eBooK Law

AIR LAW
Copyright 2001 Flight Training College of Africa All Rights Reserved. No part of this manual may be reproduced in any manner whatsoever including electronic, photographic, photocopying, facsimile, or stored in a retrieval system, without the prior permission of Flight Training College of Africa.
Air Law GEN 39-45 & 53,54 Revision : 1/1/2001 Page 1
FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE Version 4
GOVERNMENT GAZETTED
ISSUE 2 3 4 5
DATE AMMENDED 24/12/1997 31/12/1998 1/12/1999 1/5/2001
GOV NOTICE NOT R1753 R1701 R639 R1219
GOV GAZETTE NO 18562 19644 20076 21390
SIGNATURE
INDEX VOLUME I
SECTIONS IN THIS VOLUME PREAMBLE CONTENTS CHAPTER 2 ANRs CHAPTER 3 ANRs CHAPTER 4 ANR's DEFINITIONS & ABBREVIATIONS PART 12 PART 67
All Rights Reserved. No part of this manual my be reproduced in any manner whatsoever including electronic, photographic, photocopying, facsimile, or stored in a retrieval system, without the prior permission of Flight Training College of Africa.
PREAMBLE
This document ( hereafter referred to as FTC-CARs) is an abridged edition of the New Civil Aviation Regulations ( hereafter referred to as CARs) of 1997 and is designed for use only by the students of Flight Training College of S.A.c.c. as a study guide for the Commercial Pilots Licence and Instrument Rating Examinations. The official implementation date was the 1st. of January 1999 replacing the older Air Navigation Regulations of 1976 ( hereafter referred to as the ANRs). There will no doubt be many changes in content in the immediate future, and FTC will update and keep current all subsequent editions of the copy of the CARs. But due to certain constraints FTC will not be able to update this or any older copies as we publish the latest available information, and thus only subsequent copies may include changes and even extra Parts. Whilst every effort has been made to ensure correctness and accuracy of this copy of the FTC-CARs, FTC of S.A. c.c. cannot be held liable for any possible errors and is not responsible for any actions arising from any litigation resulting from the use of this copy of the CARs. The information was obtained from documents obtained from the SACAA and has been reproduced in our own format. The document has been split into Volume I and Volume II and follows the numbering of the CARs which is specific and where possible is designed for fixed wing powered aircraft pilot and excludes the more esoteric categories such as micro lights, gliders, hot air balloons, and the like. Consequently the numerical sequence of the Subparts may show gaps, this will be when references to any other categories such as micro lights etc have been excluded. For continuity purposes this preamble is followed by a complete list of all the contents of the new CARs although many are not included in this edition, the relevant contents as found in this document will be highlighted in Bold and Italics for easy reference for the student. Next will follow all the definitions and then in numerical order the Parts ( i.e. Part 12 then the next number highest number Part 61 etc.) and if applicable the relevant Civil Aviation Technical Standards ( hereafter referred to as the CATS). Specific Part and Chapter and Subpart numbers such as for example Part 91.02.7 will have the same number in the relevant CATS document, i.e. 91.02 7. In this way the student will be able to find the information in both the CARs as well as the relevant CATS document. The CARs has been divided into Parts referring to various segments of the act and the subject matter they relate to, and if necessary a CATS document, however not every Part will necessarily have a CATS document, and example of this is Part 12. The CATS document will be included if it is present and will in this document always follow the relevant CARs Part for easy reference. This FTC-CARs edition includes Part 135 which is Air Transport Operations for Small Aircraft, but excludes Part 121 which is not yet in the Syllabus, and covers Air Transport Operations Large Aircraft, this being more for Airlines and no doubt Airline Transport Pilots. The contents cover the syllabus for the South African Commercial Licence as well as the Instrument Rating.
At the time of the issue of this edition (1999) the new part of the CARs that cover Flight Crew licensing, have not been brought into force and as a result chapters 2 and 3 of the old ANRs still apply, this will in time will be replaced by Part 61 and its relevant CATS document which will form part of Volume I, but as yet no final introduction date for this has been officially announced. Subsequent editions of this document will contain Part 61 which is Flight Crew Licensing. If the reader finds any errors FTC of SA would be grateful if we could informed so as to effect any corrections necessary. These can be forwarded to Fax 011 805 6564 or telephonically to 011 315 3992 0r 011- 315 0974.
CONTENTS
VOLUME I
Definitions Part 1 Procedures Part 11 Part 12 Part 13 Aircraft Part 21 Part 34 Part 36 Part 43 Part 47 Personnel Part 61 Part 63 Part 64 Part 65 Part 66 Part 67 Pilot Licensing Flight Engineer Licensing Cabin Crew Licencing Air Traffic Service Personnel Licencing Aircraft maintenance Engineer Licencing Medical Certification Definitions and Abbreviations
Procedures for making Regulations, Issuing Technical Standards and Grading Exemptions Aviation Accidents and Incidents Enforcement Procedures
Certification Procedures for Products and parts Engine Emission certification Noise Certification General maintenance Rules Registration and marking
VOLUME II
Rules of the Air and General Operating Rules Part 91 Part 92 Part 98 Part 100 Part 101 Part 102 Part 103 Part 104 Part 105 Part 106 General Operating and Flight Rules Conveyance of Dangerous Goods Operating of Powered paragliders Operation of Gyroplanes Operation of Unmanned Free Balloons. Kites and Remotely Piloted Aircraft Operation of Free Balloons and Airships Operation of Microlight Aeroplanes Operation of Gliders Operation of Parachutes Operation of Hang Gliders
Certificated Aircraft operations and Other Flight Operations Part 121 Air Transport Operations Large Aeroplanes Part 127 Helicopters Part 133 Helicopter External load Operations Part 135 Air Transport Operations Small Aeroplanes Part 137 Agricultural Operations Part 138 Emergency medical Service Operations
Aerodromes and Heliports Part Part Part Part 139 141 145 148 Licencing and Operation Aviation Training Organisations Aircraft Maintenance Organisations Manufacturing Organisations
Air Traffic Services Part 172 Air Space and Traffic Services
Aeronautical and meteorological Information Services Part 174 Part 175 Part 183 Administration Part 1185 Part 187 Offences Fees Meteorological Information Services Aeronautical Information Services General
CHAPTER 2 ANRS
PERSONNEL LICENSING - FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS AND AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLERS 2.1 Flight Crew Member Licences A flight crew member may be licensed in the following categories: Student pilot, or Micro-light aeroplane pilot, or Private pilot, or Commercial pilot, or Airline transport pilot, Glider pilot, Free balloon pilot Gyroplane pilot; Flight navigator; Flight engineer (restricted), or Flight engineer; Flight radiotelephony operator. 2.1A Licence Fees The fees for the issue, reissue, renewal and validation of a licence or rating and for the issue of a duplicate of such licence or rating shall be as prescribed in Annexure A. 2.2 Flight Crew Members Operating the Radio Installation in Aircraft Any person operating the radio installation in an aircraft shall be the holder of a valid restricted radiotelephone operators certificate or a general certificate of competency in radiotelephony prescribed by the appropriate authority. 2.3 Aircraft Rating Requirements (1) No person shall act as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft, unless he is the holder of the appropriate type or group type rating in the case of piston-engined aeroplanes having a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less, or in the case of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by name is require, he is the holder of the appropriate type rating for such aircraft: Provided that a pilot receiving training for the purpose of applying for the appropriate rating may act as pilot-incommand of an aircraft in respect of which he does not hold such rating, provided that the flight is not for reward, no passenger is carried and the training is received from a flight instructor who is the holder of the appropriate flight instructor type or group type rating in the case of piston engined aeroplanes having a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less, or in the case of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by name is required, he is the holder of the appropriate flight instructor type rating for such aircraft, or from a pilot who has been designated in writing for such purpose by the Commissioner.
FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE Version 4 Page 9
Air Law GEN 39-45 & 53,54 Revision : 1/1/2001
(2)
In the case of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by name is required (a) the flight instructor or designated pilot shall on satisfactory completion of the training for a rating issue a temporary certificate of competency valid for 30 days and entitling the pilot who received the training to exercise during the period of which the certificate is valid the privileges of the rating as pilotin-command or as co-pilot, as the case may be, before such rating issued to him by the Commissioner; and such flight instructor or designated pilot who issues a temporary certificate of competency in terms of paragraph (a) shall forward the original thereof to the Commissioner and furnish the pilot who received the training with a copy thereof.
(b)
(3)
In the case of piston-engined aeroplanes having a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less (a) the flight instructor or designated pilot shall on satisfactory completion of the training for a type rating(i) make an endorsement to this effect in the logbook of the pilot who received the training, whereupon that pilot shall be entitled to exercise the privileges of such rating; and in respect of that pilot, forward to the Commissioner within 30 days a certificate of competency as prescribed by the Commissioner;
(ii)
(b)
the endorsement referred to in paragraph (a) (i) shall be made in the column marked Details of flight and remarks and shall contain the following particulars, namely (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) an indication of the type of aeroplane, and also the registration marks; the words Regulation 3.8 complied with; the signature of the flight instructor or designated pilot; the licence number of the flight instructor or designated pilot; and the date; and
(c)
where a type rating is in terms of this subregulation endorsed in a pilots logbook and such type rating falls outside the group type rating endorsed in that pilots licence, the flight instructor or designated pilot may issue a temporary certificate of competency valid for 30 days and entitling that pilot to exercise during the period of which the certificate is valid the privileges of the rating endorsed in the logbook before the issue of the appropriate group type rating is issued to him by the Commissioner.
2.4
Aircraft Ratings for Pilots and Flight Instructors (1) Aircraft ratings for pilots and flight instructors shall comprise (a) (b) (c) (d) (2) category rating; class rating; type rating; group type rating.
Category ratings shall comprise (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) aeroplanes; helicopters; gyroplanes; gliders; micro-light aeroplanes; free balloons; and unconventional aircraft, that is aircraft excluding the aircraft mentioned in paragraph (a) to (f).
(3)
Class ratings shall comprise (a) for aeroplanes (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (b) single-engine, land; single-engine, sea; multi-engine, land; multi-engine, sea;
for helicopters (i) (ii) single-rotor helicopters; multi-rotor helicopters;
(c) (d)
gyroplanes; for gliders (i) (ii) unpowered gliders; powered gliders.
(4)
Type and group type ratings for aeroplanes shall comprise(a) (b) in the case of a student pilot, a rating by name for each type of aeroplane; when the Commissioner is satisfied that the licence holder is suitably qualified to hold a rating in one or both the groups specified below he may, subject to the provisions of regulation 2.3(1) and (3) being complied with, issue to that licence holder such group type rating or ratings, namely a group type rating for aeroplane types, other than unconventional types of aeroplanes, having a maximum certificated mass of (i) 2 700 kg or less;
(ii)
5 700 kg or less;
(c) (d) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)
a rating by name for each type of aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kg; a rating by name for each turbo propeller and turbojet aeroplane;
Type ratings for rotorcraft shall comprise a rating by name for each type of rotorcraft; Type ratings for gliders shall comprise a rating by name for each type of glider; Type ratings for free balloons shall comprise a rating by name for each type of free balloon; Type ratings for unconventional aircraft shall comprise a rating by name for each unconventional type of aircraft A flight instructor rating shall comprise a flight instructor rating Grade 1 (unrestricted) or Grade II (unrestricted) or Grade III (under supervision), which rating shall permit the holder to give flight instruction on an aircraft in respect of which he holds the appropriate flight instructor type or group type rating in the case of piston-engined aeroplanes having a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less, or in the case of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by name is required, he is the holder of the appropriate flight instructor type rating for such aircraft. An instrument rating shall comprise a rating permitting the holder to pilot an aircraft in compliance with IFR or in IMC and by night, to carry out an approach and a landing in IMC with the aid of an NDB, VOR and/or ILS, as specified in the rating, and to act as safety pilot on an aircraft in respect of which such holder is the holder of the appropriate type or group type rating in the case of piston-engined aeroplanes having a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less, or in the case of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by name, is required, he is the holder of the appropriate type rating for such aircraft. A night flight rating shall comprise a rating permitting the holder to act as pilot-in-command by night. A tug pilot rating shall comprise a rating permitting the holder to act as pilot-in-command of a tug aircraft. A safety pilot rating which shall comprise a rating permitting the holder to act, on an aircraft in respect of which he is the holder of the appropriate type or group type rating in the case of piston-engined aeroplanes having a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less, or in the case of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by name is required, he is the holder of the appropriate type rating for such aircraft, as safety pilot to a pilot engaged in simulated instrument flying practice.
(10)
(11) (12) (13)
(13A) An undersling/winching rating (helicopter) shall comprise a rating permitting the holder to act as pilot-in-command of a helicopter engaged in undersling/winching operations. (13B) A game/livestock cull rating (helicopter) shall comprise a rating permitting the holder to act as pilot-in-command of a helicopter engaged in game or livestock cull operations. (14) Ratings for flight engineers shall comprise a rating by name for each type of aircraft when the design of the aircraft necessitates the carriage of a flight engineer. An agricultural pilots rating shall permit the holder to act as pilot-incommand of an agricultural application aircraft involved in agricultural aviation activities.
(15)
2.5
Flight Instructor Rating Requirements (1) (2) Subject to regulation 2.3 no person shall give flight instruction unless he is the holder of a valid flight instructor rating. The holder of a flight instructor rating shall be permitted to give flight instruction on aircraft in respect of which he is the holder of the appropriate valid flight instructor type or group type rating in the case of piston-engined aeroplanes having a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less, or in the case of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by name is required, he is the holder of the appropriate flight instructor type rating for such aircraft. The holder of a flight instructor rating Grade III, shall be permitted to give flight instruction under the supervision of a flight instructor Grade I or Grade II who is the holder of the appropriate valid flight instructor type or group and type rating in the case of piston-engined aeroplanes having a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less, or in the case of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by name is required, he is the holder of the appropriate flight instructor type rating for such aircraft. The holder of a Grade II flight instructors rating shall be the holder of(a) (b) (5) a valid commercial pilots or a valid higher grade licence; and a valid instrument flight rating, unless he gives flight instruction on helicopters or gyroplanes.
3.
(4)
The holder of a Grade I flight instructors rating shall be the holder of a valid senior commercial pilots or a valid higher grade licence,( Note: the senior commercial licence no longer exists at the time of publishing.) unless he gives flight instruction on helicopters or gyroplanes, or is exempted from this provision by the Commissioner.
2.6
Instrument Rating Requirements No person, other than the holder of a valid airline transport pilots licence (aeroplane) shall act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft flying in compliance with IFR or in IMC, unless he is the holder of a valid instrument rating, and no person shall, with the aid of an NDB, a VOR or an ILS, carry out an approach or a landing with an aeroplane flying in compliance with IFR or in IMC, unless he is the holder of a valid instrument rating and his instrument rating has been rated for the applicable aid.
2.7
Night Flight Rating Requirements No person, other than the holder of a commercial pilots licence (aeroplane) or airline transport pilots licence (aeroplane), shall act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft by night, unless he is the holder of a valid night flight rating
2.8
Tug Pilot Requirements No person shall act as pilot-in-command of a tug aircraft unless he is the holder of a valid private pilots licence with a valid tug pilot rating or unless he is the holder of a valid commercial or airline transport pilots licence.
2.9
Safety Pilot Rating Requirements No person shall act as safety pilot to a pilot engaged in simulated instrument flying practice unless he is the holder of(a) (b) (c) a valid private pilots licence with a valid safety pilot or instrument rating; or a valid commercial, senior commercial or airline transport pilots licence; and the appropriate valid type or group type rating in the case of pistonengined aeroplanes having a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less or, in the case of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by name is required, he is the holder of the appropriate type rating for such aircraft.
2.12
Period of Validity Subject to the prescribed requirements being met, a licence or rating may be issued, renewed or reissued(1) if application is made for an initial issue or the reissue of a licence or rating, from the date of application; (2) if application for renewal is made within 30 days prior to the date on which the current licence or rating expires, from the date immediately succeeding the date on which the current licence or rating expires; and
(3)
if application for renewal is made more than 30 days before the date on which the current licence or rating expires from the date of application; ( see next page for validity) for a period of: twelve months for a student pilot; twenty-four months for micro-light pilot; twenty-four months for a private pilot; twenty four months for a free balloon pilot; twelve months for a commercial pilot; twelve months for an airline transport pilot; twelve months for a flight navigator; twelve months for a flight engineer (restricted) twelve months for a flight engineer; twelve months for a flight radiotelephony operator; twelve months for an instrument rating; twelve months for a flight instructor rating; twelve months for an air traffic controller; twenty four months for a gyroplane pilot; twenty-four months for a glider pilot:
Provided that (a) (b) no licence or rating shall be issued or renewed for a period extending beyond the period of the appropriate current report of medical fitness; in exceptional circumstances, the Commissioner may, on individual representations by the holder, extend the period of validity of a licence or rating for a period not exceeding 30 days after the date of expiry of such licence or rating if the holder has a current report of medical fitness appropriate to the licence or rating for the period for which the licence or rating is extended; if the Commissioner is satisfied that it is impractical in a specific case, owing to the nature of an applicants duties, to make application for renewal within 30 days prior to the date on which the current licence or rating expires, but where such application is made within 60 days after that date, a licence or rating may be renewed from the date immediately succeeding the date on which the current licence or rating expires.
(c)
2.13
Requirements for Issue Applicable to Renewal If the Commissioner has evidence that any person who is the holder of a licence, certificate or rating has failed to maintain the minimum standard required to exercise the privileges of such licence, certificate or rating, he may, before renewing such licence, certificate or rating require the holder to satisfy, to the extent he may deem it necessary in the circumstances, all or any of the requirements for the issue of such a licence, certificate or rating.
2.14
Signature on Licence (1) On the issue of a licence to a flight crew member or to an air traffic controller he shall forthwith affix his signature in ink in the space on the licence provided for this purpose Any licence which has not been signed by the holder as required in subregulation (1) shall be deemed to be invalid and any person exercising a privilege granted by such licence, shall be guilty of an offence
(2)
2.15
Issue and Reissue of Licences and Ratings and Imposition of Conditions in Respect Thereof (1) The Commissioner may in exceptional circumstances, notwithstanding the provisions of this Chapter relating to the privileges of the holder of a licence or rating or the period of validity of such licence or rating, impose such conditions (including a condition specifying a period of validity shorter than the period specified in this Chapter) as he deems necessary in respect of the exercise by the holder of such licence or rating of his privileges in terms of that licence or rating The Commissioner may also in exceptional circumstances amend or cancel any condition imposed in terms of subregulation (1) or impose any further condition in terms of the said subregulation. The Commissioner shall endorse any condition imposed in terms of subregulation (1) or any amendment or cancellation made in terms of subregulation (2) on the licence concerned. If a licence or rating has lapsed the Commissioner may reissue such licence or rating if the prescribed requirements for the renewal of that licence or rating, and such of the prescribed requirements for the issue of that licence or rating as he may deem necessary, have been met
(2)
(3)
(4)
2.16
Conduct of Examinations and Tests by Inspectors of Flying Where these regulations provide that a person other than an inspector of flying shall conduct the examination and/or test required for the issue, renewal or reissue of a licence, certificate or rating, the Commissioner may require that such examination and/or test be conducted by an inspector of flying of the Department of Transport.
2.17
Validation (1) Validation of a foreign crew members licence shall be by the issue of an authorisation to be carried with such foreign licence accepting it as the equivalent of a comparable licence issued under these regulations.
(2)
The validity of the authorisation shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the foreign licence at the time of authorisation
2.18
Issue and Reissue of Licences and Ratings and Imposition of Conditions in Respect Thereof (1) The medical requirements for the issue, reissue or renewal of a licence or rating shall be as prescribed in Chapter 6. (2) Each applicant for the issue, reissue or renewal of a licence or rating for which medical requirements have been prescribed in Chapter 6 shall undergo the appropriate medical examination for the assessment of his medical fitness by a medical examiner acceptable to the Commissioner. The medical examiner carrying out the medical examination in terms of subregulation (2) shall submit, his conclusions concerning the medical examination in a report of medical fitness to the Commissioner. The report of medical fitness referred to in subregulation (3) shall be in a form acceptable to the Commissioner. The Commissioner shall not issue, reissue or renew a licence or rating if the medical requirements prescribed in Chapter 6 for that licence or rating are not attained, except that the licence or rating may be issued, reissued or renewed if the following conditions are met: (a) if medical conclusion acceptable to the Commissioner indicates that(i) the condition of the applicant is not such as to introduce any hazard either of sudden incapacity or of inability to perform his duties safely during the period of validity of the licence or rating; and failure to attain the requirements is capable of being compensated;
(3)
(4) (5)
(ii) (b) (c)
if the Commissioner has satisfactory evidence that the applicants already acquired and demonstrated ability, skill and experience compensate for his deficiency; if the licence or rating is endorsed with any special limitations when the safe performance of flight duties is dependent on compliance with such limitations.
(6)
The fees for medical examinations, audiometric examinations and special medical examinations for student or private pilots, undertaken by the Institute for Aviation Medicine shall be as prescribed in Annexure A.
(7)
The fees, referred to in subregulation (6), shall be prepaid to the Director-General: Transport or to any airport manager of the Department of Transport and each candidate shall produce the receipt for such fee when presenting himself for examination.
2.19
Effective Period of Reports of Medical Fitness Subject to the provisions of regulations 2.21 and 2.22 a report of medical fitness issued in terms of these regulations shall be effective (a) if there is no current report of medical fitness or if there is a current report of medical fitness and the medical examination is carried out prior to a period of 30 days before the date of expiry of the current report of medical fitness from the date on which that medical examination completed; and if there is a current report of medical fitness and the medical examination is carried out within a period of 30 days prior to the date of expiry of the current report of medical fitness - from the date immediately succeeding the date of expiry of the current report of medical fitness; for a period of twenty-four months for a student pilot; twenty-four months for a micro-light aeroplane pilot; twenty four months for a private pilot; twenty four months for a glider pilot; twenty four months for a free balloon pilot; twelve months for a commercial pilot; twelve months for an airline transport pilot; twelve months for a flight navigator; twelve months for a flight engineer (restricted); twelve months for a flight engineer; twelve months for a flight radiotelephony operator who is not the holder of another licence for which medical requirements are prescribed in Chapter 6 and in the case of a flight radiotelephony operator who is also the holder of another licence for which medical requirements are prescribed in Chapter 6, for the period prescribed for that licence; twelve months for an air traffic controller; twenty four months for a gyroplane pilot: Provided that where medical conclusion acceptable to the Commissioner indicates that a shorter effective period should be specified, the report of medical fitness may be issued for such shorter period as is recommended in such medical conclusion: Provided further that in the case of a student pilot, a private pilot, a glider pilot or a free balloon pilot who is 40 years of age or over, the report if medical fitness shall in any event not be effective for more than 12 months.
(b)
2.20
Circumstances in Which Medical Examinations May be Deferred If, because of duty outside the Republic, deferment of the medical re examination of a flight crew member has to be made, such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed(a) (b) a single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in private operation; or two consecutive periods, each of three months, in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations:
Provided that (i) the person concerned obtains locally, in each instance a favourable medical certificate after examination by a qualified physician carrying out medical functions in that region or experienced in the examination of aviation personnel or, if such physician is not available, by a physician legally qualified to practise; the medical certificate so obtained is acceptable to the Commissioner.
(ii) 2.21
Medical Incapacity (1) The holder of a licence shall not exercise the privileges of his licence during any period when such holder is aware of any illness or decrease in medical fitness, nor after any accident or injury, the effects of which would render him unable to meet, for a period, the medical requirements for the issue of his current licence. Should any such incapacity render a licence holder unable to meet the medical requirements for the issue of his current licence he shall, before again exercising the privilege of his licence, obtain a certificate in duplicate by a qualified medical practitioner indicating the nature of the incapacity to which he has been subjected and that he has fully recovered, forward the original thereof to the Institute for Aviation Medicine and the duplicate copy to the Commissioner and await confirmation from the Commissioner that he has again been assessed as medically fit. The Commissioner may, however, require the full or any part of the examination prescribed in Chapter 6. A pilot found to be unfit after an examination in terms of Chapter 6 may appeal against such finding to the Commissioner: Provided that the appellant shall deposit with the department the sum prescribed in Annexure A to these regulations, which sum shall be refunded to the appellant if his appeal is successful.
(2)
(3) (4)
2. 22
Decrease in Medical Fitness (1) If in the opinion of the Commissioner, the medical fitness of the holder of a licence, certificate or rating has decreased to an extent which renders him unable to meet the medical requirements applicable to the issue, reissue or renewal of his current licence, certificate or rating, the Commissioner may, after reasonable notice in writing to such holder, require him at his own expense to undergo on or before a date specified by the Commissioner the medical examination prescribed in these regulations for the issue, reissue or renewal of his licence, certificate or rating. If the medical examination required in terms of sub regulation (1) discloses that the holders standard of medical fitness is below that required for the issue, reissue or renewal of the licence, certificate or rating concerned, the Commissioner shall suspend that licence, certificate or rating until such time as the holder is able to show to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that he is able to meet the medical requirements applicable to the issue, reissue or renewal of that licence, certificate or rating. If the holder of a licence, certificate or rating, who has been duly notified in terms of subregulation (1), fails without reasonable cause to undergo the medical examination on or before the date specified, his medical fitness shall be deemed to be below the standard required for the issue, reissue or renewal of that licence, certificate or rating and the provisions of subregulation (2) shall mutatis mutandis apply.
(2)
(3)
2.23
Medical Requirements for Holders of More Than One Class of Licence, Certificate or Rating If a person is the holder of more than one class of licence, certificate or rating he shall not be required to undergo a separate medical examination in respect of each such licence, certificate or rating, provided he continues to meeting in respect of physical, visual, colour perception and hearing requirements taken separately, the highest requirement called for by the combined licences, certificates or ratings.
2.24
Privileges of and Limitations on Licence Holders Student pilots The holder of a valid student pilots licence shall be permitted to fly solo for the purpose of receiving training for a higher grade pilots licence(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) in the type of aircraft in which he is undergoing training; after being authorised thereto and while under supervision, as prescribed in regulation 7.6; without carrying any passenger; on a flight other than an international flight; and in VMC by day.
2.25
Private Pilots The holder of a valid private pilots licence shall be permitted, subject to regulations 2.23, 2.35, 2.36 and 2.37, to act, but not for remuneration(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) as pilot-in-command of an aircraft and to carry passengers therein; as co-pilot of any aircraft on which a co-pilot is not a requirement; as co-pilot of any aircraft on which a co-pilot is required, on condition that he is the holder of the appropriate category, class and type ratings; as pilot-in-command of a tug aircraft, on condition that he is the holder of a valid tug pilot rating; as pilot-in-command of an aircraft flying in compliance with IFR or in IMC, on condition that he is the holder of a valid instrument rating: Provided that a private pilot without a valid instrument rating may fly in compliance with IFR or in IMC, in sight of the surface and clear of cloud, fog or mist within a control zone, after being authorised to do so by the responsible air traffic services unit; as pilot-in-command of an aircraft by night, on condition that he is the holder of a valid night flight rating; as safety pilot, on condition that he is the holder of a valid safety pilot rating
(f) (g)
2.26
Commercial Pilots The holder of a valid commercial pilots licence shall be permitted, subject to regulations 2.3, 2.36 and 2.37(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) to exercise all the privileges of a private pilot; to act as pilot-in-command in any aircraft operations other than the transport of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire; to act as pilot-in-command in commercial air transportation in any aircraft certificated for single-pilot operations; to act as co-pilot in commercial air transportation in any aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, on condition that he is the holder of the appropriate category, class and type ratings; to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft by night, provided that the holder of a commercial pilots licence (helicopter) shall be the holder of a valid night flight rating before acting as pilot-in-command by night; and to act as pilot-in-command of a tug aircraft and as safety pilot.
(f) 2.28
Airline Transport Pilots The holder of a valid airline transport pilots licence shall be permitted, subject to regulations 2.3, 2.36 and 2.37(a) to exercise all the privileges of a private and a commercial pilot: Provided that an airline transport pilot (helicopter) shall be the holder of an instrument rating before he may exercise the privileges of the holder of an instrument rating;
(b)
to act as pilot-in-command in air transportation.
2.34
Privileges of and Limitations on Rating Holders (1) The holder of a valid pilot category rating, class rating or type rating shall be permitted to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft of that category, class or type concerned: Provided that the holder of a valid type rating endorsed for co-pilot shall only be permitted to act as copilot on such aircraft type. The holder of a valid flight instructors rating shall be permitted, subject to regulation 2.6, to act as flight instructor. The holder of a valid Grade III flight instructors rating(a) (b) may give flight instruction under the supervision of a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor; may issue certificates of competency in respect of type ratings for aircraft having a maximum certified mass of 2 700 kg or less, if he is the holder of such rating, but shall not be permitted to issue other certificates of competency; may not send student pilots on their initial solo flights; and may not give instrument instruction unless he is the holder of a valid instrument flight rating.
(2) (3)
(c) (d)
(4)
The holder of a valid Grade II flight instructors rating shall be permitted to(a) (b) (c) exercise all the privileges of a Grade III flight instructor; issue certificates of competency; send the holder of a student pilots licence on his initial solo flight.
(5)
The holder of a valid Grade I flight instructor rating shall be permitted to exercise all the privileges of a Grade II or Grade III flight instructor and to undertake the duties of an official examiner if designated as such. The holder of a valid instrument rating shall be permitted, subject to regulation CAR Part 91.02.4, to pilot an aircraft in accordance with IFR and IMC and by night, to carry out with the aid of an NDB, a VOR or an ILS, for whichever he is rated, an approach and landing under IFR and in IMC; and to act as safety pilot on an aircraft in respect of which he is the holder of the appropriate type or group type rating: Provided that the holder of an instrument rating issued in terms of regulation 3.12(1) shall be restricted to exercising the privileges of such rating in single-engine aircraft only.
(6)
(7) (8) (9)
The holder of a valid night flight rating shall be permitted to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft by night. The holder of a valid tug pilot rating shall be permitted to act as pilotin-command of a tug aircraft. The holder of a valid safety pilot rating shall be permitted to act on an aircraft in respect of which he is the holder of the appropriate type or group type rating as safety pilot to a pilot engaged in simulated instrument flying practice. The holder of a valid official flight examiners rating shall be permitted to act as pilot-in-command and as flight instructor on any aircraft with a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less. The holder of an agricultural pilots rating may act as pilot-in-command of an agricultural aircraft involved in agricultural aviation activities in respect of which he is the holder of the appropriate category and type rating.
(10)
(11)
2.35
Maintenance of Competency by Holders of Private Pilots Licences before the First Renewal of Their Licences The holder of a private pilots licence shall(a) within the six months immediately following the date on which he has completed 150 hours of flight time but before completing 180 hours of flight time; or
(b) (c)
within the 30 days immediately preceding the first anniversary of the date of issue of the licence, if he has not accumulated 150 hours of flight time at that stage; and before acting as pilot on any solo or passenger-carrying flight after the applicable prescribed period, satisfactorily complete the practical flight test prescribed in regulations 3.2(1) (e), 3.2(2) 1nd (3), with the exception of sequences 3, 15 and 27 of the flight instruction syllabus prescribed in Chapter 4, and have the successful completion of this test certified in his pilots logbook by the Grade I or Grade II flight instructor conducting the test: Provided that these requirements shall not apply if, on the date of application for the first renewal of a private pilots licence(i) (ii) the holder of such licence has not completed 150 hours of flight time; or a year has not elapsed since the date of issue of such licence.
SEE PART 91 02.4 FOR THE NEW RECENCY REQUIREMENTS. 2.36 TO 2.38 HAVE BEEN REPLACED BY PART 91.02.4 AS FROM 1 JANUARY 1999 2.36 Maintenance of Competency: Minimum Landings Before Carrying Passengers 2.37 Maintenance of Competency: Passengers by Night Minimum Landings Before Carrying
2.38 Maintenance of Competency: Requirements for Instrument Approaches in IMC
CHAPTER 3 ANRs
REQUIREMENTS FOR THE ISSUE AND RENEWAL OF FLIGHT CREW MEMBER AND AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER LICENCES, CERTIFICATES AND RATINGS
3.1 Student Pilots (1) An applicant for the issue or renewal of a student pilots licence shall satisfy the Commissioner that he has an adequate knowledge of radiotelephony procedures for undertaking solo flights, shall not be less than 17 years of age, and shall submit to the Commissioner a certificate of competency signed by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor who is the holder of the applicable flight instructor category and type rating, wherein it is certified that the applicant is familiar with the type of aircraft being used for his training, and that the applicant(a) has received adequate preparatory ground training on(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii) (b) location of controls, switches and cocks; fuel and other systems; instruments; communication systems; location of fire extinguishers and first aid kit; loading requirements; starting, running and stopping of engine, where applicable; any exercise peculiar to the aircraft being trained on;
has, within the 30 days immediately preceding the date of application, passed a written examination conducted by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor (who shall not, unless otherwise authorised in writing by the Commissioner, be the flight instructor from whom he is receiving his theoretical training) (or, in the case of an aircraft other than an aeroplane or a helicopter by a person approved by an approved organization) on NOTAMs and AICs currently in force in so far as they are applicable to the operation of aircraft by private pilots.
(2)
When the training and test is conducted in an unconventional type aircraft, such portions of the flight instruction syllabus or test which are not permissible in that type of aircraft shall be omitted. In these circumstances the licence will not be rated for a conventional type of aircraft until the applicant has undergone the portion of the training and tests previously omitted.
3.2 (1)
Private Pilots (Aeroplane) An applicant for a private pilots licence shall(a) (b) (c) be the holder of at least a valid restricted radiotelephone operators certificate; be not less than 17 years of age; submit to the Commissioner a certificate of competency signed by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor, wherein it is certified that the applicant has, within the 60 days immediately preceding the date of application, passed a written examination conducted by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor who shall not (unless otherwise authorised in writing by the Commissioner) be the flight instructor from whom he has received his theoretical training, on(i) the regulations made under the Act concerning-change of address; conditions relating to flying in the Republic; licensing requirements applicable to private pilots; logbooks and crediting of flight time; rules of the air; flight rules; visual flight rules; instrument flight rules; ground and light signals for airport traffic; air traffic services; search and rescue; taxi rules; investigation of aircraft accidents; aircraft flying to or from or over the Republic on other than scheduled international air services; prohibited and restricted areas,
and concerning his knowledge of the following as set out in the AIP, AIP SUP, NOTAMs and AICs currently in force: aeronautical information services available to pilots; units of measurement; meteorological information available to pilots; names and functions of the various air traffic services units and names of associated airspaces; altimeter setting procedures; prohibited, restricted and danger areas; (ii) the elementary principles ofaeronautical charts; meteorological information for cross-country flights; and the compass; the technical subjects prescribed in Chapter 5;
(iii) (d)
have completed in aeroplanes not less than: (i) (ii) forty hours of flight time, dual and solo, of which not less than 15 hours in each case shall be solo flight time; three hours of cross country flight time, solo, in accordance with sequence 27(b) of the flight instruction syllabus prescribed in Chapter 4: Provided that the three hours may be included in the total of 40 hours prescribed in subparagraph (i);
(e)
within the 30 days immediately preceding the date of application, have passed a practical flight test conducted by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor who is the holder of the applicable flight instructor type or group type rating, and who shall not be (unless otherwise authorised in writing by the Commissioner), the flight instructor from whom he has received his practical training on sequences 1 to 17, 19 to 23 and 27 of the flight instruction syllabus, prescribed in Chapter 4, including (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) vi) take-off, circuit, landing; incipient spin recovery; recovery from full left and right spins; steep turns left and right at constant height; simulated forced landing from a minimum height of 2 000 feet to execute a landing not more than 150 m beyond a point selected by the examiner; execution of a landing, with or without the aid of the engine, between two marks selected by the examiner which shall be at least 75 m apart measured along the line of approach.
(2)
The test shall be completed in one flight and should any portion of such test be below the required standard the entire test shall be retaken after an interval of not less than three days:Provided that sequence 27 may be completed separately and if it is so completed and is found to be below the required standard, that sequence shall be retaken after an interval of not less than three days. When the training and test is conducted in an unconventional type aircraft such portions of the flight instruction syllabus or test which are not permissible in that type of aircraft shall be omitted. In these circumstances the licence will not be rated for a conventional type of aircraft until the applicant has undergone the portions of the training and tests previously omitted. (Deleted) An applicant for the renewal of a private pilots licence who is the holder of a valid instrument rating shall submit to the Commissioner either(a) his pilots logbook or a certificate signed by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor showing that he has completed on an aeroplane not less than 10 hours flight, of which not more than four hours may be dual instruction time within the 12 months immediately preceding the date of application; or
(3)
(4) (5)
(b)
a certificate of competency signed by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor that he has completed not less than three hours flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes within the 12 months immediately preceding the date of application and satisfactorily completed the practical flight test prescribed in regulation 3.2(1) (e) and in regulation 3.2(2) and (3), with the exception of sequences 3, 15 and 27 of the flight instruction syllabus prescribed in Chapter 4, within the 30 days immediately preceding the date of application.
(6)
An applicant for the renewal of a private pilots licence who is under 40 years of age and who is not the holder of a valid instrument rating, shall be the holder of a flight radiotelephony operators licence and shall submit to the Commissioner a certificate of competency signed by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor, wherein it is certified that the applicant(a) (b) has completed not less than three hours flight time as pilot-in command of an aeroplane within the 12 months immediately preceding the date of application; and has satisfactorily completed the practical flight test prescribed in regulation 3.2(1) (e) and in regulation 3.2(2) and (3), with the exception of sequences 3, 15 and 27 of the flight instruction syllabus prescribed in Chapter 4, within the 30 days immediately preceding the date of application: Provided that the requirement for a practical flight test shall not apply in the case of the first renewal of a licence where the applicant furnishes proof to the Commissioner that he has satisfactorily completed the practical flight test prescribed in regulation 2.35 within the six months immediately preceding the date of application for such renewal.
(7)
An applicant for the renewal of a private pilots licence who is 40 years of age or over and who is not the holder of a valid instrument rating shall be the holder of a flight radiotelephony operators licence and shall submit to the Commissioner(a) for the first renewal of the licence, and thereafter for alternate renewals, a certificate of competency signed by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor wherein it is certified that the applicant(i) (ii) has completed not less than three hours flight time as pilot-in-command of an aeroplane within the 12 months immediately preceding the date of application; and has satisfactorily completed the practical flight test prescribed in regulation 3.2(1)(e) and regulation 3.2(2) and (3), with the exception of sequences 3, 15 and 27 of the flight instruction syllabus prescribed in Chapter 4, within the 30 days immediately preceding the date of application:
(b)
Provided that the requirement for a practical flight test shall not apply in the case of the first renewal of a licence where the applicant furnishes proof to the Commissioner that he has satisfactorily completed the practical flight test prescribed in regulation 2.35 within the six months immediately preceding the date of application for such renewal; for the renewals of the licence at the times not specified in paragraph (a) either(i) (ii) the certificate prescribed in paragraph (a); or his pilots logbook or a certificate signed by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor, whereto it is certified that the applicant has completed in aeroplanes not less than 10 hours flight time, of which not more than four hours may be dual instruction time, within the 12 months immediately preceding the date of application.
(8)
The requirements for the re issue of a private pilots licence shall be as follows: (a) If a period of not more than two years has expired since the lapse of such Licence, the requirements set out in regulation 3.2 (5). 3.2 (6) or 3.2 (7), as the case may be, shall be complied with. If a period of more than two years has expired since the lapse of such licence, the requirements shall be the same as those for the initial issue of such licence as set out in sub regulations (1) to (4) of regulation 3.2, except that the Commissioner may exempt the applicant from any or all of the prescribed written examinations.
(b)
3.3
Commercial Pilots (Aeroplane) (1) An applicant for a commercial pilots licence shall (a) (b) (c) be the holder of a valid general certificate of competency in radiotelephony; be not less than 18 years of age; satisfy the Commissioner, in a written examination, as to his knowledge of(i) the regulations made under the Act as prescribed for private pilots in regulation 3.2(1)(i), with the exception that the licensing requirements applicable to commercial pilots instead of the licensing requirements applicable to private pilots shall apply, and in addition, knowledge of the regulations made under the Act concerningflight-time limitations; when licensed airports must be used; training of flight crew members;
And as to his knowledge of the following as set out in the AIP, AIP SUP, NOTAMs and AICs currently in force: The organisation and operation of the various air traffic services units; holding, approach and departure procedures; entry and departure requirements; search and rescue; Incident reporting procedures; (i) (iii) (iv) (v) (d) navigation; elementary meteorology; the technical subjects detailed in Chapter 5; [Deleted]
have completed not less than 200 hours of flight time, which may include 20 hours of flight instruction time on simulators approved by the Commissioner, or 150 hours of flight time if he has satisfactorily completed a course of approved training, which may include 10 hours of flight instruction time on simulators approved by the Commissioner: Provided that the total of 200 hours or 150 hours, as the case may be, shall include: (i) (ii) 100 hours as pilot-in-command; 20 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-incommand, including one flight of not less than 300 nautical miles in the course of which not less than two full-stop landings at different points shall be made; ten hours of night flying as pilot-in-command, including not less than 10 take-offs and 10 landings by night and a solo triangular cross-country flight by night of not less than 100 nautical miles and with a radius of not less than 50 nautical miles from base, along any sector of the flight; 20 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which not more than 10 hours may have been acquired on simulators approved by the Commissioner;
(iii)
(iv)
(e)
pass a practical flight test within 24 months from the date of notification of having passed the required technical examinations and within the 30 days immediately preceding the date of application, and such practical flight shall be with an official examiner in(i) sequences 1 to 17 and 19 to 23 of the flight instruction syllabus prescribed in Chapter 4 and shall demonstrate to the official examiner his ability to perform both normal and emergency manoeuvres, appropriate to the category and class of the aircraft used in the test, with a degree of competency appropriate to that of a commercial pilot;
(ii)
(iii) (iv) (1A)
instrument flight, which includes the interception of predetermined radials, QDR and QDM from or to VOR and NDB stations and utilising navigation aids as applicable; night flight; flight planning and mass and balance problems appropriate to the type of aeroplane used for the test.
Only a candidate who is the holder of a valid pilots licence may enter for or write examinations referred to in subregulation (1) of this regulation. The tests referred to in subregulation (1)(e) shall be undertaken in an aeroplane with variable-pitch propeller, adjustable flaps and retractable undercarriage, unless special permission is obtained from the Commissioner. An applicant who has qualified as a pilot in the South African Air Force may be exempted by the Commissioner (a) (b) from any or all of the examinations and tests prescribed in subregulation (1) of this regulation except those prescribed in paragraph (i) of that subregulation; and from the requirement referred to in subregulation (1A) of this regulation.
(2)
(3)
(4)
An applicant for the renewal of a commercial pilots licence who is not the holder of an instrument rating(a) (b) (c) shall submit to the Director-General: Transport a duly completed application form, his pilots licence and the fee prescribed in Annexure A; shall be the holder of a valid general flight radiotelephony operators licence; shall for the first renewal of such licence, and for the renewal thereof every third year thereafter, have passed the practical flight test prescribed in subparagraph (1)(e)(i) with an official examiner within the 30 days immediately preceding the date of application; and shall for the renewal of the licence at times not specified in paragraph (c) either(i) satisfy the Commissioner that he has completed not less than three hours of flight time as pilot-in-command of an aeroplane within the six months immediately preceding the date of application by either submitting his pilots logbook in which the said hours have been recorded or submitting a certificate signed by a Grade l or Grade II flight instructor in which it is certified that such applicant has complied with this requirement; or have passed the practical flight test prescribed in subregulation (1)(e)(i) with an official examiner within
(d)
(ii)
the 30 days immediately preceding the date of application.
(5)
An applicant for the renewal of a commercial pilots licence who is the holder of a valid instrument rating shall(a) (b) if the renewal of such instrument rating is not sought, comply with subregulation (4); if the renewal of such instrument rating is sought(i) (ii) comply with paragraphs (4)(a) and (b)either satisfy the Commissioner that he has completed not less than 10 hours of flight time as pilot-incommand within the six months immediately preceding the date of application by either submitting his pilots logbook in which the said hours have been recorded or submitting a certificate signed by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor in which it is certified that such applicant has complied with this requirement; or have passed the practical flight test prescribed in subparagraph (1)(e) (i) with an official examiner within the 30 days immediately preceding the date of application; and comply with regulation 3.12(4).
(iii) (6)
An applicant for the renewal of a lapsed commercial pilots licence shall(a) if a period of not more than two years has expired since lapse of such licence, comply with the requirements for renewal as set out in regulation 3.3(4) or 3.3(5) or 3.3A, as the case may be; (b) if a period of more than two years but not more than five years has expired since the lapse of such licence, comply with the requirements for the renewal thereof as set out in regulation 3.3(4) or 3.3(5) or 3.3A, as the case may be and in addition pass a written examination in regulations as prescribed for the commercial pilots licence; and if a period of more than five years has expired since the lapse of such licence, comply with the requirements for the initial issue of such licence as set out in regulation 3.3(1) or 3.3(5) or 3.3A, as the case may be except that the Commissioner may exempt the applicant from any or all of the prescribed written examinations.
(c)
3.5
Airline Transport Pilots (Aeroplane) (1) An applicant for an airline transport pilots licence (aeroplane) shall(a) (b) (c) be not less than 21 years of age; be the holder of a commercial pilots licence (aeroplane); satisfy the Commissioner, in a written examination, as to his knowledge
(i)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii)
the regulations applicable to commercial pilots in terms of regulation 3.3(1)(i), except that the licensing requirements applicable to airline transport pilots instead of the licensing requirements applicable to commercial pilots, shall apply: flight operation; aeronautical charts and the form of the earth: flight navigation: radio aids to navigation; aeronautical instruments; meteorology; and the technical subjects referred to in Chapter 5:
the above mentioned subjects may be attempted only by a candidate who is the holder of a valid commercial pilots licence issued in terms of these regulations; (d) (i) (ii) have completed not less than 75 hours of instrument time, not more than 30 hours of which may be acquired on simulators approved by the Commissioner; have completed not less than 1 500 hours of flight time as prescribed in Chapter 8, not more than 100 hours of which may be acquired on simulators approved by the Commissioner: Provided that the pilot actually manipulated the flight controls of an aircraft for not less than 250 hours, at least 100 hours of which shall include night flight; and comply with the requirements for the issuing of an instrument rating;
(iii) (e)
undergo a practical flight test with an official examiner in a multi-engined aeroplane with variable pitch propellers, adjustable flaps and retractable undercarriage, during which he shall demonstrate his ability(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) to pilot an aeroplane satisfactorily in all manoeuvres used in normal flight; to execute emergency manoeuvres which may include simulated forced landings and recovery from stalls entered from both level and steeply banked attitudes; to operate multi-engined aeroplanes at maximum permissible landing mass with one engine inoperative; to execute all normal manoeuvres, solely by means of instruments, including stalls, spirals and turns of not less than 720 degrees in a banked attitude of not less than 45 degrees; to operate multi-engined aeroplanes solely by reference to instruments at maximum permissible landing mass with one engine inoperative; while operating the aeroplane under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions, to carry out orientation and approach procedures by using radio aids, and to give
(v) (iv)
any other demonstration of skill required for the instrument rating;
(vii) (viii)
(ix)
to execute all other manoeuvres which may be essential to establish his competency; to carry out the tests detailed in subparagraphs (ii), (iii) and (v) in an aeroplane of the class for which a rating is sought and where the rating is sought for an aeroplane having a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kg, in the type of aeroplane for which the rating is sought; and to meet the requirements for the issuing of an instrument rating: Provided that any manoeuvres required during the course of the tests, detailed in subparagraphs (i) to (vii), may be modified or excluded by the examiner if such manoeuvres are inadvisable for the type of aeroplane used in the tests;
(f)
pass a practical flight test within 36 months from the date of notification of having passed the required technical examinations and within the 60 days immediately preceding the date of application
(2)
An applicant for the renewal of an airline transport pilots licence (aeroplane) shall(a) submit to the Commissioner his pilots logbook showing that he has completed not less than 12 hours as pilot in-command within the six months immediately preceding the date of the application, or has successfully completed the flight test prescribed in subregulation (1)(e) within the 60 days immediately preceding the date of application; meet the requirements for the renewal of an instrument rating: Provided that where a candidate fails to meet those requirements, such candidate may exercise the privileges of his licence under VFR only, for a period not exceeding 60 days or until the date of expiry of his licence, whichever period is the lesser; if a period of not more than two years has elapsed since the lapse of such licence, comply with the requirements set out in paragraphs (a) and (b); if a period of more than two years but not more than five years has elapsed since the lapse of such licence, comply with the requirements set in paragraphs (a) and (b) and pass a written examination in regulations as prescribed for an airline transport pilots licence; or if a period of more than five years has elapsed since the lapse of such licence, comply with the requirements for the initial issue of such licence as set out in subregulation (1), except that the Commissioner may exempt the applicant from the prescribed written examinations referred to in subregulation (1).
(b)
(c) (d)
(e)
3.6
Category Ratings An applicant for a category rating shall undergo the examinations and tests required for a type rating for an aircraft of the category which is sought.
3.7
Class Ratings An applicant for a class rating shall: (1) (2) If a land rating is sought, undergo the examinations and tests applicable to a type of aircraft for that class; If a sea rating is sought, undergo the examinations and tests applicable to a type of aircraft of that class in which the landings and take-offs shall include one cross wind take-off and landing, and pass a practical test in: (a) (b) (3) manoeuvring on water generally; and approaching slipways and buoys;
If multi-engine rating is sought(a) (b) have completed a conversion course of at least six hours dual and solo flight time on a multi-engine aircraft; undergo a practical flying test with an official examiner in: (i) (ii) (iii) take off, circuit and landing; simulated engine failure during take-off, the execution of a turn and on approach; simulated feathering or shutting down or disengagement in the case of a helicopter, as applicable, of inoperative engine and flying thus in turns, approach and landing: appreciation of critical and safety speeds;
(iv) (c)
if such applicant is the holder of an instrument rating, pass the tests prescribed in paragraphs 3.12(2)(b) or (c) and have the relative class rating endorsed on his licence before exercising the privilege of his instrument rating in the class of aircraft concerned;
(4)
If a powered glider rating is sought (a) (b) (c) have completed a conversion course with a flight instructor who is the holder of the appropriate category, class and type rating; pass a practical flight test with a flight instructor who is the holder of the appropriate category, class and type rating; and pass a written examination, given by a person authorised by an approved organisation, on the power plant and other systems applicable to that class of gliders.
3.8
Type Ratings An applicant for a type rating for an aircraft, excluding helicopters, with a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less shall(1) undergo a practical flight test(a) (b) wherein a high standard of vital action drill shall be required: to the satisfaction of(i) a Grade I, Grade II or Grade III flight instructor, in respect of an aircraft with maximum certificated mass of 2 700 kg or less, or a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor in respect of an aircraft with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 2 700 kg up to and including 5 700 kg, who shall be the holder of the appropriate flight instructor type; or a pilot designated in writing for the purpose by the Commissioner;
(ii) (c)
with the examiner at the dual controls, where the design of the aircraft permits, consisting of(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) three light-load landings; three full-load landings (which shall include a landing with one engine inoperative if the rating applied for is for a multi-engine aircraft); any other exercise considered necessary in view of the applicants previous experience; if the applicants experience is limited in respect of aircraft previously flown, incipient spins or spinning (if applicable to the aircraft), simulated forced landing and a landing without the use of flaps;
(2) pass a technical examination on the subjects prescribed in Part 2 of Chapter 5 applicable to the type of aircraft (including its engines) on which the flight test is taken, conducted by an inspector of flying or an airworthiness inspector of the Department, or by the holder of a valid aircraft maintenance engineers licence (Class II) with a type rating under Categories A and C, applicable to the type of aircraft (including its engines) on which the flight test is taken, or by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor who is the holder of the applicable flight instructor type rating; (3) submit an application for the rating together with his licence and a copy of the certificate prescribed in regulation 2.3 to the Commissioner for the issue of the rating in the case of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by name required or, in the case of piston-engined aeroplanes with a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less, his flying logbook to the flight instructor or designated pilot who conducted the tests for the insertion of the endorsement referred to in regulation 2.3(3)(a).
(4)
The Commissioner may exempt an applicant for a type rating from the requirements prescribed in subregulation (1) or (2).
3.9
An Applicant For A Type Rating For An Aircraft (Excluding Helicopters) With A Maximum Certificated Mass Exceeding 5 700 kg shall (1) undergo a practical flight test to the satisfaction of a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor who shall be the holder of the applicable flight instructor type rating and who has been designated in writing for the purpose by the Commissioner, or to the satisfaction of the nominee of an organisation approved for that purpose by the Commissioner, consisting of at least the following: (a) executing in the type of aircraft for which a rating is applied for, of emergency manoeuvres which may include a simulated forced landing and recovery from a stall entered from both a level and a steeply banked attitude; operating such aircraft at maximum permissible landing mass with one engine inoperative; operating such aircraft solely by reference to instruments at maximum permissible landing mass with one engine inoperative; and completion of three full-load and three light-load landings of such aircraft;
(b) (c) (d) (2)
pass a technical examination on the subjects prescribed in Part 2 of Chapter 5 applicable to the type of aircraft (including its engine) on which the flight test is taken conducted by an inspector of flying or an airworthiness inspector of the Department or by a person designated in writing for the purpose by the Commissioner; submit, an application for the rating together with his licence and a copy of the certificate prescribed in regulation 2.3 or in regulation 3.10, as the case may be to the Commissioner for the issue of the rating
(3)
3.10
Flight Test Conducted Outside the Republic (1) Where the test prescribed by regulation 3.9 or 3.9A is conducted outside the Republic by the nominee of an organisation approved for the purpose by the Commissioner, such organisation may issue a temporary certificate of competency, by virtue of which the applicant may exercise the privileges of the rating for a period of 30 days as if the rating has already been issued to him by the Commissioner. The organisation which issues a temporary certificate of competency in terms of subregulation (1) shall submit the original thereof to the Commissioner and furnish a copy of the certificate to the pilot after he has successfully completed the flight test and passed the examination.
(2)
3.12
Instrument Ratings (1) An applicant for an instrument rating who is not the holder of a multiengine class rating (aeroplane) shall (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) submit to the Commissioner a duly completed application form, his pilots licence and the prescribed fee; be the holder of a valid pilots licence; be the holder of a valid general certificate of competency in radiotelephony; have completed not less than 100 hours of flight time as pilotin-command, not less than 50 hours of which shall be hours flown cross-country by day or night; have completed not less than 40 hours of instrument time, of which(i) (ii) not less than 10 hours shall have been completed under instruction; and not more than 20 hours may be completed under instruction on simulators approved by the Commissioner: Provided that if the applicant has satisfactorily completed a course of approved training he shall have completed at least 30 hours of instrument flying under instruction, not more than 20 hours of which may be done on such simulators: Provided further that if the applicant is a private pilot he shall also be the holder of a valid night flying rating;
(f)
satisfy the Commissioner in a written examination regarding his know ledge of(i) practical air navigation, including the use of aeronautical charts, or navigation by dead reckoning and by radio, and the use and adjustment of flight instruments; radio systems provided to aid navigation, approach and landing, the manner in which such systems are used in flight under IFR, the procedures associated therewith and the assessment of reliability under operational conditions of the indications obtained from such radio aids; elementary meteorology, the elementary principles of weather forecasting and the arrangements and procedures for the issue of aviation meteorological reports; IFR and flight planning in relation to air traffic services, aircraft performance and forecast meteorological conditions, including the estimation of time of arrival at points along a route, the fuel quantities required for a flight and the anticipation of such flight plan modification as may prove necessary owing to changes in flight conditions;
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(g)
pass a practical flight test within 24 months from the date of notification of having passed the required technical examinations and within the 30 days preceding the date of application, and such flight test shall be with an official examiner and shall be conducted solely by reference to instruments, including(i) (ii) (iii) the solving of simple problems of dead-reckoning navigation; the fixing of the aircrafts position; the execution of the communications procedure at a given airport and the execution of given track interceptions, for the departure, descent and approach procedures with the aid of navigational facilities, including an ILS, in a single-engined aeroplane or helicopter, as the case may be, or in a simulator approved by the Commissioner for instrument rating testing: Provided that where an ILS is not available, the Commissioner may, on submission to him by the applicant of a certificate issued by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor stating that the applicant is proficient in the execution of ILS approach procedures, exempt the applicant from such test; (iv) flight planning and mass and balance problems appropriate to the type of aircraft used for the test.
(2)
An applicant for an instrument rating who is the holder of a multiengine class rating (aeroplane) shall (a) (b) (c) comply with paragraphs (1)(a) to (g)(ii); pass the test prescribed in subparagraph (1)(g)(iii) in a multi engine aeroplane or in a simulator approved by the Commissioner for instrument rating testing; in a multi engine aeroplane or in a simulator approved by the Commissioner for instrument rating testing, demonstrate his ability to execute the procedures prescribed in paragraph (b), in such aeroplane at maximum permissible landing mass with one engine inoperative. an the (c), an
(2A)
(3)
An applicant for an instrument rating who is the holder of instrument rating in more than one category of aircraft shall pass practical flight test prescribed in subregulation (1)(g) or (2)(b) and as the case may be, in each category of aircraft for which instrument rating is sought. An applicant for the renewal of an instrument rating shall (a)
submit to the Commissioner a duly completed application form, his pilots licence and the prescribed fee;
(b)
satisfy the Commissioner that he has satisfactorily completed the practical flight test prescribed in paragraphs (1)(g) or (2)(b) and (c), as appropriate, within the 30 days [60 days in the case of a senior commercial or airline transport pilot (aeroplane)] immediately preceding the date of application. Provided that the holder of a helicopter and aeroplane instrument rating may renew his instrument rating in both categories by passing the practical flight test in one category if he has passed the practical flight test in the other category on the previous renewal of such instrument rating: Provided further that the holder of a multi engine class rating (aeroplane) may do the practical flight test in a single engine aeroplane on every alternate renewal of such instrument rating.
(4)
Should a candidate for the renewal of an instrument rating fail the test prescribed in subregulation (3) prior to the date of expiry of his instrument rating stated in his licence, such rating shall expire with effect from the date and time of the completion of the test. An applicant for the reissue of a lapsed instrument flight rating shall(a) (b) if a period of not more than five years has expired since the lapse of such rating comply with the requirements for the renewal thereof as set out in subregulation (3); if a period of more than five years has expired since lapse of such rating, comply with the requirements for the initial issue of such rating as set out in subregulation (1), except that the Commissioner may exempt the applicant from any or all of the prescribed written examinations.
(5)
3.13
Flight Instructor Ratings (1) An applicant for a flight instructors rating for aeroplanes, helicopters or gyroplanes, excluding turbo propeller and turbojet aeroplanes, shall (a) (b) (c) be the holder of a valid commercial pilots or higher licence; have completed an approved course of training; pass a written examination in(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) theory of flight; principles of flying instruction; navigation and meteorology; and the regulations made under the Act relating to the licensing requirements applicable to all pilots licences and ratings:
Provided that the above-mentioned subjects may be attempted only by a candidate who has passed the commercial pilots written examination;
(d)
(e)
submit to the Commissioner a certificate of competency signed by a Grade l or Grade II flight instructor in which it is certified that the applicant has attained the standard required for the rating being applied for; pass a practical flight instruction test conducted by an official examiner within 24 months from the date of notification of having passed the prescribed technical examinations and within the 30 days immediately preceding the application, in the case of an aeroplane in flight instruction (sequences 1 to 23, inclusive, and 25 to 27, inclusive of the flight instruction syllabus prescribed in Chapter 4) and in the case of a helicopter, instruction sequences 1 to 32, inclusive, of the flight instruction syllabus prescribed in Chapter 4A and flight instruction by night; and
(f) (1A)
submit an application for the rating together with his licence to the Commissioner for the issue of the rating.
An applicant for a flight instructors rating for aeroplanes, including turbo propeller aeroplanes and turbojet aeroplanes, shall in addition to the requirements set out in sub regulations (1) (a). (b), (c), (d) and (f). (a) pass a written examination in(i) (ii) (b) theory of high-altitude flight; and the application of aero-medicine to high-altitude flying; and
pass a practical flight instruction test conducted by an official examiner or by a person designated in writing by the Commissioner.
(2)
An applicant for a flight instructor type rating shall(a) in the case of piston engined aeroplanes with a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less(i) satisfactorily complete a flight instruction test conducted by a flight instructor Grade I or Grade II, who shall be the holder of the appropriate flight instructor type rating, or by a pilot designated in writing for such purpose by the Commissioner and present his flying logbook to such flying instructor or designated pilot who conducted the tests for the insertion of the endorsement mentioned in subregulation (3) (a); and in respect of such endorsement, submit to the Commissioner within 30 days a certificate of competency,
(ii)
(b)
in the case of aircraft requiring a type rating by name submit to the Commissioner a certificate of competency signed by a flight instructor Grade I or Grade II, who shall be the holder of the appropriate flight instructor type rating, or by a pilot designated in writing for such purpose by the Commissioner, wherein it is certified that such applicant has satisfactorily completed a flight instruction test with such instructor or designated pilot and that the flight instructor or designated pilot is satisfied that such applicant is capable of giving flight instruction on the type of aircraft for which a rating is being sought.
(3)
(a) The endorsement referred to in subregulation (2) (a) shall be made in the column marked Details of flight and remarks and shall contain the following (i) (ii) an indication of the type of aeroplane, and also the registration marks; the words Complied with as instructor;
(iii)
the signature of the flying instructor or designated pilot;
(iv) (v) (b)
the licence number of the flying instructor or designated pilot; and the date
For the purpose of paragraph (a) the words Complied with as instructor shall mean that the applicant concerned has satisfactorily completed a flight instruction test with such flight instructor or designated pilot concerned and that such flight instructor or designated pilot is satisfied that such applicant is capable of giving flight instruction on the type of aeroplane endorsed.
(4)
An applicant for the renewal of a flight instructor rating shall submit to the Commissioner(a) (b) his licence: his logbook showing that he has given not less than 20 hours flight instruction (excluding cross-country flight instruction) during the 12 months immediately preceding the date of application; in the case of a flight instructor Grade III applying for the renewal of his rating, and for a renewal in every third year thereafter, a certificate of competency signed by an official examiner, wherein it is certified that the applicant has satisfactorily completed the practical flight instruction tests prescribed in subregulation (1)(e), within the 30 days immediately preceding the date of application; and in the case of a flight instructor Grade I or Grade II applying for a first renewal of his rating, and for a renewal in every third year thereafter, a certificate of competency signed by an official examiner, wherein it certified that the applicant has satisfactorily completed the practical flight instruction tests prescribed in subregulation (1)(e), within the 30 days immediately preceding the date of application.
(c)
(d)
(5)
The holder of a flight instructor rating Grade III applying for regarding to Grade II shall(a) (b) be the holder of a valid commercial pilots licence with an instrument rating or a valid higher licence and have given not less than 200 hours elementary flight instruction; submit to the Commissioner a report, signed by a flight instructor Grade I or Grade II, indicating (i) (ii) (c) (d) his proficiency in flight instruction and the standard of flying attained by his pupils; and that he has attained the standard required for the rating being applied for;
pass the practical flight instruction tests prescribed in subregulation (1)(e); and submit an application for the rating, together with his licence, to the Commissioner for the issue of the rating.
(6)
The holder of a flight instructor rating applying(a) for the inclusion of a multi-engined aeroplane to the rating shall(i) for the inclusion in this rating of a multi-engine aeroplane, undergo a practical flight test with an official examiner in a multi engine aeroplane with variable pitch propellers, adjustable flaps and re tractable undercarriage; or for the inclusion in this rating of a multi-rotor helicopter, shall undergo a practical flight test with an official examiner in a multi-rotor helicopter: and submit a certificate of competency to the Commissioner wherein the examiner certifies that the applicant has satisfactorily completed the flight test and is capable of giving flight instruction on multi-engine aeroplanes or multi-rotor helicopters, as the case may be;
(ii) (iii)
(b)
for regarding from Grade II to Grade I shall(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) be the holder of an airline transport pilots licence and, in the case of helicopters, also be the holder of an instrument rating; have given not less than 1 600 hours of flight instruction; have had at least 3 years flight instruction experience; pass the practical flight instruction tests prescribed in subregulation 1 (e): Provided that where such rating is sought for aeroplanes, such test shall be done on a multi-engine aeroplane; and submit an application for the rating, together with his licence, to the Commissioner for the issue of the rating.
(v)
The holder of a flight instructor rating in the South African Air Force may, on having satisfactorily completed a practical flight instruction test with an official examiner, be granted a flight instructor rating under these regulations by the Commissioner. (7) An applicant for the reissue of a lapsed instructors rating shall(a) if a period of not more than two years has expired since the lapse of such rating, pass a practical flight instruction test conducted by an official examiner or a Grade I flight instructor in(i) (ii) flight instruction by day (sequences 1 to 23 and 26 to 27 of the flight instruction syllabus as prescribed in Chapter 4); and flight instruction by night;
(b)
(c)
if a period of more than two years but not more than five years has expired since the lapse of such rating comply with the requirements for the renewal thereof as set out in subregulation (1)(e); if a period of more than five years has expired since the lapse of such rating, comply with the requirements for the initial issue of such rating as sent out in sub-regulation (1), except that the Commissioner may exempt the applicant from any or all of the prescribed written examinations; on the satisfactory completion of such flight test the applicant will be issued with a Grade III flight instructors rating and after he has given 50 hours or more of flight instruction he shall be required to pass a practical flight instruction test as prescribed in subregulation (1) before the original grade flight instructors rating will be reissued.
3.13A Official Flight Examiners Ratings An applicant for the issue or renewal of an official flight examiners rating shall meet such conditions as defined by the Commissioner. 3.14 Night Flight Ratings An applicant for a night flight rating shall submit to the Commissioner (a) his licence;
(b) his logbook or a certificate signed by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor who is either the holder of a valid instrument rating or is a person who, in the case of helicopters, has been designated for the purpose in writing by the Commissioner, in which logbook or certificate it is certified that the applicant has received not less than 10 hours instrument instruction, of which five hours may have been acquired on simulators approved for such purpose by the Commissioner, given by an instructor who is the holder of a valid instrument rating or an approved flight simulator instructor, as the case may be, or a person who has been designated as such for such purpose in writing by the Commissioner and that within 60 days immediately preceding the date of application he or she has satisfactorily completed not less than five take-off's by night and five landings by night in aeroplanes or, in the case of helicopters, has satisfactorily completed not less than 15 circuits (including the take-off and landing) in a helicopter by night as the sole occupant within 30 days immediately preceding the date of application and has in addition completed a dual triangular cross-country flight by night of not less than 100 nautical miles with a radius of not less than 50 nautical miles from base along any sector of the flight, in the category;
(c) a practical instrument flight test report signed by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor who shall be the holder of the appropriate type rating with either a valid instrument rating or who, in the case of helicopters, has been designated for the purpose in writing by the Commissioner, and in which report it is certified that the candidate has satisfactorily demonstrated his ability to execute manoeuvres including climb, various rates of turns, compass and timed turns, straight and level, with sole reference to instruments, and recovery from unusual attitudes with the aid of instruments, and recovery from unusual attitudes with the aid of instruments only, in the category of aircraft for which such a rating is applied for. 3.15 Tug Pilot Ratings An applicant for a tug pilot shall submit to the Commissioner(a) his licence; (b) a certificate signed by a Grade 1 or Grade II flight instructor that he has completed not less than 60 hours flight time as pilot-in-command and that he is suitable to undertake such duties. 3.16 Safety Pilot Ratings An applicant for a safety pilot rating shall submit to the Commissioner(a) (b) his licence; a certificate signed by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor stating that he has completed not less than 100 hours flight time as pilot-in command, that he is competent to control the aircraft from the co-pilot seat and that he is capable of undertaking such duties in the category of aircraft for which such a rating is applied for.
3.16C Agricultural Pilots Ratings An Applicant for an Agricultural Pilots Rating shall(a) have completed not less than 300 hours flight time, which shall include at least 30 hours flight practice in aerial application, which flight practice shall take place under the supervision of a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor or a person designated for the purpose by the Commissioner, and who shall be the holder of the appropriate category, type and agricultural pilots rating: Provided that the 30 hours flight practice shall include at least 10 hours dual instruction; in the case of aeroplanes, pass a practical flight test with an official examiner or a person designated for the purpose by the Commissioner, in(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b)
short field take-offs and landings; cross-wind and down-wind take-offs and landings; flight manoeuvres at minimum air-speed; accelerated stalls;
(v)
maximum-rate turns;
(vi) (vii) (vii) (ix) (x) (xi) (xii)
spin recoveries entered into inside of and from outside of turns; precision landings, normal, down-wind and cross-wind; exit from application area, turn around and re-entry to application area under various wind conditions; simulated application runs at appropriate heights; entry to and exit from application area over obstructions; avoidance of obstructions; emergency procedures:
Provided that such tests shall be carried out in an aircraft that is equipped with dispensing apparatus and that is certificated for agricultural aerial applications; (c) in the case of helicopters, pass a practical flight test with an official examiner or a person designated for the purpose by the Commissioner, in(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii) (ix) (x) (xi) cross-wind and down-wind take-offs and landings; take-offs and landings at maximum certificated mass for aerial applications; hover flight under cross-wind and tail-wind conditions; low-speed down-wind flight with turns into wind and turns back to down-wind flight; maximum rate turns; simulated application runs at appropriate heights; exit from application area, turn around and re-entry to application area under various wind conditions; entry to and exit from application area over obstructions; emergency quick-stops for low-level autorotation; avoidance of obstructions; emergency procedures:
Provided that such tests shall be carried out in an aircraft that is equipped with dispensing apparatus and that is certificated for agricultural aerial applications; (d) for issue of the rating, submit to the Commissioner (i) (ii) his licence; and his logbook
CHAPTER 4 ANR's
FLIGHT INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS (AEROPLANE) SEQUENCES 1. 2. Cockpit layout Cockpit drill, controls, gauges, fire appliances, etc. Preparation for flight. a) External check, chocks, operation of safety harness or belt, precautions before starting b) Starting c) Cockpit check d) Engine run up or test 3. 4. Air experience The aim of this sequence is to instill confidence in a pupil who has previously flown very little or not at all, as well as to impart knowledge Effect of controls (a) (b) (c) 5. 6. 7. Momentary application of each control Slipstream effect on controls. Further effect on controls application and retention in applied position for an appreciable period of rudder and aileron.
Taxiying. Straight and level flight Climbing (a) (b) With flaps up. With flaps down.
8.
Descending. (a) (b) (c) Flaps up Flaps and undercarriage down Engine assisted
9.
Stalling. a) From straight glide b) With engine delivering cruising power. c) With engine delivering reduced power (as in the engine-assisted approach). d) After engine failure while climbing steeply at full throttle. e) With flaps and undercarriage down
10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
Medium turns. (a) (b) Descending turns, Climbing turns.
Take off,including vital action drill and engine failure on take-off. Approach and landing including going round again. Spinning (a) (b) Full spin Incipient spin.
15.
First solo, before flying solo a pupil shall, in addition to being proficient in sequences 1 to 14, be able to make a reasonable effort at the exercise of "Elementary forced landing", i.e. the ability to execute and approach on a large open space without the use of a side slip, and have had sequence 23 demonstrated to him. He shall also have completed a minimum of six hours of dual flight instruction. Sideslipping. (a) (b) (c) (d) Effect of controls in a sideslip. The slip into wind. The slip across wind. The slip in a turn.
16.
17.
Steep turns (a) (b) With engine Without engine.
18.
Instrument flying (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h) (i) (j) (k) Refreshing of pupil on all instruments without hood or other device in operation Straight and level flight Climbing Descending. Turns. Climbing and descending turns. Turns on to courses. Taking off Going round again. Recovery from spin Recovery from unusual attitudes
19.
Low flying-Emphasis on regulations governing low flying. (a) (b) (c) Effect of drift. Effect of wind on ground speed. Effect of wind in reducing apparent skids and slips in turns
20. 21.
Cross-wind take off and landing Precautionary landing (a) (b) Inspection of selected landing area. Approach and landing.
22. 23. 24. 25.
Forced landing Action in event of fire (applicable to type). Multi-engine aeroplane - Asymmetric flight. Acrobatics. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) Loop. Stall turn. Half roll. Slow roll. Barrel roll. Half roll off top of loop. Inverted gliding.
26. 27.
Night flying. Navigation (a) (b) Dual, triangular, cross country flight of not less than 100 nautical miles. Solo, triangular, cross-country, with full stop landings at two airports away from base of not less than 100 nautical miles and with a radius not exceeding 100 nautical miles from the base, along any sector of the flight. Test cross country flight, accompanied by the flight instructor conducting the test (who shall not, unless otherwise authorised in writing by the Commissioner, be the instructor from whom the pilot undergoing the test has received his practical training) of not less than 200 nautical miles and not less than 50 nautical miles distant from the point of departure, including a full stop landing at two airports, other than the base. At least one of the airports from which the aircraft takes off for this flight shall be an airport at which an air traffic services unit is in operation and at which a flight plan shall be submitted. During this flight test the applicant shall satisfy the flight instructor that he is able to(i) (ii) (iii) intercept QDR/QDM and/or VOR radials; utilise navigational and radio aids as applicable; adhere to flight plan in terms of track keeping and maintenance of speed and vertical position.
(c)
DEFINITIONS & ABBREVIATIONS
CONTENTS: 1.00.1 1.00.2 Definitions. Part 1 3 Abbreviations .. Part 1 35
1.00.1 In these Regulations any word or expression to which a meaning has been assigned in the Act shall have that meaning and, unless the context otherwise indicates "accelerate-stop distance available" means the length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway, if such stopway is declared available and is capable of bearing the mass of the aeroplane under the prevailing operating conditions; "accident" for the purposes of the definition of "accident" in section 1 of the Act, includes an ocurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have disembarked, during which (a) a person is fatally or seriously injured as result of (i) (ii) (iii) being in the aircraft; direct contact with any part of the aircraft, including parts which have become detached or are released from the aircraft ; or direct exposure to jet blast, rotor or propeller wake, except when the injuries are from natural causes, self-inflicted or inflicted by other persons, or when the injuries are to towaways hiding outside the areas normally available to passengers and flight crew; or
(b) the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure which (i) (ii) adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft; and would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component, except for engine failure or damage when the damage is limited to the engine, its cowlings or accessories, or for damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennae, tyres, brakes, fairings, small dents or puncture holes in the aircraft skin; or
(c) the aircraft is still missing after an official search has been terminated and the wreckage has not been located; or (d) the aircraft is in a place where it is completely inaccessible; "accredited representative" means an authorised officer or authorised person designated by the Commissioner in terms of Regulation 12.01.6; "acoustical change" means any voluntary change in type design which may increase the noise levels of the aircraft; "acrobatic flight" means manoeuvres intentionally performed by the pilot-incommand of an aircraft and involving an abrupt change in attitude of the aircraft, an abnormal attitude or an abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight; "acts of unlawful interference" means sabotage, unlawful seizure of aircraft or any other act by a person which endangers other persons, property or the aircraft; "additional cabin crew member" means a cabin crew member carried over and above the minimum number required by subpart 2 of Part 91,
Air Law GEN 39-45 & 53,54 Revision : 1/1/2001 Page 62 FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE Version 4
"additional flight deck crew member" means a flight deck crew member carried over and above the minimum number required by subpart 2 of Part 91, "adjustable-pitch propeller" means a propeller, the pitch setting of which can be conveniently changed in the course of ordinary field maintenance, but which cannot be changed when the propeller is rotating; "advisor" means an authorised person designated by the Commissioner in terms of Regulation 12.01.1; "advisory airspace" means an airspace of defined dimensions, within which an air traffic advisory service is available; "advisory area" means a designated area within a flight information region where air traffic advisory services are available; "advisory route" means a designated route along which air traffic advisory services are available; "aerodrome" means an aerodrome as defined in the Act, and for the purposes of these Regulations includes a heliport; aerodrome control service" means an air traffic control service provided for the control of aerodrome traffic; aerodrome control tower" means an air traffic control unit established to provide an air traffic control service; "aerodrome flight information service" means a flight information service provided in the area of an aerodrome; "aerodrome manager" means the person appointed as aerodrome manager in terms of Part 139 by the holder of an aerodrome licence; "aerodrome operating minima" means the limits of usability of an aerodrome for either take-off or landing, usually expressed in terms of visibility or runway visual range, decision altitude/height or minimum descent altitude/height and cloud conditions; aerodrome operational area" means (a) excluding restricted areas and aprons, the movement area at an aerodrome and its associated strips and safety areas; and (b) any ground installation or facility provided at an aerodrome for the safety of aircraft operations; "aerodrome traffic" means all traffic on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome and all aircraft in, entering or leaving an aerodrome traffic circuit; "aerodrome traffic area" means an airspace of defined dimensions at an aerodrome where an aerodrome flight information centre is in operation;
"aerodrome traffic zone" means a controlled airspace at an aerodrome where aerodrome control, established for the protection of aerodrome traffic, is in operation as published in an AIP, AIC or NOTAM and designated as an aerodrome traffic zone; "Aeronautical Information Circular" means a circular containing information which does not qualify for the origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIP but which relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical, admmistrative or legislative matters, issued by the Commissioner in terms of Regulation 11.01.2; "Aeronautical Information Publication" means a publication containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation, issued by the Commissioner in terms of Regulation 1 1.01.2; "aeronautical information regulation and control" means a system aimed at advanced notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances which require significant changes in operating practices; "aeroplane" means a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft deriving its lift in flight mainly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain futed under given conditions of flight; "AIP Supplement" means the temporary changes to the information contained in the AIP which are published by means of special pages; "aircraft" for the purposes of these Regulations, means an aircraft as defined in the Act, including its engines, propellers, rotor, components, parts, equipment, instruments, accessories and materials; "aircraft component" means any component part of an aircraft including a complete airframe or power plant and any operational or emergency equipment fitted to or provided in an aircraft; "aircraft stand taxilane" means a portion of an apron designated as a taxi-way and intended to provide access to aircraft stands only; "airframe" means fuselage, empennage and wings or rotors; "air navigation infrastructure" means an air navigation infrastructure as defrned in section 1 of the Air Traffic and Navigation Services Company Act, 1993 (Act No 45 of 1993); "air service" means an air service as defined in section 1 of the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990 (Act No 1 15 of 1990); "airship" means a power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft; "air traffic" means all aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvering area of an aerodrorne, "air traffic advisory service" means a service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so far as practical between aircraft which are operating on IFR flight plans;
"air traffic control clearance" means an authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit; "air traffic controller" means the holder of a valid air traffic service licence and valid rating which permits such holder to provide an air traffic control service, "air traffic control service" means a service provided for the purpose of (a) preventing collisions (i) (ii) between aircraft; and on the manoeuvring area between aircraft and obstructions; and
(b) expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic; "air traffic control unit" means an aerodrome control tower, an approach control office or an area control centre or a combination thereof; "air traffic service" means an aerodrome control service, an approach control service, an area control service, a flight information service, an air traffic advisory service or an alerting service, "air traffic service assistant" means the holder of an air traffic service licence and rating who provides (a) assistant services to an air traffic controller; or (b) co-ordination services, clearance delivery services, flight information services or aerodrome flight information services, "air traffic service flight plan" means specified information, relating to the intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft, which is provided to an air traffic service unit; "air traffic service inspector" means an air traffic service inspector designated in terms of section 5(4)(a) of the Act; "air traffic service personnel" means air traffic controllers and air traffic service assistants; "air traffic service reporting office" means an air traffic service unit established for the purpose of receiving reports concerning air traffic services and flight plans submitted before the departure of an aircraft from an aerodrome; "air traffic service unit" means an air traffic service control unit, flight information centre or air traffic service reporting office; "airway" means a control area or a portion thereof established in the form of a corridor equipped with radio navigation aids; "airworthiness data" means any information necessary to ensure that an aircraft or aircraft component can be maintained in an airworthy condition; "airworthiness standards" includes maintenance standards;
"airworthy" means, when used in relation to an aircraft, that the aircraft is serviceable and meets all the requirements prescribed for the issuing of a certificate of airworthiness and such other requirements as have been prescribed for the continuing validity of such a certificate; "aisle" means a longitudinal passageway between seats; "alerting service" means a service provided to notify and assist the appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and to assist such organisations as appropriate; "all weather operations" means any take-off, en route or landing operations in IMC and operated in accordance with IFR; alternate aerodrome" means an aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at the aerodrome of intended landing, and includes a take-off alternate aerodrome, an en route alternate aerodrome and a destination alternate aerodrome; "altitude" means the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from mean sea level; "amateur-built aircraft" means an aircraft with not more than four seats and a maximum certified mass of 2 100 kilograms or less, of which more than 51 per cent of the airframe has been constructed and assembled exclusively for non-commercial purposes; "amphibious aeroplane" means an aeroplane designed and constructed to take-of from and land on land surfaces as well as water surfaces; "amphibious aircraft" means amphibious aeroplanes and amphibious helicopters; "amphibious helicopter" means a helicopter equipped with wheels, skids, floats or other devices enabling it to land and take-off from land and the surface of water;
"appliance" means any instrument, mechanism, equipment, part, apparatus, appurtenance or accessory, including communications equipment, which is used or intended to be used in operating or controlling an aircraft, is installed in or attached to the aircraft, and is not part of an airframe, engine or propeller; "approach control office" means an air traffic control unit established to provide an air traffic control service in the controlled airspace for which it is responsible, to controlled flights arriving at or departing from one or more aerodromes; "approach control service" means an air traffic control service for arriving or departing controlled nights in controlled airspaces; "appropriate authority" (a) means any institution, body or person in a State or territory which, on behalf of that State or territory carries out the provisions of the Convention; or (b) if such Convention does not apply to a State or territory, means the institution, body or person in that State or territory which on behalf of the State or territory, performs the functions which are performed by an institution, body or person contemplated in paragraph (a),and which is recognised as such by the Commissioner; "approved" unless used with reference to another person, means approved in writing by the Commissioner; "apron" means a defined area on a land aerodrome intended to accommodate aeroplanes for the purpose of loading or unloading passengers or cargo, refueling, parking or maintenance; "apron taxiway" means a portion of a taxiway system located on an apron and intended to provide a through taxi route across the apron; area control centre" means an air traffic control unit established to provide an air traffic control service to controlled flights in the control area for which it is responsible; "area control service" means an air traffic control service for controlled flights in control areas; assistant service" means a service of assisting licensed air traffic controllers to discharge air traffic service related duties; "automatic activation device" means an automatic altitude and descent rate activated device designated to self activate a parachute; "aviation recreation" means microlighting, gliding, ballooning, gyroplaning, hang gliding, or parachuting or involvement in aviation events; "balloon" means a non-power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft, and for the purposes of Part 102, includes an airship; base jumps" means a parachute descent from an object other than an aircraft;
"break" for the purposes of Part 65, means a period not exceeding 60 minutes within the period of operational duty, during which an air traffic controller is released from all duties; "cabin crew member" means a flight crew member, other than a flight deck crew member, licensed in terms of Part 64; "cargo aircraft" means any aircraft, other than a passenger aircraft, which is carrying goods or property; "cause" for the purpose of Part 12, means any action, omission, event, condition or any combination thereof, which leads to an accident or incident; "ceiling" means the height above the surface of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20 000 feet covering more than half the sky; "child" means a passenger who has reached his or her second but not his or her twelfth birthday; "Class C airspace" means that portion of the airspace classified in terms of Regulation 112.02.2; "Class D airspace" means that portion of the airspace classified in terms of Regulation 112.02.2; "Class E airspace" means that portion of the airspace classified in terms of Regulation 112.02.2; "Class G airspace" means that portion of the airspace classified in terms of Regulation 112.02.2; "Class A helicopter-load combination" means a helicopter-load combination in which the external load can not move freely, or be jettisoned, and which does not extend below the landing gear; "Class B helicopter-load combination" means a helicopter-load combination in which the external load is capable of being jettisoned and which is lifted free of land or water during the helicopter external-load operation; "Class C helicopter-load combination" means a helicopter-load combination in which the external load is capable of being jettisoned and which remains in contact with land or water during the helicopter external-load operation; "Class D helicopter-load combination" means a helicopter-load combination, other than a Class A, Class B or Class C helicopter-load combination, which has been approved by the Commissioner for a specific helicopter external-load operation; "Class I product" means a complete aircraft, aircraft engine or propeller, which (a) has been type certificated in accordance with the provisions of these Regulations and for which the South African Specifications or type certificate data sheets have been issued; or
(b) is identical to a type certificated product referred to in paragraph (a) in all respects except as in otherwise acceptable to the appropriate authority of the importing State; "Class II product" means (a) a major component of a Class I product, including wings, fuselages, empennage assemblies, landing gears, power transmissions, control surfaces and installed equipment, the failure of which will jeopardise the safety of a Class product; or (b) a part, material or appliance, approved and manufactured under the TSO system as prescribed in subpart 12 of Part 21, "Class III product" means any part or component which is not a Class I or a Class IIproduct and includes parts; "clearance delivery service" means a service specifically dedicated to the issuing of air traffic control clearances to pilots on behalf of one or more air traffic service units; close corporation" means a close corporation as defined in section 1 of the Close Corporations Act, 1984 (Act No 69 of 1984); "cloud ceiling" means the height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud situated below 20 000 feet and covering more than half the sky; "commercial air transport helicopter" means, for the purpose of Part 127, a helicopter engaged in a commercial air transport operation; "commercial air transport operation" means an air service as defined in section 1 of the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990 (Act No 115 of 1990), including (a) the classes of air service referred to in Regulation 2 of the Domestic Air Services Regulations, 1991; and (b) the classes of international air services referred to in Regulation 2 of the International Air Services Regulations, 1994; "communication failure procedure" means a procedure as published in the AIP; "company" means a company as defined in section 1 of the Companies Act, 1913 (Act No 61 of 1913); "composite structures or components" means aircraft components which are manufactured of fibres embedded in a polymer matrix; "condition" which may be imposed by the Commissioner or any person, body or institution as a functionary, on, and which must be complied with by, any other person, body or institution in case of applications for approval, consent or permission in connection with any matter, object or activity, or in any other case with regard to anything else, means, subject to other relevant provisions of the Act, these Regulations or any other applicable and relevant law, a condition Air Law GEN 39-45 & 53,54 Revision : 1/1/2001 Page 69 FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE Version 4
(a) which is clear, reasonable, practically executable and appropriate to the relevant matter; (b) which is calculated to achieve the particular objectives of the relevant empowermg provision, read with the Act and these Regulations and any other relevant and appropriate law, and, in general, the promotion of civil aviation safety and the public interest; (c) which may during the period of validity of the matter in respect of which the condition is imposed (if any) from time to time be amended on written application of the person, body or institution in respect of which the condition applies; (d) which provides that if the functionary imposing the condition is satisfied, after the person, body or institution referred to in paragraph (c) has been afforded a reasonable opportunity to be heard, that a contravention or failure to comply with the condition or a provision thereof has occurred, the functionary may, in his, her or its discretion, permit the person, body or institution within a stated period to cease the contravention or rectify the failure to comply, to the satisfaction of the functionary, or to notify that person, body or institution that the condition is deemed as having lapsed and that such a person, body or institution shall forthwith cease carrying out any activity in respect of which the lapsed condition applied; and which is to be reduced to writing, delivered to the other person, body or institution in a manner ensuring proper receipt thereof, and recorded by the functionary imposing the condition in an appropriate manner; "configuration" means a particular combination of the positions of the moveable elements which affect the aerodynamic characteristics of the aircraft; "contaminated runway" means a runway of which more than 25 per cent of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered with (a) surface water more than three millimeters deep; (b) slush or loose snow, equivalent to more than three millimeters of water; (c) snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further compression and will hold together or break into lumps if picked up; or (d) ice,including wet ice; "control area" means a controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified height above the surface wilthout an upper limit, unless an upper limit is specified as published in an AIP, AIC or NOTAM and designated as a control area; "controlled airspace" means an airspace or defined dimensions within which an air traffic control service is provided to IFR fights and to VFR fights in accordance with the airspace classification as prescribed in Regulation 112.02.2; "controlled flight" means any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance ; "control system" means a system by which the flight path, attitude or propulsive force of an aircraft is changed, including the flight, engine and propeller controls, the related system controls and the associated operating mechanisms; "control zone" means as controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface to a specified upper limit as published in an AIP, AIC or NOTAM;
