Chapter 2-3

1. oxygen has an atomic number of 8. Therefore it must have 8 protons 2. Each element is unique and different from other elements because of its atomic number 3. What do atoms form when they share electron pairs? molecules 4. An atomic form of an element containing different numbers of neutrons is an isotope 5. Results from a transfer electrons between atoms. ionic bond 6. Results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms, Polar covalent bonds 7. Explain most specifically the attraction of water molecules to each other. hydrogen bond 8. Would be least affected by the presence of water. nonpolar covalent bond 9.What is the max number of covalent bonds an element with atomic number 16 can make with hydrogens. 2 10.How do isotopes differ from each other number of electrons 11.The reactive properties of an atom depend on the number of

electrons in the outer valence shell in the atom. 12. The mass number of element can be easily approximated by adding together number of protons and neutrons 13. How many electrons does carbon have in its outermost energy level? 4 14. How many neutrons does the nucleus of sulfur contain? 16 15. Based on electrons configuration, which of these elements would exhibit chemical behavior most like that of S 16. Which of the following is trace element that is essential to humans? Iodine 17.What bonds is easily disrupted in the presence of water? Ionic 18. From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has only B and C correct 19. The ionic of the sodium chloride is formed when Chlorine gains an electron from sodium 20.The number of electrons carbon shares with oxygen molecules in a molecule of Co2 4 21. How many electrons would be expected in the outer energy level of an atom with atomic number 17? 7

22. Which four elements make up approximately 96% of living matter? Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen 23.What results from the chemical illustrated in figure 2.3? ions 24. A covalent chemical bond is one in which outer shell electrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfactorily fill the outer electron shells of both 25. What do the 4 elements most abundant in lifecarbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen have in common? They all have unpaired electrons in their valence shells. 26. Which type of bond is important in large biological molecules? Ionic, polar covalent, hydrogen, covalent 27. Van der Waals interaction results when electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a molecule. 28. Which of the following is NOT considered a weak molecule interaction? Covalent bond 29. The partial negative charge at one end of a water molecule is attracted to the partial positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called? A hydrogen bond 30.Which bonds most be broken for water to vaporize hydrogen bonds 31. Which of the following is an example of a hydrogen bond? The bond between the H of one water molecule and the O of another water molecule 32. Which of the following solutions has greater concentration of hydrogen ions? Gastric juice at ph2

33. Which of the following solutions has the greater concentration of hydroxyl ions? Seawater at ph 8 34. A solution with a ph of 4 has how many more H than a solution with a ph of 6? 1000 times more 35. Buffers are substances that help resist shifts in ph by releasing H in basic solutions 36.What do the following have in common with reference to water: cohesion, surface tension, specific heat? All are properties related to hydrogen bonding 37. What bonds must be broken for water to go from liquid to gas? Hydrogen 38. The solute molecule is most likely positively charged 39. Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is therefore a strong acid? HCI 40. Ice is lighter and floats in water because of it is a crystalline structure held together by hydrogen bonding only 41. What determines the cohesiveness of water molecules? Hydrogen bonds 42.What do cohesion, surface tension, and adhesion have in common with reference to water? All are properties related to hydrogen bonding 43. Which of the following statements is TRUE and buffer solutions? They tend to maintain a relatively constant ph.

44. At what temperature is water at its densest? 4C 45. Water is able to form hydrogen bonds because All of below are correct 46.What is the max number of hydrogen bonds a water molecule can form with neighboring water molecules? Four 47. Water is transported in plant tissues against gravity due to which of the following properties? Cohesion 48. Which of the following is possible due to surface tension of water? A waterstrider can walk across a small pond 49. Why are aquatic systems most sensitive to acid precipitation in the spring? All of the above except C.

