation 13. What is the possible diagnosis of this patient? A. Open fracture of the proximal phalanx of the hallux B. Fracture of the middle phalanx of the first toe C. Fracture of the distal metatarsal of the first toe D. Open fracture of the distal metatarsal of the first toe E. Fracture of the middle phalanx of the hallux 14. What is the right choice fot the patient problem? A. Buddy tapping immobilization and rest B. Cryotherapy C. Conservative treatment D. Buddy tapping and antibiotic E. Surgery 15. The result of X-ray is communitive fracture of the interphalangeal joint, What is your definitive treatment for this patient? A. External fixation B. Kirschner wires C. Buddy tapping D. Casting E. Splinting 28 yo Mn, a badminton player came in hospital with chief complain difficult to dorsoflexion of the foot after doing smash jumping, from physical exam, Thompson test was positif. 16. what is the possibility diagnosis of the patient? a. fracture of the great toe b. fracture of the fore foot bone c. rupture of the flexor hallucis longus tendon d. rupture of the achilles tendon e. rupture of the extensor first digit tendon 17. What is the injury mechanism of the patient problem? a. Violent plantar flexion of the flexed foot as in the fall from height b. Direct trauma first digit c. twisting mechanism at the interphalangeal joint of the hallux d. Pushing of with the weight bearing forefoot while extending the knee e. Sudden unexpected plantarflexion on the ankle joint 18. What is the treatment for the patient? a. Fixation with kirschner wire

b. Kessler techinique c. Buddy tapping d. Debridement e. Open reduction with plating A G2P1 woman came to a hospital with history of abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She didnt have her period for 2 months. In physical exam, it was found a distended abdomen and palable pain. In vaginal exam, the uterus was found a bit larger, OUE and OUI were closed, Douglas pouch was protruded and palpable pain (1). 19. The possible diagnosis for this case is: A. Imminent abortion B. Hydatidiform mole C. Insipient abortion D. Ectopic pregnancy 20. To ensure the diagnosis, it is needed to do an additional exam that is by inserting a needle to Douglas pouch. The exam called: A. Amniocentensis B. Laparocopy C. Culdocentesis D. Chordocentesis 21. The adventages of laparoscopy in treating ectopic pregnancy is: A. Lower operational cost B. No need a special training for the operation C. Post operational adhesion will be minimal D. Post operational fertility will be better 22. The true statement for conservative treatment ectopic pregnancy are: (1) can be given Methotrexate (2) can be done if bHCG level > 15.000 IU/L (3) can be done if the size of gestational sac < 3,5 cm (4) can be give Folinic acid 23. In the case of ruptured ectopic pregnancy, the treatment that we could do is/are: 1. Operative 2. Medicine 3. Expectation 4. SAM (Surgically Administered Medical) 24. he main cause of first trisemester abortion is: A. Toxoplasmosis B. Genetic Disorder C. DM D. Bicornuate Uterus 25. The true statement for imminent abortion is/are: (1) In vaginal touch, the OUE is opened

(2) In vaginal touch, the OUE is closed (3) The best treatment is currettage (4) Can be given analgetic if the pain persist 26. A correct statement for abortus habitualis: 1. Can be caused by diabetes melitus 2. Can be caused by the abnormal morphology of the uterus 3. It is called abortus habitualis if happened 2 or 3 times in a row 4. The main caused is the defect in luteal phase 27. Pathologic feature which is specific to hydatidiform mole is: A. Hydrophilic degeneration B. Decidua cell metaplasia C. Hypervascularization in villi D. Endometrial Dyslasia 28. The symptom of hypertiroid in mole s related with: a. The excessive increase of TSH b. Less of iodine c. The excessive increase of b-HCG d. A sign of malignancy 29. The most cause of cord prolapse is: A. A long umbilical cord B. Abnormal presentation expl incomplete breech presentation C. Polyhydramions D. Prematurity E. An unengaged presenting part 30. The first effort for nursing cord prolapse is: A. Sterile towel wrap the cord B. Oxygen 8-10L/min C. Position change, trendelenburg or modified sims position, or the knee-elbow postion D. IV fluid E. Monitoring FHR 31. The most risk factor that may lead to fetal distress: A. Diabetes B. Pregnancy-included hypertension or chronic hypertension C. Rh sensitizion from previous pregnancy D. Asthma E. Sickle cell anemia 32. Meconeum aspiration most often occur, exept: A. Term infants B. Growth retarded infant