conveyance by air" means conveyance in an aircraft in flight; "co-ordination service" means a service of co-ordinating the discharge of air traffic service related duties by a licensed air traffic service assistant; "co-pilot" means a licensed pilot serving in any piloting capacity other than as pilotin-command but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight instruction, "critical phases of flight" includes all ground operations involving taxi, take-off, climb to cruise up to 10 000 feet and approach from cruise below 10 000 feet; "cross country flight" when used in connection with the acquisition of flight experience required for a pilot licence, means a flight between a point of departure and a point of landing not less than 20 nautical miles apart "cull" includes the selection, counting and herding of game and livestock; "current flight plan" means the air traffic service flight plan, including changes, if any, brought about by subsequent clearances; "damp runway" means a runway of which the surface is not dry and on which the moisture does not give the runway a shiny appearance; "dangerous goods" means articles or substances which are capable of posing significant risk to health, safety or property when conveyed by air; "dangerous goods accident" means an accident associated with and related to the conveyance of dangerous goods by air; "dangerous goods incident" means an incident, other than a dangerous goods accident, associated with and related to the conveyance of dangerous goods by air, and for the purposes of Part 92, includes injury to a person, property damage, fire, breakage, spillage, leakage of fluid or radiation or other evidence that the integrity of the packaging has not been maintained or which seriously jeopardises the aircraft or its occupants; "date of application" when used in connection with the issuing, renewal or reissuing of a license, certificate or rating, means the date on which the application is received in the prescribed form by the Commissioner; "day" means the period of time from 15 minutes before sunrise to 15 minutes after sunset, sunrise and sunset being as given in the publication "Times of Sunrise, Sunset and Local Apparent Noon of the South African Astronomical Observatory'' or in a similar publication issued by a recognised astronomical observatory; "decision altitude/height" means a specified altitude or height in a precision approach at which a missed approach is initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established;
"defined point" (a) in relation to a defined point after take-off, means the point, within the take-off and initial climb phase, before which the helicopter's ability to continue the flight safely, with one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required; and (b) in relation to a defined point before landing, means the point, within the approach and landing phase, after which the helicopter's ability to continue the flight safely, with one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required; "designated aviation medical examiner" means an aviation medical examiner designated by the Commissioner in terms of Regulation 61.00.4; "destination alternate aerodrome" means an aerodrome specified in the air traffic service flight plan to which a flight may proceed when it becomes impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing; "disembarkation" means the leaving of an aircraft after landing, except by flight crew or passengers continuing on the next stage of the same through flight; "Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Aviation Accident and Incident Investigation, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-AH" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Aerodromes and Heliports, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-ATRS" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Aeronautical Information and Related Services, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-AMEL" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Licensing, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-AMO" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Aircraft Maintenance Organisations, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-AR" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Airworthiness Requirements, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-ARM" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Aircraft Registration and Marking, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-ARO" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Aviation recreation Organisations, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;
"Document SA-CATS-ATO" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Aviation Training Organisations, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-ATS" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Air Traffic Services, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-ATSPL" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Air Traffic Service Personnel Licensing, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-DG" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to the Conveyance of Dangerous Goods, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-DO" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Design Organisations, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-ENVIRO" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Environmental Protection, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-FCL" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Flight Crew Licensing, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-GMR" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to General Maintenance Rules, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-MORG" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Manufacturing Organisations, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-MR" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Medical Requirements, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-OPS 91" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to General Operating and Flight Rules, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-OPS 98" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Operation of Powered Paragliders, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-OPS 100" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Operation of Gyroplanes, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;
"Document SA-CATS-OPS 101" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Operation of Unmanned Free Balloons, Kits and Remotely Piloted Aircraft, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-OPS 102" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Operation of Free Balloons and Airships, which Is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-OPS 103" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Operation of Microlight Aeroplanes, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-OPS 104" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Operation of Gliders, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-OPS 105" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Operation of Parachutes, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-OPS 106" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Operation of Hang Gliders, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-OPS 121" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Air Transport Operations of Large Aeroplanes, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-OPS 121" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation of Technical Standards relating to Air Transport Operations Helicopters, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-OPS 133" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Helicopter, External-load Operations, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-OPS 135" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Air Transport Operations of Small Aeroplanes, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-OPS 137" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Agricultural Operations, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act; "Document SA-CATS-OPS 138" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Emergency Medical Service Operations, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;
dry operating mass" means the total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation, excluding all usable fuel and traffic load, and includes (a) flight crew members and flight crew member baggage; (b) catering and removable passenger service equipment; and (c) portable water and lavatory chemicals; "dry runway" means a dry runway which is neither wet nor contaminated, and includes those paved runways which have been specially prepared with grooves or porous pavement and maintained to retain "effectively dry" braking action even when moisture is present; "elevated heliport" means a heliport located on a raised structure on land; "embarkation" means the boarding of an aircraft for the purpose of commencing a flight, except by such flight crew or passengers who have embarked on a previous stage of the same through-flight; "emergency locator transmitter" means equipment which broadcast distinctive signals on designated frequencies and, depending on application, may either sense a crash and operate automatically or may be manually activated; "emergency parachute" means a parachute assembly designed and intended to be used by persons in an emergency; "emission charge" means any voluntary change in type of design of the aircraft or engine which may increase fuel venting or engine emission; en route alternate aerodrome" means an aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land after experiencing an abnormal or emergency condition while en route; "en route safe altitude" means an altitude which will ensure a separation height of at least 1 500 feet above the highest obstacle located within five nautical miles of the aircraft in flight; "ensure" in relation to any person, body or institution and in respect of any matter, activity, process, condition, requirement or other person, or anything else, means to take, considering the nature and context of the provision requiring the ensuring, and any other appropriate legal provisions, in good faith, all necessary, and all reasonably incidental and practically executable preliminary, precedent and precautionary steps in order to be able and prepared to take, and aftewards to take, all necessary and reasonably incidental and practically executable steps, to substantially achieve the clear particular objectives of the provision requiring the ensuring and, in general, the promotion of civil aviation safety and the public interest, "estimated time of arrival" (a) in respect of IFR flights, means the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended that an instrument approach procedure will be commenced or, if no navigation aid is associated with the aerodrome, the time at which the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome; and
(b) in respect of VFR flights, means the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome; "examiner" means an authorised officer or authorised person designated by the Commissioner in terms of Regulation 61.01.11; "extended range operations" means flights conducted over a route that contains a point further than one hour flying time at the approved one-engine inoperative cruise speed, under standard conditions in still air, from an adequate aerodrome; "extended range operations with twin-engine aircraft" means flights conducted with a twin-engine aircraft, over a route that contain a point further than one hour flying time at the approved one-engine inoperative cruise speed, under standard conditions in still air, from an adequate aerodrome; "facility" for the purpose of Part 172, means any facility used for providing an air traffic control service; "final approach fix" means the fix from which the final approach (IFR) to an aerodrome is executed and which identifies the begining of the final approach segment; "first aid" means first aid appropriate to the type of aircraft, and includes (a) the recognition and treatment of food poisoning; (b) the recognition and treatment of contamination of the skin and eyes by aviation fuel and other fluids; (c) the recognition and treatment of hypoxia and hyperventilation; (d) first aid associated with survival training, appropriate to the routes to be operated; and (e) other related aeromedical aspects; "flight" means from the moment an aircraft commences its take-off until the moment it completes its next landing, "flight" means from the moment an aircraft commences its take-off until the moment it completes its next landing. "flight crew member" means a person licensed in terms of Part 61, 63 or 64 and assigned by an operator to duty on an aircraft during flight; "flight deck crew member" means a licensed flight crew member charged by the operator of an aircraft with duties essential to the operation of an aircraft; "flight information centre" means an air traffic service unit established to provide flight information services and alerting services; "flight information region" means an airspace of defined dimensions within which flight information services and alerting services are provided; "flight information service" means a service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights; "flight instructor" means a pilot who is the holder of the appropriate flight instructor rating,
"flight level" means a surface of constant atmospheric pressure, expressed as a number of hundreds of feet, relating to a specific pressure datum of 1 013,2 millimetrs; "flight recorder" means a flight data recorder and a cockpit voice recorder; "flight time" means the total time occupied in flight together with the time occupied from the moment the aircraft first moves under its own power for the purposes of taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight; "flight visibility" means the visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight; "glider" means a non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft other than a hang glider, deriving its lift in flight mainly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight, and for the purposes of these Regulations, includes a powered glider; "ground visibility" means the visibility at an aerodrome; "gyroplane" means a heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of the air on one or more rotors which rotate freely on substantially vertical axes; "handicapped passenger" means a passenger who is physically or mentally handicapped due to illness, injury, congenital malfunction or other temporary or permanent incapacity or disability; "hang glider" means a non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft capable of being carried, foot launched and landed solely by the energy and use of the pilot's legs, having (a) a rigid primary structure with pilot weight shift as the primary method of control; or (b) a rigid primary structure with movable aerodynamic surfaces as the primary method of control in at least two axes, and for the purposes of Part 106, includes a paraglider; "hazard" means any act, omission, event or condition or a combination thereof that could lead to or result in an accident or incident; "heavier-than-air aircraft" means any aircraft deriving its lift in flight mainly from aerodynamic forces; "height" means (a) the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from a specific datum; (b) the vertical dimension of an object; "helicopter" means a heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight mainly by the reactions of the air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes; "helicopter-load combination" means the combination of a helicopter and an external-load, including the external-load attaching means;
"helideck" means a heliport located on a floating or fixed off-shore structure; "heliport" means an aerodrome and any defined area on a structure, intended or designed to be used either wholly or partly for the landing, departure, and surface movement of helicopters, "heliport operating minima" means the limits of usability of a heliport for either take-off or landing, usually expressed in terms of visibility, decision altitude/height or minimum descent altitude/height and cloud conditions; "incident" means an occurrence, other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of aircraft operations; "infant" means a passenger who has not reached his or her second birthday; "initial approach fix" means the fix determined in terms of instrument approach procedures which identifies the beginning of the initial approach segment; "inspection" means that part of the maintenance by which an aircraft or aircraft component is being examined to establish conformity with an approved standard; "instructions for safe operation and continued airworthiness" means instructions prepared by the holder of a type certificate for a product, comprising descriptive data and accomplishment instructions; "instrument approach procedure" means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route, to a point from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or en route obstacle criteria apply; "instrument flight time" means time during which the aircraft is piloted solely by reference to instruments and without external reference points, whether under actual or simulated flight conditions; "instrument meteorological conditions" means atmospheric conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, or ceiling, less than the minima prescribed for VFR flight in Regulations 91.06.21 and 91.06.22; "integrated training" means an uninterrupted training course, consisting of a theoretical and practical syllabus, designed to train a student with no knowledge of aviation, to the standard required for a commercial pilot licence or an airline transport pilot licence; "Integrated Aeronautical Information Package" means a package which consists of(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) an AIP including an amendment service, supplements to the AIP; NOTAM; AIC; and checklists and summaries;
"international flight" means a flight which passes through the airspace over the territory of more than one State; "International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea" means the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea made under the Convention on the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, signed in London on 20 October 1972. set out in the Third Schedule to the Merchant Shipping Act, 1951 (Act No 51 of 1951); "investigation" in relation to accidents and incidents, means a process conducted for the purpose of accident prevention and includes the gathering and evaluation of information, the drawing of conclusions, including the determination of the cause, causes, probable cause or probable causes of an accident or the underlying cause or causes leading to an incident and, when appropriate, the making of recommendations in connections with aviation safety; "investigator" means an authorised officer or authorised person designated by the Commissioner in terms of Regulation 12.01.4; 'investigator-in-charge '' means an authorised officer designated by the Commissioner on the basis of his or her qualifications and charged with the responsibility for the organisation, conduct and control of and the reporting on the investigation of an accident or incident; "landing area" means that part of a movement area intended for the landing or takeoff of aircraft; "landing decision point" means the point used in determing landing performance from which, a power unit failure having been recognised at this point, the landing may be safely continued or a baulked landing initiated; "landing distance available" means the length of the runway which is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane landing; "letter of TSO design approval" means a design approval for a foreign manufactured article which complies with a specific TSO; "lighter-than-air aircraft" means any aircraft supported mainly by its buoyancy in the air; "line flight" means a commercial flight carried out under normal operations by the holder of a licence issued in terms of the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990 (Act No 115 of 1990), or the International Air Services Act, 1993 (Act No 60 of 1993); "line flying" means flying done by flight crew under normal commercial operations; "low visibility procedures" means procedures applied at an aerodrome for the purpose of ensuring safe operations during low visibility approaches and take-offs; "low visibility take-off' means a take-off where the runway visual range is less than 400 metres; "Mach number" means the ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound;
"main parachute" means a parachute which is designed and intended to be used as the primary parachute for a parachute descent; "maintenance" means all work done in accordance with manufacturers' recommendations and approved maintenance schedules and includes inpection, adjustment, replacement, rectification, repair, modification, overhaul, manufacturing and testing, "major change" means any change in the type design which is extensive enough to require a substantially complete investigation to determine compliance with the type certification basis; "major modification" means a modification not listed in the aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller specifications (a) which may appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, powerplant operations, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthness; or (b) which is not done according to accepted practices or cannot be done by elementary operations; "major repair" means a repair (a) which, if improperly done, may appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, powerplant operation, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthhness; or (b) which is not done according to accepted practices or cannot be done by elementary operations; "manoeuvring area" means that part of an aerodrome used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding an apron; "Master" means the Master as defined in section 1 of the Administration of Estates Act, 1965 (Act No 66 of 1965); "master minimum equipment list" means a list compiled for a particular aircraft type by the manufacturer of the aircraft with the approval of the appropriate authority of the State of Manufacture containing items, one or more of which is permitted to be unserviceable at the commencement of a flight; "maximum approved passenger seating configuration" means the maximum passenger seating capacity of an aircraft, excluding pilot seats, cockpit seats or flight deck seats as applicable, used by the operator in a commercial air transport operation, approved by the Commissioner and specified in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 121.04.2, 121.04.2 or 135.04.2; "maximum certificated mass" means the maximum permissible mass shown in the aircraft flight manual or other document associated with the certificate of airworthiness at which an aircraft may commence its take-off under standard atmospheric conditions at sea level;
"meteorological information" means any meteorological report, analysis or forecast in support of aviation, and any other statement in support of aviation relating to existing or expected meteorological conditions; "meteorological service" means any of the following services which provide meteorological information in support of aviation: (a) Climatology service, which is a service for the development and supply of climatological information for a specific place or airspace; (b) forecast service, which is a service for the supply of forecast meteorological information for a specific area or portion of airspace; (c) information dissemination service, which is a service for the collection and dissemination of meteorological information; (d) meteorological briefing service, which is a service for the supply of written and oral meteorological information on existing and expected meteorological conditions; (e) meteorological reporting service, which is a service for the supply of routine meteorological reports; and (f) meteorological watch service, which is a service for maintaining a watch over meteorological conditions affecting aircraft operations in a specific area; "microlight aeroplane" means an aeroplane the empty mass of which does not exceed 450 kilograms; "minimum descent altitude/height" means a specified altitude or height in a nonprecision approach or circling approach below which descent may not be made without visual references for the intended runway or touch-down area; "minimum equipment list" means a list which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative, prepared by an operator in conformity with, or more restrictive than, the master minimum equipment list established for the aircraft type; "minor change" means any change in type design which has no appreciable effect on the weight, balance, structural strength, reliability, operational characteristics or other characteristics affecting the airworthiness of the product; "minor modification" means a modification other than a major modification; "missed approach point" means that point, in an instrument approach procedure at or before which the prescribed missed approach procedure shall be initiated, in order to ensure that the minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed, "missed approach procedure" means the procedure to be followed if the approach cannot be continued; "movement area" means that part of an aerodrome to be used for the takeoff, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the apron;
"nautical mile" means the length equal to 1 852 metres exactly; "newly overhauled" when used to describe a product, means that the product has not been operated or placed in service, except for functional testing, since having been overhauled, inspected and approved for release to service in accordance with the provisions of these Regulations; "night" means the period from 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes before sunrise, sunset and sunrise being as given in the publication "Times of Sunrise, Sunset and Local Apparent Noon of the South African Astronomical Obsenratory" or a similar publication issued by a recognised astronomical observatory, "night duty" means a period of not less than 4 hours between 20h00 and 06h00 of the next day; "Notice to Airmen" means a notice containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations, distributed by means of telecommunication by or with the authority of the Commissioner; "operating certificate" means an operating certificate issued by the Commissioner authorising an operator of a commercial air transport aircraft to carry out specified air transport operations; "operational flight plan" means the operator's plan for the safe conduct of the flight based on considerations of aircraft performance, other operating limitations and relevant expected conditions on the route to be followed and at the aerodromes concerned; "operations personnel" for the purposes of Part 138, means personnel assigned to or directly involved in ground and flight emergency medical service operations; "operator" means a person, organisation or enterprise engaged in or offering to engage in an aircraft operation; "organisation" includes a natural person, trust, company, close corporation and voluntary association; "overpack" means an enclosure used by a single shipper to contain one or more packages and to form one handling unit for convenience of handling and stowage; "owner" means an owner as defined in the Act, and (a) for the purposes of these Regulations, includes a person who has the right of possession of the aircraft for 14 days or longer; for the purpose of Part 91, includes an operator of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations; "package" means the complete product of the packaging consisting of the packaging and its contents prepared for conveyance;
"packaging" means a receptacle and any other component or material necessary for the receptacle to perform its containment function and to ensure compliance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG;
"packing" means the process whereby an article or substance is enveloped in a wrapping, enclosed in a packaging or otherwise secured; "parachute" means any device comprising a flexible drag, or drag and lift, surface from which load is suspended by shroud lines capable of controlled deployment from a packed condition; "parachute assembly" means any parachute and its associated harness and container system, and other attached equipment for use by a person; "parachute descent" means any descent made from an aircraft by a person with the prior intention of deploying a parachute; "parachute drop zone" means a designated area of airspace in which parachute descents are intended to be made; "parachute landing area" means an area of ground or water onto which parachute landings are intended to be made; "parachute technician" means a person who certifies parachute equipment; "paraglider" means a hang glider with no rigid primary structure; "passenger aircraft" means an aircraft which carries any person other than a flight crew member, an operator's employee in an official capacity, an authorised officer or a person accompanying a consignment or other cargo; "period of operational duty" means the period during which an air traffic controller is actually exercising the privileges of the air traffic service licence; ''pilot-in-command' ' means the pilot responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft in flight, without regard to whether or not he or she is manipulating the controls; "powered glider" means an aircraft equipped with one or more engines which has, with the engine or engines not operating, the performance characteristics of a glider; "precision approach" means an instrument approach for landing in which precision azimuth guidance and precision glide path guidance are provided in accordance with the minima prescribed for the category of operation; "preliminary report" means the communication used for the prompt dissemination of data which is obtained in early stages of an investigation; "pressure altitude" means an atmospheric pressure expressed in terms of altitude which corresponds to that pressure in the standard atmosphere; "process release certificate or report" means a certificate or report which verifies compliance with a specific process standard; "product" means an aircraft, aircraft engine or propeller, and includes the classes of products or types of aircraft referred to in Part 21,
"production-built aircraft" means an aircraft with not more than four seats and a maximum certificated mass of 2 100 kilograms or less (a) which is manufactured for resale in the fully constructed condition; or (b) of which less than 51 per cent of the airframe has been constructed and assembled exclusively for non-commercial purposes; "prohibited area" means any area defined in Regulation 91.06. 19, "proper shipping name" means the name to be used to describe a particular article or substance in all shipping documents and notifications and, where applicable, on packagings; "pro-tem investigator" means an authorised Commissioner in terms of Regulation 12.01.5; person designated by the
"public air transport service" means an air service that has as its main purpose the transport of passengers, cargo or mail; "rapid exit taxiway" means a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and designed to allow landing aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exit taxiways and thereby minimising runway occupancy times; "rating" means an authorisation entered on or associated with a licence and forming part of such licence, stating special conditions, privileges or limitations relating to such licence; "receptacle" means any container used for or capable of retaining and holding substances or articles, including any means of closing, "register" means the register of South African aircraft referred to in Regulation 41.00.14; "rejected take-off distance required" means the horizontal distance required from the start of the take-off to the point where the helicopter comes to a full stop following a power unit failure and rejection of the take-off at the take-off decision point; "release to service" (a) in relation to an aircraft , means (i) in respect of scheduled maintenance, the issuing of a certificate of release to service; and (ii) in respect of line maintenance, the appropriate entry in the technical log-book or flight folio, as the case may be; and in relation to an aircraft component, means the issuing of (i) a serviceable label; or (ii) a certificate relating to the maintenance of an aircraft;
"rescue service" means a service a defined in section 1 of the Fire Brigade Services Act, 1987 (Act No 99 of 1987), a medical service or any other related service, reserve parachute" means an emergency parachute assembly designed and approved to be used as the secondary parachute after the failure of a main parachute; "resident of the Republic" means a person who has his or her ordinary residence in the Republic and who is a South African citizen or is in the possession of a permit for permanent residence in the Republic issued in terms of section 25 of the Aliens Control Act, 1991 (Act No 96 of 1991); "restricted area" means any area defined in Regulation 91.06.20; "restricted category" means a category for special purposes operations; "rotocraft" means a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of the air on one or more rotors; "runway" means a defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aeroplanes; "runway visual range" means the runway visual range over which the pilot of an aeroplane on the centre line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centre line, "safety" means the freedom from risk of bodily injury or death and the freedom from risk of loss or damage to property; "safety recommendation" means a proposal of the investigator-in-charge based on information derived from the investigation and made with the intention of preventing accidents or incidents; "scheduled public air transport service" means a public air transport service in connection with which flights are undertaken (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) between the same two or more points; or such a slight variation from the same two or more points that each flight can reasonably be regarded as being between the same two or more points; according to a published timetable; or with such a degree of regularity and frequency that they constitute a recognisable systematic series; and in such a manner that each flight is open to use by members of the public ;
"seaplane" means an aeroplane designed and constructed to take-off from and land on water surfaces only; "seat" includes any area occupied by a passenger, excluding the area occupied by the baggage of such passenger, inside an aircraft;
"sector" includes take-off, en route flight time and landing, but excludes circuit operations; "Selcal watch" and Selcal call sign" means a selective calling system to effect communication with aircraft by the use of a specific code which is detected by apparatus in the aircraft; "serious injury" means an injury which (a) requires hospitalisation for more than 48 hours, within seven days from the date on which the injury was sustained; (b) results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose); (c) involves lacerations which cause severe haemorrhage, or nerve, muscle or tendon damage; (d) involves injury to any internal organ; (e) involves second or third degree burns or any burns affecting more than five per cent of the surface of the body; or (f) involves verified exposure to infectious or toxic substances or injurious radiation; "serviceable" means, when used in relation to an aircraft, that the aircraft has been maintained and inspected in accordance with the requirements of the approved maintenance schedule and that all adjustments and rectifications found to be necessary, have been satisfactorily made; "shift" means the period between the actual commencement and the actual end of a period of duty during which an air traffic controller exercises, or may be called upon to exercise, the privileges of the rating at the traffic service unit for which such rating is validated, and includes breaks and time spent on duties including training, aerodrome inspection, administration, flight information service and any extension of duty; "shift cycle" means a consecutive 28 day period; "shipper" means any person who prepares or offers a package or over-pack of dangerous goods for conveyance by air; "SIGMET information" means information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence or specified en route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of aircraft operations; "simulator" means (a) a flight procedures trainer or synthetic flight training device; (b) a type specific flight simulator; (c) any other training device approved by the Commissioner; "South African registered aircraft" means an aircraft which is registered by the Commissioner in terms of Regulation 41.00.6; "special purposes operations" includes (a) agricultural spraying, seeding and dusting; (b) cloud spraying, seeding and dusting;
(c) culling;
(d) (e) (f) (g) (h)
aerial patrol, observation and survey; advertising, aerial recording by photographic or electronic means; fire spotting, control and fighting; and spraying, seeding or dusting other than for agricultural purposes and clouds ;
"special VFR flight" means a VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to fly within a control zone under meteorological conditions below the visual metorological conditions; "standard category" means a category for normal, transport, utility and commuter operations, including acrobatic, emergency medical service, flying training, semiacrobatic, helicopter external-load and manned free balloon operations; "standard training" means ongoing training; "State of Design" means the State which has authority over the organisation responsible for the type design of an aircraft ; "State of Manufacture" means the State which has authority over the organisation responsible for the final assembly of an aircraft; "State of Registry" means the State on whose register an aircraft is entered; "State of the Operator" means the State in which the principal place of business of an operator of an aircraft is located or, if there is no such place of business, the State where the operator of the aircraft has permanent residence; "stores" means articles of a readily consumable nature for use or sale on board an aircraft during flight, including commissary supplies; "student parachutist" means a person who is on the first level of training of an approved aviation recreation organisation; "student pilot-in-command instrument time" means flight time during which a flight instructor will only observe the student acting as pilot-in-command without influencing or controlling the flight of the aircraft; "subsonic aeroplane" means an aeroplane incapable of sustaining level flight at speeds exceeding flight Mach number of one; "supplemental type certificate" means a certificate issued in terms of regulations 21.05.3, which authorises the holder thereof to alter a product for which such holder is not the type certificate holder, by introducing a major change in the type design which is not great enough to require a new application for a type certificate; "take-off alternate aerodrome" means an aerodrome to which a flight may proceed should the weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure preclude a return for landing; "take-off decision point" means the point used in determining take-off performance from which, a power unit failure having been recognised at this point, either a rejected take-off may be made of a take-off safely continued;
"take-off distance available" means (a) in the case of an aeroplane, the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available; or (b) in the case of a helicopter, the distance from the point of lift-off to the nearest obstacle in the take-off path of 50 feet or higher; "take-off mass" means the mass of the aircraft, including everything and every person carried in the aircraft at the commencement of the take-off run or lift-off, as the case may be; "take-off run available" means the length of runway which is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off; "tandem master" means the person responsible for the direct control of a tandem parachute descent using a tandem parachute assembly when a tandem rider is being carried and who has been authorised by an approved aviation recreation organisation; "tandem parachute descent" means a parachute descent involving a tandem rider and tandem master in a common tandem parachute assembly which is under the direct control of the tandem master; "tandem pair" means a tandem master and tandem rider; "tandem rider" means a person participating in a tandem parachute descent under the direct control of a tandem master using the secondary harness of a tandem harness system; "taxi" means the movement of an aircraft on the surface of an aerodrome under its own power, excluding take-off and landing; "taxiway" means a defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of aircraft and intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another, and includes an aircraft stand taxilane, an apron taxiway and a rapid exit taxiway; "Technical Standard Order" means a minimum performance standard issued by the Commissioner for specified materials, parts, processes or appliances, used on aircraft; "temporary training" means any intermittent training; terminal control area" means a control area established at the confluence of air traffic service routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes as published in an AIP, AIC or NOTAM and designated as a terminal control area; "the Act" means the Aviation Act, 1962 (Act No 14 of 1962); "the Regulations" means the regulations contained in this Schedule in the several Parts of the Civil Aviation Regulations, including this part, as amended from time to time;
"these Regulations" means the Regulations; "threshold" means the beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing, "total cosmic radiation" means the total of ionizing and neutron radiation of galactic and solar origin, "touch down area" means a load bearing area on which a helicopter may touch down; "touch down area available" means the length and width of the touchdown area which is declared available and suitable for the landing of a helicopter; "traffic load" means the total mass of passengers, baggage and cargo, including any non-revenue load; "training" means (a) the training; or (b) the tests or the verifications of skill or proficiency, specified in these Regulations; "trust" means a trust as defined in the Trust Property Control Act, 1988 (Act No 51 of 1988); "TSO authorisation" means a design and production approval issued to the manufacturer of an article which complies with a specific TSO; "type certificate" means a design approval for Class 1 product issued in terms of Regulation 21.02.8; "type of aircraft" means all aircraft of the same basic design including all modifications thereto except those modifications which result in a change in handling or flight characteristics; "unit load device" means any type of freight container, aircraft container, aircraft pallet with a net, or aircraft pallet with a net over an igloo; "unmanned free balloon" means a non-power-driven, unmanned, lighter-than-air aircraft in free flight; "valid" when used in connection with a licence or rating issued , validated, revalidated or renewed under these Regulations, means that all the requirements applicable to such licence or rating, as prescribed by these Regulations, have been complied with; validation" means an authorisation entered on a licence and forming part thereof, to exercise a specific rating at a specific air traffic service unit, containing special conditions, privileges or limitations pertaining to such rating; "validation examiner" means an official validation examiner appointed by the Commissioner or a validation examiner who has been designated in terms of the provisions of Regulation 65.01.9;
"variable-pitch propeller" means a propeller, the pitch setting of which changes or can be changed when the propeller is rotating, and includes (a) a propeller, the pitch setting of which is directly under the control of the flight crew; (b) a propeller, the pitch setting of which is controlled by a governor or other automatic means, which may be either integral with the propeller or a separately mounted accessory, and which may, or may not, be controlled by the flight crew; and (c) a propeller, the pitch setting of which may be controlled by a combination of(a) and (b) above; "visibility" means the ability, as determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of measurement, to see and identify prominent unlighted objects by day and prominent lighted objects by flight; "visual approach" means an approach when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain; "visual meteorological conditions" means atmospheric conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud or ceiling, equal to or better than the minima prescribed for VFR flight in Regulation 91.06.21; "wet runway" means a runway of which less than 25 per cent of the surface is covered with water, slush or loose slow or when there is sufficient moisture on the runway surface to cause it to appear reflective, but without significant areas of standing water.
ABBREVIATIONS
1.00.1 In these Regulations (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h) (i) (j) (k) (l) (m) (n) (o) (p) (q) (r) (s) (t) (u) (v) (w) (x) (y) (z) (aa) (bb) (cc) (dd) (ee) (ff) (gg) (hh) (ii) (jj) (kk) (ll) (mm) (nn) (oo) AGL means above ground level AIC means an Aeronautical Information Circular AIP means and Aeronautical Information Publication AIR SUP means and AIP Supplement ARAC means aeronautical information regulation and control AZT Means and aerodrome traffic zone CDL Means a configuration deviation list CTA means a control area CTR means a control zone DA/H means decision altitude/height DAME means designated aviation medical examiner ELT means emergency locator transmitter EROPS means extended range operations ETOPS means extended range operations with twin-engine aircraft FL means flight level IAIP means an Integrated Aeronautical Information Package IFR means instrument flight rules ILS means instrument landing system IMC means instrument meteorological conditoins MCM means caximum certificated mass MDA/H means minimum descent altitude/height MEL means a minimum equipment list MMEL means a master equipment list MNPS means minimum navigation performance specifications MSL means mean sea level NDB means a non-directional radio beacon NM means nautical mile NOTAM means a Notice to Airman PAR means Precision Approach Radar PBE means portable breathing equipment PIB means a Pre-flight Information Bulletin PPI means a Plan Position Indicator RNP means the required navigation performance RVR means runway visual range SA-CARs means South African Civil Aviation Regulations STOL means short take-off and landing TMA means a terminal control area TSO means Technical Standard Order VFR means visual flight rules VHF means a very high frequency VMC means visual meteorological conditions VOR means VHF omnidirectional radio range
(pp)
AVIATION ACCIDENTS AND INCIDENTS PART 12
AVIATION ACCIDENTS AND INCIDENTS : LIST OF REGULATIONS
SUBPART 1 : GENERAL
12.01.1 12.01.2 12.01.3 12.01.4 12.01.5 12.01.6 12.01.7 12.01.8
Applicability Designation of body or institution Designation of investigator-in-charge Designation of investigator Designation of pro tem investigator Designation of accredited representative Designation of advisor Establishment of confidential aviation hazard reporting system
SUBPART 2 : ACCIDENT AND INCIDENT NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES
12.02.1 12.02.2 12.02.3 12.02.4 12.02.5
Notification of accidents Notification of incidents Notification of accidents or incidents outside Republic Particulars of notification Notification of hazards
SUBPART 3 : INVESTIGATION OF ACCIDENTS OR INCIDENTS
1203.1 1203.2 1203.3
Purpose of accident and incident investigation Accident and incident investigation procedures Retention of objects for purposes of investigation or inquiry
SUBPART 4 : SCENE OF AN ACCIDENT
12.04.1 12.04.2 12.04.3 12.04.4 12.04.5
Guarding of aircraft involved in accident Access to the scene of accident Control of evidence Interference with objects and marks at scene of accident Removal of damaged or disabled aircraft
SUBPART 5 : REPORTING AND REOPENING OF INVESTIGATION
12.05.1 12.05.2 12.05.3 12.05.4
Reporting Appeal against findings in investigation Reopening of investigation Application
SUBPART 1 : GENERAL
Applicability 12.01.1 This part shall, subject to the provisions of section 12 of the Act, apply to the procedures relating to the reporting and investigation of accidents and incidents other than accidents and incidents involving (a) aircraft so designed to remain moored to the earth or to be kept in tow by vehicles or vessels moving on the surface of the earth; and (b) aircraft designed to fly without any person on board. Designation of body or institution 12.01.2 (1) The Commissioner may, subject to the provisions of section 4(2) and (3) of the Act, designate a body or institution to (a) promote aviation safety or to reduce the risk of aviation accidents or incidents; and (b) advise the Commissioner on any matter connected with the promotion of aviation safety or the reduction of the risk of aviation accidents or incidents . (2) The designation referred to in subregulation (1) shall be made in writing and shall be published by the Commissioner in the Gazette within 30 days from the date of such designation. (3) The powers and duties referred to in subregulation (1) shall be exercised and performed according to the conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID. Designation of investigator-in-charge 12.01.3 (1) The Commissioner may designate an investigator-in-charge to investigate any accident or incident in terms of this part.
(2) An investigator-in-charge shall have authority, subject to the provisions of this part, to (a) have unhampered access to an aircraft which has been involved in an accident or incident, the wreck or wreckage, the place where the aircraft, the wreck or wreckage is located and the places where marks resulting from the accident or incident which may be of assistance in an investigation, are located; (b) preserve an aircraft which has been involved in an accident or incident or the wreck or wreckage and any marks resulting from the accident or incident which may be of assistance in the investigation, by any means available, including photographic means;
(c) examine an aircraft involved in an accident or incident, the wreck or wreckage, any part or component thereof or anything transported therein or any marks resulting from the accident or incident which may be of assistance in the investigation, and to remove any such aircraft, wreck or wreckage, or any part or component thereof or anything transported therein for the purpose of the investigation or for an inquiry by a board of inquiry appointed in terms of section 12(1) of the Act; (d) compile reports in connection with the investigation; (e) have unhampered access to all documents, books, notes, photographs, recordings and transcripts which the investigator-in-charge may consider necessary for the investigation, which documents, books, notes, photographs, recordings and transcripts shall be produced without delay by the possessor thereof when so requested; and (f) obtain information from any person which may be necessary for the investigation. Designation of investigator 12.01.4 (1) The Commissioner may designate an investigator for the purposes of assisting an investigator-in-charge in the investigation of an accident or incident. (2) An investigator may exercise all the powers granted to and imposed on an investigator-in-charge in terms of Regulation 12.01.3(2), which are assigned to such investigator by the investigator-in-charge . (3) The conditions and requirements for and the rules, procedures and standards connected with a designation referred to in subregulation (1), shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID. (4) The Commissioner shall sign and issue to each investigator so designated, a document which shall state the full name of such investigator and contain a statement indicating that (a) such investigator has been designated in terms of subregulation (1); and (b) such investigator is empowered to exercise any power entrusted to him or her in terms of this part. Designation of pro tem investigator 12.01.5 (1) The Commissioner may designate a pro tem investigator for the purposes of assisting the investigator-in-charge in the initial investigation of an accident or incident. (2) A pro tem investigator may exercise all the powers granted to and imposed on an investigator-in-charge in terms of Regulation 12.01.3(2), which are assigned to such investigator by the investigator-in-charge . (3) A pro tem investigator shall, as soon as practicable after the arrival of the investigator-in-charge on the scene of an accident or incident, report on his or her initial investigation to such investigator-in-charge .
(4) The conditions and requirements for and the rules, procedures and standards connected with a designation referred to in subregulation (1), shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID. (5) The Commissioner shall sign and issue to each pro tem investigator so designated, a document which shall state the full name of such pro tem investigator and contain a statement indicating that (a) such pro tem investigator has been designated in terms of subregulation (1); and (b) such pro tem investigator is empowered to exercise any power entrusted to him or her in terms of this part. Designation of accredited representative 12.01.6 (1) The Commissioner may designate
(a) an accredited representative, for the purposes of investigating an accident or incident involving a South African registered aircraft in a territory of a contracting or non-contracting State; or (b) an accredited representative of the State of Registry, State of the Operator, State of Design or State of Manufacture for the purposes of investigating an accident or incident involving a foreign registered aircraft in the territory of the Republic. (2) The conditions and requirements for and the rules, procedures and standards connected with a designation referred to in subregulation (1), shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID. (3) An accredited representative designated in terms of subregulation (l)(b) may participate in the investigation of the accident or incident under the control of the investigator-in-charge . (4) An accredited representative designated in terms of subregulation (l)(b) may, under the control of the investigator-in-charge(a) visit the scene of the accident; (b) examine the wreckage; (c) obtain witness information and suggest areas of questioning; (d) have access to all relevant evidence; (e) receive copies of all relevant documents, books, notes, photographs, recordings and transcripts; (f) participate in readouts of recorded media; (g) participate in component examinations, technical briefings, tests and simulations and other investigative activities;
(h) participate in deliberations on the analysis, findings, cause or causes and safety recommendations; and
(i) make submissions in respect of the various elements of the investigation. Designation of advisor 12.01.7 (1) The Commissioner may designate an adviser for the purpose of assisting the investigator-in-charge in the investigation of an accident or incident.
(2) The conditions and requirements for and the rules, procedures and standards connected with a designation referred to in subregulation (1), shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID. Establishment of confidential aviation hazard reporting system 12.01.8 (1) The designated body or institution referred to in Regulation 12.01.2, shall establish a confidential aviation hazard reporting system to promote aviation safety or reduce the risk of accidents or incidents. (2) The requirements for and the procedures of a confidential aviation hazard reporting system and the manner in which such system shall be operated, shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID. (3) Any person who exercises or has exercised any function in terms of the confidential aviation hazard reporting system, shall not disclose any information which he or she obtained in the performance of such function which could identify the originator of the notice referred to in Regulation 12.02.5.
SUBPART 2 : ACCIDENTS OR INCIDENT NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES
Notification of accidents 12.02.1 (1) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft involved in an accident within the Republic, or if he or she is killed or incapacitated, a flight crew member, or if there are no surviving flight crew members or if they are incapacitated, the operator or owner, as thecase may be, shall, as soon as possible, notify (a) the Commissioner; (b) an air traffic service unit; or (c) the nearest police station, (d) of such accident. (2) If an air traffic service unit or police station is notified of an accident in terms of subregulation (1), such air traffic service unit or police station shall, immediately on receipt of the notification, notify(a) the Commissioner; and (b) where such accident occurs on an aerodrome, the aerodrome manager. Notification of incidents 12.02.2 (1) The pilot-in-command, and any other flight crew member, operator or owner, as the case may be, of an aircraft involved in an incident, other than an air traffic service incident, within the Republic, shall, as soon as possible, notify (a) the Commissioner, or (b) an air traffic service unit, of such incident. (2) If an air traffic service unit is notified of an incident in terms of subregulation (1), such air traffic service unit shall, immediately on receipt of the notification, notify(a) the Commissioner, and (b) where such incident occurs on an aerodrome, the aerodrome manager. (3) The pilot-in-command, any other flight crew member, operator or owner, as the case may be, of an aircraft involved in an air traffic service incident within the Republic, or any air traffic service personnel witnessing an airtraffic service incident, shall, as soon as possible, notify an air traffic service unit of such air traffic service incident, and such air traffic service unit shall immediately on receipt of the notification, notify the Commissioner in the appropriate form as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID.
Notification of accidents or incidents outside Republic 12.02.3 The pilot-in-command of a South African registered aircraft involved in an accident or incident outside the Republic, or if he or she is killed or incapacitated, a flight crew member, or if there are no surviving flight crew Members, or if they are incapacitated, the operator or owner, as the case may be, shall as soon as possible, notify (a) the appropriate authority in the State or territory where the accident or incident occurred, directly or through any air traffic service unit; and (b) the Commissioner; (c) of such accident or incident. Particulars of notification 12.02.4 Any notification of an accident or incident referred to in Regulation 12.02.1, 12.02.2 or 12.02.3 other than an air traffic service incident, shall(a) include the following particulars: (i.) (ii.) (iii.) (iv.) (v.) (vi.) (vii.) Type, model, nationality and registration marks of the aircraft ; name of the owner or operator, as applicable; surnames and initials of flight crew members; the date and time of the accident or incident, specified in co-ordinated Universal Time or local time; last point of departure and point of intended landing of the aircraft; location of accident or incident with reference to an easily identifiable geographical point and, if known, with reference to latitude and longitude, number of(aa) flight crew members and passengers aboard, killed or seriously injured; and (bb) other persons killed or seriously injured; (viii.) (ix.) (x.) (xi.) nature of the accident or incident and extent of damage to aircraft as far as is known; terrain characteristics of the area where the accident or incident occurred; details of any dangerous goods or hazardous substances flown to be on board the aircraft; and any other relevant information; and
(b) be submitted forthwith to the Commissioner, and any information which is not Immediately available shall be submitted in writing as soon as it becomes available. Notification of hazards 12.02.5 (1) Any person involved in an accident or incident, or observing any accident, incident, hazard or discrepancy that may affect aviation safety, may notify the designated body or institution referred in Regulation 12.01.2, of such accident, incident, hazard or discrepancy.
(3) Any person who notifies the designated body or institution referred to in Regulation 12.01.2 of an accident or incident, shall not be absolved from the duty to notify the Commissioner of such accident or incident in terms of Regulation 12.02.1, 12.02.2 or 12.02.3, as the case may be.
SUBPART 3 : INVESTIGATION OF ACCIDENTS OR INCIDENTS
Purpose of accident or incident investigation 12.03.1 The purpose of investigation of an accident or incident is, subject to section 12 of the Act, to determine, in terms of the provisions of this part, the facts of an accident or incident in the interest of the promotion of aviation safety and the reduction of the risk of aviation accidents or incidents, and not to establish legal liability. Accident or incident investigation procedures 12.03.2 (1) All accidents and serious incidents of which the Commissioner is notified in terms of Regulations 12.02.1 and 12.02.2, shall be investigated by a investigator-in-charge . (2) All incidents, other than serious incidents referred to in subregulation (1), may be investigated by an investigator-in-charge . (3) An accident or incident investigation shall be carried out by the investigator-mcharge, in accordance with the requirements for and the rules, procedures and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID . (4) Any person required by the investigator-in-charge to render assistance or furnish the information which the investigator-in-charge may deem necessary for the investigation of an accident or incident, shall be obliged to render such assistance or furnish such information. Retention of objects for purposes of investigation or inquiry 12.03.3 Any item or wreckage of an aircraft involved in an accident or incident, or any part or component thereof, or anything transported therein, may be retained by the investigator-in-charge until no longer required for the purpose of an investigation, including an investigation following on a reopening referred to in Regulation 12.05.3, or for an inquiry by a board of inquiry in terms of section 12(1) of the Act, whereupon such wreckage, or part or component thereof, shall be discarded or destroyed, unless a person having a right to such item, or part or component thereof, has informed the Commissioner in writing, within 60 days of the date of such accident or incident, that such item or component or part be returned to him or her after the completion of the investigation or inquiry.
SUBPART 4: SCENE OF AN ACCIDENT
Guarding of aircraft involved in accident 12.04.1 Where an accident occurs within the Republic, the pilot-in-command of the aircraft involved in the accident, or if he or she is killed or incapacitated, a flight crew member, or if there are no surviving flight crew members, or if they are incapacitated, the operator or owner of such aircraft or where the accident occurs on an aerodrome, the aerodrome manager, shall (a) pending the arrival of a police guard, take such steps which may be necessary to prevent any interference with the aircraft, the wreck or wreckage and anything transported therein and any marks resulting from the accident which may be of assistance in an investigation, contrary to the provisions of this Part; (b) forthwith arrange with a member of the South African Police Service to guard the aircraft, the wreck or wreckage and anything transported therein and any marks resulting from the accident which may be of assistance in an investigation. Access to the scene of accident 12.04.2 (1) No person other than
(a) a member of the rescue service; (b) a pro tem investigator; (c) an investigator; (d) an accredited representative; (e) an advisor; (f) a member of the South African Police Service; or (g) any other person authorised by the Commissioner, after consultation with the investigator-in-charge , shall, until such time as the investigator-in-charge otherwise determines, have access to an aircraft which has been involved in an accident or to the wreck or wreckage and any marks resulting from the accident which may be of assistance in an investigation. (2) Every person permitted by the provisions of subregulation (1) or authorised in terms thereof to have access to an aircraft which has been involved in an accident or to the wreck or wreckage or to places where marks resulting from the accident occur which may be of assistance in an investigation, shall be subject to the direction of the investigator-in-charge until the investigation has been completed.
Control of evidence 12.04.3 The aircraft, the wreck or wreckage and anything transported therein and any marks resulting from the accident which may be of assistance in an investigation, shall remain under the control of the investigator-in-charge until released by such investigator-in-charge .
Interference with objects and marks at scene of accident 12.04.4 (1) Subject to the provisions of this part, no person shall interfere with an aircraft which has been involved in an accident, the wreck or wreckage, a part or component thereof or anything transported therein or any marks resulting from the accident which may be of assistance in an investigation (a) until authorised to do so by the investigator-in-charge ; and (b) until, in the case of an aircraft which must be cleared by a customs officer by virtue of the provisions of the Customs and Excise Act, 1964 (Act No 91 of 1964), clearance has been issued or permission granted by such officer. (2) The provisions of subregulation (1) shall not prevent any action necessary for (a) the rescue or extrication of persons or animals from the aircraft or the wreck; (b) the reasonable protection of the aircraft, the wreck or wreckage from destruction by fire or other causes; (c) the safeguarding by the owner, operator or police guard of precious metals, jewellery or valuables; (d) the prevention of danger or removal of an obstruction to other aircraft, other means of transport or to the public; and (e) the removal of the aircraft, any part or component thereof or anything transported therein to a safe place, when in water or otherwise endangered. Removal of damaged or disabled aircraft 12.04.5 Subject to the conditions which the Commissioner may determine, a person authorised by the Commissioner for this purpose, may direct any person to move an aircraft which is damaged or disabled or to move any part thereof or any cargo or thing carried therein, to another place, at the expense of the owner or operator of the aircraft.
SUBPART 5 : REPORTING AND REOPENING OF INVESTIGATION
Reporting 12.05.1 (1) The investigator-in-charge shall, upon completion of an investigation of an accident or incident carried out in terms of subpart 3, report the findings of such investigation to the Commissioner. (2) The reporting on an investigation referred to in subregulation (1) shall consist of(a) a preliminary report, if necessary in the interests of aviation safety; and (b) a final report which shall be compiled and published in the manner as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID. Appeal against findings in investigation 12.05.2 (1) Any interested person who feels aggrieved by the findings on an investigation may appeal against such findings to the Commissioner, within 30 days after such person becomes aware of such findings. (2) An appellant shall deliver an appeal in writing, stating the reasons why in his or her opinion, the findings should be varied or set aside. (3) The appellant shall submit a copy of the appeal and any documents or records supporting such appeal, to the investigator-in-charge concerned and shall furnish proof of such submission for the information of the Commissioner, (4) The investigator-in-charge concerned may, within 30 days of receipt of the copy of the appeal referred to in subregulation (3), deliver his or her written reply to such appeal to the Commissioner. (5) The Commissioner may (a) adjudicate the appeal on the basis of the documents submitted to him or her; or (b) order the appellant and the investigator-in-charge concerned to appear before him or her, either in person or through a representative, at a time and place determined by him or her, to give evidence. (6) The Commissioner may confirm, vary or set aside the findings referred to in subregulation (1). Reopening of investigation 12.05.3 (1) The Commissioner may order the reopening of an investigation-
(a) of which the findings are set aside in terms of Regulation 12.05.2(6); (b) if new and significant information which indicates that the findings on the investigation may be incorrect, becomes available; or
(c) if such a reopening is in the interests of aviation safety. Any investigation reopened in terms of this regulation shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of this subpart 3. Application 12.05.4 Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in this subpart, the provisions of Regulations 12.05.2 and 12.05.3 shall only apply in cases where the Commissioner is satisfied that the Minister has not applied and does not intend applying the provisions of section 12 of the Act to a case in question.
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION PART 67
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION
Applicability 67.00.1 This part shall apply to the issuing of medical certificates in respect of flight crew, cabin crew and air traffic service personnel. Classes of medical certificates 67.00.1 (1) The classes of medical certificates are-
(a) Class I ii) iii) iv) v) vi) vii) viii) ix) x) xi) (b) Class 2 i) ii) iii) (c) Class 3 i) (d) Class 4 i) ii) iii) iv) v) vi) vii) viii) ix) microlight aeroplane pilot; glider pilot; gyroplane pilot for non-commercial purposes; airship pilot for non-commercial purposes; free balloon pilot for non-commercial purposes; hang glider pilot; paraglider pilot; powered paraglider pilot for non-commercial purposes; and air traffic service assistant. air traffic controller; and private pilot: aeroplane and helicopter; student pilot; and cabin crew member. airline transport pilot: aeroplane and helicopter; commercial pilot: aeroplane and helicopter; flight test rating: commercial microlight aeroplane pilot; gyroplane pilot for commercial purposes; commercial glider pilot; airship pilot for commercial purposes: free balloon pilot for commercial purposes; flight engineer; and powered paraglider pilot for commercial purposes;
(2) A flight crew member who holds a valid Class I medical certificate referred to in subregulation (1) (a), shall be deemed to hold a valid Class II medical certificate referred to in subregulation (l)(b) and a valid Class IV medical certificate referred to in subregulation (1) (d).
An air traffic service personnel member who holds a valid Class III medical certificate referred to in subregulation (l)(c), shall be deemed to hold a valid Class 4 medical certificate referred to in subregulation (l)(d). Upon expiry of a Class I medical certificate referred to in subregulation(1) (a), such medical certificate shall be deemed to be valid for the remainder of the period for which it would have been valid as a Class II medical certificate referred to in subregulation (l)(b) and a Class IV medical certificate referred to in subregulation (l)(d), as specified in Regulation 67.00.6. Upon expiry of a Class 3 medical certificate referred to in subregulation (l)(c), such medical certificate shall be deemed to be valid for the remainder of the period for which it would have been valid as a Class IV medical certificate referred to in subregulation (l)(d), as specified in Regulation 67.00.6. The medical requirements and standards to be complied with by an applicant for, or the holder of, a Class I, II, III or IV medical certificate shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-MR. Designation of body or institution 67.00.3 (1) The Commissioner may, subject to the provisions of section 4(2) and (3) of the Act, designate a body or institution to a. exercise control over medical examinations or tests and over aviation medical examiners performing such examinations or tests; b. determine standards for such examinations or tests and for the training of such aviation medical examiners; c. issue, amend, suspend or withdraw medical certificates and keep all books or documents regarding such examinations or tests; and d. subject to the provisions of Regulation 67.00.9, advise the Commissioner on any matter connected with such examinations, tests or aviation medical examiners and on the training of flight crew and cabin crew in first aid. The designation referred to in subregulation (1) shall be made in writing and shall be published by the Commissioner in the Gazette within 30 days from the date of such designation. The powers and duties referred to in subregulation (1) shall be exercised and performed according to the conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-MR. Any medical practitioner employed by the body or institution designated in terms of subregulation (1), shall not be disqualified by virtue of such designation from being designated as an aviation medical examiner. Designation of aviation medical examiners 67.00.4 (1) The Commissioner may, after consultation with the designated body or institution, designate aviation medical examiners to perform medical examinations or tests required for the issuing of medical certificates.
(2) The conditions and requirements for and the rules, procedures and standards connected with a designation referred to in subregulation (1) shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-MR. (3) The Commissioner shall sign and issue to each designated aviation medical examiner a document which shall state the full name of such aviation medical examiner and contain a statement that a. such aviation medical examiner has been designated in terms of subregulation (1); and b. such aviation medical examiner is empowered to i) ii) iii) perform the medical examination or test required for the issuing of the appropriate medical certificate; subject to the provisions of Regulation 67.00.8, issue such medical certificate; or defer the issuing of such medical certificate pending an appropriate instruction from the designated body or institution.
Class 4 medical certificates 67.00.5 (1) Notwithstanding the provisions of Regulation 67.00.4, any medical practitioner who is registered in terms of section 17 of the Medical, Dental and Supplementary Health Service Professions Act, 1974 (Act No. 56 of 1974), may perform a medical examination for the purpose of the issuing of a Class IV medical certificate. (2) The provisions of Regulation 67.00.7(1) and (2) shall apply mutatis mutandis to an application for the issuing of a Class IV medical certificate. (3) The medical practitioner concerned shall, within 60 days from the date on which the medical examination has been performed, submit the application together with any appropriate a. supporting medical reports; and b. results of medical examinations or tests performed; to the designated body or institution for the verification of the application and the issuing of the medical certificate. (4) An applicant who complies with the appropriate medical requirements and standards referred to in Regulation 67.00.2(6), shall be entitled to the medical certificate.
(5) On receipt of the documents referred to in subregulation (3), the designated body or institution shall a. verify the application concerned: and b. if the applicant complies with the appropriate medical requirements and standards referred to in Regulation 67.00.2(6), issue the medical certificate. (6) The designated body or institution may a. if medical conclusion requires that i. medical examinations or tests be performed at shorter intervals; or ii. additional examinations or tests be performed; or b. when the safe performance of the duties essential to the operation of an aircraft, of the holder of the medical certificate, depends on compliance with any special limitation, endorse the medical certificate with such requirement or limitation. Period of validity of medical certificates 67.00.6 (1) A Class I medical certificate shall be issued for a period not exceeding a. 12 calendar months, calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which the medical certificate is issued, where the applicant is less than 40 years of age on the date on which the medical certificate is issued; and b. six calendar months in the case of an airline transport pilot aeroplane and helicopter, a commercial pilot: aeroplane and helicopter, a commercial microlight aeroplane pilot, a gyroplane pilot for commercial purposes, a commercial glider pilot, an airship pilot for commercial purposes, a free balloon pilot for commercial purposes or a powered paraglider pilot for commercial purposes, calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which the medical certificate is issued, where the applicant is 40 years of age or more on the date on which the medical certificate is issued: Provided that a medical certificate may be issued for a period of 12 months to an applicant who is less than 60 years of age on the date on which the medical certificate is issued if (i) the applicant has no identified medical condition or excessive risk factors for conditions leading to sudden incapacity; and (ii) the medical certificate is, for the latter six months of the period, endorsed with a special limitation referred to in subregulation (4) (b). (2) A Class 2 and 3 medical certificate shall be issued for a period not exceeding a. 24 calendar months, calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which the medical certificate is issued, where the applicant is less than 40 years of age on the date on which the medical certificate is issued; and b. 12 calendar months, calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which the medical certificate is issued, where the applicant is 40 years of age or more on the date on which the medical certificate is issued.
(3) A Class IV medical certificate shall be issued for a period not exceedinga. 60 calendar months, calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which the medical certificate is issued, where the applicant is less than 40 years of age on the date on which the medical certificate is issued; and b. 36 calendar months, calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which the medical certificate is issued, where the applicant is 40 years of age or more on the date on which the medical certificate is issued. (4) Notwithstanding the provisions of subregulations (1), (2) and (3), a designated aviation medical examiner maya. indications require that i. medical examinations or tests be performed at shorter intervals; or ii. additional exanimations or tests be performed; or b. when the safe performance of the duties essential to the operation of an aircraft, of the holder of such medical certificate, depends on compliance with any special limitation, endorse the medical certificate with such requirement or limitation. Application for medical certificate 67.00.7 (1) An application for the issuing of a medical certificate shall be made on the appropriate form as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-MR. (2) An applicant who attends a medical examination or test for the issuing of a medical certificate shall a. produce proof of his or her identity; and b. produce for inspection any licence held for which the certificate is required and the most recent medical certificate held, if any. (3) Subject to the provisions of Regulations 67.00.3(l)(c) and 67.004(3) (b)(iii), an applicant who complies with the appropriate medical requirements and standards referred to in Regulation 67.00.2(6), shall be entitled to a medical certificate. Issuing of medical certificate 67.00.8(1) A medical certificate shall be issued by the designated aviation medical examiner concerned on the appropriate form as prescribed in Document SA-CATSMR. (2) The designated aviation medical examiner concerned shall, within 60 days from the date on which the medical certificate has been issued, submit the original application together with any appropriate a. supporting medical reports; and
b. results of medical examinations or tests performed, to the designated body or institution for verification purposes.
(3) On receipt of the documents referred to in subregulation (2), the designated body or institution shall verify that the holder of the medical certificate complies with the appropriate medical requirements and standards referred to in Regulation 67.00.2(5). (4) A medical certificate issued by a designated aviation medical examiner, shall remain in force, subject to any requirement or limitation endorsed thereon and for the period for which it was issued: Provided that the designated body or institution may a. if the medical certificate has been issued to an applicant who does not comply with the appropriate medical requirements and standards referred to in Regulation 67.00.2(6), cancel the medical certificate; or b. if medical conclusion requires that (i) (ii) (iii) medical examinations or tests be performed at shorter intervals; or additional examinations or tests be performed; or when the safe performance of the duties essential to the operation of an aircraft, of the holder of the medical certificate, depends on compliance with any special limitation, endorse the medical certificate with such requirement or limitation.
(5) For the purposes of subregulation (2), the words "original application" includes any incomplete application. Duties of holder of medical certificate 67.00.9 (1) The holder of a medical certificate shalla. carry such medical certificate on his or her person when carrying out the duties as a flight crew member, an air traffic service personnel member or a cabin crew member, as the case may be; not act as a pilot-in-command, or in any other capacity as a flight crew member, an air traffic service personnel member or a cabin crew member, as the case may be (i) (ii) (iii) while he or she is aware of any medical condition which could affect the validity of such medical certificate; while he or she is receiving medical treatment, unless otherwise provided for in Document SA-CATS-MR; if the holder has entered the thirtieth week of pregnancy, unless -
b.
(aa) the medical certificate is issued in respect of an air traffic service licence; or (bb) a suitable medical practitioner and a designated aviation medical examiner certify that such holder who has entered the twenty-ninth week of pregnancy, is fit to continue to act as a pilot-in-command, or in any other capacity as a flight crew member or a cabin crew member, for a further period, which period shall not exceed six weeks from the date on which such holder has entered the thirtieth week of pregnancy; (iv) (v) if the holder has given birth in the preceding eight weeks; or after such medical certificate has expired;
(c ) without undue delay, notify the designated body or institution of any (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) injury; hospitalisation; surgical operation or invasive procedure; regular use of medication; pregnancy; absence due to illness for a period of more than 21 days: or psychiatric treatment, which renders such holder unable to comply with the appropriate medical requirements and standards referred to in Regulation 67.00.2(6).
(2)
For the purposes of subregulation (l)(c), the holder of a medical certificate shall, before such holder resumes the exercising of the privileges of the licence held by him or her, furnish the designated body or institution with proof that he or she has fully recovered from the decrease in medical fitness. The holder of a Class 4 medical certificate shall, after the medical certificate has been issued to him or her, on an annual basis complete and submit to the designated body or institution the medical declaration as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-MR.
(3)
Foreign medical assessments 67.00.10(1) The Commissioner may, in consultation with the designated body or institution, recognize any foreign medial report, medical assessment or medical certificate issued by an appropriate authority for the purpose of validating a foreign flight crew member's licence, air traffic service personnel member's licence or cabin crew member's licence. (2) If, because of duty in a State or territory outside the Republic, deferral of the issuing of a South African medical certificate for a flight crew member or a cabin crew member, as the case may be, has to be made, such deferral shall not exceed a. a single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft used in non-commercial operations; or
b. two consecutive periods, each of three months, in the case of a flight crew member or a cabin crew member, as the case may be, of an aircraft used in commercial operations: Provided that the flight crew member or cabin crew member concerned i. obtains in that State or territory, in either instance, a valid medical certificate after examination by an appropriate authority; and ii. undergoes the appropriate medical examination as soon as he or she returns to the Republic. Appeal 67.00.11 (1) An applicant for, or the holder of, a medical certificate who feels aggrieved by (2) a decision by the designated body or institution in terms of Regulation 67.00.8(4)(a) to cancel his or her medical certificate; (3) a decision by a designated aviation medical examiner, declaring him or her unfit or temporarily unfit; (4) any endorsement made by the designated body or institution in terms of Regulation 67.00.5(6) or 67.00.8(4)(b) on his or her medical certificate; or (5) any endorsement made by a designated aviation medical examiner in terms of Regulation 67.00.6(4) on his or her medical certificate, may appeal against such decision or endorsement to the Commissioner, within 30 days after he or she becomes aware of such decision or endorsement. (2) The appellant shalla. deliver his or her appeal in writing, staling the reasons why, in his or her opinion, the decision or endorsement should be varied or set aside; b. pay the appropriate fee as prescribed in Part 187; and c. be responsible for the payment of any additional medical expenses incurred as a result of the appeal. (3) The appellant shall submit a copy of his or her appeal and any documents or records supporting such appeal, to the designated aviation medical examiner concerned or the designated body or institution, as the case may be, and shall furnish proof of such submission for the information of the Commissioner. (4) The designated aviation medical examiner concerned or the designated body or institution, as the case may be, may, within 30 days of receipt of the copy of the appeal referred to in subregulation (3), deliver his, her or its written reply to such appeal to the Commissioner. (5) The Commissioner may designate a panel of medical practitioners to assist him or her in adjudicating the appeal.
(6) The panel referred to in subregulation (5) shall consist of at least two medical practitioners who are registered in terms of section 17 of the Medical, Dental and Supplementary Health Service Professions Act, 1974, one of whom shall have obtained a postgraduate qualification in aviation medicine, and the other shall be a specialist in the field of medicine concerned. (7) The Commissioner may a. adjudicate the appeal on the basis of the documents submitted to him or her; b. order the appellant and the designated aviation medical examiner concerned or the designated body or institution, as the case may be, to appear before him or her, either in person or through a representative, at a time and place determined by him or her, to give evidence. (8) The Commissioner may confirm, vary or set aside the decision or endorsement referred to in subregulation (1). Period of validity of medical records 67.00.12 The records of a medical examination shall, for the purpose of issuing a medical certificate, be valid for a period not exceeding 90 days, and medical certificate may not be issued after this period on the records of such examination. Medical confidentiality 67.00.13 (1) Subject to the provisions of subregulation (2), all information provided by or on behalf of an applicant for a medical certificate, which is personal medical information, shall be confidential, and shall be used only in respect of the medical certificate and the entire medical certification process, unless otherwise authorised by the applicant.
(2)
Any medical practitioner employed by the designated body or institution shall ensure the protection of information referred to in subregulation (1) which is kept by such designated body or institution: Provided that when medical information appears to be fraudulent, false or misleading, or when such medical information will jeopardise aviation safety, or when it is necessary for the purpose of an appeal in terms of Regulation 67.00.11, the medical practitioner shall release to the Commissioner such information for appropriate investigation and action.
AMENDMENTS
AMMENDMENT NO 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
DATE AMMENDED 24/12/1997 14/08/1998 18/9/1998 14/12/1998 31/12/1998 21/5/1999 17/2/2000 18/2/2000
GOV NOTICE NO R1753 R1041 R1184 R1664 R1701 R639 R170 R171
GOV GAZETTE NO 18562 19155 19248 19612 19644 20076 20895 20896
SIGNATURE
Revision: 4 1
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I N D E X VOLUME II
SECTIONS PART 91 CATS OPS PART 91 PART 92 PART 135 CATS PART 135 AIR LAW APPENDIX A APPENDIX B QUESTIONS MOCK EXAM PAPER 1
All Rights Reserved. No part of this manual my be reproduced in any manner whatsoever including electronic, photographic, photocopying, facsimile, or stored in a retrieval system, without the prior permission of Flight Training College of S.A. c.c.
Revision: 4 2
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CONTENTS
VOLUME I
Definitions Part 1 Procedures Part 11 Part 12 Part 13 Aircraft Part 21 Part 34 Part 36 Part 43 Part 47 Personnel Part 61 Part 63 Part 64 Part 65 Part 66 Part 67 Pilot Licensing Flight Engineer Licensing Cabin Crew Licencing Air Traffic Service Personnel Licencing Aircraft maintenance Engineer Licencing Medical Certification Definitions and Abbreviations
Procedures for making Regulations, Issuing Technical Standards and Grading Exemptions Aviation Accidents and Incidents Enforcement Procedures
Certification Procedures for Products and parts Engine Emission certification Noise Certification General maintenance Rules Registration and marking
VOLUME II
Rules of the Air and General Operating Rules Part 91 Part 92 Part 98 Part 100 Part 101 Part 102 Part 103 Part 104 Part 105 Part 106 General Operating and Flight Rules Conveyance of Dangerous Goods Operating of Powered paragliders Operation of Gyroplanes Operation of Unmanned Free Balloons. Kites and Remotely Piloted Aircraft Operation of Free Balloons and Airships Operation of Microlight Aeroplanes Operation of Gliders Operation of Parachutes Operation of Hang Gliders
Certificated Aircraft operations and Other Flight Operations Part 121 Air Transport Operations Large Aeroplanes Part 127 Helicopters Part 133 Helicopter External load Operations Part 135 Air Transport Operations Small Aeroplanes Part 137 Agricultural Operations Part 138 Emergency medical Service Operations
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Aerodromes and Heliports Part Part Part Part 139 141 145 148 Licencing and Operation Aviation Training Organisations Aircraft Maintenance Organisations Manufacturing Organisations
Air Traffic Services Part 172 Air Space and Traffic Services
Aeronautical and meteorological Information Services Part 174 Part 175 Part 183 Administration Part 1185 Part 187 Offences Fees Meteorological Information Services Aeronautical Information Services General
Revision: 4 4
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THIS PAGE HAS DELIBERATELY BEEN LEFT BLANK
Revision: 4 5
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GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES PART 91
Revision: 4 6
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LIST OF REGULATIONS: GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES SUBPART 1: GENERAL PROVISIONS 91.01.1 Applicability.. 91.01.2 Authority of pilot-in-command 91.01.3 Authorisation of personnel to taxi aeroplanes 91.01.4 Search and rescure information 91.01.5 Information on emegency and survival equipment carried 91.01.6 Method of carriage of eprsons 91.01.7 Admisison of flight deck 91.01.8 Unauthrorised carriage 91.01.9 Portable electronic devices 91.01.10 Endangering safety 91.01.11 Presevation of documents ` SUBPART 2: FLIGHT CREW 91.02.1 91.02.2 91.02.3 91.02.4 91.02.5 91.02.6 91.02.7 91.02.8 Composition of flight crew Flight crew member emergency duties Flight crew member responsibilities Recency Flight crew members at duty stations Laws, regulations and procedures Duties of pilot-in-command regarding flight preparation Duties of pilot-in-command regarding flight operations
SUBPART 3: DOCUMENTATION AND RECORDS 91.03.1 91.03.2 91.03.3 91.03.4 91.03.5 91.03.6 91.03.7 91.03.8 Documents to be carried on board Aircraft flight manual Aircraft checklists Air traffic service flight plan Flight folio Fuel and oil record Certificate of release to service Flight recorder records
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SUBPART 4: INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT 91.04.1 91.04.2 91.04.3 91.04.4 91.04.5 91.04.6 91.04.7 91.04.8 91.04.9 91.04.10 91.04.11 91.04.12 91.04.13 91.04.14 91.04.15 91.04.16 91.04.17 91.04.18 91.04.19 91.04.20 91.04.21 91.04.22 91.04.23 91.04.24 91.04.25 91.04.26 91.04.27 91.04.28 91.04.29 91.04.30 Use of instruments and equipment by pilot Circuit protection devices Aircraft operating flights Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aircraft operating under VFR Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aircraft operating under IFR Additional equipment for single-pilot operation in accordance with IFR Mach number indicator Radio altimeter Equipment for operations in icing conditions Flight recorder Foil data recorder Cockpit voice recorder Flight data recorder Seats, seat safety belts, harnesses and child restraint devices Stowage or articles, baggage and cargo Standard first aid kit First aid oxygen Supplemental oxygen in the case of pressuriesed aircraft Supplemental oxygen in the case of non-pressurised aircraft Flight crew protective breathing equipment Hand fire extinguishers Crash axes and crowbard Marking of break-in points Megaphones Emergency lighting Automatic emergency locator transmitter Life jackets and other flotation devices Life rafts and survival radio equipment for extended over-water flights Survival equipment Seaplanes, amphibious aeroplanes and amphibious helicopters
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SUBPART 5: COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT 91.05.1 91.05.2 Communication equipment Navigation equipment
SUBPART 6: RULES OF THE AIR Division One: Flight Rules 91.06.1 91.06.2 91.06.3 91.06.4 91.06.5 91.06.6 91.06.7 91.06.8 91.06.9 91.06.10 91.06.11 91.06.12 91.06.13 91.06.14 91.06.15 91.06.16 91.06.17 91.06.18 91.06.19 91.06.20 Landing on roads Dropping objects, spraying o dusting Picking up objects Towing Operation of vehicle- or vessel-towed aircraft Proximity and formation flights Right of way Following line features Aircraft speed Lights to be displayed by aircraft Taxi rules Operation on and in the vicinity of aerodrome Signals Water operatons Reporting position Mandatory radio communication in controlled airspace Mandatory radio communication in advisory airspace Commpliance with air traffic control clearance and instruction Prohibited areas Restricted areas
Division Two: Visual Flight Rules 91.06.21 Visibility and distance from cloud 91.06.22 Special VFR weather minima 91.06.23 Responsibility to ascertain whether VFR flight is permitted Division Three: Instrument Flight Rules 91.06.24 Compiance with IFR 91.06.25 Aircraft equipment 91.06.26 Change from IFR flight to VFR flight 91.06.27 IFR procedures
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Division Four: Aircraft on other than Scheduled International Air Services 91.06.28 Foreign military aircraft 91.06.29 Identification and interception of aircraft Division Five: Air Traffic Rules 91.06.30 Air traffic service procedures 91.06.31 Priority Division Six: Heights and Instrument Approach and Departure Procedures 91.06.32 Minimum heights 91.06.33 Semi-circular rule 91.06.34 Standard instrument approach to and departure from aerodrome SUBPART 7: FLIGHT OPERATIONS 91.07.1 Routes and areas of operation 91.07.2 Minimum flight altitudes 91.07.3 Use of aerodromes 91.074 Helicopters landings and take-offs 91.07.5 Aerodrome operating minima 91.07.6 Threshold crossing height 91.07.7 Pre-flight selection of aerodromes 91.07.8 Planning minima for IFR flights 91.07.9 Meteorologival conditions 91.07.10 VFR operating minima 91.07.11 Mass and balance 91.07.12 Fuel and oil supply 91.07.13 Refuelling or defuelling with passengers on board 91.07.14 Smoking in aircraft 91.07.15 Instrument approach and departure procedures 91.07.16 Noise abatement procedures 91.07.17 Submission of air traffic service flight plan 91.07.18 Seats, safety belts and harnesses 91.07.19 Passenger seating 91.07.20 Passenger briefing 91.07.21 Emergency equipment 91.07.22 Illumination of emergency exits 91.07.23 Use of supplemental oxygen 91.07.24 Approach and landing conditions 91.07.25 91.07.26 91.07.27 91.07.28 Commencement and continuation of approach In-flight simulation of emergency situations Turning helicopter rotors Starting of engines
SUBPARTS 8: LOW-VISIBILITY OPERTIONS 91.08.1 91.08.2 91.08.3 91.08.4 91.08.5 91.08.6 Aerodrome operating minima General operating rules for low-visibility operations Aerodrome considerations for low-visibility operations Training and qualifications for low-visibility operations Operating procedures for low-visibility operations Minimum equipment for low-visibility operations
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SUBPART 9: PERFORMANCE OPERATING LIMITATIONS 91.09.1 91.09.2 91.09.3 91.09.4 General provisions Helicopter operating limitations Helicopter performance classification Aeroplane performance classification
SUBPART 10: MAINTENANCE 91.10.1 General
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SUBPART 1: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Applicability 91.01.1(1) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), this part shall apply to (a) aircraft operated within the Republic; (b) aircraft registered in the Republic and operated internationally, (c) persons acting as flight crew members of aircraft registered in the Republic; and (d) persons who are on board an aircraft operated under this part. (2) Additional rules to, and exemptions from, the provisions of this part, are prescribed, in respect of(a) the conveyance of dangerous goods, in Part 92; (b) the operation of powered paragliders, in Part 98; (c) the operation of gyroplanes, in Part 100; (d) the operation of unmanned free balloons, kites and remotely piloted aircraft, in Part 101; (e) the operation of free balloons and airships, in Part 102; (f) the operation of microlight aeroplanes, in Part 103, (g) the operation of gilders, in Part 104; (h) parachuting operations, in Part 105; (i) the operation of hang gliders, in Part 106, (j) large aeroplanes engaged in commercial air transport operations,in Part 121; (k) helicopters engaged in commercial air transport operations, in Part 127; (l) helicopters engaged in external-load operations, in Part 133; (m) small aeroplanes engaged in commercial air transport operations, in Part 135; (n) aircraft engaged in agricultural operations, in Part 137; and
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(o) aircraft engaged in emergency medical service operations, in Part 138. Authority of pilot-in-command 91.01.2 All persons on board an aircraft shall obey all lawful commands given by the pilot-in-command of the aircraft for the purpose of securing the safety of such aircraft and of persons or property carried therein. Authorisation of personnel to taxi aeroplanes 91.01.3 No owner or operator of an aeroplane shall permit the taxiing of, and no person shall taxi, an aeroplane on the movement area of an aerodrome unless the person at the controls of the aeroplane (a) is the holder of a valid pilot licence; or (b) has received instruction in the taxiing of an aeroplane from, and has been declared competent to taxi an aeroplane by, the holder of a flight instructor rating or, in the case of a foreign aeroplane, a person authorised by an appropriate authority; and (c) if the person uses a radio apparatus, such person is authorised to use the radio apparatus; and (d) is conversant with the aerodrome layout, routes, signs, markings, lighting, air traffic service signals and instructions, phraseology and procedures, if required, and is able to conform to the standards required for safe aeroplane movements at such aerodrome. Search and rescue information 91.01.4 The pilot-in-command or, in the case of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport operations, the operator, shall ensure that all essential information concerning the search and rescue services in the area over which it is intended that the aircraft will be flown, is available on board the aircraft. Information on emergency and survival equipment carried 91.01.5 (1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall have available for immediate communication to rescue co-ordination centres, a list containing information regarding the emergency and survival equipment carried on board the aircraft.
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(2) The minimum information to be contained in the list referred to in subregulation (1) shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. Method of carriage of persons 91.01.6 No person shall be in any part of an aircraft in flight which is not a part designed for the accommodation of persons, unless temporary permission has been granted by the pilot-in-command to access such part of the aircraft (a) for the purpose of taking action necessary for the safety of such aircraft or of any person, animal or goods therein; and (b) in which cargo or stores are carried, being a part which is designed to enable a person to have access thereto while such aircraft is in flight. Admission to flight deck 91.01.7 (1) No person other than the assigned flight deck crew shall be carried on the flight deck of a South African registered aircraft except with the permission of the pilot-in-command. (2) The admission of any person to the flight deck shall not interfere with the operation of the aircraft. (3) Any person carried on the flight deck shall be made familiar with the applicable procedures. Unauthorised carriage 91.01.8 No person shall secrete himself, herself or cargo on board an aircraft. Portable electronic devices 91.01.9 (1) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), no owner, operator or pilot-in-command of an aircraft or person shall permit the operation of, or operate on board the aircraft during flight time, any portable electronic device which may adversely affect the performance of the systems and equipment of the aircraft. (2) The provisions of sub-regulation (1) shall not apply to (a) a heart pacemaker; (b) a hearing aid; (c) a portable voice recorder; (d) an electric shaver; or (e) any other portable electronic device, the operation of which-
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i. ii.
in the case of an aircraft engaged in a commercial air transport operation,the operator; or in the case of an aircraft engaged in an operation other than a commercial air transport operation, the pilot-in-command, has determined will not cause interference with the systems and equipment of the aircraft in which it is to be used.
(3) A portable electronic device referred to in sub-regulation (2)(c), (d) or (e) shall not be used by any person during the critical phases of flight. Endangering safety 91.01.10 No person shall, through any act or omission (a) endanger the safety of an aircraft or person therein; or (b) cause or permit an aircraft to endanger the safety of any person or property. Preservation of documents 91.01.11 (1) The owner or operator of an aircraft who is required to retain any of the documents for the specified period referred to in subpart 3, shall retain such documents for such specified period irrespective of the fact that such owner or operator, before the expiry of such period, ceases to be the owner or operator of the aircraft. (2) The owner or operator of an aircraft operated in the mass category specified under Table 1 of Part 187 and issued with a certificate of airworthiness in any category in terms of Part 21, shall be liable for a currency fee, as prescribed in Part 187. Such fees shall be payable in advance on the anniversary date on which the certificate of airworthiness was issued or re-issued as the case may be. Should the aircraft be unserviceable and not in possession of a valid certificate of airworthiness at that time, the currency fee mentioned will be waived until the aircraft is again serviceable and the certificate of airworthiness reissued. The fee for the re-issue of the certificate of airworthiness as prescribed by Part 187 shall then be applicable.
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SUBPART 2: FLIGHT CREW
Composition of flight crew 91.02.1(1) The number and composition of the flight crew shall not be less than the number and composition specified in the certificate of airworthiness, the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2 or any other document associated with the certificate of airworthiness. (2) The flight crew members shall (a) be competent and qualified to perform the duties assigned to them; and (b) hold the appropriate valid flight crew member licences and ratings. (3) The flight crew shall include at least one member who holds a valid radiotelephony operator licence or an equivalent document issued by an appropriate authority, authorising such member to operate the type of radio transmitting equipment to be used. (Editorial note; See AIC 30.9) (4) In the case of a multi-pilot crew, the owner or operator shall designate one pilot among the flight crew as pilot-in-command of the aircraft and the pilot-incommand may delegate the conduct of the flight to another suitably qualified pilot. Flight crew member emergency duties 91.02.2(1) The owner or operator and, where appropriate, the pilot-in-command of a multi-crew aircraft shall assign to each flight crew member concerned, the necessary functions to be performed in an emergency or a situation requiring emergency evacuation. (2) The functions referred to in sub-regulation (1) shall be such as to ensure that any reasonably anticipated emergency can be adequately dealt with and shall take into consideration the possible incapacitation of individual flight crew members. Flight crew member responsibilities 91.02.3(1) No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft (a) while under the influence of any drug having a narcotic effect; (b) within 24 hours following scuba diving by such flight crew member; (c) within 48 hours following blood donation by such flight crew member; (d) if the flight crew member knows or suspects that he or she is suffering from or, having due regard to the circumstances of the flight to be undertaken, is likely to suffer from fatigue to such an extent that it may endanger the safety of the aircraft or its occupants; or
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(e) if the flight crew member is in any doubt of being able to accomplish his or her assigned duties on board the aircraft. (2) No flight crew member shall (a) consume any alcohol less than 12 hours prior to commencing standby for flight duty or flight duty, which flight duty shall be deemed to commence at the specified reporting time, if applicable; (b) commence flight duty while the concentration of alcohol in any specimen of blood taken from any part of his or her body, is more than 0,00gram per 100 millilitres; or (c) consume alcohol during flight duty or whilst on standby, or within eight hours after an accident or reportable incident involving the aircraft, unless the accident or incident was not related to his or her duties. (3) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (4), no person shall act as a flight deck crew member of an aircraft if, prior to each flight, the flight time exceeds, or is likely to exceed, the permissible aggregate of (a) in the case of an operation other than an operation referred to in paragraph (e), irrespective of whether such operation is carried out under a licence issued in terms of the Air Services Licencing Act, 1990 (Act No. 1 15 of 1990), or the International Air Services Act, 1993 (Act No. 60 of 1993) (i.) (ii.) (iii.) 400 hours, during the preceding 90 days; 700 hours, during the preceding six months; or 1000 hours, during the preceding 12 months;
(b) in the case of flight instructors conducting ab initio training, six hours within one calendar day; (c) as part of a multi-pilot crew for a flight to be undertaken wholly or partly under instrument flight rules (i.) (ii.) (iii.) 120 hours, during the preceding 30 days; 300 hours, during the preceding 90 days; or 1000 hours, during the preceding 12 months;
(d) as the sole pilot of an aircraft for a flight to be undertaken wholly or partly under instrument flight rules (i.) (ii.) 100 hours, during the preceding 30 days; or 1000 hours, during the preceding 12 months; or
(e) in the case of an operation carried out in terms of Part 121, Part 127, Part 135 or Part 138
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(i.) (ii.) (iii.) (iv.)
eight hours, during the preceding 24 hours; 32 hours, during the preceding seven days; 100 hours, during the preceding 30 days; or 1000 hours, during the preceding 365 days.
(4) If a flight deck crew member expects his or her cumulative flight hours projected for a particular operation, to exceed the appropriate limit (a) referred to in sub-regulation (3); or (b) specified in the flight time and duty scheme of an operator carrying out operations in terms of Part 121, Part 127, Part 135 or Part 138, the flight deck crew member shall inform the operator accordingly. Recency 91.02.4 (1)A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers by day, unless such pilot has, within the 90 days immediately preceding the flight, carried out either by day or by night at least three take-offs and three landings in the same class and category of aircraft as that in which such flight is to be undertaken, or in a simulator. (2) A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers by night, unless the pilot has, within the 90 days immediately preceding the flight, carried out at least three take-offs and three landings by night, in the same class and category of aircraft as that in which such flight is to be undertaken, or in a simulator. (3) A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft on an instrument approach to an aerodrome in IMC unless the pilot has, within the 90 days immediately preceding such approach, by means of an instrument approach procedure or procedures established by the Commissioner or an appropriate authority (a) executed at least two actual approaches with reference to flight instruments only; (b) executed at least two approaches either under actual or simulated conditions with reference to flight instruments only; or (c) executed at least one actual approach with reference to flight instruments only and one approach in a simulator for the purpose of practising instrument approach procedure; (d) or undergone the appropriate skill test as prescribed in Part 61. Flight crew members at duty station 91.02.5(1) In the case of a multi-crew aircraft (a) each flight crew member shall be at his or her assigned station or seat, properly secured by all seat belts and shoulder harnesses provided,during take-off and landing and whenever deemed necessary by the pilot-in-command in the interests of aviation safety;
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(b) each flight deck crew member shall keep his or her seat belt fastened while at his or her assigned station, during phases of the flight, other than the phases referred to in subparagraph (a); (c) each flight deck crew member required to be on flight deck duty, shall be at his or her assigned station, during take-off and landing; (d) all flight deck crew members on flight deck duty shall remain at their assigned stations during all phases of the flight other than the phases referred to in subparagraph (c): Provided that (i.) (ii.) a flight deck crew member may leave his or her assigned station, in the course of the performance of his or her duties with regard to the operation of the aircraft or for physiological needs; and at least one suitably qualified pilot remains at the controls of the aircraft at all times.
(e) the pilot-in-command or, where applicable, the operator shall ensure that flight crew members do not perform any activities during critical phases of the flight other than those required for the safe operation of the aircraft. (2) In the case of a single-pilot aircraft, the pilot-in-command shall, during all phases of the flight, remain at the controls of the aircraft. Laws, regulations and procedures 91.02.6(1) In an emergency situation which endangers the aircraft, flight crew members or passengers, the pilot-in-command may, in the interests of aviation safety (a) take any action which he or she considers necessary under the circumstances; and (b) deviate from any law, regulation and operational procedure of the State within or over the territory of which the aircraft is operated. (2) If a pilot-in-command deviates from any law, regulation or operational procedure in an emergency situation referred to in sub-regulation (1), he or she shall notify the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the deviation occurs, of such deviation without delay. (3) If the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the deviation occurs, requests the pilot-in-command to submit a report on such deviation, the pilot-in-command shall submit the report (a) within the period specified by such appropriate authority, to such appropriate authority; and (b) within 10 days from the date on which such report is requested by such appropriate authority, to the Commissioner.
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Duties of pilot-in-command regarding flight preparation 91.02.7(1) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall not commence a flight unless he or she is satisfied that (a) the aircraft is airworthy; (b) the instruments and equipment required for the particular type of operation to be undertaken, are installed and are serviceable, except as provided for in the MEL, if any; (c) the aircraft has been released to service in accordance with Part 43; (d) the mass of the aircraft does not exceed the maximum certificated mass calculated from the performance information provided in the aircraft flight manual referred to in regulation 91.03.2, in terms of which the operating limitations referred to in subpart 9 are complied with; (e) the load carried by the aircraft is properly secured, fit to be conveyed in accordance with Part 92 and is so distributed that the centre of gravity is within the limits prescribed in the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2; (f) in respect of aeroplanes operated in terms of Part 121 or Part 135, an operational flight plan which complies with the criteria in the operations manual, is completed for each intended flight; (g) an air traffic service flight plan referred to in Regulation 91.03.4, has been properly completed and filed with the appropriate air traffic service unit, if such flight plan is required in terms of Regulation 91.03.4; (h) all the documents and forms required to be carried on board, current maps, charts and associated documents, if any, are carried; (i) a check has been completed indicating that the operating limitations referred to in subpart 9 will not be exceeded; (j) the search and rescue information, referred to in Regulation 91.01.4, is available on board;
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(k) the requirements in respect of fuel, oil, oxygen, minimum safe altitudes, aerodrome operating minima and availability of alternate aerodromes are complied with; (l) the aerodrome operating minima are not less than the operating minima of the aerodrome being operated to or from, established by the appropriate authority of the State in which the aerodrome is located, unless such appropriate authority approves lower aerodrome operating minima; (m) the status of the aircraft and the relevant airborne systems appropriate for the specific flight to be undertaken; (n) the external surfaces are clear of any deposit which might adversely affect the performance or controllability of the aircraft, unless otherwise permitted in the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2; (o) according to the information available to him or her, the weather at the aerodrome and, in respect of an aeroplane, the condition of the runway intended to be used, will not prevent a safe take-off and departure or a safe landing at the destination aerodrome or alternate aerodrome, as applicable ; (p) the RVR or visibility in the take-off direction of the aircraft is equal to, or better than, the applicable minimum; (q) the flight crew members are properly qualified for the specific operation to be undertaken; (r) the status of the visual and non-visual facilities are sufficient prior to commencing a low visibility take-off, or a Category II or III approach as specified in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91, if such approaches are planned; (s) an adequate and suitable aerodrome as specified in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91, is available for take-off, en route and destination, should it become inadvisable to continue to or land at the destination aerodrome; and (t) the flight crew members are not apparently incapacitated as a result of injury, sickness, fatigue or the consumption of alcohol or drugs having a narcotic effect. (2) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall (a) not commence a flight unless he or she has ascertained through the relevant NOTAM, ATC, AIP or AIP SUP that the aerodromes, navigation aids and communication facilities are adequate for the manner in which the flight is to be conducted; (b) prior to take-off from an aerodrome at which an air traffic service unit is in operation, determine through the aeronautical information services available from the unit or any other reliable source, that the unserviceability of any aerodrome, navigation aids or communication facilities required for such flight, will not prejudice the safe conduct of the flight; and