Chapter 10 little bit of 9

Plants that fix CO2 into organic acids at night when the stoma are open and carry ou t the Calvin Cycle during the day when the stoma are closed are called CAM Plants Photorespiraton lowers the efficiency of the photosynthesis by removing which of the following from the Calvin Cycle? Ribulose biphosphate molecules Figure 10.1 shows the absorbtion spectrum for chlorophyll a and the action spectrum for the photosynthesis. Why are they different? Other pigments absorb light in addition to chlorophyll a If figure 10.1 showed the absorbance of the total photosynthetic pigments extracted from the plant (instead of pure chlorophyll a), the absorption spectrum curve would

Better match the action spectrum Which of the following statements about the light reactions of photosynthesis is FALSE? The proton gradient is used to reduce NADP Which of the following are products of the Calvin Cycle and are utilized in the light reactions of photosynthesis? ADP, Pi, and NADO+ From the photosynthetic action spectrum in Figure 10,2, we can correctly conclude that Plants can use all colors of visible light foe photosynthesis The primary functio of the light reactions of photosynthesis is To produce ATP and NADPH The reactions of the Calvin cycle require all of the following molecules EXCEPT Glucose You have just discovered a new flower species that has a unique photosynthetic pigment. The leaves of this plant appear to be reddish yellow. What wavelengths of visible light this pigment is NOT Absorbing Red and yellow All of the events listed below occur in the energy- capturing light reactions of photosynthesis EXCEPT Carbon dioxide is incorporated into PGA Which of the following statements regarding events in the function of photosystems II is FALSE? The P680 chlorophyll donates a pair of protons to NADPH, which is thus converted to NADP+ All of the following compounds are required at some stage of phtotsynthesis in plants, EXCEPT Oxygen On which of the following features do most plant and animal cells differ?

Primary energy source Where does the Calvin cycle take place? Thylakoid membrane CAM plants can keep stomates closed in daytime, thus reducing loss of water. They can do this because they can Fix CO2 into organic acids during the night All of the following statements are correct regarding the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis EXCEPT These reactions begin soon after the sundown and end before sunrise Of the following, the color of light least effective in driving photosynthesis Green Cyclic electron flow in the chloroplast produces ATP In plant cells, ATP is made in response to light. An e- transport chain is involved. This etransport chain is found in the Thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts The process of noncyclic photophosphorylation uses light energy to synthesize ATP and NADPH Which one of the following statements BES describes the relationship between photosynthesis and respiration? Photosynthesis stores energy in complex molecules and respiration leases it IN a plant cell, where is ATP synthase located? The thylakoid membrane and the inner mitochondrial membrane Synthesis of ATP by the chemiosmotic mechanism BOth photosynthesis and respiration

Oxidation of water Photosynthesis Reduction of NADP+ Photosynthesis CO2 fixation Photosynthesis Electron flow along a cytochrome chain Neither photosynthesis nor respiration Oxidative photophosphorylation Respiiraton Generation of proton gradient across membranes Both photosynthesis and respiraion Which of the following is NOT directly associated with photosystem II? Photophosphorylation Which of the following is NOT directly associated with Photosystem I? Splitting water What are the products of the light reactions that are subsequently used gby the Calvin cycle? ATP and NADPH In green plants, the primary function of the Calvin cycle is to cinstruct simple sugars from CO2 As a research scientist, you measure the amount of ATP and NADPH consumed by the Calvin cycle in 1 hour. You find 30000 molecules of ATP consumed, but only 20000 molecules of NADPH. Where did the extra ATP molecules come from? Cyclic electron flow

Which of the following statements best represent the relationships between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle? The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the Calvin cycle, and the cycle returns ADP, Pi, and NADP+ to the light reactions In the thylakoid membranes, what is the main role of the antenna pigment molecules? To harvest photons and transfer light energy to the reaction center Chlorophyll In mitochondria, chemiosmosis translocates protons form the matrix into the intermembrane space, whereas in chloroplasts, chemiosmosis translocates protons from The stroma into the thylakoid membrane Produces molecular O2 Light reactions Forms a proton gradient The Calvin cycle Requires ATP The Calvin cycle Requires ADP The light reactions Produces NADH Neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle Produces NADPH Light reactions Inactive in the dark Light reactions Requires CO2

Calvin Cycle Requires glucose Neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle While some cartenoids may broaden the spectrum of light that drives photosynthesis, recent evidence suggests that others Function primarily in photoprotection Organisms that can exist on light and an inorganic form of carbon and other raqw materials Are called photoautotrophs Organisms that exist on compounds produced by other organisms Arte called heterotrophs and decomposers Thylakoids stacked in columns Are called grana Which of the following is most closely associated with a decrease in potential world food production? Photorespiration Each photosystem Contains a mix of chlorophylls and cartenoids, has a light-gathering antenna complex, and has a special chlorophyll a molecule in the reaction center The reaction center chlorophyll of photosystem I us known as P700 because This pigment is best at absorbing light with a wavelength of 700 nm

Chapter 4-5
Which of the following elements is the most abundant(% dry weight) in humans and bacteria? d. carbon What is the reason why hydrocarbons are not soluble in water?