C. Post date infants D. Transverse lie position delivery E. Breech presentation delivery 33. The mother`s condition must be treated to prevent hypoxia to the fetus cause by cord prolaps is: a. Blood pressure stbilization b. Maternal positioning on the left side c. Monitoring maternal oxygenation d. IV fluid e. Pelvic exam to identify and presentation 34. The most intrapartum events that may cause fetal hypoxia is: a. Prolonged labour b. administrations of narcotic and anastesi c. prolapsed umbilical cord d. placental abruption e. maternal hypoventilation 35. Appropriate tracheal stoma position for elective tracheostomy: a. 1st-2nd tracheal ring b. 2nd-3rd tracheal ring c. 3rd-4th tracheal ring d. 4th-5th tracheal ring e. 5th-6th tracheal ring 36. strong indication for elective tracheostomy, according to the Jacksons dyspnea gradin, is : a. Dyspnea grade I b. Dyspnea grade II c. Dyspnea grade III d. Dyspnea grade IV e. Dyspnea grade V 37. The disease of foreign bodies in nasal cavity from flies maggots is... a. Nasal mitosis b. Nasal meiosis c. Nasal maggots d. Nasal myasis e. Nasal worms 38. the urgent maneuvere for acute total obstruction of upper repiratory tract, are : 1. Endotracheal tube intubation 2.Cricothyroidotomy 3. Trans nasopharyngeal oxygenation 4. Heimlich manuevre

39. Rapid killing fir foreign body at external auditory canal, except: A. Paraffin oil B. Glyserin oil C. Coconut oil D. Kayu putih oil E. Fried oil 40. komplikasi dari septum nasi hemorrhage jika tidak ditangani dengan tepat.. a. septal abcess b. septal perforation c. saddle nose d. conchal atrophy 41. The cardinal signs of menieres disease, are : 1. tinittus 2. sensory neural hearing loss 3. vertigo 4. severe pain 42. the statement below are related to the posterior nasal bleed are, except : a. wondruffs plexus b. bellocqs tampon c. sphenopalatine artery d. superior labial artery e. large in diameter vascular involvement 43. The statement below is situation need urgent procedures, except : A. Coin of esophageal foreign bodies B. Cafe coronary C. Uncontrolled nasal bleeding D. Difteri laring E. Grade 3 of jackson's dyspneu 44. coma requires disfunction of a. RAS or bihemispheric cerebral dysfunction b. olfactory sistem c. motoric system d. memory e. coordination system only 45. which can cause compression in brainstem? a.hypoglicemia b.hyperglicemia c. hyponatremia d. tumor mass in brain e. intoxication

46. Based on anatomy-pathophysiology, we can classify coma in : a. Supratentorial coma and infratentorial coma b. bihemispheric-cortical coma and diencephalic coma c. bihemispheric-cortical coma and infratentorial coma d. bihemispheric-cortical coma and and supratentorial coma e. diencephalic coma and structural lession 47. High probable to cause unconsciousness with meningeal sign: a. ischemic/ hypoxia b. intoxication c. systemic infection d. meningitis e. brain infarction 48. Vital sign exam in comatose patient include? a. pulse, BP, respiratory, temperature b. chest x-ray, CT-scan, MRI c. Lab and intoxication exam d. EEG and ECG e. Liquor of cerebrospinal and trans... doppler (TCD) 49. if pupil reflex is abnormal, but oculovestibular reflex is positive, the pathologic lesion is located in: a. pontine b. spinal cord c. cerebral hemisphere d. mesenchepalon e. medulla oblongata 50. routine diagnostic investigations in metabolic comatose patients: a. CT scan, EMG, serum drug analysis b. CSF analysis, MRI, serum drug analysis c. EEG, urine drug analysis, NCV d. Evoked responses, urine drug analysis, MRI e. Laboratory test: blood glucose level, electrolytes, renal function, liver function 51.most common cause of hipertensive encephalopathy.. a.hipoglikemi b.abrupt bp elevation in the chronically hypertensive pressure c.hyperglycemia d.traumatic brain injury e.liver disease