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(c) advise an air traffic service unit, as soon as it is practical to do so, of any inadequate facilities encountered in the course of operations. (3) Where a load and trim sheet is required in terms of these Regulations,the load and trim sheet shall be acceptable to and countersigned by the pilot-in-command before a flight commences: Provided that if the load and trim sheet is submitted to the pilot-in-command by electronic data transfer, commencement of the flight shall be deemed to be the acceptance thereof by such pilot-in-command. (4) Before take-off and landing, and whenever deemed necessary in the interest of aviation safety, the pilot-in-command shall ensure that all flight crew,passengers, equipment and baggage is properly secured and all exit and escape paths are unobstructed. Duties of pilot-in-command regarding flight operations 91.02.8(1) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall be responsible for(a) the operation and safety of the aircraft while he or she is in command; (b) the conduct and safety of flight crew members and passengers carried;and (c) the maintenance of discipline by all persons on board; (2) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall have the authority (a) to give such commands he or she deems necessary in the interest of the safety of the aircraft, persons or property; and (b) to disembark any person or cargo which in his or her opinion, represents a potential hazard to the safety of the aircraft, persons or property. (3) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall ensure that all passengers are informed as to(a) when and how oxygen equipment is to be used, if the carriage of oxygen is required; (b) the location and use of life jackets or equivalent individual flotation devices, where the carriage thereof is required; (c) the location and method of opening emergency exits; (d) when seat belts are to be fastened; (e) when smoking is prohibited; and (f) when portable electronic devices may be used.
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(4) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall (a) ensure that the pre-flight inspection has been carried out, and that the checklists, and where applicable, the flight deck procedures and other instructions regarding the operation of the aircraft, the limitations contained in the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2, or equivalent certification document, are fully complied with at the appropriate times during a flight; (b) decide whether or not to accept an aircraft with unserviceabilities allowed by the CDL or MEL, where applicable; (c) before take-off, ensure that the passengers are briefed on the location and general manner of use of the relevant emergency equipment carried for collective use and, when an emergency arises, shall instruct the passengers to take such emergency action as may be appropriate; (d) ensure that during take-off and landing and whenever, by reason of turbulence or any emergency occurring during a flight, the precaution is considered necessary, all persons on board the aircraft are secured in their seats by means of the seat belts or shoulder harnesses provided; (e) when replanning, whilst in flight, to proceed along a route or to a destination other than the route or destination originally planned, shall amend the operational flight plan, if such a plan was required in terms of Regulation 91.02.7(1)(f); (f) report any accident or incident involving the aircraft in accordance with Part 12; (g) report any dangerous goods accident or incident involving the aircraft in accordance with Part 92; (h) if the aircraft is endangered in flight by a near collision with any other aircraft or object, faulty air traffic procedure or lack of compliance with applicable procedures by an air traffic service unit or a flight crew member or a failure of air traffic service facilities, submit an air traffic service incident report in accordance with Regulation 12.02.2; (i) record any technical defect and the exceeding of any technical limitation which occurred while he or she was responsible for the flight, in the flight folio; and (j) if a potentially hazardous condition such as bird accumulation, an irregularity in a ground or navigation facility, meteorological phenomena, a volcanic ash cloud or a greater than normal radiation level is observed during flight, notify an air traffic service unit as soon as possible. (5) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall ensure that (a) breathing oxygen is available to flight crew members and passengers if flights in a non-pressurised aircraft are contemplated above 10 000 feet up to 12 000 feet in excess of 60 minutes, or above 12 000 feet; and
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(b) breathing oxygen is carried in sufficient quantities for all flights at such altitudes where a lack of oxygen might result in impairment of faculties of flight crew members, or harmfully affect passengers. (6) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall not (a) require a flight crew member to perform any duties during a critical phase of the flight, except those duties required for the safe operation of the aircraft; (b) permit any activity during a critical phase of the flight which could distract any flight crew member from the performance of his or her duties or which could interfere in any way with the proper conduct of those duties; and (c) continue a flight beyond the nearest suitable aerodrome in the event of a flight crew member becoming unable to perform any essential duties as a result of fatigue, sickness or lack of oxygen. (7) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft, or in his or her absence, the owner or operator thereof, shall report any act of unlawful interference with the operation of the aircraft, or the authority of the pilot-in-command (a) if the act of unlawful interference occurs within the Republic, to the Commissioner; or (b) if the act of unlawful interference occurs within or over the territory of a foreign State, to the appropriate authority of the State and the Commissioner.
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SUBPART 3: DOCUMENTATION AND RECORDS
Documents to be carried on board 91.03.1 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that the following documents, or certified true copies thereof, are carried on board the aircraft on each individual flight: (a) If the aircraft is engaged in an international flight (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii) (ix) (x) (xi) (xii) (xiii) (xiv) the certificate of airworthiness; the appropriate licence of each flight crew member; the journey logbook or general declaration; the aircraft radio station licence; if passengers are carried, the passenger manifest, unless the information is included in the general declaration referred to in subparagraph (iv); if cargo is carried, a manifest and detailed declaration of the cargo; the certificate of release to service; the navigation log when a navigator is carried, the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2, or an equivalent document; the certificate of registration; the mass and balance report; the flight folio; the MEL, if applicable; the noise certificate, if such certificate has been issued for the type of aircraft; and a list of visual signals for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft;
(b) if the aircraft is engaged in a domestic flight (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) the certificate of registration; the certificate of airworthiness; the appropriate licence of each flight crew member; the aircraft radio station licence; the certificate of release to service; the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2 or an equivalent document; (vii) the mass and balance report; (viii) the flight folio, (ix) the MEL, if applicable; (x) the noise certificate, if such certificate has been issued for the type of aircraft; and (xi) the list of visual signals for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft.
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Aircraft flight manual 91.03.2(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall keep a current approved aircraft flight manual for each aircraft of which he or she is the owner or operator. (2) The flight crew members of the aircraft shall, on each flight, operate such aircraft in accordance with the aircraft flight manual, unless an unforeseen emergency dictates otherwise . Aircraft checklists 91.03.3 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall, where applicable, establish and make available to the flight crew and other personnel in his or her employ needing the information, a checklist system for the aircraft, to be used by such flight crew and other personnel for all phases of the operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions. Air traffic service flight plan 91.03.4(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that an air traffic service flight plan is completed if required in terms of sub-regulation (4). (2) The items to be contained in the air traffic service flight plan referred to in subregulation (1) shall be as prescribed Document SACATS-OPS 91. (3) The air traffic service flight plan shall be filed with the appropriate air traffic service unit and such unit shall be responsible for transmitting such air traffic service flight plan to all air traffic service units concerned with the flight. (4) The air traffic service flight plan shall be filed in respect of (a) all flights to be conducted in controlled or advisory airspace: Provided that this requirement shall not apply in respect of(i.) (ii.) (iii.) a local flight; a flight crossing an airway or advisory routes at right angles; or a VFR flight entering or departing from an aerodrome traffic zone or control zone, from or to an unmanned aerodrome and where no other controlled or advisory airspace will be entered during the flight;
(b) an international flight; (c) all flights undertaken in terms of a Class I or Class II licence issued in terms of the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990, or the International Air Services Act, 1993; and (d) a flight for which alerting action is required.
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(5) An air traffic control unit may instruct a flight for which an air traffic service flight plan is required in terms of sub-regulation (4) and for which an air traffic service flight plan has not been filed, to clear or to remain clear of controlled airspace, and not to cross the border of the Republic or to enter its airspace until such time as the required air traffic service flight plan has been filed. (6) Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible air traffic service unit, an air traffic service flight plan for a flight to be conducted in controlled or advisory airspace, shall be filed at least 30 minutes before departure or, if filed during flight while outside controlled or advisory airspace for a flight to be conducted in such airspace, it shall be filed with the responsible air traffic service unit at least 10 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into the controlled or advisory airspace. (7) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that all changes which become applicable to an air traffic service flight plan before departure or in flight, are reported, as soon as practicable, to the responsible air traffic service unit. (8) If an air traffic service flight plan has been filed with an air traffic service unit prior to departure, and is not activated with an air traffic service unit within one hour of original estimated time of departure or amended estimated time of departure, the air traffic service flight plan shall be regarded as cancelled and a new air traffic service flight plan shall be filed. (9) Where an air traffic service unit is not in operation at the aerodrome of intended landing a report shall be submitted to an air traffic service unit, by the quickest means of communication available, immediately before or after landing, in respect of a flight for which an air traffic service flight plan was submitted and not as yet closed. (10) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (11), the pilot-in-command shall ensure that the aircraft adheres to the current air traffic service flight plan filed for a controlled flight, unless a request for a change has been made and accepted by the air traffic control unit responsible for the controlled airspace in which the aircraft is operating, or unless an emergency situation arises which necessitates immediate action, in which event the responsible air traffic control unit shall, as soon as circumstances permit, be notified of the action taken and that such action was taken under emergency authority. (11) In the event of a controlled flight inadvertently deviating from its current air traffic service flight plan, the following action shall be taken: (a) If the aircraft is off track, action shall be taken forthwith to adjust the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable; (b) if the average true airspeed at cruising level between reporting points varies, or is expected to vary, from that given in an air traffic service flight plan by approximately five per cent of the true airspeed, the responsible air traffic service unit shall be so informed;
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(c) if the estimated time at the next applicable reporting point, flight information regional boundary, or aerodrome of intended landing, which ever comes first, is found to be in error in excess of three minutes from that notified to the responsible air traffic service unit, a revised estimated time shall be notified to such air traffic service unit as soon as possible; or (d) if the aircraft deviates from its altitude, action shall be taken forthwith to correct the altitude of the aircraft. Flight folio 91.03.5(1) The owner or operator of a South African registered aircraft shall ensure that the aircraft carries a flight folio or any other similar document which contains the information as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91, at all times. (2) The flight folio shall be kept up-to-date and maintained in a legible manner. (3) All entries shall be made immediately upon completion of the occurrence to which they refer. (4) In the case of maintenance being undertaken on the aircraft, the entry shall be certified by the person taking responsibility for the maintenance performed. (5) The owner or operator shall retain the flight folio for a period of five years calculated from the date of the last entry therein. Fuel and oil record 91.03.6(1) The owner of operator of an aircraft shall maintain fuel and oil records for each flight undertaken by the aircraft under the control of such owner or operator. (2) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall enter the fuel and oil records referred to in sub-regulation (1) in the flight folio. Certificate of release to service 91.03.7(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate a South African registered aircraft without holding a valid certificate of release to service signed by the holder of an appropriately rated aircraft maintenance engineer licence or aircraft maintenance organisation approval; or (a) a foreign aircraft without holding a valid certificate, equivalent to the certificate referred to in paragraph (a), issued by an appropriate authority. (2) The owner or operator shall
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(a) ensure that one copy of the certificate of release to service or equivalent certificate is carried on board the aircraft to which it relates and, in the case of a South African registered aircraft, a second copy shall be filed at the normal station of the aircraft; and (b) retain the certificate of release to service for a period of 12 months calculated from the date of issue of such certificate of release to service Flight recorder records 91.03.8 shallThe owner or operator of an aircraft on which a flight recorder is carried,
(a) in the case of an accident or incident involving such aircraft, preserve the original recording, as retained by the flight recorder, for a period of not less than 60 days calculated from the date of the accident or incident, or until permission for disposal of such recording has been given by the investigator in charge or an appropriate authority, whichever is the latter date; (b) when the Commissioner so directs, preserve the original recording, as retained by the flight recorder, for a period of not less than 60 days calculated from the date of such direction or until permission for disposal of such recording has been given by the Commissioner. (2) If an aircraft is required under this part to be fitted with a flight data recorder, the owner or operator of the aircraft shall (a) save the recording for the period of operating time as required by sub-regulation (l)(a) and (b): Provided that for the purpose of testing and maintaining a flight data recorder one hour of the oldest recorded material at the time of testing may be erased; (b) keep a recording of at least one representative flight made within the preceding 12 months which includes a take-off, climb, cruise, descent, approach and landing, together with a means of identifying the recording with the flight to which it relates; and (c) keep a document which represents the information necessary to retrieve and convert the stored data into engineering units. (3) The owner or operator of an aircraft on which a flight recorder is carried shall, within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by the Commissioner or an appropriate authority, produce any recording made by such flight recorder which is available or has been preserved. (4) A cockpit voice recorder recording may be used for purposes other than for the investigation of an accident or incident only with the consent of all the flight crew members concerned.
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(5) The flight data recorder recordings may be used for purposes other than the investigation of an accident or incident which is subject to mandatory reporting, only when such recordings are (a) used by the owner or operator for airworthiness or maintenance purposes only; (b) de-identified; or (c) disclosed under secure procedures.
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SUBPART 4: INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT
Use of instruments and equipment by pilot 91.04.1(1) Instruments on an aircraft which are used by a pilot shall be so arranged in such a manner that the pilot can see their indications readily from his or her station, with the minimum practicable deviation from the position and line of vision which he or she normally assumes when looking forward along the flight path. (2) if a single instrument or item of equipment in an aircraft is required to be operated by more than one pilot, such single instrument or item of equipment shall be installed in such a manner that it can be readily seen and operated from each pilot station. (3) An aircraft shall be equipped with means for indicating the adequacy of the power being supplied to the required flight instruments. Circuit protection devices 91.04.2(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft in which fuses are used, shall operate the aircraft unless there are spare fuses available for use in flight equal to at least ten per cent or three, whichever is the greater, of the number of fuses of each rating required for complete circuit protection, which spare fuses shall be accessible to the flight crew during flight. (2) If the ability to reset a circuit breaker or replace a fuse is essential to safety in flight, such circuit breaker or fuse shall be located and identified in such a manner that it can be readily reset or replaced in flight. (3) No person shall deactivate a circuit breaker in flight other than in accordance with the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2. Aircraft operating lights 91.04.3(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate an aircraft by day unless the aircraft is equipped with (a) an anti-collision light system; (b) lighting supplied from the electrical system of the aircraft to provide adequate illumination for all instruments and equipment used by the flight crew essential for the safe operation of such aircraft; (c) lighting supplied from the electrical system of the aircraft to provide illumination in all passenger compartments, if any; and (d) an intrinsically safe electric torch for each required flight crew member readily accessible to such flight crew member when seated at his or her designated seat.
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(2) No owner or operator of an aeroplane shall operate the aeroplane by night unless such aeroplane is equipped with (a) the instruments and equipment referred to in sub-regulation (1); (b) navigation or position lights; (c) two landing lights or a single light having two separately energised filaments; and (d) in the case of an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms, two parachute flares. (3) No owner or operator of a helicopter shall operate the helicopter by night unless such helicopter is equipped with (a) in the case of a flight by night within 10 nautical miles, a light or lights providing adequate illumination both forward and downward to facilitate safe approaches, landings and take-offs; or (b) in the case of a flight by night of more than 10 nautical miles, two landing lights or a single light having two separately energised filaments which are capable of providing adequate illumination both forward and downward to facilitate safe approaches, landings and take-offs. (4) No owner or operator of a seaplane or an amphibious aircraft shall operate the seaplane or amphibious aircraft unless it is equipped with (a) the instruments and equipment referred to in sub-regulation (1), (2) or(3), as the case may be; and (b) when operating on water by night, display lights to conform with the International Regulations for Prevention Collisions at Sea. (5) The navigation lights to be displayed by aircraft at night, on the water or on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, shall be as prescribed in Regulation 91.06.10. Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aircraft operated under VFR 91.04.4 No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft in accordance with VFR, unless such aircraft is equipped with (a) a magnetic compass; (b) an accurate time-piece showing the time in hours, minutes, and seconds; (c) a sensitive pressure altimeter with a subscale setting, calibrated in hectopascal, adjustable for any barometric pressure setting likely to be encountered during flight,
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(d) an airspeed indicator; and (e) if to be operated by night, a chart holder in an easily readable position which can be illuminated. Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aircraft operated under IFR 91.04.5 No owner or operator of an aircraft in accordance with IFR, unless such aircraft is equipped with (a) a magnetic compass; (b) an accurate time-piece showing the time in hours, minutes and seconds; (c) a sensitive pressure altimeter with subscale settings, calibrated in hectopascal, adjustable for any barometric pressure setting likely to be encountered during flight; (d) an airspeed indicator system with heated pitot tube or equivalent means for preventing malfunctioning due to either condensation or icing, including a warning indicator of pitot heater failure; (e) a vertical-speed indicator; (f) a stabilised direction indicator; (g) a turn-and-bank indicator, or a turn co-ordinator incorporating a slip indicator; (h) an attitude indicator; (i) a rate-of-climb and descent indicator, (j) a means of indication, in the cockpit or the flight deck, the outside air temperature in degrees Celsius; (k) a chart holder in an easily readable position which can be illuminated for operations by night. Additional equipment for single-pilot operation in accordance with IFR 91.04.6 No owner or operator of an aircraft shall conduct single-pilot IFR operations in the aircraft unless such aircraft has been certificated for such operations and is equipped with(a) a stability augmentation or automatic flight control system with at least altitude hold and heading mode; and
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(b) a headset with boom microphone or equivalent and a transmit button on the control wheel, joy stick or cyclic stick. Mach number indicator 91.04.7 No owner or operator of an aircraft with speed limitations expressed in terms of Mach number, shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is equipped with a Mach number indicator. Radio altimeter 91.04.8 No owner or operator of a helicopter shall operate the helicopter on a flight over water at a distance from land corresponding to more than 10 minutes at normal cruise speed, unless such helicopter is equipped with a radio altimeter with an audio voice warning or other means, operating below a preset height and with a visual warning capable of operating at a height selectable by the pilot. Equipment for operations in icing conditions 91.04.9 (1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft in forecast or actual icing conditions unless such aircraft is certificated and equipped to operate in icing conditions. (2) The owner or operator shall not operate the aircraft in forecast or actual icing conditions by night unless such aircraft is equipped with a means to illuminate or detect the formation of ice. (3) The means of illumination referred to in sub-regulation (2), shall be of a type which does not cause glare or reflection which may handicap flight deck crew members in the performance of their duties. Flight recorder 91.04.10(1) The owner or operator of a South African registered aircraft which is required to be with a flight recorder in terms of Regulation 91.04. 12 or 91.04. 13, shall ensure that the flight recorder complies with the specifications as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. (2) There shall be an aural or visual means for pre-flight checking to determine that the flight recorder is operating properly. (3) The flight recorder shall not be switched off during flight. (4) Each flight recorder installed in an aircraft shall be located in such a manner that maximum practicable protection is provided, in order that, in the event of an accident/ incident, the recorded data may be recovered in a preserved and intelligible state. (5) Where a flight recorder is installed, it shall not
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(a) be a source of danger in itself; (b) prejudice the proper functioning of any essential service; and (c) in anyway reduce the serviceability or airworthiness of the aircraft in which it is installed, even if the flight recorder fails to function. (6) The owner or operator of the aircraft shall ensure that retrieving the recorded data from the storage medium will be readily possible. (7) The parameters of the flight recorder shall be determined within the ranges, accuracys and recording intervals as prescribed in Document SACATS OPS 91. (8) Each flight recorder container installed in the aircraft shall (a) be bright orange or bright yellow; (b) have reflective tape affixed to the external surface to facilitate its location under water; and (c) have an approved underwater location device on or adjacent to each container which is secured in such a manner that the device shall be required when the cockpit voice recorder and the flight data recorder required under this part are installed adjacent to each other in such a manner that they are not likely to be separated during crash impact. (9) The owner or operator of the aircraft shall (a) copy and check the data on the flight recorder every six months, for the purpose of ensuring that such flight recorder is serviceable; and (b) record and retain the results of such check for a period of five years calculated from the date of such check. Foil data recorder 91.04.11 The owner or operator of a South African registered aircraft which is required to be equipped with a flight recorder in terms of Regulation 91.04.12 or 91.04.13, shall, if the flight recorder is a foil data recorder, replace the foil data recorder with a digital flight recorder before or on 1 July 1998. Cockpit voice recorder 91.04. 12(1) No owner or operator shall operate (a) an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms, classified for operation in the transport category, and to which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued on or after 1 January 1981;
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(b) an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 27 000 kilograms, to which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued on or after 1 January 1987; (c) a turbo-engine aeroplane to which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued before 1 January 1987, which is an aeroplane with maximum certificated mass exceeding 27 000 kilograms, and is of a type of which the prototype was certified by an appropriate authority after 30 September 1969; or (d) a helicopter with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 7 000 kilograms, to which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued on or after 1 January 1987, unless such aeroplane or helicopter is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which complies with the specifications referred to in Regulation 91.04.10(1). (2) The cockpit voice recorder shall record, with reference to a time scale (a) voice communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck or in the cockpit by radio; (b) the aural environment of the flight deck or cockpit, including without interruption, the audio signals received from each microphone in use; (c) voice communications of flight deck crew members on the flight deck or cockpit using the interphone system of the aircraft, if installed; (d) voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker; (e) voice communications of flight deck crew members on the flight deck or crew members in the cockpit using the public address system of the aircraft, if installed; and (f) in the case of a helicopter referred to in sub-regulation (l)(d) and which is not required to be equipped with a flight data recorder, the parameters necessary to determine main rotor speed. (3) The cockpit voice recorder shall (a) be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last 30 minutes of the aircraft's operation; (b) start automatically to record once the aircraft is moving under its own power and continue to record, until the termination of the flight when the aircraft is no longer capable of moving under its own power; and (c) if possible, start to record the cockpit checks prior to engine start at the beginning of the flight, until the cockpit checks immediately following engine shutdown at the end of the flight.
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(4) The cockpit voice recorder may be combined with a night data recorder referred to in Regulation 91.04.13. (5) An aircraft may commence a flight with the cockpit voice recorder inoperative. Provided that (a) the aircraft shall not take-off from an aerodrome where repairs or replacements to such cockpit voice recorder can be made; (b) the aircraft does not exceed six further consecutive flights with the cockpit voice recorder unserviceable; (c) not more than 48 hours have elapsed since the cockpit voice recorder became unserviceable, and (d) any flight data recorder required to be carried, is operative, unless the flight data recorder is combined with a cockpit voice recorder. Flight data recorder 91.04.13(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft specified in Document SA- CATSOPS 91, shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is equipped with the appropriate flight data recorder as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. (2) The flight data recorder shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least(a) in the case of an aeroplane, the last 25 hours of its operation; or (b) in the case of a helicopter, the last 10 hours of its operation. (3) The data obtained from a flight data recorder shall be obtained from aircraft sources which enable accurate correlation with information displayed to the flight crew. (4) The flight data recorder shall start automatically to record the data prior to the aircraft being capable of moving under its own power and shall stop automatically after the aircraft is incapable of moving under its own power. (5) An aircraft may commence a flight with the flight data recorder inoperative: Provided that (a) the aircraft shall not depart from an aerodrome where repairs or replacements to such flight data recorder can be made; (b) the aircraft does not exceed six further consecutive flights with the flight data recorder unserviceable,
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(c) not more than 48 hours have elapsed since the flight data recorder became unserviceable; and (d) any cockpit voice recorder is combined with the flight data recorder. Seats, seat safety belts, harnesses and child restraint devices 91.04.14(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is equipped, as applicable, with (a) a seat or berth for each person who is aged two years or more; (b) a safety belt with or without a diagonal shoulder strap, or a safety harness, for use in each passenger seat for each passenger who is aged two or more; (c) a restraining belt for use in each passenger berth; (d) a child restraint device for each passenger who is less than two years of age; (e) a safety harness for each flight deck crew member seat, incorporating a device which will automatically restrain the occupant's torso in the event of rapid deceleration; and (f) a safety harness for each cabin crew member seat: Provided that a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap is permitted if the fitting of a safety harness is not reasonably practical. (2) Seats for cabin crew members shall, where possible, be located near a floor-level emergency exits, the additional cabin crew member seats required shall be located such that a cabin crew member may best be able to assist passengers in the rearward facing within 15 of the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. (3) If the pilot-in-command cannot see all the passenger seats in the aircraft from his or her own seat, a means of indicating to all passengers and cabin crew members that seat belts should be fastened, shall be installed. (4) All safety harnesses and safety belts shall have a single point release. Stowage of articles, baggage and cargo 91.04.15 No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless all articles, baggage and cargo carried on board, except those items in use by either the flight crew or by passengers, if such use is not prohibited by the pilot- in-command in the interest of the safety of the aircraft or its occupants, are placed (a) in a manner which prevents movement likely to cause injury or damage and does not obstruct aisles and exits; or
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(b) in stowages designed to prevent movement likely to cause injury or damage . Standard first aid kit 91.04.16(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is equipped with an appropriate first aid kit as prescribed in Document SACATS-OPS 91. (2) The owner or operator shall carry out periodical inspections of the first aid kits to ensure that, as far as practicable, the contents thereof are in a condition necessary for their intended use. (3) The supplies in the standard first aid kit shall be replenished at regular intervals, in accordance with instructions contained on their labels, or as circumstances require. First aid oxygen 91.04.17(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft in respect of which the carriage of a cabin crew member is required in terms of this part, shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is equipped with the appropriate supply of first aid oxygen prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. (2) The conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards for first aid oxygen shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. Supplemental oxygen in the case of pressurised aircraft 91.04.18(1) No owner or operator of a pressurised aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is equipped with the supplemental oxygen as prescribed in Document SACATS-OPS 91. Supplemental oxygen in the case of non-pressurised aircraft 91.04.19(1) No owner or operator of a non-pressurised aircraft shall operate the aircraft at altitudes above 10 000 feet and up to 12 000 feet for longer than 60 minutes, or above 12 000 feet, unless such aircraft is equipped with the supplemental oxygen as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. (2) The conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards for supplemental oxygen shall be as prescribed in Document SACATS-OPS 91. Flight crew protective breathing equipment 91.04.20(1) No owner or operator of a pressurised aeroplane shall operate the aeroplane on or after 1 January 2000, or an unpressurised aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms and a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 seats, at altitudes above12 000 feet, unless such aeroplane-
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(a) is equipped with equipment to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of each flight deck crew member while on flight deck duty and to provide oxygen for a period of at least 15 minutes; (b) has sufficient portable protective breathing equipment to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of all cabin crew members required to be carried in terms of this part and to provide breathing gas for a period of at least 15 minutes; and (c) if no cabin crew member is carried, is equipped with portable protective breathing equipment to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of one member of the flight deck crew and to provide breathing gas for a period of at least 15 minutes. (2) The supply of protective breathing equipment may be provided by supplemental oxygen referred to in Regulation 91.04.19 or 91.04.19. (3) Protective breathing equipment intended for use by flight deck crew, shall be conveniently located on the flight deck and be easily accessible for immediate use by each required flight deck crew member at his or her assigned duty station. (4) Protective breathing equipment intended for use by cabin crew shall be installed adjacent to each required cabin crew member duty station. (5) Additional, easily accessible portable protective breathing equipment shall be provided and located at, or adjacent to, the hand fire extinguishers referred to in Regulation 91.04.21. Provided that where the fire extinguisher is located inside a cargo compartment, the protective breathing equipment shall be stowed outside, but adjacent to, the entrance to such compartment. (6) Protective breathing equipment, while in use, shall not prevent communication, where required. Hand fire extinguishers 91.04.21 No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is equipped with the appropriate hand fire extinguishers as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. Crash axes and crowbars 91.04.22(1) No owner or operator of an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms or a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than nine seats, shall operate the aeroplane unless such aeroplane is equipped with at least one crash axe or crowbar located on the flight deck. (2) If the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is more than 200 seats, an additional crash axe or crowbar shall be carried in the aeroplane and located in or near the most rearward galley area.
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Marking of break-in points 91.04.23 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that, if areas of the fuselage suitable for break-in by rescue crews in emergency, are marked on the aircraft, such areas shall be marked in accordance with the requirements as prescribed in Part 47. Megaphones 91.04.24(1) No owner or operator of an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 50 seats, or a helicopter with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 seats, and which is carrying one or more passengers, shall operate the aeroplane or helicopter unless such aeroplane or helicopter is equipped with the appropriate portable battery-powered megaphones as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. (2) The conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards for battery powered megaphones shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. Emergency lighting 91.04.25(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 seats, shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is equipped with the appropriate emergency lighting system as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. (2) The conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards for emergency lighting shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. Automatic emergency locator transmitter 91.04.26(1) No owner or operator of(a) an aircraft to be operated on extended flights over water or over areas where search and rescue would be especially difficult; (b) an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms or a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 seats; or (c) a helicopter with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 seats, shall operate such aircraft; unless it is equipped with an automatic emergency locator transmitter. (2) The owner or operator shall ensure that the automatic emergency locator transmitter(a) is attached to the aircraft in such a manner that, in the event of a crash, the probability of such automatic emergency locator transmitter transmitting a detectable signal, is maximises, and the probability of such automatic emergency locator transmitter being damaged, is minimised; and
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(b) complies with the specifications, and is capable of transmitting on the frequencies, as prescribed in Document SA-CAT-OPS 91. Life jackets and other flotation devices 91.04.27 No owner or operator of-
(a) an aeroplane other than an aircraft referred to in paragraphs (b) and (c) shall operate the aeroplane (i) when flying over water and at a distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the shore, in the case of the aeroplane not capable of continuing at flight to an aerodrome with the critical power-unit in becoming inoperative at any point along the route or any planned diversion; or when taking off or landing at an aerodrome where the take-off or approach path is so disposed over water that in the event of an incident, there would be a likelihood of a ditching, unless such aeroplane is equipped with a life jacket containing a survivor locator light, for each person on board, stowed in a position easily accessible, with safety belt fastened, from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided, and an individual infant floatation device, containing a locator survival light for use by each infant on board;
(ii)
(b) a seaplane or an amphibious aeroplane shall operate the seaplane or amphibious aeroplane unless such seaplane or amphibious aeroplane is equipped with (i.) a life jacket containing a survivor locator light, for each person on board, stowed in a position easily accessible, with safety belt fastened, from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided, and an individual infant floatation device, containing a survivor locator light, for use by each infant on board; and life jackets, other than the life jackets referred to in subparagraph (I), for 20 per cent of the number of persons on board such seaplane or amphibious aeroplane, located in the passenger compartment near the emergency exits and readily accessible;
(ii.)
(c) a helicopter, shall operate the helicopter over water beyond authoritative distance from land, other than only for take-off and initial climb, or final approach and landing, unless (i.) (ii.) each person on board is wearing a life jacket containing a survivor locator light; and such helicopter is equipped with
A. an individual infant floatation device containing a locator survival light for use by each infant on board, stowed in a position easily accessible for the person in which care the infant is; and B. floatation equipment to ensure a safe ditching: Provided that in the case of aerial spraying operations over water, the owner or operator may apply to the Commissioner for an exemption in terms of Part 11.
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Life rafts and survival radio equipment for extended over-water flights 91.04.28(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft over water at a distance equivalent to (a) 120 minutes at normal cruising speed or 400 miles, whichever is the lesser, away from land, if such aircraft has four engines, (b) 90 minutes at normal cruising speed or 300 miles, whichever is the lesser, away from land, if such aircraft has three turbine engines, or (c) 30 minutes at normal cruising speed or 100 miles, whichever is the lesser, away from land, in the case of aircraft other than the aircraft referred to in paragraph (a) or (b), unless such aircraft is equipped with life rafts sufficient to accommodate all persons on board. (2) The conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards for the life rafts and survival radio equipment for such extended over-water flights, shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. Survival equipment 91.04.29(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft over areas where search and rescue would be especially difficult, unless such aircraft is equipped with the appropriate survival equipment as prescribed in Document SACATS-OPS 91. (2) The conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards for the survival equipment shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. Seaplanes, amphibious aeroplanes and amphibious helicopters 91.04.30 No owner or operator of a seaplane, amphibious aeroplane or amphibious helicopter shall operate the seaplane, amphibious aeroplane or amphibious helicopter on water, unless it is equipped with (a) a sea anchor and other equipment necessary to facilitate mooring, anchoring or manoeuvring such seaplane, amphibious aeroplane or amphibious helicopter on water, appropriate to its size, mass and handling characteristics; and (b) equipment for making the sound signals prescribed in the international Regulations for Prevention of Collisions at Sea, where applicable.
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SUBPART 5: COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT
Communication equipment 91.05.1 (1) Except with prior written approval of the Commissioner, no owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft, unless such aircraft is equipped with radio communication equipment capable of maintaining two-way communication with an air traffic service unit. (2) The radio communication equipment referred to in sub-regulation (1) shall be capable of providing for communication on the aeronautical emergency frequency 121.5 MHz. (3) The radio communication equipment installed in the aircraft shall be of a type as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. (4) The installation, bonding and screening of the radio communication equipment shall be in accordance with the requirements as prescribed in Document SACATS-OPS 91. Navigation equipment 91.05.2 (1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is equipped with navigation equipment enabling it to proceed in accordance with its flight plan, the prescribed RNP types and the appropriate air traffic service requirements: Provided that the provisions of this regulation shall not apply to flights operated in accordance with VFR, if such flights can be accomplished by visual reference to landmarks. (2) The aircraft shall be equipped with sufficient navigation equipment to ensure that, in the event of the failure of one item of equipment at any stage of the flight, the remaining equipment enables such aircraft to proceed with such flight. (3) No person shall operate an aircraft in airspace where minimum navigation performance specification apply, unless the aircraft is equipped with navigation performance specifications as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91,in the form of regional supplementary procedures. (4) In an aircraft required to be operated by two pilots, the navigation equipment referred to in sub-regulation (3) shall be visible and usable by each pilot seated at his or her duty station. (5) For unrestricted operation in airspace where minimum navigation performance specifications apply, an aircraft shall be equipped with two independent longrange navigation systems. (6) For operation in airspace where minimum navigation performance specifications apply along notified special routes, an aircraft shall be equipped with one longrange navigation system, unless otherwise specified.
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SUBPART 6: RULES OF THE AIR
Division One: Flight Rules Landing on roads 91.06.1 No pilot shall use a public road as a place of landing or take-off in an aircraft, except (a) in the case of an emergency involving the safety of the aircraft or its occupants; (b) for the purpose of saving human lives, or (c) when involved in civil defence or law-enforcement operations: Provided that at all times reasonable care is taken for the safety of others with due regard to the prevailing circumstances. Dropping objects, spraying or dusting 91.06.2 Except in an emergency or unless granted special permission by the Commissioner, no article shall be dropped from an aircraft in flight other than (a) fine sand or clean water used as ballast; or (b) chemical substances for the purpose of spraying or dusting. Picking up objects 91.06.3 The pilot-in-command of an aircraft in flight shall not permit objects to be picked up, except (a) with the prior written approval of the Commissioner; or (b) if licensed to do so under the International Air Services Act, 1993, or the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990. Towing 91.06.4 The pilot-in-command of an aircraft in flight shall not permit anything to be towed by the aircraft, except (a) with the prior written approval of the Commissioner; or (b) if licensed to do so under the International Air Services Act, 1993, or the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990.
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Operation of vehicle- or vessel-towed aircraft 91.06.5(1) Except with the prior written approval of the Commissioner and subject to such conditions as he or she may impose, an aircraft which is intended, for purposes of flight, to be towed by a vehicle or vessel travelling on the surface or to be moored on the surface, shall not (a) be flown higher than 150 feet above the surface on which the towing vehicle or vessel is travelling or to which such aircraft is moored; (b) be flown closer than five nautical miles from the boundary of an aerodrome; or (c) take-off from, land on or be flown above any public road. (2) The provisions of sub-regulation (l)(a) and (b) shall not apply to the winching or towing of gliders at the aerodrome of departure. Proximity and formation flights 91.06.6 No pilot shall operate an aircraft(a) in such proximity to other aircraft so as to create a collision hazard; (b) in formation flight, except by arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft in the formation; or (c) in formation flight while carrying passengers for commercial purposes. Right of way 91.06.7 (1) An aircraft which has the right-of-way, shall maintain its heading and speed, but nothing in these provisions shall relieve the pilot-in-command of an aircraft from the responsibility of taking such action as will best avert collision. (2) An aircraft which is obliged, by the provisions of this subpart, to keep out of the way of another aircraft, shall avoid passing over or under the other aircraft, or crossing ahead of such aircraft, unless passing well clear. (3) When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is danger of collision, each aircraft shall alter its heading to the right. (4) When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level, the aircraft which has the other aircraft on its right, shall give way, except in the following circumstances: (a) Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders and balloons;
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(b) airships shall give way to gliders and balloons; (c) gliders shall give way to balloons; (d) power-driven aircraft shall give way to aircraft which are (i.) (ii.) (iii.) seen to be towing other aircraft or objects; carrying an underslung load or are engaged in winching operations; and being towed or tethered.
(5) An aircraft which is being overtaken has the right-of-way and the overtaking aircraft, whether climbing, descending or in horizontal flight, shall keep out of the way of the overtaken aircraft by altering its heading to the right, and no subsequent change in the relative positions of the two aircraft shall absolve the overtaking aircraft from its obligation until such aircraft is entirely past and clear: Provided that where a right-hand circuit is being followed at an aerodrome, the overtaking aircraft shall alter its heading to the left. (6) An aircraft in flight or operating on the ground or water, shall give way to other aircraft landing or on final approach to land. (7) When two or more heavier-than-air aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the higher level shall give way to the aircraft at the lower level, but the latter aircraft shall not take advantage of this provision to cut in front of another aircraft which is on final approach to land, or to overtake such aircraft. (a) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a), power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to gliders. (8) An aircraft about to take-off, shall not attempt to do so until there is no apparent risk of collision with other aircraft. (9) An aircraft which is aware that another aircraft is compelled to land, shall give way to such aircraft. (10) For the purposes of this regulation, an overtaking aircraft is an aircraft which approaches another aircraft from the rear on a line from an angle of less than 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter aircraft, and will therefore be in such position with reference to the other aircraft, that by night it should be unable to see either of the other aircraft's wingtip navigation lights. Following line features 91.06.8 An aircraft flying at or below 1 500 feet above the surface and following a power line, a road, a railway line, a canal, a coastline or any other line feature within one nautical mile of such line feature, shall fly to the right of such line, road, railway line, canal, coastline or other line feature, except when the aircraft is instructed to do otherwise by an air traffic service unit.
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Aircraft speed 91.06.9(1) No person shall, outside controlled airspace and between 1 000 feet above the surface and flight level 100, fly an aircraft at an indicated air speed of more than 250 knots. (2) Unless otherwise authorised or required by an air traffic service unit, no person shall fly an aircraft within a control zone or an aerodrome traffic zone at an indicated air speed of more than (a) (b) 160 knots, in the case of a reciprocating-engine aircraft; or 200 knots, in the case of a turbine-powered aircraft: Provided that if the minimum safe indicated air speed for a particular flight is greater than the maximum indicated air speed prescribed in this regulation, the aircraft may be flown at the minimum safe indicated air speed. Lights to be displayed by aircraft 91.06.10 The lights which have to be displayed by aircraft by night, on water or on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, shall be as prescribed in SA-CATS-OPS 91. Taxi rules 91.06.11(1) Aircraft which are landing or taking off, shall be given right of way by other aircraft and by vehicles. (2) An aircraft shall, after landing, unless otherwise authorised or instructed by an air traffic service unit, move clear of the runway in use, as soon as it is safely possible to do so. (3) A vehicle which is towing an aircraft shall be given right of way by the vehicles and by other aircraft which are not landing or taking off. (4) An aircraft shall be given right of way by a vehicle which is not towing an aircraft. (5) An aircraft or vehicle which is obliged by the provisions of this regulation to give right of way to another aircraft, shall, if necessary in the circumstances in order to do so, reduce its speed or stop. (6) If danger of collision exists between an aircraft or vehicle and another aircraft or vehicle, such of the following procedures as may be appropriate in the circumstances, shall be applied: (a) when the two are approaching head-on or nearly head-on, each shall turn to the right;
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(b) when one is overtaking the other, the one which is overtaking shall keep out of the way of the other by turning to the right, and no subsequent change in the relative positions of the two shall absolve the one which is overtaking from this obligation, until it Is finally past and clear of the other; (c) subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), when the two are converging, the one which has the other on its right, shall give way to the other and shall avoid crossing ahead of the other unless passing well clear of it. (7) A vehicle moving along a runway or taxiway, shall as far as practicable keep to the right side of the runway or taxiway. (8) When an aircraft is being towed, the person in charge of the towing vehicle shall be responsible for compliance with the provisions of this regulation. (9) Nothing in this regulation shall relieve the pilot-in-command of an aircraft or the person in charge of a vehicle, from the responsibility for taking such action as will best aid to avert collision. Operation on and in the vicinity of aerodrome 91.06.12(1) The pilot-in command of an aircraft operated on or in the vicinity of an aerodrome, shall be responsible for compliance with the following rules : (a) observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision; (b) conform with or avoid the pattern of traffic formed by other aircraft in operation; (c) make all turns to the left when approaching for a landing and after taking off, unless otherwise instructed by an air traffic service unit, or unless a right hand circuit is in force: Provided that a helicopter may, with due regard to other factors and when it is in the interest of safety, execute a circuit to the opposite side; (d) land and take-off, as far as practicable, into the wind unless otherwise instructed by an air traffic service unit; (e) fly across the aerodrome or its environs at a height of not less than 2 000 feet above the level of such aerodrome: Provided that if circumstances require such pilot-in-command to fly at a height of less than 2 000 feet above the level of the aerodrome, he or she shall conform with the traffic pattern at such aerodrome; and (f) taxi in accordance with the ground control procedures which may be in force at the aerodrome. (2) If an aerodrome control tower is in operation, the pilot-in-command shall also, whilst the aircraft is within the aerodrome traffic zone
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(a) maintain a continuous radio watch on the frequency of the aerodrome control tower responsible for providing aerodrome control service at the aerodrome, establish two way radio communication as necessary for aerodrome control purposes and obtain such clearances for his or her movements as may be necessary for the protection of aerodrome traffic; or (b) if this is not possible, keep a watch for and comply with such clearances and instructions as may be issued by visual means. (3) If an aerodrome flight information service unit is in operation, the pilot- incommand shall also, whilst the aircraft is within the aerodrome traffic zone (a) maintain a continuous radio watch on the frequency of the aerodrome flight information service unit responsible for providing aerodrome flight information service at the aerodrome, establish two-way radio communication as necessary for aerodrome flight information service purposes and obtain information in respect of the surface wind, runway in use and altimeter setting and in respect of aerodrome traffic on the manoeuvring area and in the aerodrome traffic zone; or (b) if this is not possible, keep a watch for visual signals which may be displayed or may be issued by the aerodrome flight information service unit. (4) An aircraft which is unable to communicate by radio shall, before landing at an aerodrome, make a circuit of the aerodrome for the purpose of observing the traffic, and reading such ground markings and signals as may be displayed thereon, unless it has the consent of the appropriate air traffic service unit to do otherwise. Signals 91.06.13 The pilot-in-command of an aircraft in flight shall, upon observing or receiving any of the signals as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91, take such action as may be required by the interpretation of the signal as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. Water operations 91.06.14(1) In areas in which the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea are in force, aircraft operated on the water shall comply with the provisions thereof. (2) Aircraft in flight near the surface of the water shall, as far as possible, keep clear of all vessels and avoid impeding their navigation. Reporting position 91.06.15 The pilot-in-command of an aircraft (a) flying in controlled airspace;
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(b) flying in advisory airspace; or (c) on a night for which alerting action is being provided, shall ensure that reports are made to the responsible air traffic service unit, as soon as possible, of the time and level of passing each compulsory reporting point, together with any other required information, and he or she shall further ensure that position reports are similarly made in relation to additional reporting points, if so requested by the responsible air traffic service unit and that, in the absence of designated reporting points, position reports are made at the intervals specified by the responsible air traffic service unit or published by the Commissioner in terms of Part 175, for that area. Mandatory radio communication in controlled airspace 91.06.16 The pilot-in-command of an aircraft to be operated in or crossing a controlled airspace shall ensure that, before the aircraft enters such airspace, twoway radio contact is established with the responsible air traffic service unit on the designated radio frequency, and shall ensure, while the aircraft is within, and until it leaves, the controlled airspace, that continuous radio watch is maintained and that such further two-way radio communication as such air traffic service unit may require, is established: Provided that (a) the air traffic service unit may permit an aircraft not capable of maintaining continuous two-way radio communication, to fly in the control area, terminal control area, control zone or aerodrome traffic zone for which it is responsible, if traffic conditions permit, in which case the flight shall be subject to such conditions as such air traffic service unit deems necessary to ensure the safety of other air traffic; and (b) in the case of radio failure, a flight for which an air traffic service flight plan was filed and activated by the air traffic service unit on receipt of a departure time, may continue in controlled airspace if the communication failure procedures are complied with. Mandatory radio communication in advisory airspace 91.06.17 The pilot-in-command of an aircraft to be operated in advisory air space shall ensure that, before the aircraft approaches or enters such airspace (a) two-way radio communication with the responsible air traffic service unit is established on the designated radio frequency; (b) if such communication is not possible, two-way radio communication is established with any air traffic service unit which is capable of relaying messages to and from the responsible air traffic service unit; or
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(c) if such communication is not possible, broadcasts are made on the designated radio frequency giving information on the aircraft's intention to enter the airspace, and such pilot-in-command shall ensure that, while the aircraft is within the advisory airspace and until it departs therefrom, a continuous radio watch is maintained on the designated radio frequency and that (i.) (ii.) such further two-way radio communication as the responsible air traffic service unit may require, is established with any other air traffic service unit which is capable of relaying messages to and from such responsible air traffic service unit; if such communication is not possible, such further two-way radio communication is established with any other air traffic service unit which is capable of relaying messages to and from the responsible air traffic service unit, as such responsible air traffic service unit may require; or if such communication is not possible, broadcasts are made on the designated radio frequency giving information on passing reporting points and when leaving the airspace concerned: provided that A. an aircraft maintaining a Selcal watch while operating within an advisory route in the Johannesburg flight information region and whose Selcal call-sign has been communicated to the Johannesburg flight information centre, shall be deemed to be maintaining a continuous radio watch; and in the case of a radio failure, a flight for which an air traffic service flight plan was filed and activated by an air traffic service unit on receipt of a departure time, may continue in advisory airspace if the communication failure procedures are complied with.
(iii.)
B.
Compliance with air traffic control clearance and instructions 91.06.18 The pilot of an aircraft shall
(a) comply with any air traffic control clearance which is obtained, unless the pilot obtains an amended clearance; (b) not operate the aircraft contrary to an air traffic control instruction in an area in which an air traffic control service is provided: and (c) when deviating from an air traffic control clearance or instruction, notify the air traffic control unit of the deviation, as soon as practicable. Prohibited areas 91.06.19(1) The Commissioner may by notice in the AIP, AIC or NOTAM declare any area to be a prohibited area and shall, for the purposes of the prohibition contained in sub-regulation (2), when so declaring an area to be a prohibited area (a) specify a height above the ground surface of such area; or
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(b) specify an altitude in respect of such area, as the Commissioner may deem expedient, in the notice in question. (2) No person shall fly any aircraft whatsoever in the air space above a prohibited area (a) below the height specified in terms of sub-regulation (l)(a); (b) or below the altitude specified in terms of sub-regulation (l)(b), as the case may be, in respect of the prohibited area in question. Restricted areas 91.06.20 (1) The Commissioner may by notice in the AIP, AIC or NOTAM declare any area to be a restricted area and shall, when so declaring an area to be a restricted area, specify in the notice in question (a) the nature and extent of the restriction applicable in respect of the area in question; and (b) the authorisation under which flights in such restricted area shall be permitted. (2) No person shall, in contravention of a restriction contemplated in sub-regulation (l)(a), fly any aircraft to which the said restriction applies, in any restricted area, unless the flight in question has been permitted by virtue of an authorisation contemplated in sub-regulation (l)(b).
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Division Two: Visual Flight Rules Visibility and distance from cloud 91.06.21 Every VFR flight shall be so conducted that the aircraft is flown with visual reference to the surface by day and to identifiable objects by night and at no time above more than three eighths of cloud within a radius of five nautical miles of such aircraft and (a) In the case of aircraft excluding helicopters, under conditions of visibility and distance from cloud equal to, or greater than, the conditions specified in the following table: Airspace Control zones Flight visibility Five km Distance from clouds Horizontally: 2 000 feet Vertically: 500 feet Ground visibility and ceiling Except in a case mentioned in footnote(1), no aircraft shall take-off from, land at, or approach to land at an aerodrome or fly within the control zone when the ground visibility at the aerodrome concerned is less than five km and the ceiling is less than 1 500 feet Except in a case mentioned in footnote(2), no aircraft shall take-off from, land at, or approach to land at an aerodrome or fly within the aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome traffic area when the ground visibility within such aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome traffic area is less than five km and the ceiling is less than 1 500 feet
Within the Five km aerodrome traffic zone (which does not also comprise a control zone or part of a control zone) or an aerodrome traffic area
Horizontally: 2 000 feet Vertically: 500 feet
Footnotes: (1) Minima not applicable to special VFR flights (2) When the pilot in an aircraft maintains two-way radio communication with the aerodrome control tower or aerodrome flight information service unit, the pilot may, in respect of a cross-country flight, leave or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome traffic area, as the case may be, when the ground visibility is equal to or greater than five km and the ceiling is equal to or higher than 500 feet.
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Airspace excluding control zones or aerodrome traffic zones or aerodrome traffic areas At or below 1 000 feet above the surface, by day only At or below 1 500 feet above the surface, by night only
Flight visibility
Distance from clouds
Ground visibility and ceiling
One and a half km Five km
Clear of cloud
Horizontally; 2 000 feet Vertically; 500 feet
Airspace excluding Flight visibility control zones or aerodrome traffic zones or aerodrome traffic areas From above 1 000 feet Five km to 1 500 feet above the surface, by day only From above 1 500 feet Five km above the surface up to and including flight level 100, by day and night From above flight level Eight km 100 up to and including flight level 200, by day and night Above flight level 200, Eight km by day and night
Horizontally; 2 000 feet Vertically; 500 feet Horizontally 2 000 feet Vertically 500 feet Horizontally: One and a half km Vertically; 1 000 feet Horizontally: One and a half km Vertically 1 000 feet
VFR flights shall not be conducted above flight level 200. VMC minima for IFR flights shall be above flight level 200.
(b) In the case of helicopters, under conditions of visibility and distance from cloud equal to, or greater than, those conditions specified in the following table: Provided that the limitations as contained in the above-mentioned table shall not prevent a helicopter from conducting hover-in-ground-effect or hover-taxi operations if the visibility is not less than 100 m.
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Airspace Control zones (1)
Flight Distance from visibility clouds Two and a Horizontally: half km 1 000 feet Vertically; Clear of cloud
Ground visibility and ceiling Except in a case mentioned in footnote (1), no helicopter shall take-off from, land at, or approach to land at an aerodrome or fly within the control zone when the ground visibility at the aerodrome concerned is less than 2,5 km and the ceiling is less than 600 feet. No helicopter shall take-off from, land at, or approach to land at an aerodrome or fly within the aerodrome traffic zone or an aerodrome traffic area when the ground visibility at the aerodrome concerned is less than 2,5 km and the ceiling is less than 600 feet
Within an Two and aerodrome traffic half km zone (which does not also comprise a control zone or part of a control zone) or an aerodrome traffic area
a Horizontally; 1 000 feet Vertically; Clear of cloud
Airspace excluding Flight visibility control zones or aerodrome traffic zones or aerodrome traffic areas At or below 1 500 feet One km above the surface, by day only At or below 1 500 feet Five km above the surface, by night only Above 1 500 feet above Five km the surface, by day and night
Clear of cloud
Clear of cloud
Horizontally: 2 000 feet Vertically 500 feet
Footnote: (1) Minima not applicable to special VFR flights.
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Special VFR weather minima 91.06.22 A pilot-in-command may conduct special VFR operations in weather conditions below the conditions prescribed in Regulation 91.06.21 within a control zone (a) under the terms of an air traffic control clearance; (b) by day only; (c) clear of clouds; (d) with a ceiling of at least 600 feet and visibility of at least 1 500 m; (e) in an aircraft equipped with two-way radio equipment capable of communicating with an air traffic service unit on the appropriate frequency;and (f) if leaving the control zone, in accordance with instructions issued by an air traffic service unit prior to departure. Responsibility to ascertain whether VFR night is permitted 91.06.23 Outside a control zone or an aerodrome traffic zone or an aerodrome traffic area, the ascertainment of whether or not weather conditions permit flight in accordance with VFR, shall be the responsibility of the pilot-in-command of an aircraft, and whenever weather conditions do not permit a pilot to maintain the minimum distance from cloud and the minimum visibility required by VFR, the pilot shall comply with IFR.
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Division Three: Instrument Flight Rules Compliance with IFR 91.06.24 A flight conducted above flight level 200 shall be flown in compliance with IFR as prescribed in this subpart. Aircraft equipment 91.06.25 Aircraft shall be equipped with suitable instruments and radio navigation apparatus appropriate to the route to be flown and in accordance with the provisions of subpart 5. Change from IFR flight to VFR flight 91.06.26(1) The pilot-in -command of an aircraft who elects to change the conduct of flight of the aircraft from compliance with IFR to compliance with VFR shall, if a flight plan was submitted for the flight, notify the air traffic service unit concerned that the IFR flight is cancelled and communicate to such air traffic service unit the intended changes to be made to the current flight plan. (2) When an aircraft operating under IFR is known in or encounters visual meteorological conditions, the pilot-in-command shall not cancel its IFR night unless it is anticipated, and intended, that the flight will be continued for a reasonable period in uninterrupted visual meteorological conditions. IFR procedures 91.06.27(1) Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible air traffic service unit, aircraft flown in compliance with the rules contained in this Division, shall comply with IFR procedures applicable in the relevant airspace. (2) Subject to the provisions of Regulation 91.06.25, the pilot-in-command of an aircraft may execute, or endeavour to execute, a cloud break or let-down procedure at an aerodrome, or nominate an aerodrome as an alternate aerodrome: Provided that the requirements relating to cloud break or let-down procedures and to flights under IMC, as published by the Commissioner in the NOTAM, can be complied with.
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Division Four: Aircraft on other than Scheduled International Air Services Foreign military aircraft 91.06.28 No foreign military aircraft shall fly over or land in the Republic except on the express invitation or with the express permission of the Minister, but any such aircraft so flying over or landing in the Republic shall be exempt from these Regulations to such extent and on such conditions as are specified in the invitation or permission. Identification and interception of aircraft 91.06.29(1) An intercepted aircraft shall carry out the instruction of an intercepting aircraft, as prescribed in these Regulations. (2) When an aircraft is intercepted, the pilot-in-command shall forthwith establish radio contact with the intercepting aircraft on 121,5 MHz, if the aircraft is so equipped, and if radio contact has not already been established. (3) When the intercepting aircraft cannot establish radio contact or contact in any other practical way with the intercepted aircraft, visual signals as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91 shall be used. (4) The visual signals shall be used as follows: (a) When an aircraft has been intercepted for identification purposes only, the intercepting aircraft shall use the second series to show that the aircraft may proceed; (b) when an aircraft is to be led away from a prohibited or restricted area, the appropriate part of the first series shall be used, and the second series shall be used when the purpose has been achieved and the aircraft is released; (c) when and aircraft is required to land, the appropriate part of the first series shall initially be used, followed by the third series when in the vicinity of the designated landing area; (d) when the pilot of the intercepted aircraft considers the landing area designated as unsuitable for his or her aircraft type, he or she shall use the fourth series to indicate this, upon which new instructions shall be given by the intercepting aircraft; (e) when an intercepted aircraft is in distress, the distress signals shall be used, where practical.
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Division Five: Air Traffic Rules Air traffic service procedures 91.06.30 The pilot-in-command of an aircraft to be operated in controlled airspace shall(a) ensure that an air traffic service flight plan is submitted and changes thereto are notified as prescribed in Regulation 91.03.4; (b) ensure that radio contact is established with the responsible air traffic service unit and that radio communication is maintained as prescribed in Regulation 91.06. 16, and (c) comply with air traffic control clearances and instructions: Provided thatthe pilot-in-command of an aircraft may deviate from an air traffic control clearance in exceptional circumstances, but such deviation shall be reported to the responsible air traffic service unit as soon as possible; and (ii.) the pilot-in-command of an aircraft may propose an amendment to an air traffic control clearance, but such amendment shall not be applied until acceded to by the responsible air traffic service unit. Priority 91.06.31 An air traffic service unit may, with regard to arrivals and departures, give priority to aircraft operating in accordance with air traffic service flight plan clearance over aircraft not so engaged. (i.)
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Division Six: Heights and Instrument Approach and Departure Procedures Minimum heights 91.06.32(1) Except when necessary for taking off or landing, or except with prior written approval of the Commissioner, no aircraft (a) shall be flown over built-up areas or over an open-air assembly of persons at a height less than 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle, within a radius of 2 000 feet from the aircraft; (b) when flown elsewhere than specified in paragraph (a), shall be flown at a height less than 500 feet above the ground or water, unless the flight can be made without hazard or nuisance to persons or property on the ground or water; and (c) shall circle over or do repeated overflights over an open-air assembly of persons at a height less than 3 000 feet above the surface. (2) Except when necessary for take-off or landing, an aircraft shall by night, in IMC, or when operated in accordance with IFR, be flown (a) if within an area determined by the Commissioner, at a height of at least 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within that area and in accordance with such procedure as the Commissioner may determine; or (b) if elsewhere than in an area contemplated in paragraph (a), at a height of at least 1 500 feet above the highest obstacle located within five nautical miles of the aircraft in flight. Semi-circular rule 91.06.33 Unless otherwise directed by an air traffic service unit, the pilot-incommand of an aircraft in level flight shall fly at an appropriate flight level selected according to magnetic track from the table as prescribed in Document SA-CATSOPS 91. (2) Aircraft flown in accordance with VFR at a height of less than 1 500 feet above the surface, shall not be required to comply with the provisions of sub-regulation (1), unless if otherwise directed by an air traffic service unit. (3) A flight conducted from flight level 200 and above, shall be flown in compliance with IFR. Standard instrument approach to and departure from aerodrome 91.06.34 When an instrument approach to, or instrument departure from, an aerodrome is necessary, the pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall use the standard instrument approach and departure procedure as published by the Commissioner in the AIC, AIP. AIP SUP or NOTAM.
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SUBPART 7: FLIGHT OPERATIONS
Routes and areas of operation 91.07.1 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that (a) operations are only conducted along such routes or within such areas, for which approval or authorisation has been obtained, where required, from appropriate authority concerned; (b) the performance of the aircraft intended to be used, is adequate to comply with minimum flight altitude requirements; and (c) the equipment of the aircraft intended to be used, complies with the minimum requirements for the planned operation. Minimum flight altitudes 91.07.2(1) No pilot-in-command shall operate an aircraft at altitudes below (a) altitudes, established by the owner or operator, which provide the required terrain clearance, taking into account the operating limitations referred to in subpart 9; and (b) the minimum altitudes referred to in subpart 6; except when necessary for take-off and landing. (2) The method of establishing minimum night altitudes referred to in sub-regulation (l)(a), shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. (3) Where the minimum flight altitudes established by the appropriate authority of a foreign State are higher than the minimum flight altitudes prescribed in this regulation, the minimum flight altitudes established by such appropriate authority shall apply in respect of a South African registered aircraft flying in the airspace of the foreign State concerned. Use of aerodromes 91.07.3(1) No pilot shall use, and no owner or operator shall authorise the use of, an aerodrome as a destination or alternate destination aerodrome, unless such aerodrome is adequate for the type of aircraft and operation concerned. (2) Except in an emergency, no pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall takeoff or land by night, unless the place of take-off or landing is equipped with night flying facilities.
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Helicopter landings and take-offs 91.07.4 (1) No pilot-in-command of a helicopter shall land at or take-off from any place unless the place is so situated to permit the helicopter, in the event of an emergency arising during such landing or take-off, to land without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. (2) No pilot-in-command of a helicopter shall land on, or take-off from, any building, structure or place situated within 100 metres of any other building or structure, in the area of jurisdiction of a local government, unless such building, structure or place has been approved for the purpose by the Commissioner: Provided that this restriction shall not apply (a) to a helicopter landing on, or taking off from, a building, structure or place within an industrial area, a commercial warehouse area or an open farm land which is suitable for such purposes and in respect of which helicopter the pilot-incommand is the holder of a valid commercial or airline transport pilot licence (helicopter) or, in the case of the holder of (a) private pilot licence (helicopter), with the written permission of the Commissioner, unless specifically prohibited by the local government; (b) to a helicopter engaged in an emergency medical service operation referred to in Part 138, or undertaking of a flight necessary for the exercising of any power in terms of any law. (3) A local government may after consultation with the Commissioner, extend the scope of the provisions of sub-regulation (2)(a) to include other places in its area of jurisdiction. (4) The Commissioner may, in the interests of aviation safety, impose conditions or institute restrictions as to the use of any building, structure or place for the landing or take-off of helicopters, or require special flight procedures to be adopted at, or special routes to be followed to or from, such building, structure or place by helicopters, and the Commissioner may impose different conditions, institute different restrictions or require different special flight procedures to be adopted in respect of different buildings, structures or places. (5) Nothing in this regulation shall be construed as conferring any right to land at any building, structure or place against the wishes of the owner of, or any other person who has an interest in, the building, structure or place or as prejudicing the rights or remedies of any person in respect of any injury to persons or property caused by the helicopter or its occupants. Aerodrome operating minima 91.07.5(1) No pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall use an aerodrome as a destination or alternate aerodrome, unless the operating minima for such aerodrome, established by the appropriate authority of the State in which the aerodrome is situated, can be complied with.
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(2) The aerodrome operating minima for a specific type of approach and landing procedure shall be applicable if(a) the ground equipment shown on the respective instrument approach and landing chart required for the intended procedure, is operative; (b) the aircraft systems required for the type of approach, are operative; (c) the required aircraft performance criteria are complied with; and (d) the flight deck crew is qualified to conduct the type of approach. (3) In determining or establishing the aerodrome operating minima applicable to any particular operation, the owner or operator shall take into account (a) the type, performance and handling characteristics of the aircraft; (b) the composition of the flight deck crew, their competence and experience; (c) the dimensions and characteristics of the runways or touch-down areas which may be selected for use; (d) the adequacy and performance of the available visual and non-visual ground aids; (e) the equipment available in the aircraft for the purpose of navigation or control of the flight path, as appropriate, during the take-off, approach, flare, landing or missed approach; (f) the obstacles in the approach and missed approach areas and the climbout areas and necessary clearance; (g) the obstacle clearance altitude or height for the instrument approach procedures; (h) the means to determine and report meteorological conditions; and (i) the availability and adequacy of emergency services. Threshold crossing height 91.07.6(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall establish operational procedures designed to ensure that the aircraft being used to conduct precision approaches, crosses the threshold by a safe margin, with such aircraft in the landing configuration and attitude. (2) The operational procedures applicable to Category I and Category III approaches, shall be approved by the Commissioner.
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Pre-flight selection of aerodromes 91.07.7(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall select destination or alternate aerodromes in accordance with Regulation 91.07.5 and Part 121, Part 127 or Part 135, as the case may be, when planning a flight. (2) The owner or operator shall select a departure, destination or alternate aerodrome only when the serviceability status of the aerodrome permits safe operation of the type of aircraft concerned. (3) The owner or operator shall select and specify in the air traffic service flight plan referred to in Regulation 91.03.3, a take-off alternate aerodrome, if it would not be possible for the aircraft to return to the aerodrome of departure due to meteorological or performance reasons. (4) The take-off alternate aerodrome referred to in sub-regulation (3), shall be located within (a) one hour flight time at one-engine cruising speed according to the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2, in still air standard conditions based on the actual take-off mass for a twin-engine aircraft; (b) two hours flight time at one-engine inoperative cruising speed according to the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2, in still air standard conditions based on the actual take-off mass for three-engine and four-engine aircraft; (c) if the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2, does not contain a one-engine inoperative cruising speed, the speed to be used for calculation, shall be the speed which is achieved with the remaining engine set at maximum continuous power. (5) The owner or operator of a helicopter shall select at least one destination alternate aerodrome for each IFR flight, unless the meteorological conditions prevailing are such that, for the period from one hour before until one hour after the expected time of arrival at the destination aerodrome, the approach from the minimum sector safe altitude and landing can be made in VMC. (6) The owner or operator of an aeroplane shall select at least one destination alternate aerodrome or each IFR flight, unless (a) two suitable non-intersecting runways are available at the destination aerodrome; and (b) the meteorological conditions prevailing are such that, for the periods from one hour before until one hour after the expected time of arrival at the destination aerodrome, the approach from the minimum sector safe altitude and landing can be made in VMC; or (c) the destination aerodrome is isolated and no adequate destination alternate aerodrome exists.
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(7) The owner or operator shall select two destination alternate aerodromes when (a) the appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination aerodrome, or any combination thereof, indicate that during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival, the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima; or no meteorological information can be obtained. (8) The owner or operator shall specify the destination alternate aerodrome in the air traffic service flight plan referred to in Regulation 91.03.3. (9) The owner or operator shall specify en route alternate aerodromes for extendedrange operations with twin-engine aeroplanes and shall specify such en route alternate aerodromes in the air traffic service flight plan referred to in Regulation 91.03.3. (10) When planning a flight, the owner or operator shall only select an aerodrome as a destination or alternate aerodrome, if the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or a combination thereof, are at or above the applicable planning minima for a period of one hour before to one hour after the estimated time of arrival of the aircraft at the aerodrome. Planning minima for IFR flights 91.07.8(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall not select an aerodrome as a take-off alternate aerodrome for a flight to be conducted, wholly or partly in accordance with IFR under IMC unless the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable landing minima prescribed in Regulation 91.07.5. (Refer Part 135 135.7.7 CATs Ops) (2) The ceiling shall be taken into account when the only approaches available are non-precision or circling approaches. (3) Any limitation related to one-engine inoperative operations shall be taken into account. (4) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall only select the destination aerodrome or destination alternate aerodrome when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at, or above, the applicable planning minima as follows:
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(a) Planning minima for a destination aerodrome (i.) (ii.) RVR or visibility specified in accordance with Regulation 91.07.5; (Refer Part 135 135.7.7 CATs Ops) and for non-precision approach or a circling approach, the ceiling at, or above, MDA/H; and
(b) planning minima for a destination alternate aerodrome shall be as prescribed in Document SACATS-OPS 91. (5) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall not select an aerodrome as an en route alternate aerodrome unless the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the planning minima as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. (6) The owner or operator shall not select an aerodrome as an ETOPS en route alternate aerodrome unless the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the planning minima as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91 and in accordance with the ETOPS approval of the owner or operator Meteorological conditions 91.07.9(1) On a flight to be conducted in accordance with IFR, the pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall not (a) commence take-off; or (b) continue beyond the in-flight decision point, unless information is available indicating that conditions will, at the estimated time of arrival of such aircraft, be at, or above, the applicable aerodrome operating minima (i.) (ii.) at the destination aerodrome; or where a destination alternate aerodrome is required, at the destination aerodrome and one destination alternate aerodrome or at two destination alternate aerodromes.
(2) On a flight conducted in accordance with VFR, the pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall not commence take-off unless current meteorological reports, or a combination of current reports and forecasts, indicate that the meteorological conditions along the route, or that part of the route to be flown under VFR, shall, at the appropriate time, be such as to render compliance with the provisions prescribed in this part possible. VFR operating minima 91.07.10 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that -
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(a) VFR flights are conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules prescribed in subpart 6; and (b) special VFR flights are not commenced when the visibility is less than 3 km and not otherwise conducted when the visibility is less than the visibility prescribed in Regulation 91.06.22(d). Mass and balance 91.07.11(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that, during any phase of the operation, the loading, mass and the centre of gravity of the aircraft complies with the limitations specified in the approved aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2, or the operations manual referred to in Part 121, Part 121 or Part 135, as the case may be, if the limitations therein are more restrictive. (2) The owner or operator shall establish the mass and the centre of gravity of the aircraft by actual weighing prior to initial entry into operation and thereafter at intervals of five years. (3) The accumulated effects of modifications and repairs on the mass and balance of the aircraft, shall be accounted for and properly documented by the owner or operator. (4) The aircraft shall be weighed in accordance with the provisions of sub-regulation (2), if the effect of modifications on the mass and balance is not accurately known. (5) The owner or operator shall determine the mass of all operating items and flight crew members included in the dry operating mass of the aircraft, by weighing or by using the appropriate standard mass as prescribed in Document SA-CATSOPS91. (6) The influence of the mass of the operating items and night crew members referred to in sub-regulation (5), on the centre of gravity of the aircraft shall be determined by the owner or operator of such aircraft. (7) The owner or operator shall establish the mass of the traffic load, including any ballast, by actual weighing, or determine the mass of the traffic load in accordance with the appropriate standard passenger and baggage mass as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. (8) The owner or operator shall determine the mass of the fuel load by using the actual specific gravity or, if approved by the Commissioner, a standard specific gravity. Fuel and oil supply 91.07.12(1) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall not commence a flight unless he or she is satisfied that the aircraft carries at least the planned amount of fuel and oil to complete the flight safely, taking into account operating and meteorological conditions and the expected delays.
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(2) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining inflight, is not less than the fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome or, in the case of a helicopter, a suitable landing place, where a safe landing can be made. (3) If the usable fuel on board the aircraft is less than the final reserve fuel, the pilotin-command of such aircraft, shall (a) in the case of an aeroplane, declare an emergency; or (b) in the case of a helicopter, land as soon as possible. (3) The method of calculating the amount of fuel to be carried for each flight shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. Refuelling or defuelling with passengers on board 91.07.13(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that the aircraft is not refuelled or defuelled with aviation gasoline or wide-cut type fuel when passengers are embarking, on board or disembarking such aircraft. (2) In cases other than the cases referred to in sub-regulation (1), necessary precautions shall be taken and the aircraft shall be properly manned by qualified personnel ready to initiate and direct an evacuation of such aircraft by the most practical and expeditious means available. Smoking in aircraft 91.07.14(1) No person shall smoke in a South African registered aircraft or in any foreign registered aircraft when in or over the Republic, unless and except in so far as smoking is permissible in accordance with the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2 or other equivalent document for such aircraft. (2) In an aircraft in which smoking is permitted, smoking shall nevertheless be prohibited (a) when the aircraft is on the ground; (b) during take-off; and (c) during an approach to land. (3) In all South African registered aircraft, notices shall be displayed in a prominent place in all passenger and flight crew compartments, indicating to what extent, and when, smoking is permitted or prohibited. Instrument approach and departure procedures 91.07.15(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that the instrument approach and departure procedures, established by the appropriate authority of the State in which the aerodrome to be used, is located, are used.
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(2) Notwithstanding the provisions prescribed in sub-regulation (1), a pilot-incommand may accept an air traffic control clearance to deviate from a published approach or departure route: Provided that (a) obstacle clearance criteria are observed and full account is taken of the operating conditions; and (b) the final approach is flown visually or in accordance with the established instrument approach procedure. Noise abatement procedures 91.07.16 No person shall operate an aircraft contrary to noise abatement procedures established for an aerodrome in terms of the provisions or Part 139. Submission of air traffic service flight plan 91.07.17 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that a flight is not commenced unless an air traffic service flight plan referred to in Regulation 91.03.4, has been filed, or adequate information has been deposited in order to permit alerting services to be activated, if required. Seats, safety belts and harnesses 91.07.18(1) Before take-off and landing, and whenever deemed necessary in the interests of aviation safety, the pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that each person on board such aircraft, occupies a seat or berth with his or her safety belt or harness, where provided, properly secured. (2) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that multiple occupancy of aircraft seats does not occur other than by one adult and one infant, who is properly secured by a child restraint device. Passenger seating 91.07.19 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that passengers are seated where, in the event that an emergency evacuation is required, such passengers may best assist and not hinder evacuation from the aircraft. Passenger briefing 91.07.20(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that (a) passengers are verbally briefed about safety matters, parts or all of which may be given by an audio-visual presentation; (b) in aircraft engaged in commercial air transport operations, passengers are provided with a safety briefing card on which picture type instructions indicate the operation of emergency equipment and exits likely to be used by passengers; and
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(c) in an emergency during flight, passengers are instructed in such emergency action as may be appropriate to the circumstances. (2) The owner or operator shall ensure that, before take-off (a) passengers are briefed, to the extent applicable, on (i.) (ii.) (iii.) (iv.) (v.) whether smoking is prohibited or permitted; when the back of the seat is to be in the upright position and the tray table stowed; the location of emergency exits; the location and use of floor proximity escape path markings; the stowage of carry-on baggage; any restrictions on the use of portable electronic devices; and the location and the contents of the safety briefing card;
(a) and passengers receive, to the extent applicable, a demonstration of(i.) (ii.) (iii.) the use of safety belts or safety harnesses, including the manner in which the safety belts or safety harnesses are to be fastened and unfastened; the location and use of oxygen equipment and the extinguishing of all smoking materials when oxygen is being used; and the location and use of life jackets.
(3) The owner or operator shall ensure that, after take-off, passengers are reminded of(a) whether smoking is prohibited or permitted; and (b) the use of safety belts or safety harnesses. (4) The owner or operator shall ensure that, before landing, passengers are reminded of(a) whether smoking is prohibited or permitted; (b) the use of safety belts or safety harnesses; (c) when the back of the seat is to be in the upright position and the tray table stowed, if applicable; (d) the re-stowage of carry-on baggage; and (e) any restrictions on the use of portable electronic devices. (5) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that, after landing, passengers are reminded of-
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(a) whether smoking is prohibited or permitted; and (b) the use of safety belts or safety harnesses. Emergency equipment 91.07.21(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that emergency equipment, carried or installed in the aircraft in order to meet the requirements prescribed in this part and the MEL, is in such condition that it will satisfactorily perform its design function. (2) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall ensure that the emergency equipment concerned remains easily accessible for immediate use by the flight crew members. Illumination of emergency exits 91.07.22 When an aircraft, which is equipped with an emergency lighting system referred to in Regulation 91.04.25, is in flight and below 1 000 feet above ground level, or on the ground with passengers on board (a) the emergency lighting system shall be switched on; or (b) the normal cabin lighting system shall be switched on and the emergency lighting shall be armed. Use of supplemental oxygen 91.07.23(1) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that flight deck crew members engaged in performing duties essential to the safe operation of an aircraft in flight, use supplemental oxygen continuously when the flight deck pressure altitude exceeds 10 000 feet for more than 60 minutes, and at all times when the flight deck pressure altitude exceeds 12 000 feet. (2) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that, with the exception of supersonic aeroplanes, when a flight is conducted above FL 410, at least one pilot at the pilot station wears an oxygen mask when the other pilot leaves the flight deck for any reason. Approach and landing conditions 91.07.24 Before commencing an approach to land, the pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall satisfy himself or herself that, according to the information available to him or her, the weather at the aerodrome and the condition of the runway or touchdown area intended to be used, will not prevent a safe approach, landing or missed approach, having regard for the performance information contained in the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2 or similar document.
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Commencement and continuation of approach 91.07.25(1) When operating in IMC and in accordance with IFR the pilot-incommand of an aircraft may commence an approach regardless of the reported RVR or visibility, but the approach shall not be continued beyond the outer marker or equivalent published position, unless the reported RVR or visibility for the runway or touch-down area is equal to, or better than, the applicable operating minima. (2) Where RVR is not available, the pilot-in-command may derive an RVR value by converting the reported visibility in accordance with the provisions as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91. (3) If, after passing the outer marker or equivalent published position in accordance with the provisions of sub-regulation (1), the reported RVR or visibility falls below the applicable minima, the pilot-in-command may continue the approach to decision altitude/height or minimum descent altitude/height. (4) The pilot-in-command may continue the approach below decision altitude/height or minimum descent altitude/height and the landing may be completed: Provided that the required visual reference is established at the decision altitude/height or minimum descent altitude/height and is maintained. (5) Where no outer marker or equivalent published position exists, the pilot-incommand shall decide whether to continue or abandon the approach before descending below 1 000 feet above the aerodrome on the final approach segment. In-flight simulation of emergency situations 91.07.26 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that no person, and no person shall, simulate emergency situations in the aircraft affecting the flight characteristics of such aircraft when passengers are on board such aircraft. Turning helicopter rotors 91.07.27 No person engaged in helicopter operations, shall permit helicopter rotors to be turned under power without (a) a qualified pilot; or (b) if the helicopter is stationary on the ground, a person who has received the relevant instruction and has been declared competent to control the helicopter while stationary on the ground, by a Category B flight instructor, at the controls of such helicopter. Starting of engines 91.07.28(1) Except when the brakes are serviceable and are fully applied, chocks shall be placed in front of the wheels of an aeroplane before starting the engine or engines, and a competent person shall be seated at the controls when the engine or engines are running.
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(2) Where the pilot of an aeroplane is the only competent person present and it has been necessary for chocks to be used, he or she shall ensure that the controls of the aeroplane are left unattended for as short a time as possible when removing the chocks.
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SUBPART 8: LOW-VISIBILITY OPERATIONS
Aerodrome operating minima 91.08.1 The aerodrome operating minima shall be the aerodrome operating minima prescribed in subpart 6, and the provisions of Regulations 91.07.5 121.07.7, 127.07.7 and 135.07.7 shall apply mutatis mutandis. General operating rules for low-visibility operations 91.08.2(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that no Category II or III operations are conducted with the aircraft unless (a) such aircraft is certificated for operations with decision heights below 200 feet or no decision height, and equipped in accordance with this part or an equivalent regulation accepted by the Commissioner; (b) a suitable system for recording approach or automatic-landing success and failure is established and maintained to monitor the overall safety of the operation; (c) the operations are approved by the Commissioner; and (d) decision height is determined by means of a radio altimeter. (2) The pilot-in-command shall not conduct low-visibility take-offs with RVR of less than 150 m for Category A, B, C and D aeroplanes, or RVR of less than 200 m for Category E aeroplanes, unless approved by the Commissioner. (3) The categories referred to in sub-regulation (2), are established on the basis of 1.3 times the stall speed of the aeroplanes in the landing configuration at maximum certificated landing mass and are as follows:
Editorial note: In the event of low-visibility procedures being in force, the Air Traffic and Navigation Service Company will report to the Commissioner details of all aircraft attempting an approach, the RVR visibility at the time, and the outcome of the approach attempt. This information will be used by the Civil Aviation Authority in investigation of approaches attempted outside of the operator's equipment and pilot-in-command limitations or approval. See also AIC 22.6.
(a) Category A - less than 91 knots indicated airspeed; (b) Category B- 91 knots indicated airspeed or more, but less than 121 knots indicated airspeed; (c) Category C - 121 knots indicated airspeed or more, but less than 141 knots indicated airspeed; (d) Category D - 141 knots indicated airspeed or more, but less than 166 knots indicated airspeed; and (e) Category E- 166 knots indicated airspeed or more, but less than 211 knots indicated airspeed.
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Aerodrome considerations for low-visibility operations 91.08.3(1) No pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall use an aerodrome for Category II or III operations, unless the aerodrome is approved for such operations by the appropriate authority of the State in which the aerodrome is located. (2) The owner or operator of an aircraft intended to be used in low-visibility operations, shall verify that low-visibility procedures have been established, and are in force, at the aerodromes where low-visibility operations are to be conducted. Training and qualifications for low-visibility operations 91.08.4 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that, prior to conducting low-visibility take-off or Category II and III operations (a) each flight deck crew member (i.) (ii.) (iii.) has completed the training and checking requirements as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91, including simulator training in operating to the limiting values of RVR and decision height appropriate to the owner's or operator's Category II and III approval; and is qualified in accordance with the requirements as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91, and
(b) the flight deck crew qualification is specific to the operation and the aircraft type. Operating procedures for low-visibility operations 91.08.5(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall establish procedures and instructions to be used for low-visibility take-offs and Category II and III operations. (2) The pilot-in-command shall satisfy himself or herself that (a) the status of the visual and non-visual facilities is sufficient prior to commencing a low-visibility take-off or a Category II or III approach; (b) appropriate low-visibility procedures are in force according to information received from an air traffic service unit, before commencing a low visibility takeoff or a Category II or III approach; and (c) the flight deck crew members are properly qualified to carry out a low visibility take-off in an RVR of less than 150 m in a Category A, B, C and D aeroplane, or 200 m in a Category E aeroplane, or a Category II or III approach.
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Minimum equipment for low-visibility operations 91.08.6(1) The operator of an aircraft shall include in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 121.04.2,121.04.2 or 135.04.2, as the case may be, the minimum equipment which shall be serviceable at the commencement of a low-visibility takeoff or a Category II or 111 approach in accordance with the aircraft night manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2. (2) The pilot-in-command shall satisfy himself or herself that the status of the aircraft and the relevant airborne systems thereof, is appropriate for the specific operation to be conducted.
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SUBPART 9: PERFORMANCE OPERATING LIMITATIONS
General provisions 91.09.1(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that the aircraft is operated in compliance with (a) the terms and conditions of the certificate of airworthiness issued in respect of such aircraft; (b) the operating limitations, the markings and placards as prescribed by the appropriate authority of the State of Registry; and (c) the mass limitations prescribed in Part 21. (2) In complying with sub-regulation (1), the owner or operator shall take account of airframe configuration, environmental conditions and the operation of systems which may have an effect on the performance of the aircraft, when appropriate. (3) The operator of an aircraft engaged in a commercial air transport operation, shall comply with the provisions of the appropriate regulations in Part 121, Part 127 or Part 135, as the case may be. Helicopter operating limitations 91.09.2(1) Performance Class 3 helicopters shall only be operated in conditions of weather and light, and over such routes and diversions there from, which may permit a safe forced landing to be executed in the event of an engine failure. (2) The provisions of sub-regulation (1) shall mutatis mutandis apply to performance Class 2 helicopter prior to the defined point after take-off and after the defined point before landing. (3) Only performance Class 1 helicopters shall be permitted to operate from elevated heliports in built-up urban areas. Helicopter performance classification 91.09.3 For performance purposes, helicopters are classified as follows: (a) Class 1 helicopter - a helicopter with performance such that, in case of critical power unit failure, the helicopter is able to land on the rejected take-off area or safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area,depending on when the failure occurs;
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(b) Class 2 helicopter - a helicopter with performance such that, in case of critical power unit failure, the helicopter is able to safely continue the flight, except when the failure occurs prior to a defined point after takeoff or after a defined point before landing, in which case a forced landing may be required; and (c) Class 3 helicopter - a helicopter with performance such that, in case of power unit failure at any point in the flight profile, a forced landing has to be performed. Aeroplane performance classification 91.09.4 For performance purposes, aeroplanes are classified as follows: (a) Class A aeroplanes (i) multi-engine aeroplanes powered by turbo-propeller engines with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than nine seats or a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms; and multi-engine turbojet-powered aeroplanes;
(ii)
(b) Class B aeroplanes- propeller-driven aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of nine seats or less, and a maximum certficated mass of 5 700 kilograms or less; (c) Class C aeroplanes - aeroplanes powered by two or more reciprocating engines with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than nine seats or a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms; and (d) Class D aeroplanes - single-engine aeroplanes.
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SUBPART 10: MAINTENANCE
General 91.10.1 No owner, operator or pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is maintained and released to service in accordance with the provisions of Part 43.
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SA CATS OPS 91
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SOUTH AFRICAN CIVIL AVIATION TECHNICAL STANDARDS RELATING TO GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES
1. GENERAL Section 22A of the Aviation Act, 1962 (as amended by section 5 of the Aviation Laws Amendment Act, 1996) empowers the Commissioner for Civil Aviation to issue technical standards for civil aviation on the matters which are prescribed by regulation. 2. PURPOSE Document SA-CATS-OPS 91 contains the standards, rules, requirements, methods, specifications, characteristics and procedures which are applicable in respect of general operating and flight rules. Each reference to a technical standard in this document, is a reference to the corresponding regulation in the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997, for example, technical standard 91.02.8 refers to regulation 8 of Subpart 02 of Part 91 of the Regulations. The abbreviation CAR is used throughout this document when referring to any regulation. The abbreviation TS refers to any technical standard. 3. SCHEDULES AND NOTES Guidelines and recommendations in support of any particular technical standard, are contained in schedules to, and/or notes inserted throughout the technical standards.
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LIST OF TECHNICAL STANDARDS