A.the C-H bond is nonpolar Which property of the carbon atom gives it compatibility with a greater number of different elements than any other type of atom? Carbon has a valence of 4 How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell? 4 Observe the structures of glucose and fructose in figure 4.1. These two molecules differ in: The arrangement of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. What type of bonds does carbon have a tendency to form? Covalent What is the name of the functional group shown in figure 4.3? carboxyl The two molecules shown in figure 4.5 are best described as: geometric isomers Which of the following contains nitrogen in addition to carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen? An amino acid such as glycine. Which is the best description of a carbonyl group? A carbon atom that joined to an oxygen atom by a double bond Glucose and fructose are: geometric isomers Which of the following is a false statement concerning amine groups? They are nonpolar Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?

Carboxyl and amine Which type of molecule would be the most abundant in a typical cell? Water Which type of lipid is the most important in biological membranes? Phospholipids Which type of interaction stabilizes the alpha helix structure of proteins? Hydrogen bonds Polymers of polysaccharides, fats and proteins are all synthesized from monomers by? The removal of water(condensation synthesis). The formation of polymers is described as an example of? anabolism. Which of the following is true of both starch and cellulose? They are both polymers of glucose. Carbohydrates normally function in animals as: energy storage molecules. If three molecules of a fatty acid that has the formula C16H22O2 are joined to a molecule of glycerol(C3H8O3), then the resulting molecule would have the formula? C51H68O6 At which level of protein structure are interactions between R groups the most important? Tertiary What maintains the secondary structure of the protein? Hydrogen bonds Condensation synthesis reactions are used in forming which of the following compounds?

A, B, and C are correct. Which bonds are created during the formation of a primary structure of a protein? Peptide bonds The alpha helix and the beta pleated sheat are both common forms found in which level of proteins. The structural feature that allows DNA to replicate itself is the complementary pairing of the bases. The tertiary structure of the protein is the? 3-dimensional shape The element nitrogen is always present in all of the following except? Amino acids Which of the following would yield the most energy per gram when oxidized? Fat Which of the following fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides? A nitrogen base, a phosphate group, and a 5-carbon sugar. Upon chemical analysis, a particular protein was found to contain 438 amino acids. How many peptide bonds are present in this protein? 437 A sequence of a DNA polymer consisting of 80 purines and 80 pyrimidines could have? 80 adenine and 80 thymine molecules. The difference between the 2 sugars in DNA and RNA is that the sugar in DNA? contains less oxygen The 2 strands making up the DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds and van der waals forces.

GenesDNARNAproteins The # of possible base sequences in a gene is effectively limitless

Chapter 2-3
Two species belonging to the same class must also belong to the same phylum Which of these taxonomic categories is the most inclusive? Phylum Which kingdom consists of eukaryotes that nourish themselves mainly by decomposing organic material? Fungi Which of the following observations and ideas are incorporated into Darwins concept of natural selection? Through natural selection, a population may adapt to the environment over many generations. What do a fungus, a tree, and a human have in common? They are all composed of cells with nuclei. A biologist discovers an organism new to science that has numerous nuclei enclosed by a single cell membrane. Assuming she is a good scientist, what should she do next? Determine how the organism is related to other organisms with the more typical cell structure. Maria and Bill go to a new restaurant and do not like the food that they are served. Their hypothesis is that if they ever go to the restaurant again, they will not like the food. If they continue to d. carbon What is the reason why hydrocarbons are not soluble in water? A.the C-H bond is nonpolar