52. Neurologic symtomps and sign of hypertensive encephalophaty a. hemiparesis, hemihypesthesia b. unilateral cranial nerves palsy c. headache, decrease of consciousnesss, visual disturbances, seizures, nausea, vomiting, papiledema un funduscopy d. papil atrophy in funduscopy, headache on the posterior region, delirium e. unilateral cranial nerves palsy, papil atropy in funduscopy 53. things to consider in treatment of hypertensive encephalopathy, except: a. dont be too excessive in lowering blood pressure b. hypertensive emergency requires a prompt reduction in blood pressure within minutes or hours c. hypertensive urgency requires reduction in blood pressure within 24-48 hours d. lowering blood pressure as low as possible and as fast as possible e. medication in acute phase: sodium nitroprusside, nicardipine, labetalol, esmolol 54. the condition below are the clinical diagnosis of brain death except: a. cerebral function must not exist b. brainstem function must not exist c. patient must be apnue d. direct & unovercome cause brain death must be determinated e. disappearance of brain function last for 30 minutes 55. Most common shot acting antiepileptic drugs used in status epilepticus a. Phenytoin per oral b. topiramat per oral c. Lorazepam or diazepam i.v d pregabalin per oral e gabapentin per oral 56. diagnostic criteria of tetanus except a. local muscle spasm around the wound (local tetanus) b. Hypertonicity and muscle spasm (trismus, risus sardonicus, neck rigidity, abdominal wall muscles spasm) c. tonic spasm with conscious preserved d. Hypotomia and flaccidity of all muscle e. History of wound 57. Things to consider in therapy of tetanus except

a. the room must be very bright b. Anti tetanus serum or Human Tetanus Immunoglobulin c. Antibiotics: Penicillin Procain combined with metronidazole or Ampicillin combined with metronidazole d. Diazepam can be given 10-20mg/slow iv, continued with maintenance dose 10 mg/kg/day e. wound debriment A 56 years old woman was admitted to the hospital with decrease of consciousness. The patient had history of diabtes meillitus and regular insulin use. In the last some days, she forgot to take her insulin because she was busy 58. The first management in ER A. perform head CT scan examination B. 5b (Breathing, blood, brain, bladder, bowel) management, check blood glucose level and manage it c. check serum electrolyte d consult to internal department e. Laboratory examination: blood ph, ureum, creatinine, SGOT/SGPT 59. If this patients respiratory pattern was cheynestokes/periodic breathing, it means the pathologic process locates in a. tegmentum (border of mesenchepalon and pons) b. cerebral hemisphere c. low pontine lesion d high medullar e spinal cord 60. this patient was diagnosed as hyperglicemia coma. What is usual in neurological examination of metabolic/ diffuse bihemispheric coma? a. focal cerebral dysfunction is dominant b. motor signs are often asymetrical c. without focal neurological deficits/finding d. cranial nerve palsies usually present e. inititaing sign usually of focal cerebral dysfunction P2A1, 28 thn with bledding as much as 2 sarong. Shes post delivery mother 1 week ago in a primary health service asisted by midwife. Baby alive and term. Mother with a history of curretage after delivery her first baby due to fragment placental retention. Phsyical exam : BP = 70/40 mmHg, Pulse = 128x / menit uterine fundal height is at the umbilical. Vaginal exam; internal and external

uterine os are 2 cm dilatated, bloodclot(+), tissue fragments can be felt 61. such condition is called: a. primary post partum hemorrhage b. secondry post partum hemorrage c. antepartum hemorrage d. puerperal hemorrage e. thromboembolism hemorrage 62. diagnosis criteria of tetanus EXCEPT a. local muscle spasm around the wound b. hipertonicity and muscle spasm c. tonic spasm with conscius preserved d. hipotonia and flaccidity of all e. history of wound 63. The ultimate management for this condition: A. Antibiotics B. Uterovaginal tamponade C. Uterine massage D. Management of shock E. Blood clot evacuation 64. possible etiology for this condition : a. total placental accreta b. focal placental accreta c. placenta previa d. abruptio placenta e. placental acessory 65. management for such condition: a. adriamcyin b. methotrexate c. uterotonic d. antibiotics e. curretage after stabilisation patient condition A baby weighing with 3600g is born at 40 weeks gestation to a 33-years old G2P1 mother by emergency C-section for fetal distress and late decelaration. thick amnion stained amniotic fluiid was noted at that time. The baby is vigorous at birth. Apgar score 7 at 1 and 9 at 5 min of life. Shortl after birth, Downe Score is 5. 66.Fiffferential diagnosis of the respirartory distress in this baby? A. Respiratory distress syndrome B. Meconium aspiration C. Trancient Tachipneu of Newborn D. A and B E. B and C 67. what the further follow up is indicated? A. Chest radiolograph B. complete Blood count, differential leucocyte count C. Blood culture