91.01.5 INFORMATION ON EMERGENCY AND SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT CARRIED (1) Emergency and survival list 91.02.7 DUTIES OF PILOT-IN-COMMAND REGARDING FLIGHT PREPARATION (1) Category II approach (2) Category III approach (3) Adequate and suitable aerodromes 91.03.4 AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE FLIGHT PLAN (1) Form of an air traffic service flight plan 91.03.5 FLIGHT FOLIO (1) Information to be contained in a flight folio 91.04.10 FLIGHT RECORDER (1) Flight recorder specifications (2) Parameters 91.04.13 FLIGHT DATA RECORDER (1) Types of aircraft 91.04.16 STANDARD FIRST AID KIT (1) Standard first aid kits 91.04.17 FIRST AID OXYGEN (1) Supply of first aid oxygen (2) Oxygen equipment 91.04.18 SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN IN THE CASE OF PRESSURISED AIRCRAFT (1) General (2) Oxygen equipment and supply requirements (3) Minimum requirements for supplemental oxygen for pressurised aeroplanes (4) Quick donning mask 91.04.19 SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN IN THE CASE OF NON-PRESSURISED AEROPLANES (1) General (2) Oxygen supply requirements (3) Minimum requirements for supplemental oxygen for non-pressurised aeroplanes 91.04.21 HAND FIRE EXTINGUISHERS (1) General (2) Hand fire extinguishers
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91.04.24 MEGAPHONES (1) Megaphones 91.04.25 EMERGENCY LIGHTING (1) Emergency lighting 91.04.26 AUTOMATIC EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTER (1) Distress frequencies (2) Types of ELT's (3) Installation 91.04.28 LIFE RAFTS AND SURVIVAL RADIO EQUIPMENT FOR EXTENDED OVER-WATER FLIGHTS (1) Equipment 91.04.29 SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT (1) Survival equipment (2) Interpretation (3) Additional survival equipment (4) Duplicates (5) Location 91.05.1 COMMUNICATION EQUIPMENT (1) General (2) Radio equipment (3) Audio selector panel (4) Radio equipment for operations under VFR over routes navigated by reference to visual landmarks (5) Communication and navigation equipment for operations under IFR, or under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks (6) Communication and navigation equipment using the Global Positioning System (7) Operational standards for inertia navigation and reference systems 91.05.2 NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT (1) MNPS specifications 91.06.10 LIGHTS TO BE DISPLAYED BY AIRCRAFT (1) Aircraft (2) Aeroplane operating lights 91.06.13 SIGNALS (1) Distress signals (2) Urgency signals (3) Visual signals used to warn an unauthorised aircraft flying in, or about to enter a restricted, prohibited or danger area. (4) Signals for aerodrome traffic (5) Marshalling signals
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91.06.29 IDENTIFICATION AND INTERCEPTION OF AIRCRAFT (1) Visual interception signals 91.06.33 SEMI-CIRCULAR RULE (1) Semi-circular rule 91.07.2 MINIMUM FLIGHT ALTITUDES (1) Minimum flight altitude formula 91.07.8 PLANNING MINIMA FOR IFR FLIGHTS (1) Planning minima for destination alternate aerodromes (2) Planning minima for en route alternate aerodromes (Non-ETOPS flights) (3) Planning minima for an ETOPS en route alternate 91.07.11 MASS AND BALANCE (1) Definitions (2) Mass values for flight crew (3) Mass values for passengers and baggage 91.07.12 FUEL AND OIL SUPPLY (1) Planning criteria for aeroplanes (2) Fuel and oil supply for helicopters 91.07.25 COMMENCEMENT AND CONTINUATION OF APPROACH (1) Conversion of reported visibility 91.08.4 TRAINING AND QUALIFICATIONS FOR LOW-VISIBILITY OPERATIONS (1) General (2) Ground training (3) Simulator training and/or flight training (4) Conversion training requirements to conduct low-visibility take-off and Category II and III operations (5) Type and command experience (6) Low-visibility take-off with RVR less than 150/200 m (7) Recurrent training and checking - Low-visibility operations (8) LVTO and Category 11 /III recency requirements ANNEXURE A : GPS TRAINING SYLLABUS ANNEXURE B : GLOBAL POSITIONING SYSTEM
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91.01.5 INFORMATION ON EMERGENCY AND SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT CARRIED