Which property of the carbon atom gives it compatibility with a greater number of different elements than any other type of atom? Carbon has a valence of 4 How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell? 4 Observe the structures of glucose and fructose in figure 4.1. These two molecules differ in: The arrangement of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. What type of bonds does carbon have a tendency to form? Covalent What is the name of the functional group shown in figure 4.3? carboxyl The two molecules shown in figure 4.5 are best described as: geometric isomers Which of the following contains nitrogen in addition to carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen? An amino acid such as glycine. Which is the best description of a carbonyl group? A carbon atom that joined to an oxygen atom by a double bond Glucose and fructose are: geometric isomers Which of the following is a false statement concerning amine groups? They are nonpolar Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids? Carboxyl and amine

Which type of molecule would be the most abundant in a typical cell? Water Which type of lipid is the most important in biological membranes? Phospholipids Which type of interaction stabilizes the alpha helix structure of proteins? Hydrogen bonds Polymers of polysaccharides, fats and proteins are all synthesized from monomers by? The removal of water(condensation synthesis). The formation of polymers is described as an example of? anabolism. Which of the following is true of both starch and cellulose? They are both polymers of glucose. Carbohydrates normally function in animals as: energy storage molecules. If three molecules of a fatty acid that has the formula C16H22O2 are joined to a molecule of glycerol(C3H8O3), then the resulting molecule would have the formula? C51H68O6 At which level of protein structure are interactions between R groups the most important? Tertiary What maintains the secondary structure of the protein? Hydrogen bonds Condensation synthesis reactions are used in forming which of the following compounds? A, B, and C are correct. Which bonds are created during the formation of a primary structure of a protein?

Peptide bonds The alpha helix and the beta pleated sheat are both common forms found in which level of proteins. The structural feature that allows DNA to replicate itself is the complementary pairing of the bases. The tertiary structure of the protein is the? 3-dimensional shape The element nitrogen is always present in all of the following except? Amino acids Which of the following would yield the most energy per gram when oxidized? Fat Which of the following fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides? A nitrogen base, a phosphate group, and a 5-carbon sugar. Upon chemical analysis, a particular protein was found to contain 438 amino acids. How many peptide bonds are present in this protein? 437 A sequence of a DNA polymer consisting of 80 purines and 80 pyrimidines could have? 80 adenine and 80 thymine molecules. The difference between the 2 sugars in DNA and RNA is that the sugar in DNA? contains less oxygen

Chapter 1
What characterizes a prokaryotic cell? The lack of a membrane-enclosed nucleus What is the primary reason for including a control within the design of an experiment?

To insure that the results obtained are due to a difference in only one variable Evolution is the biological theme that ties together all the others. This is because the process of evolution: all of the below Which of the following is a correct statement about the scientific method? It organizes evidence and helps us predict what will happen in our environment Which of the following does not comprise a logical hierarchy of organization? Molecules, atoms, organelles, tissues, systems Which of the following statements is not true about all living things? They have a cell wall as an outer boundary The scientific method usually begins with: formulating a testable hypothesis Why did the popular press give Reznick and Endlers research of guppies a lot of attention? They were able to document evolution over a relatively short time period Which of the following are properties of all life forms? Heritable programs in the form of DNA and the ability to transform energy form one form to another Which of the following levels in the hierarchy of biological organiztation includes all of the other levels in the list? Ecosystem Which of the following levels in the hierarchy of biological organization includes all of the other levels in the list? Tissues With each step upward in the hierarchy of biological order, novel properties emerge that were not present at the simpler levels of organization. These emergent properties result from:

the arrangement and interactions between components The cell theory is an example of a conclusion based on: inductive reasoning Many different interactions between organism and their environment form an ecosystem. The dynamics of an ecosystem must include which of the following? Many different interactions between organism and their environment form an ecosystem. Two species belonging to the same class must also belong to the same phylum Which of these taxonomic categories is the most inclusive? Phylum Which kingdom consists of eukaryotes that nourish themselves mainly by decomposing organic material? Fungi Which of the following observations and ideas are incorporated into Darwins concept of natural selection? Through natural selection, a population may adapt to the environment over many generations. What do a fungus, a tree, and a human have in common? They are all composed of cells with nuclei. A biologist discovers an organism new to science that has numerous nuclei enclosed by a single cell membrane. Assuming she is a good scientist, what should she do next? Determine how the organism is related to other organisms with the more typical cell structure. Maria and Bill go to a new restaurant and do not like the food that they are served. Their hypothesis is that if they ever go to the restaurant again, they will not like the food. If they continue to