D. Blood gas analysis e. All of the above 68. A 3day old infant born at 32 wwk gestation and weighing 1700 g has three episode of apnea each lasting 20 to 25 and occured after a feeding. During these episode the heart rate drops from 140 to 100 and the baby remains motionless between episodes, however the baby displays normal activity. Blood sugar is 50mg/dl and serum calcium is normal the baby apneic periosds most likely are: A. a part of periodic breathing B. due to an immature respiratory center C. secondry hypoglikemia D. manifestation of seizures E. evidence of underlying pulmonary disease 69. 800 gr baby at 26 weeks gestation is born to 20 y.o G1P0 mother by vaginal delivery. Mom presented in preterm labor 6 hours prior to delivery. Mom had no fever. Mother receive one dose of betametasone 4 hours prior to delivery. Apgar Score are 3 and 7 at 1 and 5 min. 5 hours after birth Downe Score is 5. Most likely cause of the respiratory distress ? a. Hypoglycemia b. Hyaline Membran Disease c. Trancient Tachipneu of the newborn d. Patent Ductus Arteriosus e. Early onset sepsis 70. 19 y.o primaparous women develop toxemia in last 3mester of pregnancy. durig the course of labour is treated with magnesium. 38 weeks gestation, she delivered 2100 g baby with APGAR 1 and 5 respectively, lab studies at 18 h of age reaveal hematourelite 75 %, platelet count of 100.000/ ul. magnesium 2,5 mEq/L. calcium 8,7 m9/dL. has a generalized convulsion.. a. polycythemia b. hypoglicemia c. hypocalcaemia d. hypomagnesemia e. thrombocytopenia 71. The seizure in above case could be differentiates with jitteriness by : a. Absence of abnormality eye movement b. Movement case by passive flexion c. autonomic changes d. Tremor as a predominant movement e. Movement exquisetely stimulus sensitive

Male 35 yo, they complaint gross hematuria. It suspicious renal injury. BP: 80/50, Pulse:120x/minute, B:40x/minute 72. The first choice of treatment: A. Ultrasound B. Lab exam C. Resuscitation D. KUB/IVU E. Abdominal CT Scanning 73. The following physical exam finding suggest renal injury: A. Tenderness in the flank or upper quadrant B. Flank Mass C. Contusion of flank D. Pneumothorax E. A,B,C 74. The following are long term sequele of conservative treatment of major renal cortical laceration, except: a. Secondary hemorrhage b. Abscess formation c. renal atrophy d. hypertension e. renal vein thrombosis Man, 15 yo came to RS with complaint cant void and have bloody discharge from meatus urethra. 75. Urethral rupture can occur due to all of the following, except: A. Blunt Force B. Penetrating Wound C. Iatrogenic factor like instrumentation D. Spontaneous E. A and C 76. Which in the investigation of choice in a suspected case of urethral injury: A. Retrograde Urethrogram B. IV urogram with Micturating cystourethrogram C. Micturating cystourethrogram D. Cystopaendoscopy E. USG 77. If the injury to anterior urethra from the physical exam we can find, except: A. Perinium is very tender B. Skin is usually swollen & dissolved C. Massive urine extravasation in the perineum and scrotum D. Rectal examination finding prostate displaced superiorly E. Bladder is over distended

78. If the bladder is over distended, it can be managed by: A. Percutaneous cystomy B. Open cystostomy C. Immediate repair D. Urethral Catheter E. A,B,C Male 19yo comes with pain and edema at the right testicle, 2 hours ago after have a time. Physical exam there was edema at the right testicle and slightly arise from position and pain at palpation: 79. The most probably diagnosis for this condition is: A. Right acute orchitis B. Right testicle torsion C. Testicle hydrocele infected D. Acute tubercolous epididymitis E. Incarserata inguinal hernia 80. The examination to establish the diagnosis are: a. Angel and phren sign b. Bag of warm c. Transllumination positive test d. Valsalva Manuver e. String pearl/Rosario on epydidimis 81. After the diagnose has established, the action should be done: A. Orchidectomy B. Reposition and orchidopexy bilateral C. Berkmann-Winkelmann operation D. Tubercolastic and vasectomy E. Herniotomy A 50yo present complaining blurred in his right eye. 3 hours ago he had injury on the right head (traffic accident) 82. Which of the following is the most correct statement regarding to lens dislocation on his right eye: 1. Slitlamp exam there is no lens 2. Pain on the right eye 3. Distance vision 1/60 coo S+ 10.00D = 6/7.7 4. Near vision not disturbance 83. which is the following statement is most likely to be found in lens subluxation patient 1. decrease vision 2. astigmatism 3. monocular diplopia 4. iridodenesis 84. complication of lens dislocation