1. Emergency and survival list An owner or operator must have a list containing the following minimum information regarding the emergency and survival equipment carried on board: (1) The number, colour and type of life rafts and pyrotechnics; (2) details of emergency medical supplies; (3) water supplies; and (4) type and frequencies of emergency portable radio equipment.
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91.02.7
DUTIES OF PILOT-IN-COMMAND REGARDING FLIGHT PREPARATION
1.
Category II approach
A Category II approach is an ILS approach procedure which provides for an approach to a decision height lower than 200 feet but not lower than 100 feet and a RVR of not less than 350 m. 2. Category III approach
A Category III approach is divided into a 1) Category III A approach, which is an ILS approach procedure which provides for an approach with either a decision height lower than 100 feet or with no decision height and with a RVR of not less than 200 m, 2) Category III B approach, which is an ILS approach procedure which provides for an approach with either a decision height lower than 50 feet or with no decision height and with a RVR of less than 200 m but not less than 50 m, and 3) Category III C approach which is an ILS approach procedure which provides for an approach with no decision height and no RVR limitations. 3. Adequate and suitable aerodromes For the purposes of CAR 91 02.7(l)(s) 1) an adequate aerodrome is an aerodrome licensed in terms of Part 139 or is found to be equivalent to the safety requirements prescribed in Part 139; and 2) a suitable aerodrome is an adequate aerodrome with weather reports, or forecasts or any combination thereof, indicating that the weather conditions are at or above operating minima, as specified in the operation specifications, the field condition reports indicate that a safe landing can be accomplished at the time of the intended operation and the facilities necessary to complete an approach at such aerodrome is operational.
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91.03.4
1)
AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE FLIGHT PLAN
Form of an air traffic service flight plan
(2) An air traffic service flight plan filed prior to departure must contain the following items: (d) Aircraft identification and transponder data; (e) flight rules and type of flight; (c) number and type(s) of aircraft and wake turbulence category; (f) radio communication, navigation and approach-aid equipment; (g) aerodrome of departure and time; (h) flight information region boundaries and estimated times; (i) cruising speed and flight level; (j) route to be followed; (k) aerodrome of destination and estimated times of arrival; (l) alternate aerodrome(s); (m) alerting action required; (n) fuel endurance; (o) total number of persons on board; (p) emergency and survival equipment and colour of aircraft; (q) other pertinent information; and (r) name, postal address, telephone and telefax number of the owner or operator of the aircraft which must be completed in field 18 of the standard flight plan form. (2) An air traffic service flight plan filed in flight to comply with CAR 91.03.4(6) must contain the following items: (a) Aircraft registration; (b) flight rules; (c) type of aircraft;
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(d) aerodrome of departure; (e) cruising speed and flight level; (f) route to be followed and estimates as applicable (g) aerodrome of destination and estimated time of arrival; (h) alternate aerodrome for IFR flights; (i) alerting action required; (j) fuel endurance if alerting action as applicable; (k) total number of persons on board; and (l) name, post address, telephone and telefax number of the owner or operator of the aircraft
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91.03.5 FLIGHT FOLIO

1. Information to be contained in a flight folio
1) An owner or operator must retain the following information for each flight in the form of a flight folio: (a) Aircraft registration; (b) date; (c) name(s) of flight crew member(s); (d) duty assignment of flight crew member(s); (e) place of departure; (f) place of arrival; (g) time of departure (off-block time); (h) time of arrival (on-block time); (i) hours of flight; (j) nature of flight; (k) incidents, observations (if any); (l) signature of pilot-in-command; (m) the current maintenance statement giving the aeroplane maintenance status of what maintenance, scheduled or out of phase, is next due; (n) all outstanding deferred defects which affect the operation of the aeroplane; (o) fuel used; and (p) fuel uplift. (2) The owner or operator need not keep a flight folio or parts thereof, if the relevant information is available in other documentation. (3) The owner or operator must ensure that all entries are made concurrently and that they are permanent in nature.
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91.04.10
FLIGHT RECORDER
1.
Flight recorder specifications
All digital flight recorders must comply with one of the following specifications as applicable: (1) ARINC 542A (2) ARINC 573-717 (3) ARINC 717 (4) ICAO
2.
Parameters
The parameters of flight recorders are preScribed in CAR 91.04.13.
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91.04.13 FLIGHT DATA RECORDER

1. Types of aircraft
1) An aeroplane or helicopter in respect of which an individual certificate of airworthiness was issued on or after 1 January 1989 which (a) Is an aeroplane with a MCM exceeding 27 000 kg; (b) Is an aeroplane with a MCM exceeding 5 700 kg, up to and including 27 000 kg, classified in the public transport or transport of cargo category; or (c) is a helicopter with a MCM exceeding 7 000 kg and is engaged in international operations, may not be operated unless such aeroplane or helicopter is equipped with the appropriate flight data recorder prescribed in paragraph (3). 2) A turbine-engine aeroplane with a MCM exceeding 27 000 kg of which the proto type was certified by an appropriate authority after 30 September 1969, may not be operated unless such aeroplane is equipped with the appropriate flight data recorder prescribed in paragraph (3). (3) (a) An aeroplane referred to in paragraph (l)(a) must be equipped with a Type I flight data recorder precribed in Table 1. (b) An aeroplane referred to in paragraph (l)(b) must be equipped with a Type II flight data recorder prescribed in Table 1. (c) A helicopter referred to in paragraph (l)(c) must be equipped with a Type IV flight data recorder prescribed in Table 2. (d) A turbine-engine aeroplane referred to in paragraph (2) must be equipped with a Type II flight data recorder prescribed in Table 1. (4) A turbine-engine aeroplane with a MCM exceeding 5 700 kg which is classified for operation in the public transport or transport of cargo category, and (a) in respect of which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued before 1 January 1987, but before 1 January 1989; or in respect of which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued before 1 Janaury 1987, may not be operated unless such aeroplane is equipped with a flight data recorder which records -
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(i) time (ii) altitude (iii) airspeed; (iv) normal acceleration; (v) heading; and (vi) pitch.
(5) In the case of an aeroplane or helicopter referred to in paragraph (1), in respect

of which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued before 1 January 1987, the flight data recorder may be combined with the cockpit voice recorder.
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91.04.16 STANDARD FIRST AID KIT

1. Standard first aid kits
1. The following must be included in the first aid kit: (a) Bandage (unspecified); (b) burns dressings (unspecified); (c) wound dressings, large and small;
(d) adhesive tape, safety pins and scissors;
(e) small adhesive dressings; (f) antiseptic wound cleaner; (g) ahesive wound closures; (h) adhesive tape; (i) disposable resuscitation aid; (j) simple analgesic e.g. paracetamol; (k) antiemetic e.g. cinnarizine; (l) nasal decongestant; (m) first aid handbook; (n) splints, suitable for upper and lower limbs; (o) gastrointestinal antacid +; (p) anti-diarrhoeal medication e.S loperamide +; (q) ground/air visual signal code for use by survivors; (r) disposable glove; and
(s) a list of contents in at least 2 languages (English and one other). This should
include information on the effects and side effects of drugs carried.
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Note: (1) All, eye irrigator whilst not required to be carried in the First Aid kit should, where possible, be available for use on the ground. (2) + indicates aircraft with more than 9 passenger Seats installed. 2. Unless the standard first aid kit is clearly visible, its location must be indicated by a placard or sign, and appropriate symbols may be used to supplement the placard or sign.
(3)
An owner or oprator must ensure that the standard First Aid kit is readily accessible for use.
(4) An aircraft must be equipped with the following number of standard First aid kits:
Number of passenger Seats isntalled 0 to 99 100 to 199 200 to 299 300 and more
Number of standard First Aid Kits required 1 2 3 4
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91.04.17
1.
FIRST AID OXYGEN
Supply of first aid oxygen
1) The amount of oxygen must be calculated using an average flow rate of at least 3 litres Standard Temperure Pressure Dry (STPD)/minute/person and provided for the entire flight after cabin depressurisation at cabin altitudes of more than 8 000 ft for at least 2% of the passengers carried, but in no case for less than one person. There must be a sufficient number of dispensing units, but in no case less than two, with a means for cabin crew to use the supply. 2) The amount of first aid oxygen required for a particular operation must be determined on the basis of cabin pressure altitudes and flight duration, consistent with the operating procedures established for each operation and route. 2. Oxygen equipment
1) The oxygen equipment provided must be Capable of generating a mass flow to each user of at least four litres per minute, STPD Means may be provided to decrease the flow to not less than two iitres per minute, STPD, at any altitude. 2) The dispensing units may be of a portable type.
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91.04.18 SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN IN THE CASE OF PRESSURISED AIRCRAFT

1. General
(1) An owner or operator may not operate a pressurised aircraft above 10 000 feet unless supplemental oxygen equipment, capable of storing and dispensing the oxygen supplies required by this technical standard, is provided. (2) The amount of supplemental oxygen required required must be determined on the basis of cabin altitude, flight duration and the assumption that a cabin pressurisation failure will occur at the altitude or point of flight that is most critical from the standpoint of oxygen need, and that, after the failure, the aircraft will descend in accordance with emergency procedures specified in the aircraft flight manual to a safe altitude for the route to be flown that will allow continued safe flight and landing. (3) Following a cabin pressurisation failure, the cabin altitude must be considered the same as the aircraft altitude, unless it is demonstrated to the Commissioner that no probable failure of the cabin or pressurisation system will result in a cabin pressure altitude equal to the aircraft altitude. Under these circumstances, this lower cabin pressure altitude may be used as a basis for determination oxygen supply. 2. Oxygen equipment and supply requirements
(1) Flight deck crew members (a) Each flight deck crew member on flight deck duty must be supplied with supplemental oxygen in accordance with paragraph 3. If all occupants of flight deck seats are supplied from the flight crew source of oxygen supply then they must be considered as flight deck crew member.s on flight deck duty for the purpose of oxygen supply. Flight deck seat occupants, not supplied by the flight deck crew source, are to he considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply. (b) Flight deck crew members, not covered by subparagraph (l)(a) above, are to be considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply. (c) Oxygen masks must be located so as to be within the immediate reach of flight deck crew members whilst at their assigned duty station. (d) Oxygen masks for use by flight deck crew members in pressurised aeroplanes operating above 25 000 ft must be a quick donning type of mask. (2) Cabin crew members, additional flight crew members and passengers (a) Cabin crew members and passengers must be supplied with supplemental oxygen in accordance with paragraph 3. Cabin crew members carried in addition to the minimum number of cabin crew members required, and additional flight crew members, are to be considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply.
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(b) When operating above 25 000 feet there must be provided sufficient spare outlets and/or portable oxygen units are to be distributed evenly throughout the cabin to Ensure immediate availability of oxygen to each required cabin crew member regardless of his or her location at the time of cabin pressurisation failure. (c) When operating above 25 000 feet there must be an oxygen dispensing unit connected to oxygen supply terminals immediately available to each occupant, wherever seated. The total number of dispensing units and outlets must exceed the number of sets by at least 10%. The extra units are to be evenly distributed throughout the cabin. (d) The oxygen supply requirements, as specified in paragraph 3 for aircraft not certificated to fly at altitudes above 25 000 feet, may be reduced to the entire flight time between 10 000 feet and 14 000 feet cabin pressure altitudes for all required cabin crew members and for at least 10% of the passengers if, at all points along the route to be flown, the aircraft is able to descend safely within 4 minutes to a cabin pressure altitude of 14 000 feet.
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3. Minimum requirements for supplemental oxygen for pressurised aircraft SUPPLY FOR 1. All occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty DURATION AND CABIN PRESSURE ALTITUDE Entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13 000 feet and entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10 000 feet but does not exceed 13000 feet after the first 30 minutes at those altitudes, but in no case less than: i. 30 minutes for aircraft certificated to fly at altitudes not exceeding 25 000 feet (Note 2) ii. 2 hours for aircraft certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25 000 feet (Note 3) 2. All required cabin crew Entire flight time when cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13 members 000 feet but not less than 30 minutes (Note 2), and entire flight time when cabin pressure altitude is greater than 10 000 feet but does not exceed 13 000 feet after the 30 minutes at these altitudes. 3. 100% of passengers 10 minutes or the entire flight time when the cabin pressure (Note 5) altitude exceeds 15 000 feet whichever is the greater (Note 4) 4. 30% of passengers Entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds (Note 5) 14 000 feet but does not exceed 15 000 feet. 5. 10% of passengers Entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds (Note 5) 10 000 feet but does not exceed 14 000 feet after the first 30 minutes at these altitudes. Note 1: The supply provided must take account of the cabin pressure altitude and descent profile for the routes concerned. Note 2: The required minimum supply is that quantity of oxygen, necessary for a constant rate of descent from the aircraft's maximum certificated operating altitude to 10 000 feet in 10 minutes and followed by 20 minutes at 10 000 feet. Note 3: The required minimum supply is that the guantity of oxygen necessary for a constant rate of descent from the aircraft's maximum certificated operating altitude to 10 000 feet in 10 minutes and followed by 100 minutes at 10 000 feel. The oxygen required in CAR 91.04.20 may be included in determinining the supply required Note 4 The required minimum supply is that guantity of oxygen, necessary for a constant rate of descent from the aircraft's maximum certificated operating altitude to 15 000 feet. Note 5: For the purpose of this table passengers' means passengers actually carried and includes infants.
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Quick donning mask A quick donning mask is the type of mask that 1) can be placed on the face from its ready position, properly secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen upon demand, with one hand and within 5 seconds and will thereafter remain in position, both hands being free; 2) can be put on without disturbing eye glasses and without delaying the flight crew member from proceeding with assigned emergency duties; 3) after being put on, does not prevent immediate communication between the flight deck crew members and other flight crew members over the aeroplane intercommunication system. 4) does not inhibit radio communications.
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1. General 1) An owner or operator may not operate a nonpressurised aircraft at altitudes above 10 000 feet and up to 12 000 feet for longer than 60 minutes, or above 12 000 feet unless supplemental oxygen equipment, capable of storing and dispensing the oxygen supplies required, is provided. 2) The amount of supplemental oxygen for sustenance required for a particular operation must be determined on the basis of flight altitudes and flight duration, consistent with the operating procedures established for each operation in the operations manual and with the routes to be flown, and with the emergency procedures specified in the operations manual, if applicable. 2. Oxygen supply requirements
1) Flight deck crew members. Each flight deck crew member on flight deck duty must be supplied with supplemental oxygen in accordance with paragraph 3. If all occupants of flight deck seats are supplied from the flight crew source of oxygen supply, then they are to be considered as flight deck crew members on flight deck duty for the purpose of oxygen supply. 2) Cabin crew members, additional flight crew members and passengers. Cabin crew members and passengers must be supplied with oxygen in accordance with paragraph 3. Cabin crew members carried in addition to the minimum number of cabin crew members required, and additional flight crew members, are to be considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply.
3. Minimum requirements for supplemental oxygen for non-pressurised aeroplanes

SUPPLY FOR
All occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty All required cabin crew members 100% of passengers (See Note) 10% of passengers (See Note)
DURATION AND PRESSURE ALTITUDE

Entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 12 000 feet and for any period exceeding 60 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 feet but not exceeding 12 000 feet. Entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 12 000 feet and for any period exceeding 60 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 feet but not exceeding 12 000 feet. Entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 12 000 feet. Entire flight time after 60 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 feet but not exceeding 12 000 feet.
Note: For the purpose of this table passengers means passengers actually carried and includes infants under the Age of 2.
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91.04.20 HAND FIRE EXTINGUISHERS

1. Definitions Any word or expression to which a meaning has been assigned in the Aviation Act, 1962, and the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997, bears, when used in this technical standard, the same meaning unless the context indicates otherwise, and 1) "Class A cargo or baggage compartment" means a cargo or baggage compartment in which (a) The presence of a fire would be easily discovered by a flight crew member while at his or her station;and (b) each part of the compartment is easily accessible in flight; 2) "Class B cargo or baggage compartment" means a cargo or baggage compartment in which (a) there is sufficient access in flight to enable a flight crew member to effectively reach any part of the compartment with the contents of a hand fire extinguisher; (b) when the access provisions are being used, no hazardous quantity of smoke, flames or extinguishing agent will enter any compartment occupied by the flight crew or passengers; and (c) there is a separate approved smoke detector or fire detector system to give warning at the pilot or flight engineer station; 3) Class E cargo compartment means a cargo compartment used only for the carriage of cargo and in which(a) there is a separate approved smoke or fire detector system to give warning at the pilot or flight engineer station; (b) there are means of shutting off the ventitating airflow to or within the compartment, and the controls for these means are accessible to the flight crew in the fligh crew compartment; (c) there are means of excluding hazardous quantities of smoke, flames, or noxious gases, from the flight crew compartment; and the required flight crew emergency exits are accessible under any cargo loading conditions. (d) the required flight crew emergency exits loading conditions. are accessible under any cargo
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2.
Hand fire extinguishers
An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft unless hand fire extinguishers Are provided for use in flight crew, Passenger and, as applicable, cargo compartments and galleys in accordance with the following: 1) The type and quantity of extinguishing agent must be suitable for the kinds of fires likely to occur in the compartment where the extinguisher is intended to be used and, for personnel compartments, must minimise the hazard of toxic gas concentration. 2) At least one hand fire extinguisher, containing Halon 1211 (bromochlorodifluoromethane, CBrCIF,), or equivalent as the extinguishing agent, must be conveniently located on the flight deck for use by the flight deck crew. 3) At least one hand fire extinguisher must be located in, or readily accessible for use in, each galley not located on the main passenger deck. 4) At least one readily accessible hand fire extinguisher must be available for use in each Class A or Class B cargo or baggage compartment and in each Class cargo compartment that is accessible to flight crew members in flight. At least the following number of hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment(s):
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91.04.20 HAND FIRE EXTINGUISHERS

Maximum approved Passenger seating Configuration 7 to 30 31 to 60 61 to 200 201 to 300 301 to 400 401 to 500 501 to 600 601 or more Number of extinguishers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
When two or more extinguishers are required, they must be evenly distributed in the passenger compartment. 6) At least one of the required fire extinguishers located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of at least 31, and not more than 60, and at least two of the fire extinguishers located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 61 or more must contain Halon 1211, equivalent as the extinguishing agent. 7) The number and location of hand fire extinguishers must be such as to provide adequate availability for use, account being taken of the number and size of the passenger compartments, the need to minimise the hazard of toxic gas concentrations and the location of toilets, galleys, etc. These considerations may result in the number being greater than the minimum prescribed. 8) There must be at least one fire extinguisher suitable for both flammable fluid and electrical equipment fires installed on the flight deck. Additional extinguishers may be required for the protection of other compartments accessible to the flight crew in flight. Dry chemical fire extinguishers should not be used on the flight deck, or in any compartment not separated by a partition from the flight deck, because of the adverse effect on vision during discharge and, if non-conductive, interference with electrical contacts by the chemical residues. 9) Where only one hand fire extinguisher is required in the passenger compartments it must be located near the cabin crew member's station, where provided.
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10) Where two or more hand fire extinguishers are required in the passenger compartments and their location is not otherwise dictated by consideration of subparagraph (7) above, an extinguisher must be located near each end of the cabin with the remainder distributed through the cabin as evenly as is practicable. Unless an extinguisher is clearly visible, its location must be indicated by a placard or sign, and appropriate symbols may be used to supplement such a placard or sign.
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91.04.24
MEGAPHONES
1. Megaphones 1) An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft with a Maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 60 seats and carrying one or more passengers unless it is equipped with portable battery-powered megaphones readily accessible for use by flight crew members during an emergency evacuation, to the following scales: (a) For each passenger deck:
Passenger seating configuration 61 to 99 100 or more Number of Megaphones required 1 2
(b) For aircraft with more than one passenger deck, in all cases when the total passenger seating configuration is more than 60 seats, at least 1 megaphone is required. 2) When one megaphone is required, it must be readily accessible from a cabin crew member's assigned seat. Where two or more megaphones are required, they must be suitably distributed in the passenger cabin(s) and readily accessible to cabin crew members assigned to direct emergency evacuations. This does not necessarily require megaphones to be positioned such that they can be reached by a cabin crew member when strapped in a cabin crew member's seat. 3) Unless the megaphone is clearly visible, its location must be indicated by a placard or sign, and appropriate symbols may be used to supplement the placard or sign.
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91.04.25
1.
EMERGENCY LIGHTING
Emergency lighting
1) An owner or operator may not operate a passenger carrying aircraft which, in accordance with its individual certificate of airworthiness, has a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than nine seats unless it is provided with an emergency lighting system having an independent power supply to facilitate the evacuation of the aircraft. The emergency lighting system must include (a) for aircraft which, in accordance with their individual certificate of airworthiness, have a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 seats: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) sources of general cabin illumination; internal lighting in floor level emergency exit areas; illuminated emergency exit marking and locating signs; when flying by night, exterior emergency lighting at all overwing exits, and at exits where descent assist means are required or aircraft for which an application for the issuing of a type certificate was made before 1 May 1972; floor proximity emergency escape path marking system in the passenger compartments for aircraft in respect of which a type certificate was first issued on or after 1 January 1958;
(v)
(b) for aircraft which, in accordance with their individual certificate of airworthiness have a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of less than 20 seats or are certificated to TS 21.02.3(3) and (4). (i.) (ii.) (iii.) Sources of general cabin illumination; Internal lighting in emergency exit areas; Illuminated emergency exit marking and locating signs;
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(c) for aircraft which in accordance with their individual certificate of airworthiness have a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of less than 20 seats and are not certificated to TS 21.02.3(3) and (4). (i) Sources of general cabin illumination.
2) An owner or operator may not operate a passenger carrying aircraft which, in accordance with its individual certificate of airworthiness, has a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of less than ten seats, when flying by night, unless it is provided with a source of internal cabin illumination to facilitate the evacuation of the aircraft. The system may use dome lights or other sources of illumination already fitted on the aircraft and which are capable of remaining operative after the battery has been switched off.
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91.04.26
AUTOMATIC EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTER
Distress frequencies An owner or operator must ensure that the automatic emergency locator transmitter (ELT) is capable of transmittirig on the distress frequencies 121.5 MHz and 243 MHz, except that, where the whole of a proposed flight is within an area where, for search and rescue purposes, only one of these frequencies is required, the use of that single frequency may be specifically authorised, if so agreed by the authority responsible for search and rescue in the area concerned. 2. Types of ELT's Types of ELT's are defined as follows: 2.1 Automatic Fixed (ELT (AF))
This type of ELT is intended to be permanently attached to the aircraft before and after a crash and is designed to aid search and rescue teams in locating a crash site; 2.2 Automatic Portable (ELT (AP)) This type of ELT is intended to be rigidly attached to the aircraft before a crash, but readily removable from the aircraft after a crash. It functions as an ELT during the crash sequence. If the EL does not employ an integral antenna, the aircraft-mounted antenna may be disconnected and an auxiliary antenna (stores on the ELT case) attached to the ELT. The ELT can be tethered to a survivor or a life-raft. This type of ELT is intended to aid search and rescue teams in locating the crash site or survivor(s); 2.3 Automatic Deployable (ELT (AD)) This type of ELT is intended to be rigidly attached to the aircraft before the crash and automatically ejected and deployed after the crash sensor has determined that a crash has occurred. This type of ELT should float in water and is intended to aid search and rescue teams in locating the crash site. 3. Installation
To minimise the possibility of damage in the event of crash impact, the ELT should be rigidly fixed to the aircraft structure as far aft as practicable with its antenna and connections so arranged as to maximise the probability of the signal being radiated after a crash.
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91.04.28
1.
LIFE RAFTS AND SURVIVAL RADIO EQUIPMENT FOR EXTENDED OVER-WATER FLIGHTS
Equipment
1) An owner or operator must ensure that the aircraft is equipped with sufficient life rafts to carry all persons on board. Unless excess rafts or enough capacity are provided, the buoyancy and seating capacity beyond the rated capacity of the rafts must accommodate all occupants of the aircraft in the event of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity. 2) The life rafts must be equipped with (a) a survivor locator light; and (b) life saving equipment including means of sustaining life as appropriate to the flight to be undertaken. 3) The following should be included in each life-raft (a) means for maintaining buoyancy; (b) a sea anchor; (c) life-lines and means of attaching one life-raft to another; (d) paddles for life-rafts with a capacity of 6 or less; (e) means of protecting the occupants from the elements; (f) a water resistant torch; (g) signalling equipment to make the pyrotechnical distress signals prescribed in CAR 91.06.13; (h) for each 4, or fraction of 4, persons which the life-raft is designed to carry: 100 g glucose tablets; 500 mi of water. This water may be provided in durable containers or by means of making seawater drinkable or a combination of both; and first aid equipment.
(i)
Note: Items (g)-(i), inclusive, should be contained in a pack. 4) An aircraft must be equipped with at least two sets of survival radio quipment capable of transmitting on 121.5 MHz and 243 MHz.
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5) Unless the life rafts and survival radio equipment are clearly visible, its location must be indicated by a placard or sign, and appropriate symbols may be used to supplement the placard or sign.
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91.04.29
1.
SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT
Survival equipment
An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft across areas in which search and rescue would he especially difficult unless it is equipped with the following: 1) Signalling equipment to make the pyrotechnical distress signals prescribed in CAR 91.06.13; 2) at least one ELT; and 3) additional survival equipment for the route to be flown taking account of the number of persons on board as prescribed in paragraph 3. Provided that the additional equipment need not be carried when the aircraft either (a) remains within a distance from an area where search and rescue is not especially difficult corresponding to: 120 minutes at the one engine inoperative cruising speed for aircraft capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit(s) becoming inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversions; or 30 minutes at cruising speed for all other aircraft; or
(b) for aircraft certificated to TS 21.02.3(4), no greater distance than that corresponding to 90 minutes at cruising speed from an area suitable for making an emergency landing. 2. Interpretation
For the purposes of this technical standard, the expression "area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult" means 1) an area so designated by the State responsible for managing search and rescue; or 2) an area which is largely uninhabited and where (a) the State responsible for managing search and rescue has not published any information to confirm that search and rescue would not be especially difficult; and (b) the State referred to in (a) does not, as a matter of policy, designate areas as being especially difficult for search and rescue.
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3.
Additional survival equipment
1) The following additional survival equipment should be carried when required: (a) 500 ml of water for each 4, or fraction of 4, persons on board; (b) one knife; (c) first aid equipment; (d) one set of air/ground codes. 2) In addition, when polar conditions are expected, the following should be carried: (a) a means for melting snow; (b) one snow shovel and one ice saw; (c) sleeping bags for use by '/3 of all persons on board and space blankets for the remainder or space blankets for all passengers on board; and (d) one Arctic/polar suit for each flight crew member carried. 4. Duplicates
If any item of equipment contained in the above list is already carried on board the aircraft in accordance with another requirement, there is no need for this to be duplicated. 1. Location Unless the survival equipment is clearly visible, its location must be indicated by a placard or sign, and appropriate symbols may be used to supplement the placard or sign.
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91.05.1 COMMUNICATION EQUIPMENT

1. General
1) An owner or operator must ensure that a Flight does not commence unless the communication and navigation equipment required under Subpart 5 of the CARs Part 91 is(a) approved and installed in accordance with the requirements applicable to them, including the minimum performance standard and the operational and airworthiness requirements; (b) installed in such manner that the failure of any single unit required for either communication or navigation purposes, or both, will not result in the inability to communicate andlor navigate safely on the route being flown; (c) in an operable condition for the kind of operation being conducted except as provided in the MEL; and (d) so arranged that if equipment is to be used by one flight deck crew member at his or her station during flight, it must be readily operable from his or her station. When a single item of equipment is required to be operated by more than one flight deck crew member, it must be installed so that the equipment is readily operable from any station at which the equipment is required to be operated. 2) Communication and navigation equipment minimum performance standards are those prescribed in the applicable ZA-TSO as listed in the ZA-TSO, unless different performance standards are prescribed. Communication and navigation equipment complying with design and performance specifications other than ZATSO on the date of commencment of the CARs may remain in service, or be installed, unless additional requirements are prescribed in Subpart 5 of the CARs Part 91. 2. Radio equipment 1) An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with radio required for the kind of operation being conducted. 2) Where two independent (separate and complete) radio systems are required under Subpart 5 of the CARs Part 91, each system must have an independent antenna installation except that, where rigidly supported non-wire antennae or other antenna installations or equivalent reliability are used, only one antenna is required. 3. Audio selector panel
An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft under IFR unless it is equipped with an audio selector panel accessible to each required flight crew member.
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4. Radio equipment for operations under VFR over routes navigated by reference to visual landmarks An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft under VFR over routes than can be navigated by reference to visual landmarks, unless it is equipped with the radio equipment (communication and SSR transponder equipment) necessary under normal operating conditions to fulfil the following: 1) Communicate with appropriate ground stations; 2) communicate with appropriate air traffic service facilities from any point in controlled airspace within which flights are intended; 3) receive meteorological information; and 4) reply to SSR interrogations as required for the route being flown. 5. Communication and navigation equipment for operations under IFR, or under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks 1) An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft under IFR, or under VFR over routes that cannot be navigated by reference to visual landmarks, unless the aircraft is equipped with communication and navigation equipment in accordance with the requirements of air traffic services in the area(s) of operation, but not less than (a) Two independent radio communication systems necessary under normal operating conditions to communicate with an appropriate ground station from any point on the route including diversions; (a) one VOR receiving system, one ADF system, one DME and one Marker Beacon receiving system; (b) one ILS or MLS where ILS or MLS is required for approach navigation purposes; (c) an area navigation system when area navigation is required for the route being flown; (e) an additional VOFI receiving system on any route, or part thereof, where navigation is based only on VOR signals; (f) an additional ADF system on any route, or part thereof, where navigation is based only on NDB signals; and (g) SSR transponder equipment as required for the route being flown. (h) An owner or operator may operate an aircraft that is not equipped with the navigation equipment specified in sub-paragraph (l)(e) or (f), provided that it is equipped with alternative equipment authorised, for the route being flown, by the Commissioner. The reliability and the accuracy of alternative equipment must allow safe navigation for the intended route.
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6) Communication and navigation equipment using the Global Positioning System 6.1 Definitions Any word or expression to which a meaning has been assigned in the Aviation Act, 1962 and the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997, bears, when used in this technical standard, the same meaning unless the context indicates otherwise,and "sole means navigation system" means a Navigation system that, for a given phase of flight, must allow the aircraft to meet all four navigation system performance requirements, accuracy, integrity, availability and continuity of service; "primary means navigation system" means a navigation system that, for a given operation or phase of flight, must meet accuracy and integrity requirements, but need not meet full availability and continuity of service requirements. Safety is achieved by either limiting flights to specific time periods, or through appropriate procedural restrictions and operational requirements; "supplemental means navigation system" means a navigation system that must be used in conjunction with a sole means navigation system; "integrity" means that quality which relates to the trust which can be placed in the correctness of information supplied by a system. It includes the ability of a system to provide timely warnings to users when the system should not be used for navigation; receiver autonomous integrity monitoring" means a technique whereby an airborne GPS receiver/processor autonomously monitors the integrity of the navigation signals from GPS satellites, and where reference to RAIM occurs, it includes other approved equivalent integrity monitoring systems. 6.2 Purpose 1) This paragraph prescribes the requirements for the use of a GPS within South African airspace, for the purpose of (a) position fixing; (b) long range navigation including operations on designated routes; (c) deriving distance information, for en route navigation, traffic information and ATC separation; and (d) application of RNAV based separation. 2) GPS must not be used as a sole means navigation system or for instrument approaches. 3) GPS may continue to be used as an en route supplemental navigation aid.
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6.3 GPS signal integrity 1) System integrity is an essential element of the approval for use of GPS as a primary means navigation system. GPS receivers certified to TSO-C129 provide integrity through the use of RAIM, or an approved equivalent integrity system. When RAIM is lost or not available, the accuracy of the system cannot be assumed to meet the required standard for navigation, or for the application of ATC separation standards. 2) GPS integrity is also dependent on the number of operational satellites in view, or available for use. Loss of one or more Satellites can result in degraded system availability (see Paragraph 6.4) 3) RAIM availability is greatly improved through the use of barometric aiding. 4) Except as provided in this paragraph, GPS must not be used to fix position, provide distance information or provide primary navigation, unless RAIM is available. 6.4 GPS satellite constellation 1) The approvals contained in this paragraph are based on the availability of the US DoD GPS standard positioning service (SPS) operating to its defined full operational capability (FOC). This service does not meet the requirements of a sole means navigation system. 2) Disruption to the GPS may result in degradation in GPS service to such a level that some or all of the operational approvals for the IFR primary use of GPS contained in the technical standards may need to be withdrawn. When known, these changes or Restrictions will be advised by NOTAM. 3) Prior knowledge of RAIM availability will enable operators to use the system more efficiently, by allowing operations to be planned around gaps in RAIM coverage (RAIM holes). To achieve these efficiencies, appropriate RAIM prediction capabilities should be available at dispatch locations. Flights should be planned to ensure the safe completion of flight in the event of loss of GPS integrity.
6.5 Airworthiness requirements

The following airworthiness requirements must be satisfied. 1) GPS navigation equipment must have US FAA Technical Standard Order (TSO) C-129 (or CAA approved equivalent) authorisation; 2) if the GPS is installed in such a way that it is integrated with the aircraft's autopilot and navigation system, the GPS must be de-energised when ILS is selected: (3) the aircraft must be placarded that the GPS is not approved as a sole navigation and/or approach aid; and (4) automatic barometric aiding function, as provided by TSO C-129, must be connected.
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Notes: 1) Operators should be made aware that not all TSO C129 receivers will meet the requirements for future non-precision approaches, other than 'GPS Arrivals': and "DME or GPS Arrivals': 2) Operators should also be aware that TSO C-129 receivers may not be able to take advantage of future enhanced GPS capabilities, such as wide area or local area augmentation systems (WAAS orLAAS). 3) Operators should ensure that receivers are upgradable to accommodate future augmentation which will be reguired in terminal areas and for approaches. 6.6 Pilot training The following pilot training requirements must be satisfied: 1) Prior to using GPS in IFR operations for any of the purposes specified in this paragraph, the holder of a valid instrument rating must, unless exempted by the Commissioner, have completed a course of ground training based on the syllabus contained in Annexure A. The course must be conducted by an aviation training organisation approved in terms of the CARs Part 141; and 2. the course must cover both general information and procedures applicable to all types of GPS equipment, as well as the essential operating procedures for a specific type of aircraft equipment. Pilots who have completed the course and who wish to use a different type of GPS aircraft equipment, must ensure that they are familiar with, and competent in, the operating procedures required for that type of equipment, before using it in flight for any of the purposes approved in this paragraph. 6.7 Operational requirements
The following operational requirements must be satisfied: 1) Operating instructions for GPS navigation equipment must be (a) carried on board; and (b) incorporated into the operations manual for commercial operations; 2) GPS navigation equipment must be operated in accordance with the operating instructions and any additional requirements specified in the aircraft flight manual or flight manual supplement; 3) in addition to GPS, aircraft must be equipped with serviceable radio navigation systems as prescribed in paragraphs 1 to 5 of this technical standard; 4) when within rated coverage of ground based navigation aids, pilots must monitor the ground based system, and maintain track as defined by the most accurate ground based radio navigation aid (VOR or NDB) available. If there is a discrepancy between the GPS and ground based system information, pilots must use the information provided by the ground based navigation system;
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5) ATS may require GPS equipped aircraft to establish on, and track with reference to, a particular VOR radial or NDB track for the application of separation; 6) GPS must not be used as a navigation reference for flight below the MSA, except as otherwise authorised by CAA. 6.8 Operations without RAIM
1) GPS systems normally provide three modes of operation: (a) Navigation (Nav) Solution with RAIM, (b) 2D or 3D Nav Solution without RAIM; and (c) Dead Reckoning (DR), or Loss of Nav Solution. 2) ATS services, and in particular ATC separation standards, are dependent on accurate navigation and position fixing. If RAIM is lost, the accuracy of the system is assumed not to meet the required standard for both navigation and application of ATC separation. Accordingly, when RAIM is lost, the following procedures must be adopted: (a) Aircraft tracking must be closely monitored against other on board systems; (b) In controlled airspace, the ATS unit must be adivsed if: (i.) (ii.) (iii.) (iv.) RAIM is lost for periods greater than ten minutes, even if GPS is still providing positional information; RAIM is not available when the ATS unit requests GPS distance, or if an ATC clearance or requirement based on GPS distance is imposed; The GPS receiver is in DR mode, or experiences loss of navigation function,for more than one minute; or indicated displacement from track centreline is found to exceed 2 nm., and
ATS may then adjust separation; (c) if valid position information is lost (2D and DFi Mode), or non-RAIM operation exceeds ten minutes, the GPS information is to be considered unreliable, and another means of navigation should be used until RAIM is restored and the aircraft is re-established on track; (d) following re-establishment of RAIM, the appropriate ATS unit should be notified of RAIM restoration, prior to using GPS information. This will allow the ATS unit to reassess the appropriate separation standards; (e) when advising the ATS unit of the status of GPS the phrases "RAIM FAILURE" or "RAIM RESTORED" must be used.
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6.9 GPS distance information to air traffic service units 1) When a DME distance is requested by an ATS unit, DME derived distance information should normally be provided. Alternatively, GPS derived distance information may be provided to an ATS unit, Unless RAIM is currently unavailable, and has been unavailable for the preceding ten minutes. 2) Notwithstanding subparagraph (1), if an ATS unit has issued a clearance or requirement based upon GPS distance (eg. a requirement to reach a certain level by a GPS distance), pilots must inform the ATS unit if RAIM is not available. 3) When the DME distance is not specifically requested, or when the provision of a DME distance is not possible, distance information based on GPS derived information may be provided. When providing GPS distance, transmission of distance information must include the source and point of reference eg 115 nm GPS JSV, 80 nm GPS VAL NDB, 267 nm GPS ORNAD etc. 4) If the GPS distance is provided to an ATS unit, and RAIM is not currently available, but has been available in the preceding 10 minutes, the distance report should be suffixed NEGATIVE RAIM eg 26 nm GPS BLV NEGATIVE RAIM. 5) Databases sometimes contain waypoint information which is not shown on published AIP charts and maps. Distance information must only be provided in relation to published waypoints unless specifically requested by an ATS unit. 6) Where GPS distance is requested or provided from an NDB, VOR, DME, or published waypoint, the latitude and longitude of the navigation air or waypoint must be derived from a validated database which cannot be modified by the operator or flight crew (see paragraph 6.10). 16.10 Data integrity
1) As a significant number of data errors, in general applications, occur as a result of manual data entry errors, navigation aid and waypoint latitude and longitude data should be derived from a database, if available, which cannot be modified by the operator or flight crew. 2) When data is entered manually, data entries must be cross-checked by at least two flight crew members for accuracy and reasonableness, or, for single pilot operations, an independent check leg. GPS computed tracks and distances against current chart data must be made. 3) Both manually entered and database derived position and tracking information should be checked for reasonableness (confidence check) in the following cases: (a) Prior to each compulsory reporting point; (b) at or prior to arrival at each en route waypoint;
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(c) at hourly intervals during area type operations when operating on established routes; and (d) after insertion of new data eg creation of new flight plan. 16.11 Integrity and interference data sheets
Co-incident with the approvals contained in this technical standard, and in order to build up the data base on GPS integrity in South Africa, a system validation period has been established to verify operationally the availability of RAIM, and the quality of navigation provided by GPS at other times. Note: Operators or pilots using GPS for the puposes of this technical standard are requested to provide GPS system information, as detailed below: (a) Private operators : Private operators are requested to submit information on GPS interference as it occurs. (b) Commercial operators : Commercial operators are requested to submit integrity reports for the first 30 flights after installation of approved GPS equipment After this period, operators are requested to monitor and record the performance of OPS, and provide details of the system accuracies and reliabilities from time to time. In addition to these reports, operators are requested to submit information on GPS interference as it occurs. Pilots should particularly note cases of GPS degradation/interference around aerodromes, over populated areas, near radio or television transmission towers, and during radio or SA TCOM transmissions. Information about the additional types of data required as detailed on the data sheet. This data will be used to verify the predicted integrity of the GPS system in South African airspace, and will, in part, form the basis for future extension of GPS approvals and revisions to ATC separation minima. Data should be entered on the System Verification Data Sheet contained in annexure B 16.12 Flight plan notification
Pilots of aircraft equipped with GPS systems that comply with the requirements of this technical standard, should insert the following addition to other indicators in the air service flight plans.
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7. Operational standards for inertial navigation and reference systems 7.1 General Inertial navigation may be used by approved operators only. For approved operators of SA registered aircraft, inertial navigation may be used to satisfy the requirements of the CAA. The inertial navigation system (INS) or inertial reference system (IRS) and its installation must be certified by the State of registry as meeting the airworthiness standards prescribed in Part 21. Notes: 1. Airworthiness requirements will satisfied provided that..
The equipment has been installed to the manufacturer's requirements; The installation is listed in the aircraft type certificate or has a suplemental type certificate for the specific aircraft type; There is a flight manual supplement covering any system limitations; and The system is included in the operators maintenance program. Outside SA (for example, in Europe and over the North Atlantic) other State authorities might require navigation performance different to that reguired by these standards. 7.2 Minimum performance for operational approval 1) An INS/IRS must meet the following criteria for operational approval and must be maintained to ensure performance in accordance with the criteria: (a) With a 95% probability to radial error rate is not to exceed 2 per hour for flights up to 10 hours duration; (b) with a 95% probability the crosstrack error is not to exceed 20 nm and along track error is not to exceed 25 nm at the conclusion of a flight in excess of 10 hours. 2) The INS/IRS should have the capability for coupling to the aircraft's autopilot to provide steering guidance. 3) The navigation system should have the capability for updating the displayed present position. 7.3 Serviceability requirements 1) An INS/IRS may be considered as serviceable for navigation purposes until such time as its radial error exceeds 3 + 3t nm (t being the hours of operation in the navigation mode).
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2) Maintenance corrective action must also be taken when an INS/IRS is consistently providing radial error rates in excess of 2 nm per hour and/or track and along track errors in excess of the tolerances given at subparagraph (1) on more than 5% of the sectors flown. 7.4 System performance monitoring The operator is to monitor and record the performance of INS/IRS and may be required to provide details of the system accuracies and reliabilities from time to time. 7.5 Navigation criteria Navigation using INS/IRS as the primary navigation means is permitted in accordance with the following conditions: (a) Initial confidence check. The INS/IRS must be checked for reasonable navigation accuracy by comparison with ground-referenced radio navigation aids (which may include ATC radar) before proceeding outside the coverage of the short range radio navigation aids system; (b) maximum time. (2) Single INS/IRS: (a) The maximum operating time since the last ground alignment is not to exceed 10 hours. (b) On flights of more than 5 hours, any route sector may be planned for navigation by INS/IRS within the appropriate time limits (given in (c) below) but contingency navigation procedures must be available in the event of an INS/IRS inflight unserviceability which would preclude the aircraft's operation on a subsequent route sector for which area navigation is specifled. INS/IRS may be used as a sole source of tracking information for continuous period not exceeding (i) 3 hours in controlled airspace other than oceanic control area (OCA); or (ii) 5 hours in OCA or outside controlled airspace (OCTA). 3) Two or more INS/IRS (a) If, during a flight, 10 hours elapsed time since the last ground alignment will be exceeded, ground alignment is to be included in the pre-flight flight deck procedures prior to pushback/taxi for departure. (b) INS/IRS may be used as the sole source of tracking information for continuous periods not exceeding -
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(i) (ii)
hours in controlled airspace other than OCA;or 12 hours in OCA or OCTA.
Notes: (1) Provided that the use of INS/IRS as the sole means of navigation does not exceed the time limit, the aircraft may be operated for longer periods using the INS/IRS with either manual or automatic updating. The 5 hour limit on single INS/IRS ensures 99.74%(3 sigma) probability that loss of satisfactory navigation capability will not occur with equipment mean time between failures (MTBF) of approximately 1900 hours. If the demonstrated MTBF exceeds 2000 hours, the maximum time may be increased. (c) Updating present position. Updating inertial present position in flight is permitted in the following instances only: (i) Manually: Overhead a VOR beacon. Within 25 nm of a co-located VOR/DME beacon. Over a visual fix when at a height not more than 5 000 ft above the feature.
(ii)
Automatically:
Within 200 nautical miles of a DME site when the aircraft's track will pass within 140 nm of the site. Within 200 nm of both DME sites for a DME/DME Fix. From a co-located VOR/DME beacon provided that updates from a receding beacon are not accepted when the beacon is more than 25 nm from the aircraft.
Notes: (1) En route VOR and DME sites separated by not more than 500 metres are considered to be co-located 2) DME slant range circumstances. error correction might be necessary in some
3) Updating a present position from a visual fix may not be planned for IFR nights. 4) A receding beacon is increasing. one from which the distance to the aircraft is
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5) Updating in other circumstances (for example, over a NDB) will not provide sufficient accuracy to ensure that the INS/IRS operates within the prescribed tolerances for navigation. 6) Because INS/IRS are essentially accurate and reliable, and ground alignment is not accurate than in-flight updating of present postion is usually not warranted especially during the initial few hours of operation. However, INS/IRS errors general increase with time and are not selfcorrecting. Unless the error is fairly significant (fo example, more than 4 nm or 2 nm/hr) it may be preferable to retain the error rather than manually update. (d) Limitation on use. Wherever track guidance is provided by radio navigation aids, the pilot-in-command must ensure that the aircraft remains within the appropriate track keeping tolerances of the radio navigation aids. INS/IRS is not to be used as a primary navigation reference during IFR flight below lowest safe altitude (LSALT). Pre-flight and en route procedures. The following practices are required: (i.) New data entries are to be cross-checked between at least two flight crew members for accuracy and reasonableness, or, for single pilot operations, an independent check (for example of INS/IRS-computed tracks and distances against the flight plan) must be made. As a minimum, position and tracking information is to be checked for reasonableness (confidence check) in the following cases: Prior to each compulsory reporting point. At or prior to arrival at each en route way point during RNAV operatior along RNAV routes. At hourly intervals during area type operation of established RNAL routes. After insertion of new data.
(ii.)
7.6 Operating criteria 1) Two or more INS/IRS installations For two or more INS/IRS installations: (a) If one INS/IRS fails or can be determined to have exceeded a radial error of 3+3t nm, operations may continue on area navigation routes using the serviceable system(s) in accordance with the navigation criteria applicable to the number of INS/IRS units remaining serviceable.
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(b) If(i.) (ii.) the difference of pure inertial readouts between each pair of INS/IRS is less than 1.4 (3+3t) nm, no action is required. the difference of pure inertial readouts between any pair of INS/IRS exceeds (3+3t) nm and it is possible to confirm that one INS/IRS has an excessive drift error, that system should be disregarded and/or isolated from the other systems) and the apparently serviceable system(s) should be used for navigation;
Note: This check and its isolation action are unnecessary if a multiple INS/IRS installation is protected by a serviceabilily self-test algorithm (iii) if neither condition (i) or (ii) can be satisfied, another means of navigation should be used, and the pilot-in-command must advise the appropriate ATS unit. 2) Single INS/IRS installations For single INS/IRS installations, if the INS/IRS fails or exceeds the serviceability tolerance: (a) The pilot-in-command must advise the appropriate ATS unit of INS/IRS failure; (b) another means of navigation is to be used; and (c) the aircraft is not to begin a route sector for which area navigation is specified unless it is equipped with an alternative, serviceable, approved area navigation system. 3) Autopilot coupling Autopilot coupling to the INS/IRS should be used, whenever practicable, if this feature is available. If for any reason the aircraft is flown without Autopilot coupling, the aircraft is to be flown within an indicated cross-track tolerance of 2 nm. In controlled airspace the ATS unit is to be advised if this tolerance is exceeded.
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91.05.2 NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT

7.7 Navigation tolerances 1) The maximum drift rate expected from INS/IRS is 2 nm per hour (2 sigma probability). For the purposes of navigation and determining aircraft separation, the 3 sigma figure of 3 nm is allowed so that the maximum radial error with 3 sigma confidence equals 3+3t nm where t equals the time in hours since the INS/IRS was switched into the navigation mode. 2) DME and other inputs can automatically influence the INS/IRS to improve the accuracy of its computed position. The pilot may also insert known position coordinates to update the INS/IRS. Therefore, if the system is updated with known position information the position error is reduced and the INS/IRS can be assumed to operate within the radial error tolerance of 3+3T nm where T is the time (hours elapsed since the last position update). 3) The accuracy of the data used for updating must be considered. The navigation aid positions used for updating inertial present position are accurate to within 01 nm. However, the aircraft in flight cannot be "fixed" to the same order of magnitude. The accuracy of the position fix is taken as 3 nm radial error. 4) Because the INS/IRS error, the navigation aid position accuracy and the position fix errors are independent of each other, the total radial error is determined by the root-sum-square method: ____________________ Total error = (3 + 3T) + 0.1 + 3 nm 5) The effect of navigation aid position accuracy on the total error is negligible, and so, ______________ Total error = (3 = 3T) + 3 nm _____________ = (1 + T) + 1nm Substituting values for T at time of update, total radial error after 1 hour after 2 hours after 3 hours after 4 hours after 5 hours after 6 hours = 4.2 nm = 6.7 nm = 9.5 nm =12.4 nm =15.3 nm = 18.2 nm = 21.2 nm
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6) Dual installation If two INS/IRS are installed and the aircraft is navigated by averaging, the inertial present position formula for the total radial error given in subparagraph (4) is modified by multiplying by. 1 2
(= 0.7)
7) Triple installations If three INS/IRS are installed and "triple mix" is used, the total radial error is further reduced. For simplicity for navigation and aircraft separation the tolerances applicable to dual installations apply and the third system provides redundancy.
1.
MNPS specifications
An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft in MNPS airspace unless it is equipped with navigation equipment that complies with minimum navigation performance specifications prescribed in ICAO Doc 7030 in the form of Regional Supplementary Procedures.
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91.06.10 LIGHTS TO BE DISPLAYED BY AIRCRAFT