Chapter 6

The control of enzyme function is an important aspect of cell metabolism. Which of the following is least likely to be a mechanism for enzyme control? Removing cofactors Increasing the substrate concentration in an enzymatic reaction could overcome which of the following? Competitive inhibition Which of the following is the most randomized form of energy? Thermal (heat) How does an enzyme catalyze a reaction? By lowering the energy of activation of a reaction Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism? Its phosphate bonds are easily formed and broken Which of the following would decrease the entropy within a system? Condensation reaction What is the change in free energy at chemical equilibrium? No net change Which of the following is part of the first law of thermodynamics? Energy cannot be created or destroyed Whenever energy is transformed there is always an increase: in the entropy of the universe In a system where temperature is uniform, free energy is: the energy available to do work Which of the following reactions could be coupled to the reaction ATP + H2O ADP + Pi (-7.3 kcal)?

E +Pi AP (+9 kcal) Which term most precisely describes the general process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones? Catabolism ATP generally energizes a cellular process by: direct chemical transfer of a phosphate group A solution of starch at room temperature does not spontaneously decompose rapidly to a sugar solution because: the activation energy barrier cannot be surmounted in most fo the starch molecules What is an organic, nonprotien component of an enzyme molecule called? A coenzyme A chemical reaction that has a positive deltaG is correctly described as: endergonic Which of these statements regarding enzymes is false? Enzymes provide activation energy for the reactions they catalyze How can one increase the rate of a chemical reaction? Add a catalyst Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is true? Enzymes: increase the rate of reaction In this example, substance X is: a substrate In this example, substrate A functions as: an allosteric inhibitor

Which of the following statements is true concerning catabolic pathways? They are usually coupled with anabolic pathways to which they supply energy in the form of ATP According to the induced fit hypothesis of enzyme function, which of the following is correct? The binding of the substrate changes the shape of the enzyme slightly Correct statements regarding ATP include: I. ATP serves as a main energy shuttle inside cells II. ATP drives endergonic reaction in the cell by the enzymatic transfer of the phosphate group to specific reactants III. The regeneration of ATP from ADP and phosphate is an endergonic reaction. All of the following statements regarding enzymes are true except: enzymes are carbohydrates that function as agents that function as agents that change the rate of reaction w/o being consumed in the reaction According to the first law of thermodynamics: energy is neither created or destroyed The transfer of free energy available to do work is called free energy because: it is available to do work Metabolism is best described as: all of an organisms chemical processes Catabolic pathways: release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers Anabolic pathways: consume energy to build up polymers from monomers Light:

is a form of kinetic energy that can be used to do work in some cells The hydrolysis of sucrose by sucrase results in: breaking the bond between glucose and fructose and forming new bonds from water Which of the following best describes the sequence of events in the catalytic cycle of an enzyme? 1) the active site is unoccupied and substrate is available 2) substrate enters the active site 3) an ES complex forms 4) substrate is converted to product 5) product is released 6) the active site is available for more substrate

Chapter 9
1. Which of the following Statements is TRUE of fermentation? -(B) IT produces a net gain of ATP. 2. Glycolysis is believed to be one of the most ancient of metabolic processes. Which statement below LEAST supports this idea? -(A) If it runs in reverse, glycolysis will build glucose molecules. 3. Which kind of metabolic poison would most directly interfere with glycolysis?(C) an agent that closely mimics the structure of glucose but is nonmetabolic. 4. All of the following statements about glycolysis are true EXCEPT: -(E)The end products of glycolysis are CO2 and H2O. 5. The following statements compare combustion with the aerobic respiration of glucose. Which is FALSE? (E) Combustion releases more total caloric energy from glucose than does respiration. 6. Which metabolic process is most closely associated with intracellular membranes? -(B) oxidative phosphorylation 7. During oxidative phosphorylation, H2O is formed. Where do the atoms in the H2o come from? -(A) molecular oxygen