1. to anterior chamber 2. papillary block secondary glaucoma 3. cataract 4. to vitreus cavity 85. theraphy of lens dislocation : operation The kind of operation is : 1. Extracapsular lens extraction and implanted intra ocular lens (IOL) in the sulcus 2. Intracapsular lens extraction and implanted Intra Ocular Lens (IOL) in the sulcus 3. Extracapsular lens extraction and implanted aphakic IOL 4. Intracapsular lens extraction and implanted aphakic IOL 86. Causes of lens dislocation are : 1. blunt ocular injury 2. traffic accident (head injury) 3. Congenital like Marfan Syndrome 4. Perforans ocular unjury 87. Total body water of male is approximately . % of total body weight. a. 10 b. 20 c. 40 d. 60 e. 80 88. The extra- and intracellular concentration of sodium are approximately mEq/L and ..mEq/L, respectively. a. 140 mEq/L and 10 mEq/L b. 140 mEq/L and 30 mEq/L c. 140 mEq/L and 50 mEq/L d. 20 mEq/L and 140 mEq/L e. 110 mEq/L and 40 mEq/L 89 The extra- and intra concentration of potassium are approximately mEq/L and .. mEq/L , respectively a. 12 mEq/L and 110 mEq/L b. 12 mEq/L and 130 mEq/L c. 4 mEq/L and 150 mEq/L d. 4 mEq/L and 12 mEq/L e. 130 mEq/L and 110 mEq/L

90. Which of the following statement concerning abnormal sodium concentration is/are TRUE: 1. A decrease in plasma Natrium leads to a decrease in intracellular brain water 2. Hyponatremia may result from inappropriate ADH secretion 3. Mannitol may result in hypernatremia in the presence of high serum osmolarity 4. Absorption of irrigant solution (water) may result in hyponatremia in the phase of high serum osmolality 91. Which of the following statement concernijng acute hyponatremia is/are TRUE: 1. CNS sign typically develop at Natrium concentration <120mEg/L 2. Furosemide administration typically will increase serum Natrium concentration in setting 3. The CNS changes relate primarily to brain overhydration 4. It may be treated with 3% saline at rate of 1020mL/kgBW/hour 92. Which of the following statement concerning hyperkalemia is/are TRUE: 1. It may be treated with triamterene 2. It may be result from mineralocorticoid deficiency 3. It may be treated with ACE inhibitors 4. Furosemide promotes kaliuresis 93. Change associated with hypokalemia include: 1. Hyperpolarization of cardiac cell 2. ST-segment depression 3. Re-entrant arrhtmias 4. Exacebartion of digitalis toxicity 94. Effect of hyperkalemia include: 1. Tall, peaked T-waves 2. Shortened P-R interval 3. Widened QRS comples 4. Peaked P waves 95. Symptomatic hyperkalemia may be treated with 1. Calcium chloride 2. Sodium bicarbonate 3. Regular insulin 4. Beta 2 agonist 96. which of the following statement concerning hypokalemia is/are TRUE? 1. the ratio of intra- to extracellular K+ remains relatively stable with chronic K+ loss

2. As a general rule, a decrease of 1.0 mEq/L in the plasma K+ concentration is associated with a total body deficit of 200-300 mEq 3. both metabolic and respiratory alkalosis lead to decreases in plasma [K+] 4. hypothermia may cause acute hypokalemia Case 1 : The patients of 6 week old boy take their children to emergency room at 5 am because of their child not breathing at home.There were no history cough,dyspneu or vomiting. He was placed prone at bed tima at 10pm following the last feeding. At 4.45am the parent went to his room and see their child apneic and pulseless .The ressucitation effort has failed to elicit any response and child died. The parents asked for autopsy and result was no abnormalities 97.what is the most likely diagnosis for this case? A. Respiratory Distress of the Newborn B. Bronchopneumonia C. SIDS (sudden infant death syndrome) D. Laryngspasm E. Aspiration pneumonie 98. True statement concerning that disorder in this case is : A. The peak incidence in children younger than 1 month B. Approximately two third this occur in infant aged 2-4 months c. usually appears in infant who were born >37 weeks d. there were many reports in infants who were breast feeding e. The higher incidence in girls than boys 99. which of the following is associated with the increase risk of that diseases 1. high maternal parity 2. Infant age 2-4 months 3. Premature 4. Breast feeding 100.The appropriate action in this case A. Blood gas analysis B. arrange for Autopsy c. ECG d. Complete Blood Count e. Blood culture