1. Aircraft At night all aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome must display the lights prescribed in paragraph 2, unless otherwise instructed by the Commissioner or by an air traffic service unit: Provided that such aircraft must display no other lights if these are likely to be mistaken for the lights prescribed in paragraph 2. 2. Aeroplane operating lights 2.1 Definitions Any word or expression to which a meaning has been assigned in the Aviation Act, 1962, and the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997, bears, when used in this technical standard, the same meaning unless the context indicates otherwise, and "angles of coverage" means 1) Angle of coverage A is formed by two intersecting vertical planes making angles of 70 degrees to the right and 70 degrees to the left respectively, looking aft along the longitudinal axis to a vertical plane passing through the longitudinal axis. 2) Angle of coverage F is formed by two intersecting vertical planes making angles of 110 degrees to the right and 110 degrees to the left respectively, looking forward along the longitudinal axis to a vertical plane passing through the longitudinal axis. 3) Angle of coverage L is formed by two intersecting vertical planes one parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, and the other 110 degrees to the right of the first, when looking forward along the longitudinal axis. 4) Angle of coverage R is formed by two intersecting vertical planes one parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, and the other 110 degrees to the right of the first, when looking forward along the longitudinal axis. "horizontal plane" means the plane containing the longitudinal axis and perpendicular to the plane of symmetry of the aeroplane; "longitudinal axis of the aeroplane" means a selected axis parallel to the direction of flight at a normal cruising speed, and passing through the centre of gravity of the aeroplane; "making way" means that an aeroplane on the surface of the water is under way and has a velocity relative to the water; "under command" means that an aeroplane on the surface of the water is able to execute manoeuvres as required by the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea for the purpose of avoiding other vessels;
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"under way" means that an aeroplane on the surface of the water is not aground or moored to the ground or to any fixed object on the land or in the water; "vertical planes" means planes perpendicular to the horizontal plane; and visible" means visible on a dark night with a clear atmosphere. 2.2 Navigation lights to be displayed in the air As illustrated in Figure 1, the following unobstructed navigation lights must be displayed: 1) A red light projected above and below the plane through angle of coverage L; 2) a green light projected above and below the horizontal plane through angle of coverage R; 3) a white light projected above and below the horizontal plane rearward through angle of coverage A.
Figure 1
2.2 Lights to be displayed on the water 1) General
The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea require different lights to be displayed in each of the following circumstances: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) when under way; when towing another vessel or aeroplane when being towed; when not under command and not making way; when making way but not under command; when at anchor; when aground.
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(b) The lights required by aeroplanes in each case are described below. 2) When under way (a) As illustrated in Figure 2, the following appearing as steady unobstructed lights: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) a red light projected above and below the plane through angle of coverage L; a green light projected above and below the horizontal plane through angle of coverage R; a white light projected above and below the horizontal plane rearward through angle of coverage A; and a white light projected through angle of coverage F.
(b) The lights described in the first three items should be visible at a distance of at least 3.7 km (2 nm) The light described in the fourth item should be visible at a distance of 9.3 km (5 nm) when fitted to an aeroplane of 20 m or more in length or visible at a distance of 5.6 km (3 nm) when fitted to an aeroplane of less than 20 m in length. 3. When towing another vessel or aeroplane
Figure 2
As illustrated in Figure 3, the following appearing as steady, unobstructed lights: The lights described in subparagraph (2); (b) a second light having the same characteristics as the light described in the fourth item of subparagraph (2) and mounted in a vertical line at least 2 m above or below it; and (c) a yellow light having otherwise the same characteristics as the light described in the third item of subparagraph (2) and mounted in a vertical line at least 2 m above it.
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Figure 3
4) When being towed The lights described in the first three items of subparagraph (2) appearing as steady unobstructed lights. 5) When not under command and not making way As illustrated in Figure 4, two steady red lights placed where they can best be Seen, one vertically over the other and not less than 1 m apart, and of such a character as to be visible all around the horizon at a distance of at least 3,7 km (2nm)
6) When making way but not under command As illustrated in Figure 5, the lights described in subparagraph (5) and the first three items of subparagraph (2)
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1 metre at least Figure 5
Note: The display of lights prescribed in subparagraph (5) and (6) above is to be taken by other aircraft as signals that the aeroplane showing them it is not under command cannot therefore get out of the way. They are not the signals of an aeroplane in distress and requiring assistance 7) When at anchor (a) If less than 50 m in length, where it can best be seen, a steady white light (Figure 6), visible all around the horizon at a distance of at least 3.7 km (2 nm)
Figure 6
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(b) If 50 m or more in length, where they can best be seen, a steady white forward light and a steady white rear light (Figure 7) both visible all around the horizon at a distance of at least 5.6 km (3 nm)
Figure 7
(c) If 50 m or more in span a steady white light on each side (Figures 8 and 9) to indicate the maximum span and visible, so far as practicable, all around the horizon at a distance of at least 1.9 km (1 nm)
Figure 8
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Less than 50 metres in length; 50 metres more in span
Figure 9
8) When aground The lights prescribed in paragraph (7) and in addition two steady red lights in vertical line, at least 1 m apart so placed as to be visible all around the horizon.
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91.06.13
SIGNALS
1. Distress signals 1) The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that grave and imminent danger threatens, and immediate assistance is requested: (a) A signal made by radiotelegraphy or by any other signalling method consisting of the group SOS (. .. _ _ _... in the Morse Code); (b) a signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MADAY; 2) Alarm signals for actuating radiotelegraph and radiotelephone auto-alarm systems (a) 3268 The radiotelegraph alarm signal consists of a series of twelve dashes sent in one minute, the duration of each dash being four seconds and the duration of the interval between consecutive dashes one second. It may be transmitted by hand but its transmission by means of an automatic instrument is recommended. (b) 3270 The radiotelephone alarm signal consists of two substantially sinusoidal audio frequency tones transmitted alternately. One tone has a frequency of 2 200 Hz and the other a frequency of 1 300 Hz, the duration of each tone being 250 milliseconds. (c) 3271 The radiotelephone alarm signal, when generated by automatic means, must be sent continuously for a period of at least thirty seconds but not exceeding one minute; when generated by other means, the signal must be sent as continuously as practicable over a period of approximately one minute. 2. Urgency signals
1) The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance: (a) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights; (b) The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights in such a manner as to be distinct from flashing navigation lights. 2) The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that an aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board within sight: (a) A signal made by radiotelegraphy or by any other signaling method consisting of the group XXX; (b) a signal sent by radiotelephone consisting of the spoken words PAN, PAN
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3) None of the provisions in this paragraph prevent the use, by an aircraft in distress, of any means at its disposal to attract attention, make known its position and obtain help. 3) None of the provisions in this paragraph prevent the use, by an aircraft in distress of any means at its disposal to attract attention, make known its position and obtain help. 3. Visual signals used to warn an unauthorised aircraft flying in, or about to enter a restricted, prohibited or danger area By day and by night, a series of projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of 1C seconds, each showing, on bursting, red and green lights or stars will indicate to an unauthorised aircraft that it is flying in or about to enter a restricted, prohibited or danger area, and that the aircraft is to take such remedial action as may be necessary. 4. (1) Signals for aerodrome traffic Light and pyrotechnic signals
(a) Instructions
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Light
Steady green Steady red
From aerodrome control to Aircraft in flight Aircraft on the ground

Cleared to land Give way to other aircraft and continue circling Return for landing* Cleared for take-off Stop
Directed towards Aircraft concerned (see figure 1.1)
{ {
Series of green flashes Series of red flashes Series of white flashes
Cleared to taxi
Aerodrome unsafe, do not land Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron*
Taxi clear of landing area in use Return to starting point on the aerodrome
Steady red on final approach
Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being
* Clearance to land and to taxi will be given in due course
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(c) Acknowledgement by aircraft (i) When in flight: During the hours of daylight: by rocking the aircraft's wings; Note: This signal should not be expected on the base and final legs of the approach During the hours of darkness: by flashing on and off twice the aircraft's landing lights, or if not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights; (ii) when on ground: During the hours of daylight: by moving the aircraft's ailerons or rudder; during the hours of darkness: by flashing on and off twice the aircraft's landing lights or, if not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights. Visual ground signals (a) Prohibition of landing A horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals (Figure 1.2) when displayed in a signal area indicates that landings are prohibited and that the prohibition is liable to be prolonged.
Figure 1.2
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(b) Need for special precautions while approaching or landing A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal (Figure 1.3) when displayed in a signal area indicates that owing to the bad state of the manoeuvring area, or for any other reason, special precautions must be observed in approaching to land or in landing.
Figure 1.3
(c) Use of runways and taxiways A horizontal white dumb-bell (Figure 1.4) when displayed in a signal area indicates that aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only.
Taxi on runways and tawiways only

Figure 1.4
The same horizontal white dumb-bell as in Figure 1.4 but with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft across each circular portion of the dumb-bell (Figure 1.5) when displayed in a signal area indicates that aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxi-ways.
Figure 1.5
(d) Closed runways or taxiways
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Crosses of a single contrasting colour, yellow or white (Figure 1.6), displayed horizontally on runways and taxiways or parts thereof indicate an area unfit for movement or aircraft
(e) Directions for landing or take-off A horizontal white or orange landing T (figure 1.7) indicates the direction to be used by aircraft for landing and take-off, which must be in a direction parallel to the shaft of the T towards the cross arm.
Note: When used at night, the landing T is either illuminated or outlined in white coloured lights
A set of two digits (Figure 1.8) displayed vertically at or near the aerodrome control tower indicates to aircraft on the manoeuvring area the direction for take-off, expressed in units of 10 degrees to the nearest 10 degrees of the magnetic compass.
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(e) When displayed in a signal aarea, or horizontally at the end of the runway or stipr
in use, a righthand arrow of conspicuous colour (Figure 1.9) indicates that turns are to be made to the right before landing and after take-off.
(g) Air traffic services reporting office The letter C displayed vertically in black against a yellow background (Figure 1.10) indicates the location of the air traffic services reporting office.
Glider flights in operation A double white cross displayed horizontally (figure 1.11) in the signal area indicates that the aerodrome is being used by gliders and the glider flights are being performed.
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Agricultural flights in operation. A figure A (figure 1.12) in the signal. Area indicates that the aerodrome is being used for agricultural flights.
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Marshalling signals From a signalman to an aircraft Prior to using the following signals, the signalman must ascertain that the area within which an aircraft is to be guided is clear of objects which the aircraft, in complying with this technical standard, might otherwise strike. Note: Figure 1.12 The design of many aircraft is such that the, path of the wing tips, engines and other extremities cannot always be monitored is usually from the flight deck while the aircraft is being manoeuvred on the ground.
Figure 1.12 Proceed under further guidance by signalman Signalman directs pilot if traffic conditions on aerodrome require this action
This bay Arms above head in a vertical position with the palms facing inward
Proceed to next signalman Right or left arm down, other arm moved across the body And extended to indicate direction of next signalman.
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Move ahead Arms a little aside, palms facing backward and repeatedly Moved upward-backward from shoulder height.
Turn a) Turn to your left; right arm downward, left arm Repeatedly moved upward-backward. Speed Of arm movement indicating rate of turn.
b)
Turn to your right: left arm downward, right arm Repeatedly moved upward-backward. Speed Of arm movement indicating rate of turn.
Stop Arms repeatedly crossed above head (the rapidity of the Arm movement should be related to the urgency of the Stop, i.e. the faster the movement the quicker the stop).
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7.
Brakes Engage brakes: raise arm and hand, with fingers Extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist.
(b) Release brakes : raise arm, with fist clenched, Horizontally in front of body, then extend fingers.
8.
Chocks
Chocks inserted: arms down, palms facing Inward, move arms from extended position Inwards
Chocks removed: arms down, palms facing Outwards, move arms outwards
9.
Starting engine(s)
Left hand overhead with appropriate number of fingers Extended, to indicate the number of the engine to be Started, and circular motion of right hand at head level.
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10.
Cut engines
Either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand across Throat, palm downward. The hand is moved sideways with The arm remaining bent.
11. Slow down Arms down with palms toward ground, then moved up And down several times.
12.
Slow down engine(s) on indicated side
Arms down with palms toward ground, then either right or Left hand waved up and down indicating the left or right Side engine(s) respectively should be slowed down.
13. Move back Arms by sides, palms facing forward, swept forward and upward repeatedly to shoulder height.
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14.
Turns while backing
For tail to starboard: point left arm down, and right Arm brought from overhead, vertical position to Horizontal forward position, repeating right arm Movement.
For tail to port: point right arm down, and left arm Brought from overhead, vertical position to horizontal Forward position, repeating left arm movement.
15.
All clear
Right arm raised at elbow with thumb erect.
Notes: 1) These signals are designed for use by the signalman, with hands illuminated as necessary to facilitate observation by the pilot, and facing the aircraft in a position: (a) For fixed-wing aircraft, forward of the left-wing tip within view of the pilot; 2) The meaning of the relevant signals remains the same if bats, illuminated wands or torch lights are held. 3) The aircraft engines are numbered, for the signalman facing the aircraft, from right to left (i.e. No 1 engine being the port outer engine).
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2) From the pilot of an aircraft to a signalman (a) Brakes Note: The moment the fist is clenched or the fingers are extended indicates, respectively, the moment of brake engagement or release. Brakes engaged Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of face, then clench fist. Brakes released Raise arm, with fist clenched, horizontally in front of face, then extend fingers. (b) Chocks Insert chocks Arms extended, palms outwards, move hands inwards to cross in front of face. Remove chocks Hands crossed in front of face, palms outwards, move arms outwards. (c) Ready to start engine Raise the appropriate number of fingers on one hand indicating the number of the engine to be started. Note: 1) 1. These signals are designed for use by a pilot in, the cockpit with hands plainly visible to the signalman, and illuminated as necessary to facilitate observation by the signalman. 2) The aircraft engines are numbered in relation to the signalman facing the aircraft, from right to left (i.e. No. 1 engine being the port outer engine).
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91.06.29 IDENTIFICATION AND INTERCEPTION OF AIRCRAFT

Signal by intercepting aircraft Day (a) (b) (c) Rocking wings while in front and to left of intercepted aircraft Rocking wings while in front and to right of intercepted aircraft When (a) and (b) have been acknowledged, making a slow level turn into desired course Night (a) As for day, and in addition flashing navigation and, if available, landing lights at irregular intervals As for day, and in addition flashing navigation and, if available landing lights at irregular intervals As for day, and in addition flashing navigation and, if available, landing lights at irregular intervals when (a) and (b) have been acknowledged. Follow me away from a prohibited or restricted area Rocking wings if considered safe and showing steady landing light if carried. Rocking wings if considered safe and showing steady landing light if carried Follow intercepting aircraft (c) Meaning First series Follow me away from a prohibited area Follow me to a landing terrain Response by intercepted aircraft
Rocking wings Rocking wings Follow intercepting aircraft
(b)
Follow me to a landing terrain
Weather conditions or the terrain may require the intercepting aircraft to take up a position in front and to the right of the intercepted aircraft to complete the successive turn to the right.
Signal by intercepting aircraft

Day or night An abrupt break away of 90 or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft Day Circling landing area, lowering landing gear and overflying the direction of landing Night As for day and showing steady landing light Day First of Second series dependent on what further action intercepting aircraft requires to be taken either: follow me, or You may proceed.
Meaning
Second series You may proceed
Response by intercepted aircraft

Rocking wings if considered safe, at night showing steady landing light if carried
Third series Land on this landing area Same as interceptor and proceed to land (where applicable) if considered safe, at night showing steady landing light if carried
Fourth series Landing terrain unsuitable
Rocking wings (if fixed landing gear) or raising gear (whichever applicable) while passing over landing terrain at a height exceeding 1 000 feet but not exceeding 2 000 feet.
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The visual signals must be used as follows: 1) When an aircraft has been intercepted for identification only, the intercepting aircraft will use the second series to show that the aircraft may proceed; 2) when an aircraft is to be led away from a prohibited or restricted area the appropriate part of the first series will be used and the second series when the purpose has been achieved and the aircraft is released; 3) when an aircraft is required to land, the appropriate part of the first series will initially be used, followed by the third series when in the vicinity of the designated landing area; 4) when the pilot of the intercepted aircraft considers the landing area designated as unsuitable for his or her aircraft type, he or she will use the fourth series to indicate this and new instructions will then be given by the intercepting aircraft; 5) when an intercepted aircraft is in distress the distress signals should be used, where practical.
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91.06.33 SEMI-CIRCULAR RULE

MAGNETIC TRACK Flight Level From 000 to 179 IFR 30 50 70 90 110 130 150 170 190 210 230 250 270 290 330 370 410 450 490 etc. VFR 15 35 55 75 95 115 135 155 175 195 IFR 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180 200 220 240 260 280 310 350 390 430 470 510 etc From 180 to 359 VFR 25 45 65 85 105 125 145 165 185
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91.07.2
MINIMUM FLIGHT ALTITUDES
1. Minimum flight altitude formula An operator must use the following method to calculate minimum flight altitudes: MORA is a minimum flight altitude computed from current ONC or WAC charts. 1) Two types of MORAs are charted which are: (a) Route MORAs e.g. 9800a; and (b) Grid MORAs e.g. 98. 2) Route MORA values are computed on the basis of an area extending 10 nm to either side of route centreline and including a 10 nm radius beyond the radio fix/reporting point or mileage break defining the route segment. 3) MORA values clear all terrain and manmade obstacles by 1 000 feet in areas where the highest terrain elevation or obstacles are up to 5 000 feet. A clearance of 2 000 feet is provided above all terrain or obstacles which are 5 001 feet and above. 4) A grid MORA is an altitude computed by the formula and the values are shown within each grid formed by charted lines of altitude and longitude. Figures are shown in thousands and hundreds of feet (omitting the last two digits so as to avoid chart congestion). Values followed by are believed not to exceed the altitudes shown. The same clearance criteria as explained in subparagraph (3) above apply.
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91.07.8 PLANNING MINIMA FOR IFR FLIGHTS
1. Planning minima for destination alternate aerodromes 1) An owner or operator may only select the destination aerodrome and/or destination alternates when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that, during a period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable planning minima as follows:
Table 1 : Planning minima En route and destination alternates Type of approach Cat II and III Cat I Non-precision Circling Planning minima Cat I minima with RVR in accordance with TS 121.07.7 Non-precision minima and ceiling must be above the MDH Non-precision minima plus 200 ft added to MDH and 1000m added to RVR/Visibility. Ceiling must be above the MDH + 200 ft. Circling
Note: Only operators approved for Cat II and III operations must use planning minima based on a Cat II and III approach in Table 1.
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2. Planning minima for en route alternate aerodromes (Non-ETOPS Flights) An owner or operator may not select an aerodrome as an en-route alternate aerodrome unless the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that, during a period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the expected time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the planning minima prescribed in Table 1 above. (a) Planning minima for the destination aerodrome (i) RVR/visibility must be in accordance with that specified in CATs OPS 135.07.7; and (ii) For a non-precision approach or a circling approach, the ceiling at or above MDH; (b) Planning minima for destination alternate aerodrome must be in accordance with Table 1. 3) Planning minima for an ETOPS en route alternate An owner or operator may not select an aerodrome as an ETOPS en-route alternate aerodrome unless the appropriate wether eports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that, during a period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the expected time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the planning minima prescribed in Table 2 below, and in accordance with the operator's ETOPS approval.
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Table 2 : Planning minima ETOPS Planning minima (RVR/visibility required and ceiling if applicable) Aerodrome with At least 2 separate apAt least 2 separate apAt least 1 approach proach procedures proach procedures procedure based on 1 based on 2 separate Based on 2 separate aid Aids serving 2 separate Aids serving 1 runway Serving 1 runway runways Precision approach Non-precision approach minima Cat I minima Non-precision approach Circling minima or, if not available, non-precision Minima Approach minima plus 200 ft / 1000m The lower of nonThe higher of circling minima or non-precision Precision approach Approach minima plus 200 ft / 1000 m Minima plus 200 ft / 1000 m or circling Minima Circling minima
Type of Approach
Precision approach Cat II, III (ILS MLS) Precision approach Cat I (ILS MLS) Non-precision approach
Circling approach
Notes: 1) "Tempo" and "lnter" conditions published in the forecast are not limiting unless these conditions are forecast to be below published planning minima. Where a condition is forecast as "Prob, provided the probability percent factor is less than 40%, it is not limiting. However the pilot-incommand will be expected to exercise good aviation /judgement in assessing the overall "Prob" conditions. 2) Runways on the same aerodrome are considered to be separate runways when (a) they are separate landing surfaces which may overlay or cross such that if one of the runways is blocked, it will not prevent the planned type of operations on the other runway; and (b) each of the landing surfaces has a separate approach procedure based on a separate aid. 3) Only operators approved for Category II or III operations may use the planning minima applicable to categories II and III in Table 2 and then only If the aeroplane is certificated for a one engine inoperative Category II or III approach as applicable. 4) The JAA Information Leaflet No. 20 IL20, may be used by an operator to conduct an ETOPS operation, together with the ETOPS alternate weather criteria determined in this technical standard.
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91.07.11 MASS AND BALANCE

1. Definitions
Any word or expression to which a meaning has been assigned in the Aviation Act, 1962, and the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997, bears, when used in this technical standard, the same meaning unless the context indicates otherwise,and "maximum structural landing mass" means the maximum permissible total aircraft mass upon landing under normal circumstances; "maximum structural take off mass" means the maximum permissible total aircraft mass at the start of the take-off run or lift-off; and "maximum zero fuel mass" means the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with no usable fuel. The mass of the fuel contained in particular tanks must be included in the zero fuel mass when it is explicitly mentioned in the aircraft flight manual limitations; "traffic load" means the total mass of passengers, baggage and cargo, including any non-revenue load. 2. Mass values for flight crew
1) An owner or operator must use the following mass values to determine the dry operating mass: (a) Actual masses including any flight crew baggage; or (b) standard masses, including hand baggage, of 85 kg for flight deck crew members and 75 kg for cabin crew members. 2) An owner or operator must correct the dry operating mass to account for any additional baggage. The position of this additional baggage must be accounted for when establishing the centre of gravity of the aircraft. 3. Mass values for passengers and baggage
1) An owner or operator must compute the mass of passengers and checked baggage using either the actual weighed mass of each person and the actual weighed mass of baggage or the standard mass values specified in Tables 1 to 3 below except where the number of passenger seats available is less than 6, when the passenger mass may be established by a verbal statement by or on behalf of each passenger or by estimation. The procedure specifying when to select actual or standard masses must be included in the operations manual. 2) If determining the actual mass by weighing, an owner or operator must ensure that passengers' personal belongings and hand baggage are included. Such weighing must be conducted immediately prior to boarding and at an adjacent location.
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3) If determining the mass of passengers using standards mass values, the standard mass values in Tables 1 and 2 below must be used. The standard masses include hand baggage and the mass of any infant below 2 years of age carried by an adult on one passenger seat. Infants occupying separate passenger seats are to be considered as children for the purpose of this paragraph. 4) Mass values for passengers - 20 seats or more (a) Where the total number of passenger seats available on an aircraft is 20 or more, the standard masses of male and female in Table 1 are applicable. As an alternative, in cases where the total number of passenger seats available is 30 or more, the 'All Adult' mass values in Table 1 are applicable. (b) For the purpose of Table 1, holiday charter means a charter flight solely intended as an element of a holiday travel package.
Table 1
Passenger seats All flights except holiday charters Holiday Charters Children 20 and more Male Female 30 and more All adult
88 kg
70 kg
84 kg
83 kg 35 kg
69 kg 35 kg
76 kg 35 kg
5) Mass values for passengers 19 seats or less Passenger seats Male Female Children
15 104 kg 86 kg 35 kg
69 96 kg 78 kg 35 kg
10 - 19 92 kg 74 kg 35 kg
(a) Where the total number of passenger seats available on an aircraft is 19 or less, the standard masses in Table 2 are applicable. (b) On flights where no hand baggage is carried in the cabin or where hand baggage is accounted for separately, 6 kg may be deducted from the above male and female masses. Articles such as an overcoat, an umbrella, a small handbag or purse, reading material or a small camera are not considered as hand baggage for the purpose of this paragraph.
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6) Mass values for baggage Where the total number of passenger seats available on the aircraft is 20 or more, the standard mass values given in Table 3 are applicable for each piece of checked baggage. For aircraft with 19 passenger seats or less, the actual mass of the checked baggage, determined by weighing, must be used Table 3 : 20 or more seats Type of flight Baggage standard Mass 11 kg 15 kg
Domestic International
7) If an owner or operator wishes to use standard mass values other than those contained in Tables 1 to 3 above, he or she must advise the Commissioner of his or her reasons and gain such approval in advance. After verification and approval by the Commissioner of the results of the weighing survey, the revised standard mass values are only applicable to that operator. The revised standard mass values can only be used in circumstances consistent with those under which the survey was conducted. Where revised standard masses exceed those in Tables 1 to 3, then such higher values must be used. 8) On any flight identified as carrying a significant number of passengers whose masses, including hand baggage, are expected to exceed the standard passenger mass, an owner or operator must determine the actual mass of such passengers by weighing or by adding an adequate mass increment. 9) If standard mass values for checked baggage are used and a significant number of passengers check-in baggage that is expected to exceed the standard baggage mass, an owner or operator must determine the actual mass of such baggage by weighing or by adding an adequate mass increment. 10) An owner or operator must ensure that a pilot-in-command is advised when a non standard method has been used for determining the mass of the load and that this method is stated in the load and trim sheet.
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91.07.12 FUEL AND OIL SUPPLY

1. Planning criteria for aeroplanes
An owner or operator must base the fuel policy, including calculation of the amount of fuel to be carried, by an aeroplane on the following planning criteria: The amount of taxi fuel, which must not be less than the amount, expected to be used prior to takeoff. Local conditions at the departure aerodrome and APU consumption must be taken into account; Trip fuel, which must include (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) fuel for take-off and climb from aerodrome elevation to initial cruising level/altitude, taking into account the expected departure routing; fuel from top of climb to top of descent, including any step climb/descent; fuel from top of descent to the point where the approach is initiated, taking into account the expected arrival procedure; and fuel for approach and landing at the destination aerodrome;
(c) contingency fuel, which must be the higher of item (i) or (II) below: (i) Either: 5% of the planned trip fuel or, in the event of in-flight replanning, trip fuel for the remainder of the flight; or not less than 3% of the planned trip fuel or, in the event of in-flight replanning, trip fuel for the remainder of the flight, subject to the approval of the Commissioner, provided that an en route alternate is available; or an amount of fuel sufficient for 20 minutes flying time based upon the planned trip fuel consumption: Provided that the owner or operator has established a fuel consumption monitoring programme for individual aeroplanes and uses valid data determined by means of such a programme for fuel calculation; or
an amount of fuel of not less than that which would be required to fly for 15 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 feet (450 m) above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions, when an owner or operator has established a programme, approved by the Commissioner, to monitor the fuel consumption on each individual route /aeroplane combination and uses this data for a statistical analysis to calculate contingency fuel for that route/aeroplane combination; or
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(ii) an amount to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 feet (450 m) above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions; (d) alternate fuel, which must be sufficient for (i.) a missed approach from applicable MDA/DH at the destination aerodrome to missed approach altitude, taking into account the complete missed approach procedure; a climb from missed approach altitude to cruising level altitude; the cruise from top of climb to top of descent; descent from top of descent to the point where the approach is initiated, taking into account the expected arrival procedure; and executing an approach and landing at the destination alternate aerodrome; if two destination alternates are required, alternate fuel must be sufficient to proceed to the alternate which requires the greater amount of alternate fuel;
(ii.) (iii.) (iv.) (v.) (vi.)
(e) final reserve fuel, which must be (i) for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines, fuel to fly for 45 minutes; or (ii) for aeroplanes with turbine power units, fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 feet (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated with the estimated mass on arrival at the alternate or the destination, when no alternate is required; The minimum additional fuel which must permit (i) holding for 15 minutes at 1 500 feet (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, when a flight is operated under IFR without a destination alternate; and (ii) following the possible failure of a power unit or loss of pressurisation, based on the assumption that such a failure occurs at the most critical point along the route, the aeroplane to: descend as necessary and proceed to an adequate aerodrome; and hold there for 15 minutes at 1 500 feet (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions; and
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make an approach landing, except that additional fuel is only required, if the minimum amount of fuel calculated in accordance with subparagraphs (l)(b) to (e) above is not sufficient for such an event; extra fuel, which is at the discretion of the pilot-in-command.
(2) Decision point procedure If an owner's or operator's fuel policy includes planning to a destination aerodrome via a decision point along the route, the amount of fuel should be the greater of item (a) or (b) below: (a) The sum of (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) taxi fuel; trip fuel to the destination aerodrome, via the decision point; contingency fuel equal to not less than 5% of the estimated fuel consumption from the decision point to the destination aerodrome; alternate fuel, if a destination alternate is required; final reserve fuel; additional fuel; and extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command; or
(b) the sum of (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) taxi fuel; the estimated fuel consumption from the departure aerodrome to a suitable e en-route alternate, via the decision point; contingency fuel equal to not less than 3% of the estimated fuel consumption from the departure aerodrome to the en-route alternate; final reserve fuel; additional fuel; and extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command.
3) Isolated aerodrome procedure If an owner's or operator's fuel policy includes planning to an isolated aerodrome for which a destination alternate does not exist, the amount of fuel at departure must include (a) (b) taxi fuel; trip fuel;
(c) contingency fuel calculated in accordance with subparagraph (1)(c) above; (d) additional fuel if required, but not less than -
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(i)
for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines, fuel to fly for 45 minutes plus 15% of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising level, or two hours, whichever is the lesser; or for aeroplanes with turbine engines, fuel to fly for two hours at normal cruise consumption after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome, including final reserve fuel; and
(ii)
(e) extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command. 4) Pre-determined point procedure If an owner's or operator's fuel policy includes planning to a destination alternate where the distance between the destination aerodrome and the destination alternate is such that a flight can only be routed via a predetermined point to one of these aerodromes, the amount of fuel must be the greater of item (a) or (b) below: (a) The sum of (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) taxi fuel; trip fuel from the departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome, via the predetermined point; contingency fuel calculated in accordance with subparagraph (l)(c) above; additional fuel if required, but not less than for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines, fuel to fly for 45 minutes plus 15% of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising level or two hours, whichever is less; or for aeroplanes with turbine engines, fuel to fly for two hours at normal cruise consumption after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome, including final reserve fuel; and
(v)
extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command; or
(b) the sum of (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) taxi fuel; trip fuel from the departure aerodrome to the alternate aerodrome, via the predetermined point contingency fuel calculated in accordance with subparagraph (l)(c) above; additional fuel if required but not less than for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines, fuel to fly for 45 minutes ; or for aeroplanes with turbine engines, fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 feet (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
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Including final reserve fuel; and (v) Extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command
Fuel and oil supply for helicopters (1) A helicopter employed in the public transport operation category or public transport of cargo operation category, from one landing site to another, on a flight which is in whole or in part an IFR or a night flight, must carry fuel and oil reserves to provide for contingencies to fly to and to execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination landing site, and thence (a) to fly to a suitable alternative landing site; (b) to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 feet above the elevation of the alternative landing site, under standard temperature conditions; and (c) to execute an approach and landing Provided that further reserves equal to 5% of the total required in terms of items (a), (b) and (c) must be carried. (2) A helicopter employed in the aerial work category, industrial aid operation category, flying training operation category or private operation category, from landing site to another on a flight which is in whole or in part an IFR or a night flight, must carry fuel and oil reserves to provide for contingencies at least to fly to the destination landing site after having carried out its planned task or tasks (if any) en route, thence to a suitable alternative landing site, and thereafter to fly for a further 20 minutes. (3) A helicopter employed in the public transport category, public transport of cargo category, industrial aid operation category, flying training operation category or private operation category, from one landing site to another on a VFR flight by day, must carry fuel and oil reserves to provide for contingencies (a) To fly to the desitnation landing site, and thereafter for 20 minutes; or (b) if the flight is over water, to fly to the destination landing site, thence to fly to either a suitable alternative landing site or to the nearest point of land, and thereafter for 30 minutes. (4) A helicopter employed in the aerial work category must carry fuel and oil reserves to provide for contingencies (a) to complete its task or tasks; (b) to execute an approach and landing at a suitable landing site; and (c) thereafter to fly for 10 minutes, or a length of time considered to be the minimum for a safe flight for the particular helicopter, whichever is the longer.
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(5) A helicopter employed in any category on a VFR flight by day may carry fuel and oil additional to that available to the powerplant, provided that this is carried in a safe manner. The additional fuel and oil may be included in the quantities specified in subparagraphs (3) and (4). Provided that for the purpose of self refuelling there must be a safe landing site en route, which can be reached before the levels specified in subparagraph (4)(c) are reached.
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91.07.25 COMMENCEMENT AND CONTINUATION OF APPROACH

1. Conversion of reported visibility The RVR value may be obtained by converting the reported visibility in accordance with TS 121.07.7, 127.07.7 and 135.07.7
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91.08.4 TRAINING AND QUALIFICATIONS FOR LOW VISIBILITY OPERATIONS

1. General 1) An owner or operator must ensure that flight deck crew member training programmes for low visibility operations include structured courses of ground, simulator and/or flight training. The owner or operator may abbreviate the course content as prescribed by subparagraphs (2), (3) and (4) below provided the content of the abbreviated course is acceptable to the Commissioner. 2) Flight deck crew members with no Category II or Category III experience must complete the full training programme prescribed in paragraphs 2, 3 and 4 below. 3) Flight deck crew members with Category II or Category III experience with another owner or operator may undertake an abbreviated ground training course. 4) Flight deck crew members with Category II or Category III experience with the owner or operator may undertake an abbreviated ground simulator and/or flight training course. The abbreviated course is to include at least the requirements of paragraph 4(1) or 4(4)(a) or (b) as appropriate. 2. Ground training
An owner or operator must ensure that the initial ground training course for low visibility operations covers at least 1) the characteristics and limitations of the ILS and/or MLS; 2) the characteristics of the visual aids; 3) the characteristics of fog; 4) the operational capabilities and limitations of the particular airborne system; 5) the effects of precipitation, ice accretion, low level wind shear and turbulence; 6) the effect of specific aircraft malfunctions, 7) the use and limitations of RVR assessment systems; 8) the principles of obstacle clearance requirements; 9) recognition of and action to be taken in the event of failure of ground equipment; 10) the procedures and precautions to be followed with regard to surface movement during operations when the RVR is 400 m or less and any additional procedures required for take-off in conditions below 150 m (200 m for Category D aeroplanes) or with visibility less than 225 m;
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11) the significance of decision heights based upon radio altimeters and the effect of terrain profile in the approach area on radio altimeter readings and on the automatic approach/landing systems; 12) the importance and significance of alert height, if applicable, and the action in the event of any failure above and below the alert height; 13) the qualification requirements for pilots to obtain and retain approval to conduct low visibility take-offs and Category II or III operations, and 14) the importance of correct seating and eye position. 3. Simulator training and/or flight training
1) An owner or operator must ensure that simulator and/or flight training for low visibility operations includes (a) checks of satisfactory functioning of equipment, both on the ground and in flight; (b) effect on minima caused by changes in the status of ground installations; (c) monitoring of automatic flights control systems and Autoland status annunciators with emphasis on the action to be taken in the event of failures of such systems; (d) actions to be taken in the event of failures such as engines, electrical systems, hydraulics or flight control systems; (e) the effect of known unserviceabilities and use of minimum equipment lists; (f) operating limitations resulting from airworthiness certification; (g) Guidance on the visual cues required at decision height together with information on maximum deviation allowed for glidepath or localliser; and (h) the importance and significance of alert height, if applicable, and the action in the event of any failure above and below the alert height. 2) An owner or operator must ensure that each flight deck crew member is trained to carry out his or her duties and instructed on the co-ordination required with other flight crew members. Maximum use must be made of suitably equipped flight simulators for this purpose. 3) Training must be divided into phases covering normal operation with no aircraft or equipment failures but including all weather conditions which may be encountered and detailed scenarios of aircraft and equipment failure which could affect Category II or III operations. If the aircraft system involves the use of hybrid or other special systems (such as head up displays or enhanced vision equipment) then flight deck crew members must practise the use of these systems in normal and abnormal modes during the simulator phase of training.
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4) Incapacitation procedures appropriate to low visibility take-offs and Category II and III operations must be practised. 5) For aircraft with no type specific simulator, owners or operators must ensure that the flight training phase specific to the visual scenarios of Category II operations is conducted in a simulator approved for that purpose by the Commissioner. Such training must include a minimum of 4 approaches. The training and procedures that are type specific must be practised in the aircraft. 6) Category II and III training must include at least the following exercises: (a) Approach, using the appropriate flight guidance, autopilots and control systems installed in the aircraft, to the appropriate decision height and to include transition to visual flight and landing; (b) approach with all engines operating using the appropriate flight guidance systems, autopilots and control systems installed in the aircraft down to the appropriate decision height followed by missed approach, all without external visual reference; (c) where appropriate, approaches utilising automatic flight systems to provide automatic flare, landing and roll-out; and (d) normal operation of the applicable system both with and without acquisition of visual cues at decision height. 7) Subsequent phases of training must include at least (a) approaches with engine failure at various stages on the approach; (b) approaches with critical equipment failures (e.g. electrical systems, autoflight systems, ground and/or airborne ILS/MLS systems and status monitors); (c) approaches where failures of auto flight equipment at low level require either (i) (ii) reversion to manual flight to control flare, landing and roll out or missed approach; or reversion to manual flight or a downgraded automatic mode to control missed approaches from, at or below decision height including those which may result in a touchdown on the runway;
(d) failures of the system which will result in excessive localiser and/or glideslope deviation, both above and below decision height, in the minimum visual conditions authorised for the operation. In addition, a continuation to a manual landing must be practised if a head-up display forms a downgraded mode of the automatic system or the head-up display forms the only flare mode; and (e) failures and procedures specific to aircraft type or variant.
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8) The training programme must provide practice in handling faults which require a reversion to higher minima. 9) The training programme must include the handling of the aircraft when, during a fail passive Category III approach, the fault causes the autopilot to disconnect at or below decision height when the last reported RVR is 300 m or less. 10) Where take-offs are conducted in RVRs of 400 m and below, training must be established to cover systems failures and engine failure resulting in continued as well as rejected take-offs. 4. Conversion training requirements to conduct low visibility take-off and Category II and III operations An owner or operator must ensure that each flight deck crew member completes the following low visibility procedures training if converting to a new type or variant of aircraft in which low visibility take-off and Category II and III operations will be conducted. The flight deck crew member experience requirements to undertake an abbreviated course are prescribed in paragraphs 1(3) and (4). 1) Ground training The appropriate requirements prescribed in paragraph 2 above, taking into account the flight deck crew member's Category II and Category III training and experience. 2) Simulator training and/or flight training (a) A minimum of 8 and/or landings in approaches a simulator approved for the purpose. (b) Where no type-specific simulator is available, a minimum of 3 approaches including at least 1 go-around is required on the aircraft. (c) Appropriate additional training if any special equipment is required such as headup displays or enhanced vision equipment. 3) Flight deck crew qualification The flight deck crew qualification requirements are specific to the owner or operator and the type of aircraft operated. (a) The owner or operator must ensure that each flight deck crew member completes a check before conducting Category II or III operations. (b) The check prescribed in item (a) above may be replaced by successful completion of the simulator and/or flight training prescribed in paragraph 4(2).
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4) Line flying under supervision An owner or operator must ensure that each flight crew member undergoes the following line flying under supervision (a) For Category II when a manual landing is required, a minimum of 3 landings from autopilot disconnect; and (b) for Category III, a minimum of 3 autolands except that only 1 autoland is required when the training required in paragraph 4(2) above has been carried out in a full flight simulator usable for zero flight time training. 5. Type and command experience The following additional requirements are applicable to pilot-in-commands who are new to the aircraft type: 1) 50 hours or 20 sectors as pilot-in-command on the type before performing any Category II or Category III operations; and 2) 100 hours or 40 sectors as pilot-in-command on the type. 100 m must be added to the applicable Category II or Category III RVR minima unless he or she has previously qualified for Category II or III operations with another owner or operator. 3) The Commissioner may authorise a reduction in the above command experience requirements for flight crew members who have Category II or Category III command experience. 6. Low visibility take-off with RVR less than 150/200 m or visibility less than 225 m
1) An owner or operator must ensure that prior to authorisation to conduct take-offs in RVRs below 150 m (below 200 m for Category D aeroplanes) or with visibility less than 225m the following training is carried out: (a) Normal take-off in minimum authorised conditions or RVR conditions; (b) take-off in minimum authorised conditions or RVR conditions with an engine failure between V, and V,, or as soon as safety considerations permit; and (c) take-off in minimum authorised conditions or RVR conditions with an engine failure before V, resulting in a rejected take-off. 2) An owner or operator must ensure that the training required by subparagraph (1) above is carried out in an approved simulator. This training must include the use of any special procedures and equipment. Where no approved simulator exists, the Commissioner may approve such training in an aircraft without the requirement for minimum conditions or RVR conditions.
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3) An owner or operator must ensure that a flight crew member has completed a check before conducting low visibility take-offs in RVRs of less than 150 m (less than 200 m for Category D aeroplanes) or in visibility less than 225 m if applicable. The check may only be replaced by successful completion of the simulator and/or flight training prescribed in subparagraph (I)on initial conversion to an aircraft type. 7. Recurrent training and checking - Low Visibility Operations
1) An owner or operator must ensure that, in conjunction with the normal recurrent training and proficiency checks, a pilot's knowledge and ability to perform the tasks associated with the particular category of operation, including LVTO, for which he or she is authorised, is checked. The required number of approaches to be conducted during such recurrent training is to be a minimum of two, one of which is to be a missed approach and at least one low visibility take off to the lowest applicable minima. The period of validity for this check is 6 months including the remainder of the month of issue. 2) For Category III operations an owner or operator must use a flight simulator approved for Category ill training. 3) An owner or operator must ensure that, for Category III operations on aeroplanes with a fail passive flight control system, a missed approach is completed at least once every 18 months as the result of an autopilot failure at or below decision height when the last reported RVR was 300 m or less. 4) The Commissioner may authorise recurrent training for Category II operations in an aircraft type where no approved simulator is available. 8. LVTO and Category II or III recency requirements
1) An owner or operator must ensure that, in order for pilots to maintain a Category II and Category III qualification, they have conducted a minimum of 3 approaches and landings using approved Category II or III procedures during the previous six month period, at least one of which must be conducted in the aircraft. 2) Recency for LVTO is maintained by retaining the Category II or III qualification prescribed in subparagraph (1) above. 3) An owner or operator may not substitute this recency requirement for recurrent training.
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TABLE 1
Serial Number 1 PARAMETERS FOR AEROPLANE FLIGHT DATA RECORDERS Parameter Measurement Recording Accuracy limits (Sensor range Interval input (seconds) Compared to FDR read-out) Time (UTC when 24 hours 4 0.125% per hour available, otherwise elapsed time) Pressure altitude -300 m (-1000 ft) to 1 300 m to 200m ( 100 ft to maximum 700 ft) certificated altitude of aircraft +1500 m (+ 5000 ft) Indicated airspeed 95 km/h (50 kt) to 1 5% max Vso (Note 1) Vso to 1.2 VD (Note 3% 2) Heading 360 1 2 Normal acceleration -3 g to +69 0.125 1% of maximum range excluding datum error of 5% Pitch attitude 75 1 2 Roll attitude 180 1 2 Radio transmission On-off (one 1 keying discrete) Power on each Full range 1 (per 2 engine (Note 3) engine) Trailing edge flap or Full ranger on each 2 5% or as pilots indicator cockpit control discrete position section Leading edge flap or Full range on each 2 5% or as pilots indicator cockpit control discrete position section Thrust reverser Stowed, in transit, 1 (per position and reverse engine) Ground spoiler/speed Full range or each 1 2% unless higher accuracy brake selection discrete position uniquely required Outside air Sensor range 2 2 C temperature Autopilot / auto A suitable 1 throttle / AFCS mode combination of and engagement discretes status Note: The preceding 15 parameters satisfy the requirements for a Type II FDR Longitudinal 1g 0.25 1.5% max range excluding acceleration datum error of 5% Lateral acceleration 1g 0.25 1.5% max range including datum error of 1.5% Pilot input and/or Full range 1 2 unless higher accuracy control surface uniquely required. position primary controls (pitch, roll, yaw) (Note 4) Pitch trim position Full range 1 3% unless higher accuracy uniquely required
4 5
6 7 8 9 10
11
12 13 14 15
16 17 18
19
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TABLE 1
Serial Number 20
Parameter
Measurement range -6 m to 750 m (-20 ft to 2500 ft)
Radio altitude
Recording Interval (seconds) 1
21 22 23 24 25
26
27 28
29 30 31
32
Glide path deviation Localiser deviation Marker beacon passage Master warning NAV 1 and 2 frequency selection (Note 5) DME 1 and 2 distance (Notes 5 and 6) Landing gear squat switch status GPWS (ground proximity warning system) Angle of attack Hydraulics, each system (low pressure) Navigation data (latitude / longitude, ground speed and drift angle) (Note 7) Landing gear or gear selector position
Signal range Signal range Discrete Discrete Full range
1 1 1 1 4
Accuracy limits (Sensor input Compared to FDR read-out) 0.6 m ( 2 ft) or 3% whichever is greater below 150m (500 ft) and 5% above 150 m (500 ft) 3% 3%
As installed
0 370 km
As installed
Discrete Discrete
1 1
Full range Discrete As installed
0.5 2 1
As installed
As installed
Discrete
As installed
Note: The preceding 32 parameters satisfy the requirements for Type I FDR Notes: 1) 2) 3) 4) Vso stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration. VD design diving speed. Record sufficient inputs to determine power. For aeroplanes with conventional control systems or applies. For aeroplanes with nonmechanical control systems and applies. In aeroplanes with split surfaces, a suitable combination of inputs is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately. If signal available in digital form. If signals readily available. Recording of latitude and logitude from INS or other navigation system is a preferred alternative.
5) 6) 7)
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ANNEXURE A GPS TRAINING SYLLABUS

1. GPS system components and principle of operation Demonstrate an understanding of the GPS system and its principles of operation: 2. GPS system components, constellation, control and user Aircraft equipment requirements GPS satellite signal and pseudo random code Principle of position fixing Method of minimising receiver clock error Minimum satellites required for navigation functions Masking function Performance limitations of various equipment types GPS use of WGS84 co-ordinate system.
Navigation system performance requirements Define the following terms in relation to a navigation system and recall to what extent The GPS system meets the associated Requirements: Accuracy Integrity Means of providing GPS integrity; RAIM; procedural systems integration Availability Continuity of service.
3.
Authorisation and documentation
Recall the requirements applicable to pilots and equipment for GPS operations: 4. Pilot training requirements Logbook certification Aircraft equipment requirements GPS NOTAM.
GPS errors and limitations Recall the cause and magnitude of typical GPS errors: Ephemeris Clock Receiver Atmospheric / ionospheric Multipath SA (Selected availability) Typical total error associated with C/A code Effect of PDOP / GDOP on position accuracy Susceptibility to interference Comparison of vertical and horizontal errors Tracking accuracy and collision avoidance.
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5.
Human factors and GPS Be aware of the human factors limitations associated with the use of GPS equipment. Apply GPS operating procedures which provide safeguards against navigation errors and loss of situational awareness due to these causes: Mode errors Data entry errors Data validation and checking including independent procedures Automation induced complacency Non-standardisation of the GPS pilot interface Human information processing and situational awareness.
cross-checking
6. GPS equipment - Specific navigation procedures Recall and apply knowledge of appropriate GPS operating procedures to typical navigation tasks using a specific type of aircraft equipment: 7. Select appropriate operational modes Recall categories of information contained in the navigation database Predict RAIM availability Enter and check user defined waypoints Enter I retrieve and check flight plan data Interpret typical GPS navigation displays LAT / LONG, distance and bearing to waypoint, CDI Intercept and maintain GPS defined tracks Determine TMG, GS, ETA, time and distance to WPT, WV in flight Indications of waypoint passage Use of direct to function Use of nearest aerodrome function Use of GPS in GPS and VOR/DME/GPS arrival procedures. GPS equipment checks For the specific type of aircraft equipment, carry out the following GPS operational and serviceability checks at appropriate times: 8. TSO status Satellites acquired RAIM status PDOP / GDOP status IFR database currency Receiver serviceability CDI sensitivity Position indication
GPS warning and messages For the specific type of aircraft equipment, recognise and take appropriate action for GPS warnings and messages, including the following:
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Loss of RAIM 2D navigation in Dear Reckoning mode Database out of date Database missing GPS fail Barometric input fail Power / battery fail Parallel offset on Satellite fail.
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ANNEXURE B
GLOBAL POSITIONING SYSTEM SYSTEM VERIFICATION DATA SHEET A. Name: GENERAL Company:
Telephone / Facsimile:.. (Address is only used in the event of clarification. Please report each occurrence separately) Make and type of receiver and any special features in use at the time that may have affected its performance: . .
B. INTERFERENCE REPORT Purpose for which GPS was being used (survey, navigation, etc) and its mode of use (eg. Stationary, In flight, OCA, over land, etc): . Location of receiver antenna (eg. Remote mounted on A/C . Date, time and nature of GPS malfunction and variation with time / distance travelled: . .
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ANNEXURE B
C. INTEGRITY RAIM LOSS REPORT
RAIM mode: En route Date and time Period of loss Location
Comments: . . . . . . .
Please forward completed forms to:
CAA FLYING INSPECTORATE Fax: (012) 328-7169 ATNS AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES Fax (011) 392-3946
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PART 92 CONVEYANCE OF DANGEROUS GOODS
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LIST OF REGULATIONS : CONVEYANCE OF DANGEROUS GOODS
92.00.1 92.00.2 92.00.3 92.00.4 92.00.5 92.00.6 92.00.7 92.00.8 92.00.9 92.00.10 92.00.11 92.00.12 92.00.13 92.00.14 92.00.15 92.00.16 92.00.17 92.00.18 92.00.19 92.00.20 92.00.21 92.00.22 92.00.23 92.00.24 92.00.25 92.00.26 92.00.27 92.00.28
Applicability Conveyance of dangerous goods forbidden Exemption Classification, division and listing of dangerous goods Designated body or institution Designation of dangerous goods inspectors Powers of dangerous goods inspectors Training Validation of foreign certificates Packing and packaging Responsibility of shipper Labeling and marking Dangerous goods transport document Acceptance procedures Information to be provided Inspection of damage or leakage by operator Storage and loading Loading restrictions in cabin or on flight deck Separation and segregation Securing of dangerous goods Loading in cargo aircraft Dangerous goods accident and incident reporting Dangerous goods accident and incident investigation Dangerous goods accident and incident information Notification of undeclared and misdeclared dangerous goods Retention of documents Dangerous goods carried by passengers or flight crew members Information to passengers
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Applicability 92.00.1 (1) This part shall apply to (a) any aircraft used for the conveyance of dangerous goods; (b) any person who i. ii. iii. offers dangerous goods for conveyance by air; conveys dangerous goods by air; or accepts dangerous goods conveyed by air; and
(c) any passenger or flight crew member on board or to be taken on board an aircraft. 2) This part shall not apply in respect of(a) military aircraft; (b) military personnel who perform their official duties on board a military aircraft; (c) dangerous goods carried in an aircraft where such goods are intended i. ii. iii. iv. to provide medical aid to a patient during a flight; to provide veterinary aid or a humane killer for an animal during a flight; for spraying, dusting or dropping in connection with agricultural, horticultural, forestry or pollution control operations, or for purposes of game and livestock management during a flight;
(d) articles and substances which would otherwise constitute dangerous goods but which are required to be on board the aircraft in accordance with the appropriate airworthiness requirements and the provisions of the operations manual concerned: Provided that articles and substances intended as replacements for such articles and substances, shall be conveyed in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG; (e) articles and substances which would otherwise constitute dangerous goods but which are on board the aircraft for the specialised purposes as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG; and (f) articles and substances intended for the personal use of passengers and flight crew members to the extent as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG. Conveyance of dangerous goods forbidden 92.00.2 No person shall offer for conveyance in an aircraft, convey in an aircraft or accept for conveyance in an aircraft (a) the dangerous goods specifically identified by name or by generic description in Document SA-CATS-DG as being forbidden for conveyance by air under any circumstances;
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(b) the dangerous goods identified in Document SA-CATS-DG as being forbidden for conveyance by air under normal circumstances; (c) any other dangerous goods, unless in accordance with the provisions of the Act, this part and the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SACATS-DG; and (d) infected live animals. Exemption 91.00.3 (1)The Commissioner may, upon application in writing by any person referred to in Regulation 92.00.1 (l)(b), exempt such person from the provisions of Regulation 92.00.2 (b), in the case of (a) extreme urgency; (b) Other forms of conveyance being appropriate; or full compliance with the provisions of this part being contrary to aviation safety. (2) The Commissioner may grant an exemption referred to in subregulation (1), under such conditions and for such period which the Commissioner may determine, but only after the applicant has made every effort to achieve the overall level of safety required by the Act, this part and Document SA-CATS-DG. (3) In the event of an exemption being granted for a period exceeding 90 days, the Commissioner shall, within 30 days from the date on which the exemption has been granted, publish the full particulars thereof in the Gazette. Classification, division and listing of dangerous goods 92.00.4 The classes, divisions and listing of dangerous goods shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG. Designated body or institution 92.00.5 (1) The body or institution designated under Part 12 shall, in addition to the powers and duties referred to in Regulation 12.00.3 (a) promote the safety of the conveyance of dangerous goods by air and an awareness thereof; and (b) advise the Commissioner on any matter connected with the safe conveyance of dangerous goods by air. (2) The powers and duties referred to in subregulation (1) shall be exercised and performed according to the conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
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Designation of dangerous goods inspectors 92.00.6 (1) The Commissioner may designate dangerous goods inspectors to exercise the powers and duties referred to in Regulation 92.00.7. (2) The conditions and requirements for and the rules, procedures and standards connected with a designation referred to in subregulation (1), shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG. (3) The Commissioner shall sign and issue to each designated dangerous goods inspector a document which shall state the full name of such inspector and contain a statement indicating that (a) such inspector has been designated in terms of subregulation (1); and (b) such inspector is authorised to exercise the powers referred to in Regulation 92.00.1. Powers of dangerous goods inspectors 92.00.7 (1) A designated dangerous goods inspector may (a) enter and inspect any i. ii. aerodrome or hangar; premises where goods intended for conveyance by air are made, produced or manufactured or where goods or baggage intended for the conveyance by air are packed, held or received or where goods or baggage are received after being conveyed by air; and aircraft, vehicle, freight container or unit load device used for the conveyance of dangerous goods, in order to ensure that the provisions of the Act, this part and the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG, are complied with; and
iii.
(b) request any person to produce or furnish him or her with all documents and information relating to dangerous goods or baggage in so far as this may be necessary for the proper execution of his or her functions. (2) A designated dangerous goods inspector who on reasonable grounds suspects that any baggage, consignment, freight container or unit load device contains goods which may not, in terms of the provisions of the Act, this part and the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG, be conveyed by air, or goods which constitute a danger or potential danger to persons, aircraft or any other property, may inspect such baggage, consignment, freight container or unit load device and, if he or she deems it necessary in the interest of aviation safety, order that such goods be detained and not be loaded in an aircraft. (3) A designated dangerous goods inspector may at any time
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(a) search i. ii. iii. any baggage, consignment, freight container or unit load device presented or accepted for conveyance by air; any baggage, consignment, freight container or unit load device received after being conveyed by air; and any person who has disembarked from an aircraft or who intends to board an aircraft, or the baggage or personal possessions of such person,
in order to ascertain whether dangerous goods have been or are to be conveyed by air, and a search referred to in subparagraph (iii) shall be conducted with strict regard to decency and order and a person shall be searched only by a person of the same gender; (b) satisfy himself or herself that the mass, quantity or composition of any i. ii. iii. goods or baggage offered or presented for conveyance in any consignment; passengers' baggage; freight container or unit load device; stores conveyed by the owner of an aircraft, or his or her agent; and goods or baggage on board an aircraft, comply with the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG;
(c) satisfy himself or herself that the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG are complied with regarding the separation of the classes of dangerous goods in storage areas, unit load devices, vehicles and aircraft; (d) require goods to be removed from an aircraft if the requirements and standards referred to in paragraphs (b) and (c) are not complied with; (e) request any person to produce or cause to be produced for inspection any document relating to a consignment intended for conveyance by air or which has been conveyed by air, or any other document specified in Document SA-CATSDG; (f) question any person handling dangerous goods in order to ascertain whether that person complies with the provisions of the Act, this part and the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG relating to the handling of such dangerous goods; and (g) condemn any dangerous goods which, in his or her opinion, are not in a good condition, or the storage or use of which he or she deems to be dangerous and order any such dangerous goods to be destroyed forthwith, in which case the owner of goods so condemned, shall have no claim against such inspector or against the State for the loss thereof and shall, in connection with the destruction of explosives, be responsible for any expense Incurred.
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Training 92.00.8 (1) Any -
(a) shipper of dangerous goods, including a packer and shipper's agent; (b) operator; or (c) person i. ii. iii. iv. which performs the act of accepting, handling, loading, unloading, transferring or other processing of cargo, on behalf of an operator; located at an aerodrome, which performs the act of processing passengers on behalf of an operator; not located at an aerodrome, which performs the act of checking in passengers on behalf of an operator; other than an operator, involved in processing cargo; or
(d) engaged in the security screening of passengers and their baggage, shall ensure that the following categories of personnel in his, her or its employ successfully complete initial dangerous goods training and refresher dangerous goods training: A. B. C. D. E. F. G. H. Cargo personnel; personnel engaged in the ground handling, storage and loading of dangerous goods; passenger handling personnel; security personnel who deal with the screening of passengers and their baggage; flight crew members; packers; shippers; and shipper's agents.
(2) Training as required by this part shall only be provided by a dangerous goods training organisation approved by the Commissioner in terms of Part 141. (3) The subject matter of initial dangerous goods training and refresher dangerous goods training shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG. (4) Any person, employee or agency, referred to in subregulation (1) shall complete refresher dangerous goods training every 24 months, calculated from the date of the successful completion of the initial dangerous goods training or the preceding refresher dangerous goods training, as the case may be. (5) Upon the successful completion of the initial dangerous goods training or the refresher dangerous goods training referred to in subregulation (3), the dangerous goods training organisation concerned shall issue to the candidate a certificate in the handling of dangerous goods to be conveyed by air.
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Validation of foreign certificates 92.00.9 (1) The Commissioner may upon application in writing by a person, validate any foreign certificate issued in the handling of dangerous goods to be conveyed by air, if the holder of the certificate submits documentary proof that (a) Such certificate has obtained such certificate from an approved foreign training organisation; and (b) He or she has successfully completed the refresher dangerous goods training referred to in Regulation 92.00.8(3). (2) The application referrred to in subregulation (1) shall be accompanied by the appropriate fee as prescribed in Part 187. (3) The provisions of Regulation 92.00.8(4) and (5) shall apply mutatis mutandis to the holder of a certificate referred to in subregulation (1). Packing and packaging 92.00.10 (1) A shipper shall ensure that all dangerous goods which the shipper prepares or offers for conveyance by air, are packed in accordance with the provisions of this part and the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG. (2) A shipper shall ensure that any packaging used for the conveyance of dangerous goods by air shall (a) comply with the material and construction specifications of, and be tested initially in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG; and (b) be of good quality and constructed and securely closed so as to prevent leakage caused by changes in temperature, humidity, pressure or vibration under normal conditions of conveyance by air. (3) A shipper shall ensure that inner packaging is packed, secured or cushioned to prevent its breakage or leakage and to control its movement within the outer packaging during normal conditions of conveyance by air. (4) A shipper shall ensure that packaging in direct contact with dangerous goods is resistant to any chemical or other action of such goods and cushioning, and that absorbent materials do not react dangerously with the contents of the receptacles. (5) A shipper shall ensure that packaging for which retention of a liquid is a basic function, is capable of withstanding, without leaking, the pressure as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG. (6) No receptacle used for the conveyance of dangerous goods by air shall be reused by the shipper until such receptacle has been inspected by such shipper and found free from corrosion or other damage.
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(7) If a receptacle, used for the conveyance of dangerous goods by air, is re-used by the shipper, all necessary measures shall be taken by the shipper to prevent contamination of subsequent dangerous goods conveyed therein. (8) If, because of the nature of their former contents, uncleaned empty receptacles may present a hazard, the shipper shall ensure that such receptacles are tightly closed and treated according to the hazard that they constitute. (9) A shipper shall ensure that no harmful quantity of any dangerous substance adhere to the outside of a package. Responsibility of shipper 92.00.11 (1) A shipper shall ensure that dangerous goods offered for conveyance by air, are not dangerous goods identified as forbidden for conveyance by air in terms of Regulation 92.00.2 and are (a) identified, classified, packed, marked and labelled; and (b) accompanied by a properly executed dangerous goods transport document, in accordance with the provisions of this part and the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG. (2) A shipper shall ensure that any person employed by him or her or any person employed to act on his or her behalf, who is involved in the preparationof a consignment of dangerous goods to be conveyed by air, is trained in accordance with the provisions of Regulation 92.00.8. Labelling and marking 92.00.12 (1) Any person who offers any package containing dangerous goods for conveyance by air, shall ensure that such package thus offered is labelled with the appropriate label or labels in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG. (2) Any person who offers any package containing dangerous goods for conveyance by air, shall ensure that such package thus offered is marked with the proper shipping name, UN shipping number, class of hazard, subsidiary risk, packing group, packing instruction and any authorisation reference of the contents of the package in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG. (3) (a) any person who offers any package containing dangerous goods for conveyance by air, shall ensure that each packaging which is manufactured in accordance with a packaging specification as prescribed in Document SA-CATSDG, is marked with the appropriate packaging specification marking as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG. (b) No packaging shall be marked with a packaging specification marking unless such packaging complies with the appropriate packaging specification as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
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Dangerous goods transport document 92.00.13 (1) Any person who offers dangerous goods for conveyance by air, shall, unless otherwise provided for in Document SA-CATS-DG, complete and sign and provide the operator with a dangerous goods transport document and such other appropriate documents as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG. (2) A dangerous goods transport document shall contain the information as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG as well as a declaration, signed by the person referred to in subregulation (1), indicating that the dangerous goods offered for conveyance by air are (a) fully and accurately described by their proper shipping names; (b) identified, classified, packed, marked and labelled in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG; (c) in proper condition for conveyance by air in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG; and (d) not dangerous goods identified as forbidden for conveyance by air in terms of Regulation 92.00.2. Acceptance procedures 92.00.14 (1) The operator of an aircraft in which dangerous goods are to be conveyed, shall not accept such dangerous goods for conveyance by air (a) unless the dangerous goods are accompanied by a completed dangerous goods transport document, except where Document SA-CATS-DG provides that such document is not required; and (b) until such operator has inspected the exterior or the package, overpack or freight container containing the dangerous goods in accordance with the acceptance procedures as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG. (c) The operator referred to in subregulation (1) shall develop and use an acceptance checklist to ensure that the provisions of subregulation (1) regarding the acceptance of dangerous goods for conveyance by air, are complied with. (d) The acceptance checklist referred to in subregulation (2), shall comply with the requirements as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG. Information to be provided 92.00.15 (1) The operator of an aircraft in which dangerous goods are to be conveyed shall provide the pilot-in-command, as soon as practicable before departure of the aircraft, with the written information as prescribed in Document SACATS-DG. (2) The operator referred to in subregulation (1), shall provide information to the flight crew members and employees concerned to enable such flight crew members and employees to carry out their duties with regard to the conveyance by air of dangerous goods, and such information shall include the information as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
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Inspection for damage or leakage by operator 92.00.16 (1) The operator of an aircraft in which dangerous goods are to be conveyed, shall inspect the exterior of each package and overpack containing dangerous goods and each freight container or package containing radioactive materials to ensure that there is no damage to or leakage from such package, overpack and freight container, before loading such package, overpack and container in the aircraft or into a unit load device. (2) The operator referred to in subregulation (I) shall inspect a unit load device before loading such device in the aircraft to ensure that there is no damage to or leakage from any dangerous goods contained therein. (3) No damaged or leaking package, overpack, freight container or unit load device shall be loaded in an aircraft. (4) If any package, overpack or freight container containing dangerous goods appears to be damaged or leaking after loading such package, overpack or freight container in an aircraft, the operator shall remove or arrange for the removal of such package, overpack or freight container from the aircraft and shall ensure that the remainder of the consignment is in a proper condition for conveyance by air and that no other package, overpack or freight container has been contaminated. (5) Each package or overpack containing dangerous goods, or a freight container or package containing radioactive materials, shall be inspected by the operator for signs of damage or leakage upon unloading such package, overpack or freight container from the aircraft or unit load device, and if damage or leakage has occurred, the area where such package, overpack, freight container or unit load device were stowed in the aircraft, shall be inspected for damage or contamination. (6) If a package, overpack or freight container containing radioactive materials is found to be damaged or leaking, the operator shall (a) take all necessary precautions to restrict access to such package, overpack or freight container containing radioactive materials; and (b) designate a qualified person to assess the extent of the contamination and the radiation level. (7) If any hazardous contamination is found in an aircraft as a result of damage to or leakage from a package or overpack containing dangerous goods, the operator shall decontaminate the aircraft immediately. (8) The operator referred to in subregulation (1) shall remove an aircraft from service immediately when such aircraft is contaminated by radioactive materials and shall not return such aircraft to service until the radiation level resulting from the fixed contamination at any accessible surface and the non-fixed contamination, is below the values as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
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(9) Any person responsible for the conveyance and opening of packages containing infectious substances who becomes aware of damage to or leaking from such packages, shall (a) avoid handling such infectious substances, where possible; (b) inspect adjacent packages for contamination; (c) inform the appropriate public health authority or veterinary authority of such damage or leakage; (d) provide the appropriate authority of the country of transit with information regarding any possible contamination; and (e) notify the shipper or the consignee accordingly. Storage and loading 92.00.17 The operator of an aircraft in which dangerous goods are to be conveyed shall comply with the storage and loading provisions of this part and the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG. Loading restrictions in cabin or on flight deck 92.00.18 Unless otherwise provided for in Document SA-CATS-DG, dangerous goods shall not be stowed in an aircraft cabin occupied by passengers or on the flight deck of an aircraft. Separation and segregation 92.00.19 (1) The operator of an aircraft in which dangerous goods are to be conveyed shall ensure that packages containing dangerous goods which might react dangerously when coming into contact with each other, are not stowed in an aircraft next to each other or in a position that would allow interaction between them in the event of leakage. (2) The operator referred to in subregulation (1) shall ensure that a package containing poison or an infectious substance, is stowed in an aircraft in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SACATS-DG. (3) The operator referred to in subregulation (1) shall ensure that a package containing radioactive materials, is stowed in an aircraft in a manner which separates the package from persons, live animals and undeveloped film, in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SACATS-DG. Securing of dangerous goods 92.00.20 (1) The operator of an aircraft in which dangerous goods are to be conveyed, shall, when dangerous goods are loaded in the aircraft, protect such dangerous goods from being damaged, and shall secure such dangerous goods in the aircraft in a manner which will prevent any movement in flight that could change the orientation of the packages.
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(2) When securing packages containing radioactive materials, the operator shall ensure that the securing is adequate in order that the requirements regarding the separation of radioactive materials referred to in Regulation 92.00.10(3) are complied with. Loading in cargo aircraft 92.00.21 Unless otherwise provided for in Document SA-CATS-DG, a package or overpack containing dangerous goods and bearing a "cargo aircraft only" label, shall be loaded in a manner that any night crew member or other person authorised by the operator, can see, handle and, where size and weight permit, separate such package or overpack from other cargo in flight. Dangerous goods accident and incident reporting 92.00.22 (1) The operator of an aircraft involved in a dangerous goods accident or dangerous goods incident within the Republic, shall within 48 hours after such accident or incident has occurred, notify (a) in the case of an accident, any air traffic service unit or the nearest police station; or (b) in the case of an incident, any air traffic service unit, (c) of such accident or incident, and such air traffic service unit or police station, as the case may be, shall immediately on receipt of the notification, notify i. ii. the Commissioner; and where such accident or incident occurs at an aerodrome, the aerodrome manager.
(2) The operator of a South African aircraft involved in a dangerous goods accident or dangerous goods incident outside the Republic, shall, as soon as practicable, notify(a) the appropriate authority in the State for territory where the accident or incident has occurred, directly or through any air traffic service unit; and (b) the Commissioner, of such accident or incident. (3) Any notification of a dangerous goods accident or dangerous goods incident referred to in subregulation (1) or (2) shall, in addition to the provisions of Regulation 12.00.5(3)(a), contain the particulars as prescribed in Document SACATS-DG . Dangerous goods accident and incident investigation 92.00.23 The investigator-in-charge shall investigate all dangerous goods accidents and dangerous goods incidents of which the Commissioner is notified in terms of Regulation 92.00.22(1), and Part 12 shall apply mutatis mutandis to such investigation.
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Dangerous goods accident and incident information 92.00.24 In the case of a consignment for which a dangerous goods transport document is required in terms of this part, the operator shall ensure that the information as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG is available at all times for use in an emergency response to dangerous goods accidents or dangerous goods incidents. Notification of undeclared or misdeclared dangerous goods 92.00.25 The operator of an aircraft in which dangerous goods are conveyed within the Republic or outside the Republic shall, within 48 hours after the discovery of (a) any undeclared or misdeclared dangerous goods; or (b) dangerous goods not permitted in terms of Regulation 92.00.2, on board the aircraft or in the baggage of a passenger or flight crew member, notify the Commissioner or the appropriate authority thereof, as the case may be. Retention of documents 92.00.26 The operator of an aircraft in which dangerous goods are conveyed, shall ensure that at least one copy of all documents pertaining to a flight on which dangerous goods are conveyed, including the (a) dangerous goods transport document; (b) acceptance checklist, if completion of the checklist is required; and (c) written information provided to the pilot-in-command in terms of Regulation 92.00. 15(1), are retained for a period of 90 days, calculated from the date of such flight. Dangerous goods carried by passengers or flight crew members 92.00.27 No passenger or flight crew member shall carry dangerous goods as, or in, carry-on baggage or checked baggage, or on his or her person, except in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SACATS-DG. Information to passengers 92.00.28 Any operator shall ensure that information regarding the types of goods that passengers are forbidden to carry on board an aircraft, is available to such passengers and such information shall include (a) applicable information accompanying the passenger ticket; and (b) notices which are prominently displayed i. ii. at any location where tickets are issued and baggage checked; and in aircraft boarding areas and baggage claim areas.
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PART 135 AIRPORT TRANSPORT OPERATIONS SMALL AEROPLANES
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1. GENERAL Section 22A of the Aviation Act, 1962 (as amended by section 5 of the Aviation Laws Amendment Act, 1996) empowers the Commissioner for Civil Aviation to issue technical standards for civil aviation on the matters which are prescribed by regulation. 2. PURPOSE Document SA-CATS-OPS 135 contains the standards, rules, requirements, methods, specifications, characteristics and procedures which are applicable in respect of air transport operations : small aeroplanes. Each reference to a technical standard in this document, is a reference to the corresponding regulation in the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997, for example, technical standard 135.01.10 refers to regulation 10 of Subpart 01 of Part 135 of the Regulations. The abbreviation "CAR" is used throughout this document when referring to any regulation. The abbreviation "TS" refers to any technical standard. 3. SCHEDULES AND NOTES Guidelines and recommendations in support of any particular technical standard, are contained in schedules to, and/or notes inserted throughout the technical standards.
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LIST OF REGULATIONS: AIRPORT TRANSPORT OPERATIONS SMALL AEROPLANES
SUBPART 1: GENERAL
135.01.1 135.01.2 135.01.3 135.01.4 135.01.5 135.01.6 135.01.7 135.01.8 135.01.9 135.01.10 135.01.11 Applicability Exemptions Admission to flight deck Drunkenness Dry lease-in of small commercial air transport aeroplane Wet lease-in of small commercial air transport aeroplane Dry lease-out of small commercial air transport aeroplane Wet lease-out of small commercial air transport aeroplane Leasing of small commercial air transport aeroplane between two South African operators Subchartering Preservation of documents