8. Muscle cells in oxygen deprivation convert pyruvate to _________and in this step gain _________. (E) lactate; NAD+ 9. Assume that a eukaryotic cell has abundant glucose and O2, but needs ATP. The proton gradient in mitochondria of this cell will be generated by__________and used primarily for_________. (B) the electron transport chain; ATP synthesis 10. Which process in eukaryotic cells will normally proceed whether 02 is present or absent? -(A) glycolysis 11. The primary function of the mitochondria is the production of ATP. To carry out this function, the mitochondrion must have all of the following EXCEPT: (E) enzymes for glycolysis. 18. Fermentation is not as energy productive as respiration Because (C) NAD+ is regenerated by other kinds of fermentation without the electrons passing through the electron transport chain. 19. The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is directly involved in (A) accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain. 20. The ATP made during fermentation is generated by which of the following? (D) substrate level phosphorylation 21. Alll of the following substances are produced in a muscle cell under anaerobic conditions EXCEPT (C)acetyl CoA 22. In addition to ATP, what Are the end products of glycolysis? (B) NADH and Pyruvate 23. The Krebs cycle produces which of the following molecules that then transfer energy to the electron transport system?

(c) FADH2 and NADH 24. In chemiosmotic phosphorylation, what is the most direct source of energy that is used to convert ADP + Pi to ATP? (B) energy released from movement of protons through ATP synthase. 25. Suppose a yeast sell uses 10 moles of glucose for energy production. No oxygen is available. What will be the maximum net yield of ATP in moles? (D) 20. A. stage I:glycolysis B. stage II: oxidative of pyruvate to acetyl CoA C. Stage III: Krebs cycle D. Stage IV: oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis) 26. Which one of the stages produces the most ATP when glucose is completely oxidized to carbon dioxide and water? (D) 27. Which on of the stages normally occurs whether or not oxygen is present? (A) 28. Which one of the stages occurs in the cytosol of the cell? (A) 29. Which of the following intermediary metabolites enters the Krebs cycle and is formed, in part, by the removal of CO2 from a molecule of pyruvate? (C)acetyl CoA 30. When hydrogen ions are pumped from the mitochondrial matrix, across the inner memebrane, and into the intermembrane space, the result is (C)the creation of a proton gradient 31. Carbon skeletons to be broken down during cellular respiration can be obtained from

(E) Polysaccharides, proteins, and lipids 32. Where is ATP synthase located in the mitochondrion? (E)inner memebrane 33. In order for a muscle cell to keep working, it must (A) regenerate ATP at a very fast rate. 34. Cellular respiration harvests the most chemical energy by (C) transferring electrons from organic molecules to oxygen. 35. During aerobis respiration, which of the following directly donates electrons to the electron transport chain at the lowest level? (A) FADH2 36. Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons follow which pathway? (B) Krebs cycleNADHelectron transport chainoxygen 37. You eat a cheeseburger and a fresh salad. Which of the following molecules in your food is NOT normally oxidized in aerobic respiration to generate ATP? (D)nucleic acids 38. You have a friend who lost 15 pounds of fat on a diet. Where did the fat go (how was it lost)? (B) it was released as CO2 and H2O 39. Which of the following is NOT true concerning the cellular compartmentation of the steps of respiration or fermentation? (E) NADH is produced only in the mitochondria. 40. Which of the following is NOT a function of Glycolysis? (E) production of FADH2 41. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Krebs cycle? (D) splitting the carbon skeletons of simple sugars.

42. Folding of the inner membrane forming cristae in mitochondria (D) increases surface area inside the mitochondria, providing space for thousands of copies of the electron transport chain.

Chapter 14+15
1. A couple who are both carriers for cystic fibrosis have 2 children with CF. What is the probability their next child will have CF? 25% 2. A couple who are both carriers or CF have 2 children with CF. What is the probability that their next child will be phenotypically normal? 75% 3. What is the genetic cross called between an individual of unknown genotype and a homozygous recessive? A testcross 4. In crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote what is the chance of getting an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype 50% 5. In snapdragons, heterozygotes have pink flowers, whereas the 2 homozygotes have red flowers or whte flowers. When plants with red flowers are crossed with plants with white flower color, what proportion of the offspring will have pink flowers? 100% 6. Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) to long tails (t). What proportion of the progeny of the crosss BbTt X BBtt will have black fur and long tails? 8/16 7. A couple has 3 children, all of whom have brown eyes and blond hair. Both parents are homozygous for brown eyes (BB) but one is Blond (rr) and the other is a redhead (Rr). What is the probability that their next child will be a brown-eyed redhead? 1/4

8. Given the parents AABBCc X AabbCc, assume simple dominance and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent? 9. The fact that all 7 of the garden pea traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment means that the 7 pairs of alleles determinng these traits behave as if they are on different chromosomes 10. A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape and one for tail length. Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible is a gamete from this organisms HT 11. Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance? Skin pigmentation in humans 12. 2 true breeding stocks of garden peas are crossed. One plant had red, axial flowers, and the other had white terminal flowers. All F1 had red, axial flowers. If 1000 F2 resulted from the cross, how many of them do you expect to have red, terminal flowers? 190 13. The ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypical effects pleiotrophy 14. One example is the ABO blood group system multiple alleles 15. The phenotype of the heterozygote differs from the phenotype of both homozygotes incomplete dominance 16. A 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio is characteristic of the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross

17. In cattle, roan coat color (mixed red and white hair) occurs in the heterozygote (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white (rr) homozygotes. When 2 roan cattle are crossed the phenotypes of the progeny are found to be in the ratio of 1red:2roan:1 white. Which of the following crosses could produce the highest percentage of roan cattle? Red X white 18. Tallness (T) is dominant to dwarfess (t) while red ( R) is dominant to white (r ). The heterozygous condition results in pink (Rr). A dwarf red snapdragon crossed with a plant homozygous for tallness and white flowers. What are genotype and phenotype of the F1 generation? TtRr tall and pink 19. In a cross AaBbCc X AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing genotype AABBCC? 1/64 20. You are the choreographer who has been assigned the job of transforming the concepts of genetics into a dance. In order to depict independent assortment you should have couples come together and move to the center of the floor and then they separate with boys and girls gong randomly to 2 different sides of the floor. 21. Mendels law of segregation was nearly impossible for most biologists to understand until there was a general understanding of mitosis 22. Mendels law of independent assortment was nearly impossible for most biologists to understand until there was a general understanding of meiosis 23. If inheritance of a human trait is sex linked (on the X chromosome) and recessive, any of the following could result except that the trait could be more common in males than in females 24. What do all human males inherit from their mother? Mitochondrial DNA, X chromosome

25. A mammalian zygote with which of the following chromosomal abnormalities will NEVER develop into a viable embryo? YO 26. What does independent assortment refer to? The random arrangement of chromosomal tetrads at metaphase 27. A Barr body is normally found in the nucleus of which kind of human cell? Somatic cells of a female only 28. The particular position of a gene on a chromosome is known as an locus 29. The frequency of crossing over between any two linked genes is proportional to the distance between them. 30. A recessive allele on the X chromosome is responsible for red-green colorblindness in humans. A woman with normal vision whose father was color blind marries a color blind male. What is the probability that this couples son will be color-blind? 50% 31. A man who carries an X linked allele will pass it on to all of his daughters 32. Which of the following is a sex influenced trait? Male pattern baldness 33. There is good evidence for linkage when genes dont segregate independently during meiosis 34. In a series of mapping experiments, the recombination frequencies for 4 different linked genes of Drosophils were determined as shown above. What is the order of these genes on a recombination map? B-rb-cn-vg

b0 Cn 9 0 Rb 3.5 6.5 0 Vg 19 9 16 0 B cn rb vg 35. Which of the following genes are closest on a geetic map of drosophila? Rb and b 36. People who have red hair usually have freckles. This can best be explained as Linkage 37. The diploid chromosome # in honeybees is 32. What is the number of chromosomes in the somatic cells of male honeybees? 16 38. A karyotype with XXY is associated with which? Klinefelter syndrome 39. A 5 W 3 E 12 G That map of 4 genes on a chromosome shows that the frequencie of recombination is highest between A and G 40. The statement The X and Y chromocomes determine sex is inaccurate and misleading. Which of the following is most accurate? A variety of genes on the other chromosome play various roles in determining sex and the activitie of those genes is controlled by a small number of genes on the X and / or Y chromosome.