135.02.1 135.02.2 135.02.3 135.02.4 135.02.5 Composition of flight crew In-flight relief of flight crew members Flight crew member emergency duties Recency, route and aerodrome qualifications Flight time and duty periods
SUBPART 3: TRAINING AND CHECKING Division One: General

135.03.1 135.03.2 Training of flight crew members Initial training of flight crew members
Division Two: Pilot Training

135.03.3 135.03.4 135.03.5 135.03.6 Conversion training Differences training and familiarisation training Upgrading to pilot-in-command Pilot-in-command holding commercial pilot licence
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135.03.7 135.03.8 135.03.9
Recurrent training and checking Pilot qualification to operate in either pilots seat Advanced qualification programme
Division Three: Training of other Flight Crew members

135.03.10 Training

135.04.1 135.04.2 135.04.3 135.04.4 135.04.5 135.04.6 135.04.7 135.04.8 135.04.9 135.04.10 Documents to be retained on ground Operations manual Aeroplane operating manual Aeroplane flight manual Operational flight plan Flight time and duty period records Records of emergency and survival equipment Flight crew member training records Load and trim sheet Aeroplane checklist
SUBPART 5: AEROPLANE INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT

135.05.1 135.05.2 135.05.3 135.05.4 135.05.5 135.05.6 135.05.7 Approval of instruments and equipment Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aeroplanes operated under VFR Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aeroplanes operated under IFR Altitude alerting system Airborne weather radar equipment Flight deck crew interphone system Means for emergency evacuation
SUBPART 6: OPERATING CERTIFICATE

135.06.1 135.06.2 135.06.3 135.06.4 135.06.5 135.06.6 135.06.7 135.06.8 Operating certificate Application for operating certificate Adjudication of application for operating certificate Period of validity of operating certificate Safety inspections and audits Suspension and cancellation of operating certificate and appeal Duties of holder of operating certificate Register of operating certificates
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135.07.1 135.07.2 135.07.3 135.07.4 135.07.5 135.07.6 135.07.7 135.07.8 135.07.9 135.07.10 135.07.11 135.07.12 135.07.13 135.07.14 135.07.15 135.07.16 135.07.17 135.07.18 135.07.19 135.07.20 Routes and area of operation Establishment of procedures Operational control and supervision Competence of operations personnel Use of air traffic services Minimum flight altitudes Aerodrome operating minima Smoking in aeroplane Fuel policy Fuel and oil supply Instrument approach and departure procedures Noise abatement procedures Carriage of infants and children Carriage of passengers with disability Limitations on carriage of infants, children and passengers With disability Carriage on inadmissible passengers, deportees or persons in custody Carry-on baggage Securing of passenger cabin and galley Passenger services Incidents and defects
SUBPART 8: AEROPLANE PERFORMANCE OPERATING LIMITATIONS

135.08.1 135.08.2 Classification General provisions for all classes of aeroplanes
Division One: Class A Aeroplane

135.03.3 135.03.4 135.03.5 135.03.6 135.03.7 135.03.8 135.03.9 General Take-off Net take-off flight path En route with one engine inoperative Landing at destination and alternate aerodromes Landing on dry runways Landing on wet and contaminated runways
Division Two: Class B Aeroplane

135.08.10 135.08.11 General Take-off
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135.08.12 135.08.13 135.08.14 135.08.15 135.08.16
Take-off flight path En route Landing at destination and alternate aerodromes Landing on dry runways Landing on wet and contaminated runways
Division Three: Class A Aeroplane

135.08.17 135.08.18 135.08.19 135.08.20 135.08.21 135.08.22 135.08.23 General Take-off Take-off flight path En route Landing at destination and alternate aerodromes Landing on dry runways Landing on wet and contaminated runways
135.09.1 135.09.2 135.09.3 General Aeroplane maintenance schedule Maintenance contracted to approved aircraft maintenance organisation
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SUBPART 1: GENERAL
Applicability 135.01.1 (1) This part shall apply to
(a) aeroplanes with a maximum certificated mass of 5700 kilograms or less, or a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of not more than nine seats, engaged in commercial air transport operations within the Republic; (b) aeroplanes with a maximum certificated mass of 5700 kilograms or less, or a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of not more than nine seats, registered in the Republic, but engaged in commercial international air transport operations; (c) persons acting as flight crew members of aeroplanes registered in the Republic; and (d) persons who are on board an aeroplane operated under this part. (2) For the purposes of this part, an, aeroplane registered in another State and operated by the holder of an operating certificate issued in the Republic, shall be deemed to be registered in the Republic. (3) The provisions of Part 91 shall mutatis mutandis apply to any aeroplane operated in terms of this part. Exemptions 135.01.2 (1) The Commissioner may exempt any aeroplane or person involved in emergency operations from the provisions of this part, on the conditions as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135. (2) An application for an exemption shall be made in accordance with the provisions of Part 11. Admission to flight deck 135.01.3 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that no person is admitted to, or carried on the flight deck of the aeroplane unless such person is (a) a flight crew member assigned to the flight; (b) authorised officer, inspector or authorised person; or (c) permitted by, and carried in accordance with, the instructions contained in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2. (2) The final decision regarding the admission of any person to the flight deck shall be the responsibility of the pilot-in-command. (3) The admission of any person to the flight deck shall not interfere with the operation of the aeroplane.
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(4) Any person carried on the flight deck shall be made familiar with the applicable procedures. Drunkenness 135.01.4 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall not permit, and no person shall enter or be in, the aeroplane while under the influence of alcohol or a drug having a narcotic effect, to the extent where the safety of such aeroplane or its occupants is, or is likely to be, endangered. (2) The operator shall establish procedures to ensure that any person referred to in subregulation (1) is (a) refused embarkation; or (b) if such person is on board, restrained or disembarked. Dry lease-in of small commercial air transport aeroplane 135.01.5 (1) An operator who intends to dry lease-in a small foreign registered aeroplane for commercial air transport purposes, shall (a) ensure that such aeroplane can be operated and is operated in accordance with the requirements prescribed in this Part; (b) obtain prior approval from the Commissioner to operate such aeroplane. (2) The approval referred to in subregulation (l)(b) shall, subject to such conditions as the Commissioner may determine, be granted if such aeroplane is (a) type certificated in accordance with the requirements prescribed in Part 21; (b) maintained in accordance with an aeroplane maintenance schedule referred to in Regulation 135.09.5; (c) operated under the operating certificate held by the operator referred to in subregulation (1). (3) The conditions of approval referred to in subregulation (2) shall be part of the lease agreement between the operator referred to in subregulation (1) and the operator from which the small foreign registered aeroplane is leased. Wet lease-in of small commercial air transport aeroplane 135.01.6 (1) An operator who intends to wet lease-in a small foreign registered aeroplane for commercial air transport purposes shall, subject to such conditions as the Commissioner may determine, obtain prior approval from the Commissioner to operate such aeroplane.
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(2) The duration of the lease agreement concerned shall be limited to a maximum period of six calendar months in one year. (3) The approval referred to in subregulation (1) shall, subject to such conditions as the Commissioner may determine, be granted if such aeroplane (a) Is wet leased-in from an operator who Is the holder of an operating certificate or similar document issued by an appropriate authority; (b) has been type certificated by the appropriate authority; (c) holds a valid certificate of airworthiness or similar document issued by such appropriate authority; (d) is maintained and operated in accordance with safety standards at least equivalent to the safety standards referred to in this Part; and (e) will be operated in terms of the operating certificate or similar document held by the operator referred to in paragraph (a). (4) The operator referred to in subregulation (1) shall (a) satisfy the Commissioner that the safety standards of the lessor are not less than the safety standards referred to in this Part; (b) ensure that any law applicable to the aeroplane to be wet leased-in, the maintenance or operation thereof, is complied with. (5) The total number of wet leased-in aeroplanes shall be such that an operator referred to in subregulation (1) will not be predominantly dependent on foreign registered aeroplanes. (6) The conditions of approval referred to in subregulation (1) shall be part of the lease agreement between the operator referred to in subregulation (1) and the operator from which the small foreign registered aeroplane is leased. Dry lease-out of small commercial air transport aeroplane 135.01.7 (1) Subject to the provisions of subregulation (2), the operator of a small South African registered aeroplane may dry lease-out the aeroplane to any operator in a contracting State. (2) On request of the operator of a small South African registered aeroplane, the Commissioner may exempt the operator from the applicable provisions of this part and remove the aeroplane from the operating certificate held by such operator: Provided that (a) the appropriate authority of the State of the Operator to which such aeroplane is dry leased has accepted, in writing, responsibility for surveillance of the maintenance and operation of such aeroplane; and (b) such aeroplane is maintained according to an approved maintenance programme .
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Wet lease-out of small commercial air transport aeroplane 135.01.8 The operator of a small South African registered aeroplane who intends to wet lease-out the aeroplane to any operator, other than an operator of a contracting State, shall remain the operator of the aeroplane for the purposes of subpart 6, and responsibility for surveillance of the maintenance and operation of such aeroplane shall not be transferred to the appropriate authority of the State of the Operator to which such aeroplane is wet leased-out. Leasing of small commercial air transport aeroplane between two South African operators 135.01.9 A South African operator who intends to lease out an aeroplane and complete flight crew to another South African operator, shall remain the operator of the aeroplane and shall retain the functions and responsibilities prescribed in subpart 6. (2) A South African operator, intending to utilise an aeroplane leased from, or to lease it to, another South African operator shall obtain prior approval from the Commissioner for the operation, and the conditions of approval shall be part of the lease agreement between the operators. (3) The terms of an approved lease agreement, other than an agreement in terms of which an aeroplane together with aeroplane flight crew is leased, and where no transfer of functions and responsibilities is intended, shall include (a) the arrangement concerning the operating certificate under which the flights with the leased aeroplane shall be operated; and (b) any deviation from the operating certificate under which the flights with the leased aeroplane shall be operated. Subchartering 135.01.10 (1) In the exceptional circumstances as prescribed in Document SACATS-OPS 135, an operator may subcharter a small aeroplane and flight crew from any operator who holds a valid operating certificate for the aeroplane, issued by an appropriate authority: Provided that (a) the subcharter period does not exceed five consecutive days; and (b) the operator of the aeroplane so subchartered, informs the Commissioner, within 24 hours, of such subcharter. (2) The provision of Regulations 135.01.5(1)(a) and (2), 135.01.6(3) and (4)(b) and 135.01.9(1) and (3) shall apply mutatis mutandis to any subcharter referred to in this regulation.
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Preservation of documents 135.01.11 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane who is required to retain any of the documents for the specified period referred to in subpart 4, shall retain such document for such specified period irrespective of the fact that such operator, before the expiry of such specified period, ceases to be the owner or possessor of the aeroplane concerned.
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Composition of flight crew
135.02.1 (1) The minimum number and composition of the flight crew shall not be less than the minimum number and composition specified in the aeroplane flight manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.4. (2) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall allocate additional flight crew members when it is required by the type of operation, and the number of such additional flight crew members shall not be less than the number specified in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2. (3) The operator shall ensure that the flight crew members (a) are competent to perform the duties assigned to them; and (b) hold the appropriate valid licences and ratings. (4) The flight crew shall include at least one member who holds a valid radiotelephony operator licence or an equivalent document issued by an appropriate authority, authorising such member to operate the type of radio transmitting equipment to be used. (5) When deemed necessary for the safe conduct of a flight, the flight crew shall include at least one member who is proficient in navigating over the route to be flown. (6) For operations under IFR or by night in a small commercial air transport turbopropeller or turbojet aeroplane, an operator shall ensure that the minimum flight crew is two pilots: Provided that in the case of a turbojet aeroplane, a single-pilot operation is allowed if (a) the aeroplane has been certificated for single-pilot IFR operation; and (b) the operator has included in the operations manual, referred to in Regulation 135.04.2, a conversion and recurrent training programme for pilots which includes the additional requirements for a single-pilot operation. (7) The operator shall designate one pilot among the flight crew as pilot-in-command of a small commercial air transport aeroplane and the pilot-in-command may delegate the conduct of the flight to another suitably qualified pilot. In-flight relief of flight crew members 135.02.2 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall establish procedures in accordance with the provisions of this regulation, to prevent inexperienced flight crew members from doing duty together on the same flight.
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(2) A flight deck crew member may be relieved in flight of his or her duties. at the controls of a small commercial air transport aeroplane by another suitably qualified flight deck crew member. (3) A pilot assigned to the pilot-in-command station may be relieved by another pilot who (a) is the holder of the appropriate valid pilot licence (aeroplane) and ratings; (b) has completed i. ii. iii. the conversion training and checking, including type rating training prescribed in subpart 3; the recurrent training and checking prescribed in subpart 3; and in the case of scheduled public air transport service operations, recency, route and aerodrome qualifications prescribed in Regulation 135.02.4; and
(c) may not operate below FL 200 unless he or she is the holder of the applicable type rating and has been assigned to the pilot-in-command station. (4) The co-pilot of a small commercial air transport aeroplane may be relieved by (a) another suitably qualified pilot; or (b) a cruise-relief co-pilot who holds a valid commercial pilot licence (aeroplane) and instrument rating and who has completed: i. ii. the conversion training and checking, including type rating training other than take-off and landing training, prescribed in subpart 3; the recurrent training and checking, other than take-off and landing training, prescribed in subpart 3.
(5) A cruise-relief co-pilot referred to in subregulation (4) shall (a) not operate as co-pilot below FL 200; and (b) shall undergo simulator Recency and refresher flying skill training at intervals not exceeding six months. (6) When any additional flight crew member is carried to provide in-flight relief for the purpose of extending a flight time and duty period, such flight crew member shall hold qualifications which comply with the requirements of the operational duty which he or she is required to carry out during such in-flight relief period. Flight crew member emergency duties 135.02.3 (1) An operator and, where appropriate, the pilot-in-command of a small commercial air transport aeroplane, shall assign to each flight crew member concerned, the necessary functions to be performed in an emergency or a situation requiring emergency evacuation.
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(2) The functions referred to in subregulation (1) shall be such as to ensure that any reasonably anticipated emergency can be adequately dealt with and shall take into consideration the possible incapacitation of individual flight crew members. (3) A flight crew member shall not accept an assignment of emergency functions unless such flight crew member has been trained to perform emergency functions in accordance with the requirements prescribed in subpart 3. Recency, route and aerodrome qualifications 135.02.4 (1) A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of a small commercial air transport aeroplane used in a scheduled public air transport service operation, unless the pilot has within the preceding 12 months demonstrated to the operator of such aeroplane an adequate knowledge of (a) the route to be flown; (b) the aerodromes to be used; (c) the procedures applicable to flight paths over densely inhabited areas and areas of higher traffic density; and (d) obstructions, physical layout, lighting, approach aids and arrival, departure, holding and instrument approach procedures including operating minima. (2) If a route requires a specific type of navigation qualification, the pilot-in-command shall within the 12 months immediate preceding a flight on such route, demonstrate his or her ability to the operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane by (a) flying over a route or area as pilot-in-command using the applicable special type of navigation system; or (b) flying over a route or area under the supervision of a suitably qualified pilot using the applicable special types of navigation system. Flight time and duty periods 135.02.5 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall (a) establish a scheme for the regulation of flight time and duty periods for each flight crew member; (b) include the scheme referred to in paragraph (a) in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2; (c) ensure that each flight crew member complies with the provisions of the scheme referred to in paragraph (1); (d) not cause or permit any flight crew member to fly in the aeroplane if such operator knows or has made aware that such flights crew member
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i. ii.
will exceed the flight time and duty periods prescribed in subregulation (l)(a) while on flight duty; or is suffering from or having, regard to the circumstances of the flight to be undertaken, is likely to suffer from fatigue which may endanger the safety of the aerodrome or its flight crew members and passengers;
(e) not schedule a flight crew member for active flight duty for a period exceeding eight consecutive hours during any given flight time and duty period unless authorised in the scheme referred to in paragraph (a). (2) The provisions to be included in a scheme referred to in subregulation (1) shall be as described in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135.
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SUBPART 3: TRAINING AND CHECKING
Division One: General Training of flight crew members 135.03.1 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall establish and maintain a ground and flight training programme for flight crew members in his or her employ. (2) The operator shall ensure that: (a) each flight crew member received training in accordance with this subpart and the appropriate syllabus prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135; (b) the training shall only be provided by the holder of an aviation training organisation approval issued in terms of Part 141, and (c) each flight crew member passes a written examination with regard to all the subjects of the training syllabus referred to in paragraph (a). (3) The provisions of this subpart shall apply in respect of full-time and part-time employed flight crew members. Initial training of flight crew members 135.03.2 A flight crew member employed by the operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall have successfully completed the initial training and skill tests as prescribed in Part 61. Division Two: Pilot Training Conversion training 135.03.3 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that (a) a flight deck crew member completes a type conversion course in accordance with the applicable requirements prescribed in Part 61, when changing from one type of aeroplane to another type or class for which a new type or class rating Is required; (b) a flight deck crew member completes the operator's type conversion course before commencing unsupervised operational flying i. ii. when changing to an aeroplane for which a new type or class rating is required; or when employed by such operator.
(c) type conversion training is conducted by a competent person in accordance with the detailed course syllabus included in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2, and as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135;
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(d) the amount of training required by the operator's type conversion course is determined after due note has been taken of the flight crew member's previous training as recorded in the training records referred to in Regulation 135.04.8; (e) the minimum standards of qualification and experience required of flight deck crew members before undertaking type conversion training are specified in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2; (f) each flight deck crew member undergoes the checks prescribed in Regulation 135.03.1(2) and (g) and the training and checks prescribed in Regulation 135.03.1(6) before commencing operational flying; and (h) if multi-crew operations are contemplated, flight deck crew resources management training as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135 is incorporated in the conversion class. (2) In the case of changing aeroplane type of class, the check prescribed in Regulation 135.03.1(2) may be combined with the type or class rating skill test prescribed in Part 61. (3) The operator's type conversion course and the type or class rating course prescribed in Part 61, may be combined. (4) The operator's type conversion course shall include the items, and shall be condition in the order as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135. (5) When a flight deck crew members has not previously completed the operators' type conversion course, such operator shall ensure that, in addition to subregulation (4), the flight deck crew members undergoes general first aid training and, if applicable, ditching procedures training using the appropriate equipment in water. Differences training and familiarisation training 135.03.4 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that a flight deck crew member completes differences training when (a) operating another variant of an aeroplane of the same type or another type at the same class currently operated; or (b) a change of equipment or procedures on types or variants currently operated, requires the acquisition of additional knowledge. (2) The operator shall ensure that a flight deck crew member completes familiarisation training when (a) operating another aeroplane of the same type or variant; or (b) a change of equipment or procedures on types or variants currently operated, requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.
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(3) The operator shall specify in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2 when differences training or familiarisation training is required. Upgrading to pilot-in-command 135.03.5 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that, for an upgrade to pilot-in-command from co-pilot, and for a pilot joining as pilot-in-command (a) a minimum level of experience is specified in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2; and (b) if multi-crew operations are contemplated, the co-pilot, as the case may be, completes an appropriate command course. (2) The command course referred to in subregulation (l)(b) shall be specified in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2 and shall include: training in a flight simulator or flying training in the aeroplane; an operator proficiency check operating as pilot-in-command; pilot-in-command responsibilities; operational in-command training under supervision; completion of a pilot-in-command check prescribed in Regulation 135.03.1(4) and, in the case of scheduled public air transport service options, the Recency, route and aerodrome qualifications prescribed in Regulation 135.02.4; and (f) if multi-crew operations are contemplated, flight deck crew resource management training as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135. Pilot-in-command holding commercial pilot licence 135.03.6 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(a) a holder of a commercial pilot licence does not operate as a pilot-in-command of an aeroplane certificated in the aeroplane flight manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.4 for single-pilot operations unless i. when conducting passenger carrying operations under VFR outside a radius of 50 nautical miles from an aerodrome of departure, the pilot has a minimum of 300 hours total flight time on aeroplanes or holds a valid instrument rating; or
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ii
when operating on a multi-engine type under IFR, the pilot has minimum of 400 hours total flight time on aeroplanes which includes 200 hours as pilot-in-command of which 100 hours have been under IFR including 40 hours multi-engine operation: Provided that the 200 hours as pilot-in-command may be substituted by hours operating as co-pilot on the basis of two hours co-pilot is equivalent to one hour as pilot-in-command: Provided further that these hours are gained within an established multi-pilot flight crew system prescribed in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2;
(b) In addition to paragraph (a)(ii), when operating under IFR as a single pilot, the requirements prescribed in Regulation 135.02.1(6) are complied with; (c) in multi-pilot flight crew operations, and prior to operating as pilot-in-command, the command course prescribed in Regulation 135.03.5(1) is completed. Recurrent training and checking 135.03.7 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that (a) each flight deck crew member undergoes recurrent training and checking and that all such training and checking is relevant to the type or variant of aeroplane on which the flight deck crew member is licensed to operate; (b) a recurrent training and checking programme is included in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2; (c) recurrent training is conducted by i. ii. iii iv a competent person, in the case of ground and refresher training; a type rated instructor, in the case of aeroplane or flight simulator training, competent personnel in the case of emergency and safety equipment training and checking; or competent personnel, in the case of flight deck crew resource management training;
(d) recurrent checking is conducted by i. ii an examiner in the case of operator proficiency checks; and a pilot-in-command designated by the operator in the case of operational checks; and
(e) when multi-crew operations are contemplated, each flight deck crew member undergoes operator proficiency checks every six calendar months as part of a normal flight deck crew complement.
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(2) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of the operator proficiency check referred to in subregulation (l)(e) (a) each flight deck crew member undergoes such checks to demonstrate his or her competence in carrying out normal, abnormal and emergency procedures; and (b) such check is conducted without external visual reference when the flight deck crew member will be required to operate under IFR. (3) Upon successful completion of the operator proficiency check referred to in subregulation (l)(e), the operator shall issue a certificate of competency to the flight deck crew member concerned, which certificate shall be valid for a period of six calendar months calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which such certificate is issued. (4) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of an operational check, each flight deck crew member undergoes the operational check on the aeroplane to demonstrate his or her competence in carrying out normal operations specified in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2. (5) Upon successful completion of the operational check referred to in subregulation (4), the operator shall issue a certificate of competency to the flight deck crew member concerned, which certificate shall be valid for a period of 12 calendar months calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which such certificate is issued. (6) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of emergency and safety equipment training and checking, each flight deck crew member undergoes training and checking on the location and use of all emergency and safety equipment carried. (7) Upon successful completion of the emergency and safety equipment check referred to in subregulation (6), the operator shall issue a certificate of competency to the flight deck crew member concerned, which certificate shall be valid for a period of 12 calendar months calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which such certificate is issued. (8) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of flight deck crew resource management training, each flight deck crew member undergoes such training as part of the recurrent training as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135. (9) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of ground and refresher training, each flight deck crew member undergoes training every 12 calendar months. Pilot qualification to operate in either pilot's seat 135.03.8 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that (a) a pilot to be assigned to operate in either pilot's seat, completes the appropriate training and checking; and (b) the training and checking programme is
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i. ii
specified in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2; and is undertaken in accordance with the appropriate syllabus as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135.
Advanced qualification programme 135.03.09 (1) The period of validity for the training referred to in Regulation 135.03.2 may be extended if the Commissioner has approved an advanced qualification programme established by the operator. The advanced qualification programme shall contain training and checking which establishes and maintains a proficiency that is not less than the proficiency referred to in Regulations 135.03.3(4), 135.03.4, 135.03.5 and 135.03.7. Division Three: Training of Other Flight Crew Members Training 135.03.10 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall provide, where applicable, an initial, recurrent and refresher training course for any (a) load master; (b) parachute dispatcher; or (c) other flight crew member essential to safe operations. The training course referred to in subregulation (1) shall be specified in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2.
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Documents to be retained on ground 135.04. 1 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) a copy of the operational flight plan; copies of the relevant parts of the flight folio; the load and trim sheet; the passenger list or cargo manifest; the special loads notification, if applicable; and
(f) a general declaration in the case of an aeroplane engaged in international flights, are retained in a safe place at the first point of departure in respect of each flight undertaken by the aeroplane. (2) The documents referred to in subregulation (1) shall be retained for a period of at least 90 days. Operations manual 13.04.2 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall draw up an operations manual containing all the information required under this part and setting out the manner in which such operator will operate the air service for which such operator is licenced in terms of the International Air Services Act, 1993 (Act No. 60 of 1993), or the Air Services Licencing Act, 1990 (Act No. 115 of 1990), as the case may be. (2) The operator shall submit the operations manual in duplicate to the Commissioner for approval. (3) If the Commissioner is satisfied that the operator (a) will comply with the provisions of Regulation 135.06.1; and (b) will not operate the air service concerned contrary to any provision of the Act, the International Air Services Act, 1993, the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990, or the Civil Aviation Offences Act, 1912 (Act No. 10 of 1972), the Commissioner shall certify in writing on both copies of the operations manual that such manual has been approved, and shall return one copy of the approved operations manual to the operator. (4) The operator shall submit an amendment to an approved operations manual in duplicate to the Commissioner for approval.
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(5) If the Commissioner is satisfied that the operator will comply with the provisions of subregulation (3)(a) and (b), the Commissioner shall certify in writing on both copies of the amendment to the approved operations manual that such amendment has been approved, and shall return one copy of the approved amendment to the operator. (6) The operator shall at all times operate the small commercial air transport aeroplane in accordance with the approved operations manual or a approved amendment thereto. (7) The operator shall(a) ensure that all operations personnel are able to understand the technical language used in those sections of the operations manual which pertain to their duties; (b) ensure that every flight is conducted in accordance with the operations manual and that those parts of the operations manual which are required for the conduct of a flight, are easily accessible to the flight crew members on board; (c) make the operations manual available for the use and guidance of operations personnel; (d) provide the flight crew members with their own personal copy of the sections of the operations manual which are relevant to the duties assigned to them; (e) keep the operations manual up to date; and (f) keep the operations manual in a safe place. (8) The contents of the operations manual shall not contravene the conditions contained in the operating certificate issued to the operator in terms of Regulation 121.06.3. (9) The structure and contents of the operations manual referred to in subregulation (1) shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135. Aeroplane operating manual 135.04.3 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall compile and make available an aeroplane operating manual for use by the flight crew members in such operator's employ. (2) manual shall contain (a) the normal, abnormal and emergency procedures relating to the aeroplane; (b) details of the aeroplane system; and (c) the checklists to be used by the flight crew members. (3) The operator shall provide each flight crew member with a copy of those parts of the aeroplane operating manual, which are relevant to the operational duties assigned to such flight crew member.
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(4) The operator shall ensure that the aeroplane operating manual is provided in a hard copy or in an approved electronic format. (5) The aeroplane operating manual shall be included in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2. Aeroplane flight manual 135.04.4 The aeroplane flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2 may be included in the aeroplane operating manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.3. Operational flight plan 135.04.5 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that, where practical, an operational flight plan is completed for each flight undertaken by the aeroplane. (2) The operational flight plan and its use shall be contained in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2. (3) All entries in the operational flight plan shall be current and permanent in nature. (4) The items to be contained in the operational flight plan shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135. (5) The operational flight plan shall be retained by the operator for a period of at least 90 days. Flight time and duty period records 135.04.6 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall -
(a) maintain current flight time and duty period records of all flight crew members in such operator's employ; and (b) retain the flight time and duty period records for a period of 15 calendar months calculated from the date of the last flight of each flight crew member. (2) A flight crew member in the part-time employ of an operator shall maintain his or her own flight time and duty period records and shall provide copies thereof to the operator to enable such operator to ensure that such flight crew member does not exceed the limits prescribed in the flight time and duty scheme of the operator referred to in Regulation 135.02.5.
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Records of emergency and survival equipment 135.04.7 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall compile a list of all the survival and emergency equipment to be carried in the aeroplane and shall have such list available at all times for immediate communication to rescue coordination centres. (2) The survival and emergency equipment list shall be included in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2. (3) The format and minimum information to be included in the survival and emergency equipment list shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135. Flight crew member training records 135.04.8 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall maintain the records of all training and proficiency checks undertaken by the flight crew members in such operator's employ, and such records shall incorporate certificates indicating the successful completion of such training and proficiency checks. (2) The operator shall retain the record of each flight deck crew member for a period of at least three years and the record of all other flight crew members for a period of at least 12 months from the date on which the flight crew member concerned has left the employ of such operator. (3) The certificates referred to in subregulation (1) shall be made available by the operator to the flight crew member concerned on request. Load and trim sheet 135.04.9 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane-
(a) registered in the Republic with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 1 600 kilograms, and which is operated into, within or from the Republic under i ii a Class I or Class II licence issued in terms of the Domestic Air Services Regulations, 1991; or a Class I or Class II licence issued in terms of the International Air Services Regulations, 1993; or
(b) registered in a foreign State and operated into, within or from the Republic underi ii a Class I or Class II licence issued in terms of the Domestic Air Services Regulations, 1991; or a foreign operator's permit issued in terms of the International Air Services Regulations, 1993, shall ensure that no flight is undertaken by the aeroplane unless the person superintending the loading of such aeroplane has completed and certified a load and trim sheet.
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(2) A load and trim sheet shall be completed in duplicate and one copy shall be carried in the aeroplane and one copy shall be retained in accordance with the provisions of Regulation 135.04.1 (3) The load and trim sheet shall be retained by the operator for a period of at least 90 days calculated from the date on which the flight was undertaken. (4) The minimum contents of a load and trim sheet shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135. Aeroplane checklist 135.04.10 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall, in addition to the aircraft checklist referred to in Regulation 91.03.3, compile and make available to the flight crew and other personnel members in such operator's employ, a checklist of the procedures to be followed by such flight crew and personnel members when searching for concealed weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices.
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SUBPART 5: AEROPLANE INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT
Approval of instruments and equipment 135.05.1 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that a flight does not commence unless the instruments and Equipment required under this subpart, or otherwise installed on the aeroplane, are (a) subject to the provisions of subregulation (2), approved and installed in accordance with the requirements, including operational and airworthiness requirements applicable to such instruments and equipment; and (b) in a condition for safe operation of the kind being conducted, except as provided for in the MEL. (2) The operator shall not be required to obtain approval for the (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) fuses referred to in Regulation 91.04.2; intrinsically safe electric torches referred to in Regulation 91.04.3(1)(d); accurate time piece referred to in regulations 91.04.4 and 91.04.5; first aid equipment referred to in Regulation 91.04. 16, survival equipment referred to in Regulation 91.04.29; and sea anchors and equipment for the mooring, anchoring or manoeuvring of seaplanes and amphibious aeroplanes on water, referred to in Regulation 91.04.30.
Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aeroplanes operated under VFR 135.05.2 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall not operate the aeroplane in accordance with VFR, unless such aeroplane is equipped with (a) a magnetic compass; (b) an accurate time-piece showing the time in hours, minutes and seconds; (c) a sensitive pressure altimeter with a subscale setting, calibrated in hectopascal, adjustable for any barometric pressure setting likely to be encountered during flight; (d) an airspeed indicator; (e) a vertical-speed indicator, (f) a turn-and-slip indicator or a turn co-ordinator incorporating a slip indicator; (g) an attitude indicator; (h) a stabilised direction indicator; and (i) a means of indicating on the flight deck the outside air temperature in degrees Celsius. (2) If two pilots are required to operate a small commercial air transport aeroplane, the second pilot's station shall be equipped with -
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(a) a sensitive pressure altimeter with a subscale setting calibrated in hectopascal, adjustable for any barometric pressure setting likely to be encountered during flight; (b) an airspeed indicator; (c) a vertical-speed indicator; (d) a turn-and-slip indicator or a turn co-ordinator, incorporating a slip indicator; (e) an attitude indicator, and (f) a stabilised direction indicator. (3) For flights, the duration of which does not exceed 60 minutes, which take off and land at the same aerodrome, and which remain within 25 nautical miles of such aerodrome, the instruments specified in subregulation (l)((f)), (g) and 01), and subregulation (2)(d:, (e) and (f), may be replaced by a turn-and-slip indicator, or a turn co-ordinator, incorporating a slip indicator, or both an attitude indicator and a slip indicator. (4) A small commercial air transport aeroplane being operated by night shall be equipped in accordance with the flight and navigation instruments referred to in Regulation 135.05.3. Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aeroplanes operated under IFR 135.05.3 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall not operate the aeroplane in accordance with IFR, unless such aeroplane is equipped with (a) a magnetic compass; (b) an accurate time-piece showing the time in hours, minutes and seconds; (c) two sensitive pressure altimeters with subscale settings, calibrated in hectopascal, adjustable for any barometric pressure setting likely to be encountered during flight; (d) an airspeed indicator system with heated pitot tube or equivalent means for preventing malfunctioning due to either condensation or icing, including a warning indicator of pitot heater failure; (e) a vertical-speed indicator; (f) a turn-and-slip indicator, or a turn co-ordinator, incorporating a slip indicator; (g) an attitude indicator; (h) a stabilised direction indicator, (i) a means of indicating on the flight deck the outside air temperature in degrees Celsius; and (j) an alternate source of static pressure for the altimeter and the airspeed and vertical-speed indicators. (2) If two pilots are required to operate a small commercial air transport aeroplane, the second pilot's station shall be equipped with -
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(a) a sensitive pressure altimeter with a subscale setting, calibrated in hectopascal, adjustable for any barometric pressure setting likely to be encountered during flight, which may be one of the two altimeters required under subregulation (l)(c); (b) an airspeed indicator system with heated pitot tube or equivalent means for preventing malfunction due to either condensation or icing including a warning indicator of pitot heater failure; (c) a vertical-speed indicator, (d) a turn-and-slip indicator or a turn co-ordinator incorporating a slip indicator, (e) an attitude indicator; and (f) a stabilised direction indicator. Altitude alerting system 135.05.4 The operator of a small turbojet-powered commercial air transport aeroplane shall not operate the aeroplane unless such aeroplane is equipped with an altitude alerting system capable of(a) alerting the flight deck crew members upon approaching preselected altitude in either ascent or descent in sufficient time to establish level flight at such preselected altitude; and (b) alerting the flight deck crew members when deviating above or below a preselected altitude by at least an aural signal. Airborne weather radar equipment 135.05.5 (1) The operator of a small pressurised commercial air transport aeroplane shall not operate the aeroplane unless such aeroplane is equipped with airborne weather radar equipment whenever such aeroplane is being operated by night or in IMC in areas where thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous weather conditions, regarded as detectable with airborne weather radars, may be expected to exist along the route. (2) The Commissioner may, in the case of a propeller-driven pressurised small commercial air transport aeroplane, approve the replacement of the airborne weather radar equipment referred to in subregulation (1) with other equipment capable of detecting thunderstorms and other potentially hazardous weather conditions, regarded as detectable with airborne weather radar equipment. Flight deck crew interphone system 135.05.6 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane on which more than one flight deck crew member is required, shall not operate the aeroplane unless such aeroplane is equipped with a flight deck crew interphone system, including headsets and microphones, not of a hand-held type, for use by all flight deck crew members.
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Means for emergency evacuation 135.05.7 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane with passenger emergency exit sill heights (a) which are more than 1,83 metres above the ground with the aeroplane on the ground and the landing gear extended; or (b) which will be more than 1,83 metres above the ground after the collapse of, or failure to extend one or more legs of the landing gear and for which a type certificate was first applied for on or after 1 March 1998, shall not operate the aeroplane unless such aeroplane has equipment or devices available at each exit to enable passengers and flight crew members to reach the ground safely in an emergency. (2) The equipment or devices referred to in subregulation (1) need not be provided at overwing exits if the designated place on the aeroplane structure at which the escape route terminates, is less than 1,83 metres from the ground with the aeroplane on the ground, the landing gear extended and the flaps in the take-off or landing position, whichever flap position is higher from the ground. (3) In an aeroplane required to have a separate emergency exit for the flight deck crew and (a) for which the lowest point of the emergency exit is more than 1,83 metres above the ground with the landing gear extended; or (b) for which a type certificate was first applied for on or after 1 March 1998, and for which the lowest point of the emergency exit will be more than 1,83 metres above the ground after the collapse of, or failure to extend one or more legs of the landing gear, there shall be a device to assist the flight deck crew members in reaching the ground safely in an emergency.
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SUBPART 6: OPERATING CERTIFICATE
Operating certificate 135.06.1 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall not operate the aeroplane unless such operator is the holder of a valid (a) licence issued in terms of the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990, or the International Air Services Act, 1993; and (b) operating certificate issued in terms of Regulation 135.06.3. Application for operating certificate 135.06.2 An application for an operating certificate shall be made to the Commissioner in the appropriate form as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135 and shall be accompanied by the appropriate fee as prescribed in Part 187. Adjudication of application for operating certificate 135.06.3 (1) In considering an application referred to in Regulation 135.06.2 the Commissioner may conduct the investigation he or she deems necessary. (2) An application shall be granted and the operating certificate issued if the Commissioner is satisfied that (a) the applicant will comply with the provisions of Regulation 135.06.1; and (b) the applicant will not operate the air service concerned contrary to any provision of the Act, the Civil Aviation Offences Act, 1972, the International Air Services Act, 1993, or the Air Service Licensing Act, 1990. (3) If the Commissioner is not so satisfied he or she shall notify the operator thereof, stating the reasons in the notification, and grant the operator the opportunity to rectify or supplement any defect within the period determined by the Commissioner, after which period the Commissioner shall grant or refuse the application concerned. (4) An operating certificate shall be issued on the appropriate form as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135, under such conditions which the Commissioner may determine. Period of validity of operating certificate 135.06.4 (1) An operating certificate shall be valid for such period as may be determined by the Commissioner: Provided that such period shall not exceed a period of 12 months from the date of issuing thereof.
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(2) If the holder of an operating certificate applies at least 30 days prior to the expiry thereof for a new operating certificate, that first-mentioned operating certificate shall, notwithstanding the provisions of subregulation (1), remain in force until such holder is notified by the Commissioner of the result of the application for the issuing of a new operating certificate. Safety inspections and audits 135.06.5 (1) An applicant for the Issuing of an operating certificate shall permit an authorised officer, inspector or authorised person to carry out such safety inspections and audits which may be necessary to verify the validity of an application made in terms of Regulation 135.06.2. (2) The holder of an operating certificate shall permit an authorised officer, inspector or authorised person to carry out such safety inspections and audits which may be necessary to determine compliance with the appropriate requirements prescribed in this part. Suspension and cancellation of operating certificate and appeal 135.06.6 (1) An authorised officer, inspector or authorised person may suspend for a period not exceeding 30 days, an operating certificate issued under this subpart, if(a) after a safety inspection and audit carried out in terms of Regulation 135.06.5, it is evident that the holder of the operating certificate does not comply with the requirements prescribed in this part, and such holder fails to remedy such noncompliance within 30 days after receiving notice in writing from the authorised officer, inspector or authorised person to do so; or (b) the authorised officer, inspector or authorised person is prevented by the holder of the operating certificate to carry out a safety inspection and audit in terms of Regulation 135.06.5; or (c) the suspension is necessary in the interests of aviation safety. (2) The authorised officer, inspector or authorised person who has suspended an operating certificate in terms of subregulation (1), shall deliver a report in writing to the Commissioner, stating the reasons why, in his or her opinion, the suspended operating certificate should be cancelled. (3) The authorised officer, inspector or authorised person concerned shall submit a copy of the report referred to in subregulation (2), to the holder of the operating certificate which has been suspended, and shall furnish proof of such submission for the information of the Commissioner. (4) The holder of an operating certificate who feels aggrieved by the suspension of the operating certificate may appeal against such suspension to the Commissioner, within 30 days after such holder becomes aware of such suspension. (5) An appellant shall deliver an appeal in writing, stating the reasons why, in his, her or its opinion, the suspension should be varied or set aside.
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(6) The appellant shall submit a copy of the appeal and any documents or records supporting such appeal, to the authorised officer, inspector or authorised person concerned and shall furnish proof of such submission for the information of the Commissioner. (7) The authorised officer, inspector or authorised person concerned may, within 30 days of receipt of the copy of the appeal referred to in subregulation(6) deliver his or her written reply to such appeal to the Commissioner. (8) The Commissioner may (a) adjudicate the appeal on the basis of the documents submitted to him or her; or (b) order the appellant and the authorised officer, inspector or authorised person concerned to appear before him or her, either in person or through a representative, at a time and place determined by him or her, to give evidence, (9) The Commissioner may confirm, vary or set aside the suspension referred to in subregulation (1). (10) The Commissioner shall
(a) if he or she confirms the suspension in terms of subregulation (9), or (b) if an operating certificate is suspended in terms of subregulation (1) and the holder thereof does not appeal against such suspension in terms of subregulation (4), cancel the operating certificate concerned. Duties of holder of operating certificate 135.06.7 The holder of an operating certificate shall
(a) notify the Commissioner in the manner as prescribed in Document SA-CATSOPS 135 before any change is effected to the particulars on the operating certificate; (b) keep the operating certificate in a safe place and produce such operating certificate to an authorised officer, inspector or authorised person for inspection if so requested by such officer, inspector or person; and (c) not commence or continue with the air service concerned unless such holder is the holder of a valid operating certificate. Register of operating certificates 135.06.8 (1) The Commissioner shall maintain a register of all operating certificates issued in terms of the regulations in this part.
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The register shall contain the following particulars: the full name and, if any, the trade name of the holder of the operating certificate; the postal address of the holder of the operating certificate; the number of the operating certificate issued to the holder; particulars of the type of air service for which the operating certificate is issued; particulars of the category of aeroplane for which the operating certificate was issued; and (g) the date on which the operating certificate was issued. (3) The particulars referred to in subregulation (2) shall be recorded in the register within 30 days from the date on which the operating certificate was issued by the Commissioner. (4) The register shall be kept in a safe place at the office of the Commissioner. (5) A copy of the register shall be furnished by the Commissioner, on payment of the appropriate fee as prescribed in Part 187, to any person who requests the copy.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f)
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Routes and areas of operation 135.07.1 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that operations are only conducted along such routes or within such areas, for which (a) in the case of scheduled public air transport service operations i ii ground facilities and services, including meteorological services, are provided which are adequate for the planned operation; and appropriate maps and charts are available;
(b) approval or authorisation has been obtained, where required, from the appropriate authority concerned; (c) if a twin-engine aeroplane is used, adequate aerodromes are available within the time or distance limitations as prescribed in Document SA CATS-OPS 135; and (d) if a single-engine aeroplane Is used, surfaces are available which permit a safe forced landing to be executed. (2) The operator shall ensure that (a) the performance of the aeroplane intended to be used, is adequate to comply with minimum flight altitude requirements; and (b) the equipment of the aeroplane intended to be used, complies with the minimum requirements for the planned operation. Establishment of procedures 135.07.2 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall (a) establish procedures and instructions, for each aeroplane type, containing ground personnel and flight crew member's duties for all types of operations on the ground and in flight; (b) establish a checklist system to be used by flight deck crew members for all phases of operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions, to ensure that the operating procedures in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2, are followed; and (c) ensure that flight crew members do not perform any activities during critical phases of the flight other than those required for the safe operation of the aeroplane. Operational control and supervision 135.07.3 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall exercise operational control and establish and maintain an approved method of supervision of flight operations.
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Competence of operations personnel 135.07.4 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that all personnel assigned to, or directly involved in ground and flight operations, are properly instructed, have demonstrated their abilities in their particular duties and are aware of their responsibilities and the relationship of such duties to the operation as a whole. Use of air traffic services 135.07.5 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that air traffic services are used for all flights whenever available. Minimum flight altitudes 135.07.6 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall establish minimum flight altitudes and the methods to determine such minimum flight altitudes for all route segments to be flown which provide the required terrain clearance, taking into account the operating limitations referred to in subpart 8 and the minimum altitudes prescribed in subpart 6 of Part 91. (2) The operator shall take into account the following factors when establishing minimum flight altitudes: (a) The accuracy with which the position of the aeroplane can be determined; (b) the possible inaccuracies in the indications of the altimeters used; (c) the characteristics of the terrain along the routes or in the areas where operations are to be conducted; (d) the probability of encountering unfavourable meteorological conditions; and (e) possible inaccuracies in aeronautical charts. (3) In complying with the provisions of subregulation (2), the operator shall give due consideration to (a) corrections for temperature and pressure variations from standard values; (b) the air traffic control requirements; and (c) any contingencies which may occur along the planned route. Aerodrome operating minima 135.07.7 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall establish aerodrome operating minima in accordance with the provisions of subregulations (2), (3) and (4) and in conjunction with the instrument approach and landing charts for each aerodrome intended to be used either as destination or alternate aerodrome. (2) The operator shall establish. aerodrome operating minima for each aerodrome planned to be used, which shall not be lower than the values as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135.
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(3) The method of determining aerodrome operating minima shall be approved by the Commissioner. (4) The aerodrome operating minima established by the operator shall not be lower than any aerodrome operating minima established by the appropriate authority of the State in which the aerodrome concerned is located: Provided that if such appropriate authority approves such lower aerodrome operating minima established by the operator, the lower aerodrome operating minima shall apply. Smoking in aeroplane 135.07.8 No person shall smoke in a South African registered aeroplane when such aeroplane is used in a scheduled air transport service operation and has departed from and will be landing within the Republic. Fuel policy 135.07.9 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall establish a fuel policy for the purpose of flight planning and in-flight replanning to ensure that every flight carries sufficient fuel for the planned operation and reserve fuel to cover deviations from the planned operation. (2) The operator shall ensure that the planning of a flight is only based upon(a) procedures, tables or graphs which are contained in or derived from the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2, or current aeroplanespecific data; (b) the operating conditions under which the flight is to be conducted including i ii iii iv realistic aeroplane fuel consumption data; anticipated masses; expected meteorological conditions; and air traffic service procedures and restrictions.
(3) The operator shall ensure that the calculation of usable fuel required by such aeroplane for a flight includes (a) taxi fuel; (b) trip fuel; (c) reserve fuel consisting of i ii iii iv v contingency fuel as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135; alternate fuel, if a destination alternate aerodrome is required; two-hours island holding fuel in situations where the destination aerodrome is remote or no suitable alternate aerodrome exists; final reserve fuel; additional fuel, if required by the type of operation; and
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(d) extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command. (4) The operator shall ensure that in-flight replanning procedures for calculating usable fuel required when a flight has to proceed along a route or to a destination aerodrome other than originally planned includes (a) trip fuel for the remainder of the flight; (b) reserve fuel consisting of i ii iii iv contingency fuel; alternate fuel, if a destination alternate aerodrome is required, including selection of the departure aerodrome as the destination alternate aerodrome; final reserve fuel; and additional fuel, if required by the type of operation; and extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command.
Fuel and oil supply 135.07.10 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall establish a procedure to ensure that in-flight fuel checks and fuel management are carried out. Instrument approach and departure procedures 135.07.11 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane may implement instrument approach and departure procedures, other than instrument approach and departure procedures referred to in Regulation 91.07.16(1), if required: Provided that such instrument approach and departure procedures have been approved by (a) the appropriate authority of the State in which the aerodrome to be used, is located; and (b) the Commissioner. Noise abatement procedures 135.07.12 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall establish operating procedures for noise abatement. (2) Take-off and climb procedures for noise abatement specified by the operator for any one aeroplane type shall be the same for all aerodromes. Carriage of infants and children 135.07.13 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that an infant is only carried when properly secured with a child restraint device or in the arms or on the lap of an adult passenger.
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(2) Infants shall not be seated in front of exits. (3) Infants shall not be carried behind a bulkhead unless a child restraint device is used during critical phases of flight and during turbulence. (4) When an infant is carried in the arms or on the lap of a passenger, the seat belt, when required to be worn, shall be fastened around the passenger carrying or nursing the infant, but not around the infant. (5) When an infant is carried in the arms or on the lap of a passenger on a small commercial air transport aeroplane, the name of the infant shall be bracketed on the passenger list with the name of the person carrying or nursing the infant. (6) An infant may be seated in a car-type infant seat, approved for use in an aeroplane, provided it is secured to the aeroplane seat. (7) A car-type infant seat referred to in subregulation (6) shall not be located in the same row or a row directly forward or aft of an emergency exit. Carriage of passengers with disability 135.07.14 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall establish procedures, including identification, seating positions and handing in the event of an emergency, for the carriage of passengers with a disability. (2) The operator shall ensure that (a) the pilot-in-command of the aeroplane is notified when a passenger with a disability is to be carried on board; (b) a passenger with a disability Is not seated in the same row or a row directly forward or aft of an emergency exit; (c) individual briefings on emergency procedures are given to a passenger with a disability and his or her able-bodied assistant, appropriate to the needs of such passenger; and (d) the person giving the briefing shall enquire as to the most appropriated manner of assisting the passenger with a disability so as to prevent pain or injury to such passenger. (3) In the case of the carriage of a stretcher patient in the aeroplane (a) the stretcher shall be secured in such aeroplane so as to prevent it from moving under the maximum accelerations likely to be experienced in flight and in an emergency alighting such as ditching; (b) the patient shall be secured by an approved harness to the stretcher or aeroplane structure; and (c) an able-bodied assistant shall accompany each stretcher patient.
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(4) A mentally disturbed person shall not be carried in the aeroplane unless (a) accompanied by an able-bodied assistant; and (b) a medical certificate has been issued by a medical practitioner certifying such mentally disturbed person's suitability for carriage by air, and confirming that there is no risk of violence from such person. (5) The operator shall undertake the carriage of a mentally disturbed person who, according to his or her medical history, may become violent, only after special permission has been obtained from the Commissioner by such operator. (6) A passenger with a splinted or artificial limb may travel unaccompanied provided he or she is able to assist himself or herself. (7) The affected limb or supporting aids of a passenger referred to in subregulation (6) shall not obstruct an aisle or any emergency exit or equipment. (8) If a passenger with a splinted or artificial limb cannot assist himself or herself then he or she shall be accompanied by an able-bodied assistant. Limitations of carriage of infants, children and passengers with disability 135.07.15 (1) Only one passenger with a disability or one unaccompanied minor may be carried in a small commercial air transport aeroplane. (2) An able-bodied assistant shall accompany a passenger with a disability who cannot assist himself or herself, and such assistant shall be assigned with the responsibility of the safety of such passenger. (3) The operator may establish procedures, other than the procedures referred to in subregulations (1) and (2), for the carriage of infants, children, and passengers with a disability: Provided that such procedures (a) do not jeopardise aviation safety; and (b) prior written approval is obtained from the Commissioner. Carriage of inadmissible passengers, deportees or persons in custody 135.07.16 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall establish procedures for the carriage of inadmissible passengers, deportees or persons in custody to ensure the safety of the aeroplane and its occupants. (2) The pilot-in-command of the aeroplane shall be notified by the operator of such aeroplane prior to departure, of the intended carriage, and the reason for carriage, of any of the persons referred to in subregulation (1).
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(3) For the purposes of this regulation, "inadmissible passenger" means any person who is not entitled to board the aeroplane and includes those persons who are not in the possession of a valid passenger ticket, passport or visa. Carry-on baggage 135.07.17 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall establish adequate procedures to ensure that only such baggage is carried onto the aeroplane and taken into the passenger cabin as can be adequately and securely stowed. (2) The minimum requirements for the procedures referred to in subregulation (1) shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135. Securing of passenger cabin and galley 135.07.18 (1) Before take-off and landing and whenever deemed necessary in the interests of aviation safety, the pilot-in-command of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that (a) all equipment, baggage and loose articles in the cabin of the aeroplane, including passenger service items and flight crew members' and passengers' personal effects, are properly secured and stowed so as to avoid the possibility of injury to persons or damage to such aeroplane through the movement of such articles caused by in-flight turbulence or by unusual accelerations or manoeuvres; and all aisles, passage ways, exits and escape paths are kept clear of obstructions. (b) All solid articles shall be placed in approved stowage areas in the aeroplane, at all time whenever the seat belt lights are illuminated or when so directed by the pilot-in-command of such aeroplane. (3) For the purposes of subregulation (2), "approved stowage area means (a) the area under a passenger seat; or (b) a locker, overhead; or other, utilised in accordance with the placard mass limitation of the locker. (4) No take-off or landing shall be commenced by the pilot-in-command of the aeroplane, unless he or she has been informed of the safe condition of the cabin. Passenger services 135.07.19 (1) Except when in use, all items for passenger services, including food containers, thermos flasks and servicing trays, shall be carried in their respective stowages and secured against movements likely to cause injury to persons or damage to the aeroplane. (2) All items referred to in subregulation (1) shall be stowed during take-off and landing or during emergency situations, as directed by the pilot-in-command of the aeroplane.
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(3) Any item which cannot be accommodated in the stowage, referred to in subregulation (1), shall not be permitted in the cabin of the aeroplane. (4) Securing of the cabin shall be completed before the approach for landing of the aeroplane is commenced. (5) If passenger services are provided while the aeroplane is on the ground, no passenger service equipment shall obstruct the aisles or exits of the aeroplane Incidents and defects 135.07.20 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall establish adequate inspection and reporting procedures to ensure that defective equipment are reported to the pilot-in-command of the aeroplane before take-off. (2) The procedures referred to in subregulation (1) shall be extended to include the reporting to the operator of all incidents or the exceeding of limitations that may occur while the flight crew are embarked on the aeroplane and of defective equipment found on board. (3) Upon receipt of the reports referred to in subregulation (2), the operator shall compile a report and submit such report on a monthly basis to the Commissioner.
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SUBPART 8: AEROPLANE PERFORMANCE OPERATING LIMITATIONS
Classification 135.08.1 (1) The classification of aeroplanes for performance limitation purposes is prescribed in Regulation 91.09.4 (2) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that(a) a Class A aeroplane is operated in accordance with the performance operating limitations prescribed in Division One; (b) a Class B aeroplane is operated in accordance with the performance operating limitation prescribed in Division Two; and (c) a Class D aeroplane is operated in accordance with the performance limitations prescribed in Division Three. (3) Where specific design characteristics of an aeroplane prevents the compliance with the regulations in Division One, Two or Three of this subpart, the operator shall, notwithstanding the provisions of subregulation (2), ensure that the aeroplane is operated in accordance with such standard that a level of safety equivalent to the level of safety prescribed in the appropriate Division in this subpart is maintained. General provisions for all classes of aeroplanes 135.08.2 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that the mass of the aeroplane, at the start of the take-off, is not greater than the mass at which the requirements prescribed in the appropriate Division can be complied with for the flight to be undertaken, allowing for expected reductions in mass as the flight proceeds. (2) The operator shall ensure that the approved performance data contained in the aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4, is used to determine compliance with the requirements prescribed in the appropriate Division supplemented as necessary with other approved data prescribed in the appropriate Division. (3) A twin-engine propeller-driven small commercial air transport aeroplane which does not comply with the requirements as prescribed in Document SA-CATSOPS 135 for take-off and landing shall, for the purposes of this subpart, be deemed to be a single-engine aeroplane, to be operated in accordance with the performance operating limitations prescribed in Division Three.
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Division One: Class A Aeroplane General 135.08.3 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane shall ensure that, for determining compliance with the requirements prescribed in this Division, the approved performance data in the aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4, is supplemented as necessary with other approved data if the approved performance data in such aeroplane flight manual are insufficient in respect of(a) accounting for reasonably expected adverse operating conditions such as takeoff and landing on contaminated runways, and (b) consideration of engine failure in all flight phases. (2) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of a wet and contaminated runway, performance data determined in accordance with an approved method is used. Take-off 135.08.4 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane shall ensure that the take off mass of the aeroplane does not exceed the maximum certificated mass for the pressure altitude and the ambient temperature at the aerodrome of departure. (a) The operator shall comply with the following requirements when determining the maximum permitted take-off mass of the aeroplane at the aerodrome of departure: (b) The required accelerate-stop distance shall not exceed the accelerate-stop distance available; (c) the required take-off distance shall not exceed the take-off distance available, with a clearway distance not exceeding half of the take-off run available; (d) the required take-off run shall not exceed the take-off run available; (e) compliance with the provisions of this subregulation shall be shown using a single value of V1 for the rejected and continued take-off; and (f) on a wet or contaminated runway, the take-off mass shall not exceed the take-off mass permitted for a take-off on a dry runway under the same conditions . (2) When determining the maximum permitted take-off mass prescribed in subregulation (2), the operator shall take account of (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h) i. the pressure altitude at the aerodrome; the ambient temperature at the aerodrome; the runway surface condition and the type of runway surface; the runway slope in the direction of take-off; Brake energy; tyre-speed limit; pilot reaction time; not more than 50 per cent of the reported head-wind component or not less than 150 per cent of the reported tail-wind component; and the loss, if any, of runway length due to alignment of the aeroplane prior to takeoff.
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Net take-off flight path 135.08.5 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles by a vertical distance of at least 35 feet or by a horizontal distance of at least 90 metres plus 0.125 x D, where D is the horizontal distance the aeroplane has travelled from the end of the take-off distance available. (2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), the operator shall take account of (a) (b) (c) (d) the mass of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-off run, the pressure altitude of the aerodrome; the ambient temperature at the aerodrome; and not more than 50 per cent of the reported head-wind component or not less than 150 per cent of the reported tail-wind component.
(3) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), track changes shall not be allowed up to the point on the net take-off path where a height of 50 feet above the take-off surface has been achieved and thereafter, up to a height of 400 feet, it is assumed that the aeroplane is banked by not more than 15 : Provided that(a) above 400 feet, height bank angles greater than 15 , but not more than 25 , may be scheduled; and (b) adequate allowance is made for the effect of bank angle on operating speeds and flight path, including the distance increments resulting from increased operating speeds. (4) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1) in those cases where the intended flight path does not require track changes of more than 15 , the operator shall not be required to consider those obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than (a) 300 metres, if the pilot is able to maintain the required navigation accuracy through the obstacle accountability area; or (b) 600 metres, for flights under all other conditions. When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1) in those cases where the intended flight path does not require track changes of more than 15 , the operator shall not be required to consider those obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than (a) 600 metres if the pilot is able to maintain the required navigation accuracy through the obstacle accountability area; or (b) 900 metres for flights under all other conditions.
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6. The operator shall establish contingency procedures to satisfy the requirements prescribed in this regulation in order to provide a safe route avoiding obstacles to enable the aeroplane to land safely at the aerodrome of departure or at a take-off alternate aerodrome, if so required. En route with one engine inoperative 135.08.6 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane shall demonstrate that the oneengine inoperative en route net flight path data for the aeroplane shown in the aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4, appropriate to the meteorological conditions expected for the flight, complies with subregulation (2) or (3) at all points along the planned route. (2) The net flight path shall have a positive slope at 1 500 feet above the aerodrome, where the landing is assumed to be made after engine failure. (3) At altitudes and under meteorological conditions where icing protection systems shall be operated, the effect of the use of such icing protection systems on the net flight path shall be taken into account. (4) The slope of the net flight path shall be positive at an altitude of at least 1 000 feet above all terrain and obstructions along the route within 10 nautical miles on either side of the intended track. (5) The net flight path shall permit the aeroplane to continue flight from the cruising altitude to an aerodrome where a landing can be made in accordance with Regulation 135.08.8 or 135.08.9, as the case may be, the net flight path clearing vertically, by at least 2 000 feet, all terrain and obstructions along the route within 10 nautical miles on either side of the intended track in accordance with the provisions of subregulations (1) to (4). Provided that (a) the engine is assumed to fail at the most critical point along the route, and allowance is made for indecision and navigation error; (b) account is taken of the effects of winds on the flight path; and (c) the aerodrome where the aeroplane is assumed to land after engine failure, complies with the following criteria: i ii The performance requirements at the expected landing mass are complied with; and weather reports and forecasts, or any combination thereof, and field condition reports indicate that a safe landing can be accomplished at the estimated time of arrival.
(6) When complying with the provisions of this regulation, the operator may reduce the width margins referred to in subregulations (4) and (5), to five nautical miles if the required navigation accuracy can be achieved.
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Landing at destination and alternate aerodromes 135.08.7 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane shall ensure that the landing mass of the aeroplane, determined in accordance with the provisions of Regulation 135.08.2(1), does not exceed the maximum landing mass specified for the altitude and the ambient temperature expected for the estimated time of landing at the destination and alternate aerodrome. (2) For instrument approaches with decision heights below 200 feet, the operator shall verify that the approach mass of the aeroplane, taking into account the takeoff mass and the fuel expected to be consumed in flight, allows a missed approach gradient of climb of at least 2,5 per cent in the approach configuration with one engine inoperative, or an approved alternative procedure. Landing on dry runways 135.08.8 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane shall ensure that the landing mass of the aeroplane determined in accordance with the provisions of Regulation 135.08.2(1) for the estimated time of landing, allows a full-stop landing from 50 feet above the threshold within 70 per cent of the landing distance available at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome: Provided that the Commissioner may permit the use of a screen height of less than 5O feet, but not less than 35 feet, for steep-approach and short-landing procedures. (2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), the operator shall take account of(a) the pressure altitude at the aerodrome; and (b) not more than 50 per cent of the reported head-wind component or not less than 150 per cent of the reported tail-wind component. (3) For dispatching the aeroplane in accordance with subregulation (1), it shall be assumed that (a) such aeroplane will land on the most favourable runway, in still air; and (b) such aeroplane will land on the runway most likely to be assigned considering the probable wind speed and direction and the ground handling characteristics of the aeroplane, and considering other conditions such as landing aids and terrain. (4) If the operator is unable to comply with the provisions of subregulation (3)(b) for the destination aerodrome, the aeroplane may be dispatched if an alternate aerodrome is designed which permits full compliance with the provisions of subregulations (1), (2) and (3).
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Landing on wet and contaminated runways 135.08.9 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane shall ensure that, when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runway at the estimated time of arrival may be wet, the landing distance available is at least 115 per cent of the required landing distance determined in accordance with the provisions of Regulation 135.08.8. (2) The operator shall ensure that, when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runway at the estimated time of arrival may be contaminated, the landing distance available must be at least the landing distance determined in accordance with the provisions of subregulation (1) or at least 115 per cent of the landing distance determined in accordance with approved contaminated landing distance data or an equivalent thereof, whichever is the greater. (3) A landing distance on a wet runway shorter than the landing distance required by the provisions of subregulation (1), but not less than the landing distance required by the provisions of Regulation 135.08.8(1), may be used if the aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4 includes specific additional information on landing distances on wet runways.
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Division Two: Class B Aeroplane General 135.08.10 The regulations in this Division shall apply to
(a) the operator of a Class A aeroplane which does not comply with the performance operating instruction prescribed in Division One on the date of commencement of the Regulations, and who may, until 30 June 1998, operate the aeroplane under performance operating limitations approved by the Commissioner: Provided that such limitations shall not be less restrictive than the performance operating instructions prescribed in this Division; and (b) the operator of a Class B aeroplane. Take-off 135.08.11 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane prescribed in Regulation 135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall ensure that the take-off mass of the aeroplane does not exceed the maximum certificated mass for the pressure altitude and the ambient temperature at the aerodrome of departure. (2) The operator shall ensure that the take-off distance, as specified in the aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4, multiplied by a factor of 1.3, does not exceed the take-off run available. (3) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (2), the operator shall take account of(a) the mass of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-off run, and (b) the requirements prescribed in Regulation 135.08.4(3) Take-off flight path 135.08.12 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane prescribed in Regulation 135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall ensure that the take-off flight path of the aeroplane clears all obstacles by a vertical margin of at least 295 feet plus 0,125 x D, where D is the horizontal distance the aeroplane has travelled from the end of the take-off distance available except as prescribed in subregulations (3) and (4). (2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), it shall be assumed that (a) the take-off flight path begins at a height of 50 feet above the take-off surface at the end of the take-off distance prescribed in Regulation 135.08.11(2) and ends at a height of 1 500 feet above the take-off surface; (b) the aeroplane is not banked before such aeroplane has reached a height of 50 feet above the take-off surface, and that thereafter the angle of the bank does not exceed 15 ;
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(c) failure of the critical engine occurs at the point of the all-engines take-off flight path where the loss of visual reference for the purpose of avoiding obstacles is expected to occur; (d) the gradient of the take-off flight path from 50 feet to the assumed engine-failure height is equal to the average all-engines gradient during climb and transition to the en route configuration, multiplied by a factor of 0,77; and (e) the gradient of the take-off flight path from the height reached in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (d) to the end of the take-off flight path, is equal to the one-engine-inoperative en route climb gradient shown in the aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4. (3) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), in those cases where the intended flight path does not require track changes of more than 15 , the operator need not consider obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than(a) 300 metres, if the flight is conducted under conditions allowing visual course guidance navigation, or if navigation aids or available enabling the pilot to maintain the intended flight path with the same accuracy; and (b) 600 metres for flights under all other conditions. (4) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1),in those cases where the intended flight path requires heading changes of more than 15 , an operator need not consider obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than (a) 600 metres for nights under conditions allowing visual course guidance navigation; or (b) 900 metres for flights under all other conditions. (5) When complying with the provisions of this regulation, an operator shall take account of the requirements prescribed in Regulation 135.08.5(2). En route 135.08.13 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane prescribed in Regulation 135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall be able to demonstrate that the aeroplane, in the meteorological conditions expected for the flight, and in the event of the failure of one engine, with the remaining engine or engines operating within the maximum continuous power conditions specified, is capable of continuing flight at or above the relevant minimum altitudes for safe flight stated in the operations manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.2, to a point 1 000 feet above an aerodrome at which the performance requirements can be complied with. (2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1) (a) the aeroplane shall be assumed not to be flying at an altitude exceeding the altitude at which the rate of climb equals 300 feet per minute with all engines operating within the maximum continuous power conditions specified in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2; and
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(b) the assumed en route gradient with one-engine-inoperative shall be the gross gradient minus 0,5 per cent gradient. Landing at destination and alternate aerodromes 135.08.14 The operator of a Class A aeroplane prescribed in Regulation 135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall ensure that the landing mass of the aeroplane does not exceed the maximum landing mass specified for the altitude and the ambient temperature expected for the estimated time of arrival at the destination and alternate aerodrome. Landing on dry runways 135.08.15 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane prescribed in Regulation 135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall ensure that the landing mass of the aeroplane for the estimated time of arrival, allows a full-stop landing from 50 feet above the threshold within 70 per cent of the landing distance available at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome: Provided that the Commissioner may permit the use of a screen height of less than 50 feet, but not less than 35 feet, for steep-approach and short-landing procedures. (2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), the operator shall take account of(a) the runway surface condition and the type of runway surface; (b) the runway slope in the direction of take-off; and (c) the requirements referred to in Regulation 135.08.8(2)(a) and (b). (3) For dispatching the aeroplane in accordance with the provisions of subregulation (1), it shall be assumed that (a) such aeroplane will land on the most favourable runway, in still air; and (b) such aeroplane will land on the runway most likely to be assigned considering the probable wind speed and direction and the ground handling characteristics of the aeroplane, and considering landing aids and terrain. (4) If the operator is unable to comply with the provisions of subregulation 30(b) for the destination aerodrome, the aeroplane may be dispatched if an alternate aerodrome is designated which permits full compliance with the provisions of subregulations (1), (2) and (3). Landing on wet and contaminated runways 135.8.16 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane prescribed in Regulation 135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall ensure that, when the appropriated weather reports or forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runway at the estimated time of arrival may be wet, the landing distance available is at least 115 per cent of the required landing distance determined in accordance with the provisions of Regulation 135.08.15.
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(2) The operator shall ensure that, when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runway at the estimated time of arrival may be contaminated, the landing distance available is at least the required approved landing distance. (3) A landing distance on a wet runway shorter than the landing distance required by the provisions of subregulation (1), but not less than the landing distance required by the provisions of Regulation 135.08.15(1), may be used if the aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4, includes specified additional information on landing distances on wet runways.
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Division 3: Class D Aeroplane General 135.08.17 The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall not operate the aeroplane -
(a) by night; or (b) in IMC except under special VFR or under special conditions as approved by the Commissioner. Take-off 135.08.18 (1) The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall ensure that the take-off mass of the aeroplane does not exceed the maximum certificated mass for the pressure altitude and the ambient temperature at the aerodrome of departure. (2) The operator shall ensure that the take-off distance, as specified in the aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4, multiplied by a factor of 1.3, does not exceed the take-off run available. (3) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (2), the operator shall take account of (a) the mass of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-off run; and (b) the requirements prescribed in Regulation 135.08.4(3). Take-off flight path 135.08.19 (1) The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall ensure that the take-off flight path of the aeroplane clears all obstacles by a vertical margin of at least 295 feet plus 0,125 x D, where D is the horizontal distance the aeroplane has travelled from the end of the take-off distance available, except as provided in subregulations (3) and (4). (2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), it shall be assumed that (a) the take-off flight path begins at a height of 50 feet above the take-off surface at the end of the take-off distance required by Regulation 135.08.12(2) and ends at a height of 1 500 feet above the take-off surface; (b) The aeroplane is not banked before such aeroplane has reached a height of 50 feet above the take-off surface, and that thereafter the angle of bank does not exceed 15 , (c) engine failure occurs at the point of the take-off flight path where the loss of visual reference for the purpose of avoiding obstacles is expected to occur; and (d) the gradient of the take-off flight path from 50 feet to the assumed engine-failure height is the gradient during climb and transition to the en route configuration, multiplied by a factor of 0,11.
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(3) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), in those cases where the intended flight path does not require track changes of more than 15 , the operator need not consider obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than(a) 300 metres, if the flight is conducted under conditions allowing visual course guidance navigation, or if navigation aids are available enabling the pilot to maintain the intended flight path with the same accuracy; and (b) 600 metres for flights under all other conditions. (4) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), in those cases where the intended flight path requires heading changes of more than 15 , an operator need not consider obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than (a) 600 metres for flights under conditions allowing visual course guidance navigation; or (b) 900 metres for flights under all other conditions. (5) When complying with the provisions of this regulation, the operator shall take account of the requirements referred to in Regulation 135.08.5(2). En route 135.08.20 (1) The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall be able to demonstrate that the aeroplane, in the meteorological conditions expected for the flight, is capable of continuing flight at or above the relevant minimum altitudes for safe flight stated in the operations manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.2, to a point 1 000 feet above an aerodrome at which the performance requirements can be complied with. (2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1) the aeroplane shall be assumed not to be flying at an altitude exceeding the altitude at which the rate of climb equals 300 feet per minute within the maximum continuous power conditions specified in the aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4. Landing at destination and alternate aerodromes 135.08.21 The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall ensure that the landing mass of the aeroplane does not exceed the maximum landing mass specified for the altitude and the ambient temperature for the estimated time of arrival at the destination and alternate aerodrome. Landing on dry runways 135.08.22 (1) The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall ensure that the landing mass of the aeroplane for the estimated time of arrival allows a fun-stop landing from 50 feet above the threshold within 70 per cent of the landing distance available at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome: Provided that the Commissioner may permit the use of a screen height of less than 50 feet, but not less than 35 feet, for steep-approach and short-landing procedures.
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(2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), the operator shall take account of(a) the runway surface condition and the type of runway surface; (b) the runway slope in the direction of take-off; and (c) the requirements referred to in Regulation 135.08.8(2)(a) and (b). (3) For dispatching the aeroplane in accordance with the provisions of subregulation (1), it shall be assumed that (a) such aeroplane will land on the most favourable runway, in still air; and (b) such aeroplane will land on the runway most likely to be assigned considering the probable wind speed and direction and the ground handling characteristics of the aeroplane, and considering landing aids and terrain. (4) If the operator is unable to comply with the provisions of subregulation 3(b) for the destination aerodrome, the aeroplane may be dispatched if an alternate aerodrome is designated which permits full compliance with the provisions of subregulations (1), (2) and (3). Landing on wet and contaminated runways 135.08.23 (1) The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall ensure that, when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runway at the estimated time of arrival may be wet, the landing distance is at least 115 per cent of the required landing distance in accordance with the provisions of Regulation 135.08.22. (2) The operator shall ensure that, when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runway at the estimated time of arrival may be contaminated, the landing distance available is at least the required approved landing distance. (3) A landing distance on a wet runway shorter than the landing distance required by the provisions of subregulation (1), but not less than the landing distance required by the provisions of Regulation 135.08.22(1), may be used if the aeroplane flight manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.4, includes specified additional information on landing distances on wet runways.
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General 135.09.1 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall not operate the aeroplane unless such aeroplane is maintained in accordance with the regulations in Part 43. Aeroplane maintenance schedule 135.09.2 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure that the aeroplane is maintained in accordance with an aeroplane maintenance schedule established by the operator. (2) The schedule shall contain details, including frequency, of all maintenance required to be carried out on the aeroplane. (3) The schedule shall include a reliability programme if the Commissioner determines that such a reliability programme is necessary. (4) The schedule referred to in subregulation (1) and any subsequent amendment thereof shall be approved by the Commissioner. Maintenance contracted to approved maintenance organisation 135.09.3 If maintenance on a small commercial air transport aeroplane is carried out by the holder of an aircraft maintenance organisation approval with the appropriate rating issued in terms of Part 145, the operator of the aeroplane shall ensure that all contracted maintenance is carried out in accordance with the regulations in Part 43.
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S A CATS OPS 135 (AIR TRANSPORT OPERATIONS: SMALL AEROPLANES)
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LIST OF TECHNICAL STANDARDS 135.01.2 EXEMPTIONS 1. Exemptions
135.01.10 SUBCHARTERING 1. Subchartering 135.02.5 FLIGHT TIME AND DUTY PERIODS 1. Definitions 2. Requirements for the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997 3. Operators schemes and their approval 4. General principles of control of flight, duty and rest time 5. Responsibilities of flight crew members 6. Standard provisions required for an operators scheme 7. Limitations of single flight duty periods flight crew 8. Rest periods 9. Duty periods 10. Days off 11. Cumulative duty and flying hours 12. Cabin crew members 13. Records to be maintained. TRAINING OF FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS 1. Training syllabus CONVERSION TRAINING 1. Operators conversion training course syllabus 2. Flight deck crew resource management training UPGRADING TO PILOT-IN-COMMAND 1. Flight deck crew resource management training RECURRENT TRAINING AND CHECKING 1. Flight deck crew resource management training PILOT QUALIFICATION TO OPERATE IN EITHER PILOTS' SEAT 1. Training OPERATIONS MANUAL 1. Structure of operations manual 2. Contents of operations manual OPERATIONAL FLIGHT PLAN 1. Items in operational flight plan RECORDS OF EMERGENCY AND SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT 1. Emergency and survival equipment list LOAD AND TRIM SHEET 1. Load and trim sheet
135.03.1
135.03.3
35.03.5
135.03.6
135.03.8 135.04.2
135.04.5
135.04.7
135.04.9
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135.05.13 135.06.2
EMERGENCY MEDICAL KIT 1. Contents APPLICATION FOR OPERATING CERTIFICATES 1. Application for operating certificate ADJUDICATION OF APPLICATION FOR OPERATING CERTIFICATE 1. Issuing of operating certificate DUTIES OF HOLDER OF OPERATING CERTIFICATE 1. Notification ROUTES AND AREAS OF OPERATION 1. Time/distance limitations 2. Adequate aerodrome AERODROME OPERATING MINIMA 1. Take-off minima 2. Non-precision approach 3. Precision approach - Category I operations 4. Precision approach - Category II operations 5. Precision approach - Category III operations 6. Circling 7. Visual approach 8. Conversion of reported meteorological visibility to RVR FUEL POLICY 1. Contingency fuel CARRY-ON BAGGAGE 1. Procedures for stowing of carry-on baggage
135.06.3
135.06.7
135.07.1
135.07.7
135.07.10
135.07.18
TABLES TABLE 1: TABLE 2 : MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : SINGLE PILOT AEROPLANES CERTIFIED FOR SINGLE PILOT OPERATIONS CREWS -
MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : TWO PILOT CREWS - AEROPLANES : ACCLIMATISED TO LOCAL TIME MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : TWO PILOT CREWS - AEROPLANES NOT ACCLIMATISED TO LOCAL TIME MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : BASIC CREW CONSISTING OF THREE FLIGHT MEMBERS - AEROPLANES CERTIFIED FOR THREE CREW MEMBERS : ACCLIMATISED TO LOCAL TIME MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : BASIS CONSISTING OF THREE FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS - AEROPLANES CERTIFIED FOR THREE FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS : NOT ACCLIMATISED TO LOCAL TIME
TABLE 3.
TABLE 4
TABLE 5
ANNEXURES ANNEXURE A : PILOT-IN-COMMAND'S DISCRETION REPORT
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ANNEXURE B: ANNEXURE C :
LOAD AND TRIM SHEET APPLICATION FOR THE ISSUING OF AN OPERATING CERTIFICATE NOTIFICATION OF CHANGES TO THE PARTICULARS ON AN OPERATING CERTIFICATE OPERATING CERTIFICATE
ANNEXURE D :
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135.01.2 EXEMPTIONS
1. Exemptions (1) The Commissioner may, on application, exempt any person or aeroplane involved in or used for emergency operations, from the provisions of Part 135, on condition that the Commissioner is satisfied that (a) exceptional circumstances prevail which necessitates the exemption; (b) there is a need for the exemption; and (c) an acceptable level of safety is maintained. (2) The Commissioner may determine any supplementary condition that he or she deems necessary in order to ensure that an acceptable level of safety is maintained. (3) An application for an exemption must be made in terms of the provisions of Part 11.
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135.01.10
SUBCHARTERING
Subchartering An operator may subcharter an aeroplane or flight crew, or both an aeroplane and flight crew in circumstances where such operator is faced with an immediate, urgent and unforeseen need for a replacement aeroplane and/or flight crew.
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135.02.5 FLIGHT TIME AND DUTY PERIODS 1. Definitions Any word or expression to which a meaning has been assigned in the Aviation Act, 1962, and the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997, bears, when used in this technical standard, the same meaning unless the context indicates otherwise, and "days off' means periods available for leisure and relaxation, no part of which forms part of a duty period. A single day off must include two local nights. Consecutive days off must include a further local night for each consecutive day off. A rest period may be included as part of a day off; "duty period" means any continuous period throughout which either a flight crew member flies in any aeroplane, whether as a flight crew member or as a passenger, at the behest of his or her employer, or otherwise carries out a required duty in the course of his or her employment. It includes any flight duty period, positioning at the behest of the operator, ground training, office duties, flight watch, home reserve and standby duty; "flight duty period" means any time during which a person operates in an aircraft as a member of its flight crew. It starts when the flight crew member is required by an operator to report for a flight, and finishes at on-chocks or engines off, on the final sector for that flight crew member; "flight watch" means a period of time during which a flight crew member be required to check with the operator at specified times as to whether his or her services as a flight crew member will be required and, should this be the case, will report for duty at the time then specified; "home reserve" means a period of time during which a flight crew member must be prepared to respond to a call out for flight duties as yet unspecified. The flight crew member must report for duty within a specified time from call out; "local night" means a period of eight hours falling within the ten hour period from 21h00 to 07h00 local time; "positioning" means the practice of transferring flight crew from place to place as passengers in surface or air transport at the behest of the operator; "rest period" means a period before starting a flight duty period which is intended to ensure that a flight crew member is adequately rested before a flight; "split duty" means a flight duty period which consists of two or more flight duties which are separated by less than the minimum rest period; "standby duty" means a period of time during which a flight crew member is in a position to commence a flight duty at once.
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2.
Requirements of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997
(1) CAR 135.02.5 requires that an operator of an aircraft must have a scheme for the regulation of flight times and duty times of his or her flight crews. (2) CAR 135.02.5 also requires that a flight crew member may not fly, and an operator may not require that flight crew member to fly, if either has reason to believe that he or she is suffering or is likely to suffer while flying, from such fatigue as may endanger the safety of the aeroplane or of its occupants. (3) Every flight crew member is required to inform the operator of all flying he or she has undertaken if the cumulative amount of such flying and any scheduled duties is likely to exceed the maximum laid down in the Regulations. 3. Operators' schemes and their approval (1) An operator must submit a proposed scheme for the regulation of flight time and duty periods and minimum rest periods to the Commissioner for approval. (2) Any deviation from the approved scheme must be submitted to the Commissioner for consideration. (3) Non-availability of auto pilot or auto stabilisation systems requires a reduction in flight time and duty period in respect of public air transport and IFR operations. 4. General principles of control of flight, duty and rest time (1) The prime objective of any scheme of flight time limitations is to ensure that flight crew members are adequately rested at the beginning of each flight duty period. Aeroplane operators will therefore need to take account of interrelated planning constraints on (a) individual duty and rest periods; (b) the length of cycles of duty and the associated periods of time off; and (c) cumulative duty hours within specific periods. (2) Duties must be scheduled within the limits of the operator's scheme. To allow for unforeseeable delays the pilot-in-command may, within prescribed conditions, use his or her discretion to exceed the limits on the day. Nevertheless, flight schedules must be realistic, and the planning of duties must be designed to avoid as far as possible exceeding the flight duty limits. (3) Other general considerations in the sensible planning of duties are (a) the need to construct consecutive work patterns which will avoid as far as possible such undesirable rostering practices as alternating day/night duties and the positioning of flight crews in a manner likely to result in a serious disruption of established sleep/work patterns;
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(b) the need, particularly where flights are carried out on a programmed basis, to allow a reasonable period for the preflight notification of duty to flight crews, other than those on standby; and (c) the need to plan time off and also to ensure that flight crews are notified of their allocation well in advance. 5. Responsibilities of flight crew members It is the responsibility of all flight crew members to make optimum use of the opportunities and facilities for rest provided by the operator, and to plan and use their rest periods properly so as to minimise the risk of fatigue. 6. Standard provisions required for an operator's scheme (1) The standard provisions which the Commissioner regards as the basis for an acceptable scheme of flight and duty limitations and which, if included in an operator's scheme, will facilitate approval by the Commissioner are contained in paragraphs 7 to 13 below. (2) Although operators are expected to plan their schemes in accordance with the requirements, it is however, recognised that the standard provisions will not necessarily be completely adaptable to every kind of operation. In exceptional circumstances therefore operators may apply to have variations from the standard provisions included in their schemes. However, such variations should be kept to a minimum and approval will only be granted where an operator can show that these proposed provisions will ensure an equivalent level of protection against fatigue. 7. Limitations of single flight duty periods flight deck crew 7.1 Maximum rostered flight duty periods The maximum rostered flight duty period (FDP) tin hours) must be in accordance with Table 1, or Table 2 or 3, or Table 4 or 5. Rostering limits in the tables may be extended by in-flight relief or split duty under the terms of paragraphs 7.2 and 7.3. On the day, the pilot-in-command may at his or her discretion further extend the FDP actually worked in accordance with paragraph 7.6 (1) Maximum FDP - Two pilot crews : aeroplanes Table 2 applies when the FDP starts at a place where the flight crew member is acclimatised to local time, and Table 3 applies to other times. To be considered acclimatised for the purpose of this technical standard, a flight crew member must be allowed three consecutive local nights free of duty within a local time zone band which is two hours wide. He or she will thereafter be considered to remain acclimatised to that same time zone band until he or she ends a duty period at a place where local time falls outside this time zone band.
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(2) Maximum FDP - Two pilots plus additional flight crew member : aeroplanes Table 4 applies when the FDP starts at a place where the flight crew member is acclimatised to local time, and Table 5 applies at other times. To be considered acclimatised for the purposes of this technical standard, a flight crew member must be allowed three consecutive local nights free of duty within a local time zone band which is two hours wide. He or she will thereafter be considered to remain acclimatised to that same time zone band until he or she ends a duty period at a place where local time falls outside this time zone band. (3) Limits on two flight crew long range operations (This paragraph does not apply to cabin crew members.) When an aeroplane flight deck crew comprises only two pilots, the allowable FDP is calculated as follows: A sector scheduled for more than 7 hours is considered as a multi-sector flight, as below:
Scheduled sector times Acclimatised to local time Sectors 2 Not acclimatised to local time Sectors Sector length over 7 hrs but not more than 9 hrs Sector length over 9 hrs but not more than 11 hrs Sector length over 11 hrs 4
Not applicable
Table 2 is then entered with the start time of the duty period and the 'modified' number of sectors, to determine the allowable FDP. When an additional, current, type rated pilot is a flight crew member, then these limits do not apply and the permissible FDP is determined by entering Table 2 or 3 with time of start and the actual sectors planned. 7.2 Extension of flight duty period by in- Flight relief (1) When any additional flight crew member is carried to provide in-flight relief for the purpose! of extending a FDP, he or she must hold qualifications which will meet the requirements of the operational duty for which he or she is required as a relief. (2) When in-flight relief is provided, there must be available, for the flight crew member who is resting, a comfortable reclining seat or bunk separated and screened from the flight deck and passengers.
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(3) A total of in-flight rest of less than three hours will not count towards extension of an FDP, but where the total of in-flight rest (which need not be consecutive) is three hours or more, the rostered FDP may be extended beyond that permitted in Tables 2 and 3 or 4 and 5 by: (a) If rest is taken in a bunk, a period equal to one half of the total of rest taken, provided that the maximum FDP permissible is 18 hrs (or 19 hrs in the case of cabin crew members); and (b) if rest is taken in a seat, a period equal to one third of the total of rest taken, provided that the maximum FDP permissible is 15 hrs (or 16 hrs in the case of cabin crew members). The maximum extension allowable is equivalent to that applying to the basic flight crew member with the least rest. (4) Where a flight crew member undertakes a period of in-flight relief and after its completion is wholly free of duty for the remainder of the flight, that part of the flight following completion of duty may be classed as positioning and be subject to the controls on positioning detailed in paragraph 7.4. 7.3 Extension of flying duty period by split duty When a FDP consists of two or more duties separated by less than a minimum rest period, then the FDP may be extended beyond that permitted in the tables by the amounts indicated below:
Consecutive hour rest Less than 3 3 10 Maximum extension of the FDP Nil Period equal to half of the consecutive hours rest taken
The rest period must not include the time required for immediate post-flight and preflight duties. When the rest period is not more than six hours it will be sufficient if a quiet and comfortable place is available, not open to the public, but if the rest period is more than six consecutive hours, then a bed must be provided. 7.4 Positioning All time spent on positioning as required by the operator is classed as duty, but positioning does not count as a sector when assessing the maximum permissible FDP. Positioning, as required by the operator, which immediately precedes a FDP, is included as part of the FDP for the purpose of paragraph 7.1.
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7.5 Travelling time Travelling time other than that time spent on positioning may not be classed as duty time and may not be included in cumulative totals of duty hours. Note: Travelling time from home to departure aerodrome can become an important factor if long distances are involved. If the journey time from home to the normal departure aerodrome Is lengthy, flight crew members should make arrangement for accommodation nearer to their bases to ensure adequate pre-flight rest. (2) Where travelling time between the aerodrome and sleeping accommodation provided by the operator exceeds thirty minutes each way, the rest period must be increased by the amount of the excess, or such lesser time as is consistent with a minimum of ten hours at the sleeping accommodation. (3) When flight crew members are required to travel from their home to an aerodrome other than the one from which they normally operate, the assumed travelling time from the normal aerodrome to the other aerodrome is classed as positioning and is subject to the controls of positioning detailed in paragraph 7.4. 7.6 Pilot-in-commands discretion to extend a Flight duty period (1) A pilot-in-command may, at his or her discretion, extend a FDP beyond the maximum normally permitted, provided he or she is satisfied that the flight can safely be made. In these circumstances the maximum normally permitted is calculated according to what actually happens, not on what was planned to happen. The operator's scheme must include guidance to pilots-in-command on the limits within which discretion to extend a FDP may be exercised. An extension of three, hours beyond the maximum normally permitted should be regarded as the maximum, except in cases of emergency. (2) Whenever a pilot-in-command so exercises his or her discretion, he or she must report it to the operator and, should the maximum normally permitted be exceeded by more than two hours, both the pilot-in-command and the operator must submit a written pilot-in-command's discretion report - extension of flight duty period, to the Commissioner within thirty days. Notes: Discretion reports either concerning extension of a flight duly period or reduction of a rest period must be submitted In the form contained in Annexure A. Those reports will be used by the Commissioner when assessing the realism of particular schedules. An emergency in respect or an extension of a flight duly period is a situation which in the judgement of the pilot-in-command presents serious risk to health or safety.
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7.7 Delayed reporting time When flight crew members are informed of a delay before leaving their place of rest the FDP starts at the new reporting time or four hours after the original reporting time, whichever is the earlier. The maximum FDP is based on the original reporting time. This paragraph does not apply if flight crew members are given ten hours or more notice of a new reporting time. 8. Rest periods (1) It is the responsibility of the operator to notify flight crew members of a flight duty period so that adequate and, within reason, uninterrupted pre-flight rest can be obtained by the flight crew. Away from base the operator must provide the opportunity and facilities for the flight crew to obtain adequate pre-flight rest. It is the operator's responsibility to ensure that rest accommodation is satisfactory. When operations are carried out at such short notice that it is impracticable for an operator to ensure that rest accommodation is satisfactory, it will be the pilot-incommands responsibility to obtain satisfactory accommodation. (2) (a) Each duty period, including flight watch and home reserve, must be preceded by a rest period of at least: Nine consecutive hours including a local night; or (ii) ten consecutive hours; or (iii) if the preceding FDP, adjusted for split duty, exceeds eleven hours, an additional rest period must be provided for in the operator's scheme to the satisfaction of the Commissioner. (a) Where a flight crew member has completed two consecutive duty periods, the aggregate of which exceeds eight hours flight time or eleven hours duty time (extensions by in-flight relief or split-duty disregarded), and the intervening rest period has been less than twelve consecutive hours embracing the hours between 11h00 and 06h00 local time, he or she must have a rest period on the ground of at least twelve consecutive hours embracing the hours between 22h00 and 06h00 local time or so much longer as to embrace these hours prior to commencing any further duties, but not necessarily larger than twenty four consecutive hours; provided that this requirement does not apply in respect of consecutive flight watch and home reserve duties. (b) Following fifty hours of duty of any nature associated with his of her employment, except flight watch and home reserve duty, a flight crew member must have a rest period of not less than twenty-four consecutive hours before commencing further duties. (i)
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(c) When a flight crew member has completed a flight time and duty period in excess of eighteen hours, he or she must receive a rest period of at least eighteen hours including a local night before he or she commences any further duties. (d) Time on flight watch and home reserve duty may be counted towards the required rest periods preceding a period of duty. (3) Pilot-in-command's discretion to reduce a rest period A pilot-in-command may, at his or her discretion, reduce a rest period to below the minimum required by paragraph 8(2) and 12(2)(b). The exercise of such discretion must be considered exceptional and should not be used to reduce successive rest periods. A rest period must be long enough to allow flight crew members at least eight hours, at the accommodation where the rest is taken. If a rest period is reduced, the pilot-in-command must submit a report to his or her employer, and if the reduction exceeds two hours, must submit a written report to the Commissioner within thirty days. (See note 1 to paragraph 7.6(2)). (4) For the purpose of calculating the minimum rest period before commencement of duties, the required post flight duties on completion of the previous FDP is added to such FDP. 9. Duty periods (1) The following limits apply:
Duty Flight watch Home reserve Positioning Standby Maximum duration No limit * No limit* No maximum** Maximum 12 hours (not necessarily consecutive) in any 24 hour period 20 hours
Standby + FDP
* **
However, the provisions of item (2) applies. However, the provisions of paragraph 7.4 applies.
(2) For the purpose of calculating duty time, the following applies: (a) For the calculation of accumulated duty time in terms of paragraph 11, flight watch and home reserve is credited on the basis of eight hours for every period of twenty four or fewer consecutive hours, or on a one-for-one basis, whichever is the lesser. (b) Standby duty time must count fully as duty time for the calculation of accumulated duty time in terms of paragraphs 8(2)(c) and (d) and 11.
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(c) See paragraph 7.4 in respect of positioning time. 10. Days off Flight crew members must (1) not work more than seven consecutive days between days off; and (2) have two consecutive days off in any consecutive fourteen days; and (3) have a minimum of six days off in any consecutive four weeks at the aerodrome from which they normally operate; and (4) have an average of at least eight days off in each consecutive four week period, averaged over three such periods. 11. Cumulative duty and flying hours Maximum cumulative duty hours : The average weekly total of duty hours may not exceed sixty hours over seven days, or fifty hours averaged over any four consecutive weeks. All types of duty, flight duty, ground duty, split duty, stand-by and positioning is counted in full for this purpose. Any period of seven or more consecutive days within which the flight crew member is employed on duties other than flight duties, flight watch or home reserve, standby, office duties or positioning is not included in calculating the above average weekly total of duty hours. 12. Cabin crew members (1) The requirements detailed in this paragraph are applicable to all cabin crew members carried as cabin crew members. (2) The limitations which apply to cabin crew members are those contained in paragraphs 7 to 11 applicable to flight deck crew members, but with the following adjustment: (a) Rostered flight duty periods may not be more than one hour longer than those permitted to flight deck crew members and contained in paragraph 7.1. In order to remove anomalies which might arise when cabin crew members and flight deck crew members report at different times for the same flight, the maximum FDP for cabin crew members must be based on the time at which the flight deck crew start their flight duty period. (b) Rostered minimum rest periods must not be more than one hour shorter than those required by flight deck crew and contained in paragraph 8(2). (c) (I) For the purpose of a FDP extension following in-flight rest by cabin crew members, a period of a minimum of two consecutive hours of rest must allow for the extension of such FDP by half the actual rest period. (II). Where in-flight rest is provided for more than three hours, the provisions of paragraph 8.2(iii) applies.
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(d) The combined sum of standby duty and following FDP may not exceed twentyone hours. (e) The average weekly total of duty hours may not exceed fifty-five hours. (f) The annual and monthly limits on flying hours need not be applied. 13. Records to be maintained An operator must retain all pilot-in-command discretion reports of extended flight duty periods and reduced rest periods for a period of at least six months.
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135.03.1 TRAINING OF FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS 1. Training syllabus The training syllabus for flight crew members required in terms of CAR 135.03.1, is (1) the syllabi prescribed in Parts 61 and 64, for initial training; (2) the syllabi prescribed in TS 135.03.3 for conversion training; (3) the syllabi prescribed in TS 135.03.6 for recurrent training and checking and refresher training; and (4) the syllabi prescribed in Part 92 for initial and refresher dangerous goods training courses.
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135.03.3 CONVERSION TRAINING 1. Operator's conversion training course Syllabus (1) An operator's conversion course syllabus must include the following items. (a) Ground training and checking including aeroplane systems, normal, abnormal and emergency procedures; (b) emergency and safety equipment training and checking which must be completed before aeroplane training commences; (c) flight deck crew resource management training; (d) aeroplane/flight simulator training and checking; and (e) line flying under supervision and line check. (2) The conversion course must be conducted in the order set out in subparagraph(l) above. 2. Flight deck crew resource management training
The flight deck crew resource management training referred to in CAR 135.03.3(1)(h) is the flight deck crew resource management training contemplated in TS 135.03.5.1.
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135.03.5 UPGRADE TO PILOT-IN-COMMAND 1. Flight deck crew resource management Training 1.1 Procedures (1) If the flight deck crew member has not previously completed an operator's conversion course then the operator should ensure that a flight deck crew resource management (CRM) course with a full length syllabus is completed . The flight deck crew member should not be assessed either during or upon completion of this course. (2) If the flight deck crew member undergoes a subsequent conversion course with the same or a change of operator, he or she should complete the appropriate elements of the CRM course. The flight deck crew member should not be assessed either during or upon completion of this training. (3) Recurrent training: (a) Where an operator utilises line orientated flying training (LOFT) in the recurrent training programme, the flight deck crew member should complete elements of CRM training. The flight deck crew member should not be assessed. (b) Where an operator does not utilise LOFT, the flight deck crew member should complete elements of CRM training every year. The flight deck crew member should not be assessed. (c) An operator should ensure that flight deck crew members complete the major elements of the full length CRM course over a four year recurrent training cycle. The flight deck crew member completing this refresher training should not be assessed. (d) When a flight deck crew member undergoes an operator proficiency check, line check or command course, then CRM skills should be included in the overall assessment. (4) Operators should, as far as is practicable, provide combined training for flight deck crew and cabin crew. (5) There should be an effective liaison between flight deck crew and cabin crew training departments. Provision should be made for flight deck and cabin crew instructors to observe and comment on each others training. (6) The successful resolution of aeroplane emergencies requires interaction between flight deck crew and cabin crew and emphasis should be placed on the importance of effective co-ordination and two-way communication between all flight deck crew members in various emergency situations. Initial and recurrent CRM training should include joint practice in aeroplane evacuations so that all who are involved are aware of the duties other flight crew members should perform. When such practice is not possible, combined flight deck crew and cabin crew training should include joint discussion of emergency scenarios.
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1.2 Objective and contents (1) CRM is the effective utilisation of all available resources (e.g. flight crew members, aeroplane systems and supporting facilities) to achieve safe and efficient operation. (2) The objective of CRM is to enhance the communication and management skills of the flight deck crew member concerned. The emphasis is placed on the nontechnical aspects of flight deck crew performance. (3) CRM training should include the following elements: Statistics and examples of human factor related accidents; human perception, learning process; situational awareness; management of workload, tiredness or fatigue, and vigilance management of stress; (e) operator's standard operating procedures; (f) personality type, delegation, leadership,effective communication skills; (g) the CRM loop (a) (b) (c) (d)
Notion of Senergy
Inquiry( or explore, examine, scrutinise) Conflict resolution Decision making Critique Feedback
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(h) effective communication and co-ordination within the flight deck crew, and between flight crew members and other operational personnel (air traffic controllers, maintenance personnel etc); (i) error chain and taking actions to break the error chain; and (j) implications of automation on CRM. (4) CRM training should also address the nature of the operator's operations as well as the associated flight crew operating procedures. This will include areas of operations which produce particular difficulties, adverse climatological conditions and any unusual hazards. (5) CRM training should include both: (a) Classroom training; and (b) practical exercises including group discussions and accident reviews to analyse communication problems and instances or examples of a lack of information or flight crew management. (6) Ideally, the CRM training course should last a minimum of 3 days, but providing the whole syllabus is covered, then a 2 day course may be acceptable. A one day course for single pilot operations may be acceptable. (7) As part of the operations manual, the CRM course (for conversion and recurrent training) will be approved by the Commissioner. An operator may use a course provided by another operator, if that course has already been accepted.
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135.03.7 RECURRENT TRAINING AND CHECKING
1. Flight deck crew resource management training The flight deck crew resource management training referred to in CAR 135.03.7 is the flight deck crew resource management training contemplated in TS 135.03.5.1.
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135.03.8 PILOT QUALIFICATION TO OPERATE IN EITHER PILOTS SEAT 1. Training
(1) A pilot-in-command whose duties also require him or her to operate in the righthand seat and carry out the duties of co-pilot, or a pilot-in-command required to conduct training or examining duties from the right-hand seat, must complete additional training and checking as specified in the operations manual, concurrent with the operator proficiency checks prescribed in CAR 135.03.7. This additional training must include at least the following: (a) (b) (c) (d) An engine failure during take-off; a one engine inoperative approach and go-around; a one engine inoperative landing; and Category II or Category III operations, if applicable.
(2) When engine-out manoeuvres are carried out in an aeroplane, the engine failure must be simulated. (3) When operating in the right-hand seat, the checks required for operating in the left-hand seat must, in addition, be valid and current (4) A pilot relieving as pilot-in-command must demonstrate practice of drills and procedures, concurrent with the operator proficiency checks prescribed in CAR 135.03.7, which would otherwise have been the responsibility of the pilot-incommand. Where the differences between left and right seats are not significant (for example because of use of autopilot) then practice may be conducted in either seat. (5) A pilot other than the pilot-in-command occupying the left-hand seat must demonstrate practice of drills and procedures, concurrent with the operator proficiency checks prescribed in CAR 135.03.7 which would otherwise have been the pilot-in-command's responsibility acting as pilot non-flying. Where the differences between left and right seats are not significant (for example because of use of autopilot) then practice may be conducted in either seat.
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135.04.2 OPERATIONS MANUAL 1. Structure of operations manual (1) An operator must ensure that the main structure of the operations manual is as follows: Part 1: General This part must comprise all non type-related operational policies, instructions and procedures needed for a safe operation and must comply with all relevant CARs. Part 2 : Aeroplane operating matters This part must comprise all type-related instructions and procedures needed for a safe operation. It must take account of the different types of aeroplanes or variants used by the operator. Part 3 : Route and aerodrome instructions and information This part must comprise all instructions and information needed for the area of operation. Part 4 : Training This part must comprise all training instructions for personnel required for a safe operation. An operator must ensure that the contents of the operations manual are in accordance with paragraph 2 of this technical standard, and relevant to the area and type of operation. An operator must ensure that the detailed structure of the operations manual is approved by the Commissioner. 2. Contents of operations manual 2.1 PART1: GENERAL 2.1.1 Administration and control of operations manual
(1) Introduction (a) A statement that the manual complies with all applicable CARs and with the terms and conditions of the applicable operating certificate. (b) A statement that the manual contains operational instructions that are to he complied with by the relevant personnel. (c) A list and brief description of the various parts, their contents, applicability and use. (d) Explanations and definitions of terms and words needed for the use of the manual.
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(2) System of amendment and revision (a) Who is responsible for the issuance and insertion of amendments and revisions. (b) A record of amendments and revisions with insertion dates and effective dates. (c) A statement that hand-written amendments and revisions are not permitted except in situations requiring immediate amendment or revision in the interests of aviation safety. (d) A description of the system for the annotation of pages and their effective dates. (e) A list of effective pages. (f) Annotation of changes (on text pages and, as far as practicable, on charts and diagrams). (g) Temporary revisions. (h) A description of the distribution system for the manuals, amendments and revisions. 2.1.2 Organisation and responsibilities (1) Organisational structure A description of the organisational structure including the general organogram and operations department organogram The organogram must depict the relationship between the Operations Department and the other Departments of the organisation. In particular, the subordination and reporting lines of all Divisions, Departments etc, which pertain to the safety of flight operations, must be shown. (2) Nominated postholders The name of each nominated postholder responsible for flight operations, the maintenance system, flight crew training and ground operations. A description of their function and responsibilities must be included. (3) Responsibilities and duties of operations management personnel A description of the duties, responsibilities and authority of operations management personnel pertaining to the safety of flight operations and the compliance with the applicable CARs. (4) Authority, duties and responsibilities of the pilot-in-command A statement defining the authority, duties and responsibilities of the pilot-incommand. (5) Duties and responsibilities of flight crew members other than the pilot-incommand. A statement defining the duties and responsibilities of flight crew members other than the pilot-in-command.
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2.1.3 Operational control and supervision (1) Supervision of the operation by the operator A description of the system for supervision of the operation by the operator. This must show how the safety of flight operations and the qualifications of personnel are supervised. In particular, the procedures related to the following items must be described: (a) Licence and qualification validity; (b) competence of operations personnel; and (c) control, analysis and storage of records, flight documents, additional information and data. (2) System of promulgation of additional operational instructions and information A description of any system for promulgating information which may be of an operational nature but is supplementary to that in the operations manual. The applicability of this information and the responsibilities for its promulgation must be included. (3) Accident prevention and flight safety programme A description of the main aspects of the flight safety programme including (a) programmes to achieve and maintain risk-awareness by all persons involved in flight operations; and (b) evaluation of aviation accidents and incidents and the promulgation of related information. (4) Operational control A description of the procedures and responsibilities necessary to exercise operational control with respect to flight safety. 2.1.4 Quality control system A description of the quality control system adopted. 2.1.5 Flight crew composition (1) Flight crew composition An explanation of the method for determining flight crew compositions taking account of the following:
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(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
The type of aeroplane being used; the area and type of operation being undertaken; the phase of the flight; the minimum flight crew requirement and flight duty period planned; experience (total and on type), recency and qualification of the flight crew members; and (f) the designation of the pilot-in-command and, if necessitated by the duration of the flight, the procedures for the relief of the pilot-in-command or other members of the flight crew.
(2) Designation of the pilot-in-command The rules applicable to the designation of the pilot-in-command. (3) Flight crew incapacitation Instructions on the succession of command in the event of flight crew incapacitation. 2.1.6 Qualification requirements (1) A description of the required licence, rating(s), qualification/competency (e.g. for routes and aerodromes), experience, training, checking and recency for operations personnel to conduct their duties. Consideration must be given to the aeroplane type, kind of operation and composition of the flight crew. (2) Flight deck crew (a) (b) (c) (d) Pilot-in-command Go-pilot Pilot under supervision Operation on more than one type or variant.
(3) Cabin crew (a) Senior cabin crew member (b) Cabin crew member (i) (ii) Required cabin crew member Additional cabin crew member and cabin crew member during familiarisation flights.
(c) Operation on more than one type or variant. (4) Training, checking and supervision personnel (a) For flight deck crew (b) For cabin crew.
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(5) Other operations personnel. 2.1.7 Flight crew health precautions (1) Flight crew health precautions The relevant regulations and guidance to flight crew members concerning health including (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h) (i) (j) (k) alcohol and other intoxicating liquor; narcotics; drugs; sleeping tablets; pharmaceutical preparations; immunisation; scuba diving; blood donation; meal precautions prior to and during flight; sleep and rest; and surgical operations.
Note: See Document SA-CATS-MR. 2.1.8 Flight time limitations
(1) Flight time and duty period limitations and rest requirements A description of the flight time and duty period limitations and rest requirements prescribed in TS 135.02.10 as applicable to the operation. (2) Exceedances of flight time and duty period limitations and/or reductions of rest periods Conditions under which flight time and duty period may be exceeded or rest periods may be reduced and the procedures used to report these modifications. 1.1.9 Operating procedures
(1) Flight preparation instructions As applicable to the operation:
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(a) Minimum flight altitudes A description of the method of determination and application of minimum altitudes including i. a procedure to establish the minimum altitudes/ flight levels for IFR flights; and (b) Criteria for determining the usability of aerodromes (c) Methods for the determination of aerodrome operating minima The method for establishing aerodrome operating minima for IFR flights in accordance with TS 135.07.7. Reference must be made to procedures for the determination of the visibility and/or runway visual range and for the applicability of the actual visibility observed by the pilots, the reported visibility and the reported runway visual range. (d) En route operating minima for VFR flights or VFR portions of a flight and, where single-engine aeroplanes are used, instructions for route selection with respect to the availability of surfaces which permit a safe forced landing. (e) Presentation and application of aerodrome and en route operating minima (f) Interpretation of meteorological information Explanatory material on the decoding of MET forecasts and MET reports relevant to the area of operations, including the interpretation of conditional expressions. (g) Determination of the quantities of fuel, oil and water methanol carried The methods by which the quantities of fuel, oil and water methanol to be carried, are determined and monitored in flight. This section must also include instructions on the measurement and distribution of the fluid carried on board. Such instructions must take account of all circumstances likely to be encountered on the flight, including the possibility of in-flight replanning and of failure of one or more of the aeroplane's power plants. The system for maintaining fuel and oil records must also be described. (h) Mass and centre of gravity The general principles of mass and centre of gravity including: (i) Definitions; (ii) methods; procedures and responsibilities for preparation and acceptance of mass and centre of gravity calculations; (iii) the policy for using either standard and/or actual masses;
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(iv) the method for determining the applicable passenger, baggage and cargo mass; (v) the applicable passenger and baggage masses for various types of operations and aeroplane type; (vi) general instruction and information necessary for verification of the various types of mass and balance documentation in use; (vii) last minute changes procedures; (viii) specific gravity of fuel, oil and water methanol; and (ix) seating policy/procedures. (i) ATS flight plan Procedures and responsibilities for the preparation and submission of the air traffic service flight plan. Factors to be considered include the means of submission for both Individual and repetitive flight plans. (j) Operational flight plan Procedures and responsibilities for the preparation and acceptance of the operational flight plan. The use of the operational flight plan must be described including samples of the operational flight plan formats in use. (k) Operator's flight folio The responsibilities and the use of the operator's flight folio must be described, including samples of the format used. A technical log may be used in place of a flight folio, if it contains the required information. (l) List of documents, forms and additional information to be carried. (2) Ground handling instructions (a) Fuelling procedures A description of fuelling procedures, including
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(i.) safety precautions during refuelling and defuelling including when an APU is in operation or when a turbine engine is running and the prop-brakes are on; (ii) refuelling and defuelling when passengers are embarking, on board or disembarking ; and (iii) precautions to be taken to avoid mixing fuels. (b) Aeroplane, passengers and cargo handling procedures related to safety A description of the handling procedures to be used when allocating seats and embarking and disembarking passengers and when loading and unloading the aeroplane. Further procedures, aimed at achieving safety whilst the aeroplane is on the apron, must also be given. Handling procedures must include i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x. xi. xii. xiii. xiv. xv. disembarking of persons sick passengers and persons with reduced mobility transportation of inadmissible passengers,deportees or persons in custody permissible size and weight of hand baggage loading and securing of items in the aeroplane special loads and classification of load compartments positioning of ground equipment operation of aeroplane doors safety of the apron, including fire prevention, blast and suction areas start-up on the apron departure and arrival procedures servicing of aeroplanes documents and forms for aeroplane handling and multiple occupancy of aeroplane seats.
(c) Procedures for the refusal of embarkation and for disembarkation Procedures to ensure that persons who appear to be intoxicated or who demonstrate by manner or physical indications that they are under the influence of drugs, except medical patients under proper care, are refused embarkation. (d) De-icing and anti-icing on the ground A description of the de-icing and anti-icing policy and procedures for aeroplanes on the ground. These must include descriptions of the types and effects of icing and other contaminants on aeroplanes whilst stationary during ground movements and during take-off. In addition, a description of the fluid types used must be given including -
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i. Proprietary or commercial Names ii. Characteristics iii. Effects on aeroplane performance iv. Hold-over items and v. Precautions during usage. (3) Flight procedures (a) VFR/IFR policy A description of the lowing flights to be made under VFR, or of requiring flights to be made under IFR, or of changing from one to the other. (b) Navigation procedure A description of all navigation procedures relevant to the type(s) and area(s) of operation. Consideration must be given to standard navigation procedures including policy for carrying out independent cross-checks of keyboard entries where these affect the flight path to be followed by the aeroplane; (ii) MNPS and POLAR navigation and navigation in other designated areas; (iii) RNAV; (iv) in-flight replanning; and (v) procedures in the event of system degradation. (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h) Altimeter setting procedures Altitude alerting system procedures Ground proximity warning system procedures Policy and procedures for the use of TCAS/ACAS Policy and procedures for in-flight fuel management Adverse and potentially hazardous atmospheric conditions Procedures for operating in, andlor avoiding, potentially hazardous atmospheric conditions including (i)
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i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x.
thunderstorms; icing conditions; turbulence; windshear jetstream; volcanic ash clouds; heavy precipitation; sand storms; mountain waves; and significant temperature inver sion s.
(i) Wake turbulence Wake turbulence separation criteria, taking into account aeroplane types, wind conditions and runway location. (j) Flight crew members at their stations The requirements for flight crew members to occupy their assigned stations or seats during the different phases of flight or whenever deemed necessary in the interests of aviation safety. (k) Use of safety belts for flight crew and passengers The requirements for flight crew members and passengers to use safety belts and/or harnesses during the different phases of flight or whenever deemed necessary in the interests of aviation safety. (l) Admission to flight deck The conditions for the admission to the flight deck of persons other than the flight crew. (m) Use of vacant flight crew seats The conditions and procedures for the use of vacant flight crew seats. (n) Incapacitation of flight crew members Procedures to be followed in the event of incapacitation of flight crew members in flight. Examples of the types of incapacitation and the means for recognising them, must be included. (o) Cabin safety requirements Procedures covering:
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(i) Cabin preparation for flight,in-flight requirements and preparation for landing including procedures for securing cabin and galleys; (ii) procedures to ensure that passengers are seated where, in the event that an emergency evacuation is required, they may best assist and not hinder evacuation from the aeroplane; (iii) procedures to be followed during passenger embarkation and disembarkation; procedures in the event of fuelling with passengers on board or embarking and disembarking; and (v) smoking on board. (w) Passenger briefing procedures The contents, means and timing of passenger briefing in accordance with CAR 91.07.19. (x) Procedures for aeroplanes operated whenever required cosmic or solar radiation detection equipment is carried. (y) Procedures for the use of cosmic or solar radiation detection equipment and for recording its readings including actions to be taken in the event that limit values specified in the operations manual are exceeded, in addition, the procedures, including ATS procedures, to be followed in the event that a decision to descend or re-route is taken. (4) All weather operations (5) ETOPS (6) Use of the minimum equipment and configuration deviation list(s) (7) Non revenue flights Procedures and limitations for (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) Training flights Test flights Delivery flights Ferry flights demonstration flights; and positioning flights, including the kind of persons who may be carried on such flights. (8) Oxygen requirements (a) An explanation of the conditions under which oxygen must be provided and used. (b) The oxygen requirements specified for
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(i) flight deck crew; (ii) cabin crew; and (iii) passengers. 1.1.10 Dangerous goods and weapons (1) Information, instructions and general guidance on the conveyance of dangerous goods including(a) operator's policy on the conveyance of dangerous goods; (b) guidance on the requirements for acceptance, labelling, handling, stowage and segregation of dangerous goods; (c) procedures emergency for responding to situations involving dangerous goods; (d) duties of all personnel involved as referred to in a Part 92; and (e) instructions on the carriage of the operator's employees. (2) The conditions under which weapons, munitions of war and sporting weapons may be carried. 1.1.11 Security (1) Security instructions and guidance of a Non-confidential nature which must include the authority and responsibilities of operations personnel. Policies and procedures for handling and reporting crime on board such as unlawful interference, sabotage, bomb threats, and hijacking must also be included. (2) A description of preventative security measures and training. Note: Parts of the security instructions and guidance may be kept confidential. 1.1.12 Handling of aviation accidents and Incidents Procedures for the handling, notifying and reporting of aviation accidents and incidents. This section must include (1) definitions of aviation accidents and incidents and the relevant responsibilities of all persons involved; (2) the description of which operator departments, authorities or other institutions have to be notified by which means and in which sequence in case of an aviation accident; (3) special notification requirements in the event of an aviation accident or incident when dangerous goods are being carried; (4) a description of the requirements to report specific aviation accidents and incidents;
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(5) the forms used for reporting and the procedure for submitting them to the relevant authority must also be included; and (6) if the operator develops additional safety related reporting procedures for its own internal use, a description of the applicability and related forms to be used. 2.1.13 Rules of the air Rules of the air including (1) visual and instrument flight rules; (2) territorial application of the rules of the air; (3) communication procedures including COM-failure procedures; (4) information and instructions relating to the interception of civil aeroplanes; (5) the circumstances in which a radio listening watch is to be maintained; (6) signals; (7) time system used in operation; (8) ATC clearances, adherence to flight plan and position reports; (9) visual signals used to warn an unauthorised aeroplane flying in or about to enter a restricted, prohibited or danger area; (10)procedures for pilots observing an aviation accident or receiving a distress transmission; (11)the ground/air visual codes for use by survivors, description and use of signal aids; and (12)distress and urgency signals. 1.2 PART 2 : AEROPLANE OPERATING MATTERS - TYPE RELATED Taking account of the differences between types, and variants of types, under the following headings: 2.2.1 General information and units of Measurement General information (e.g. aeroplane dimensions), including a description of the units of measurement used for the operation of the aeroplane type concerned and conversion tables.
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2.2.2
Limitations A description of the certified limitations and the applicable operational limitations including
(1) certification status; (2) Passenger seating configuration for each Aeroplane type including a pictorial presentation; (3) Types of operation that are approved (e.g. IFR/VFR, CAT II/III, flights in known icing conditions, etc); (4) flight crew composition; (5) mass and centre of gravity; (6) speed limitations; (7) flight envelope(s); (8) wind limits including operations and contaminated runways; (9) performance limitations for applicable configurations; (10) (11) (12) (13) runway slope; limitations on wet or contaminated runways; airframe contamination; and system limitations.
2.2.3 Normal procedures The normal procedures and duties assigned to the flight crew, the appropriate check-lists, the system for use of the check-lists and a statement covering the necessary co-ordination procedures between flight deck crew and cabin crew. The following normal procedures and duties must be included: (1) Pre-flight; (2) pre-departure (3) altimeter setting and checking; (4) taxi, take-off and climb;
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(5) noise abatement; (6) cruise and descent; (7) approach, landing preparation and briefing; (8) VFR approach; (9) instrument approach; (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) visual approach and circling; missed approach; normal landing; post landing; and operation on wet and contaminated runways.
2.2.4 Abnormal and emergency procedures The abnormal and emergency procedures and duties assigned to the flight crew, the appropriate check-lists, the system for use of the check-lists and a statement covering the necessary co-ordination procedures between flight crew and cabin crew. The following abnormal and emergency procedures and duties must be included: (1) Fight crew incapacitation; (2) fire and smoke drills; (3) unpressurised and partially pressurised flight; (4) exceeding structural limits such as overweight landing; (5) exceeding cosmic radiation limits; (6) lighting strikes; (7) distress communications and alerting ATC to emergencies; (8) engine failure; (9) system failures; (10) guidance for diversion in case of serious technical failure;
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(11) (12) (13) (14)
ground proximity warning; TCAS warning; windshear; and emergency landing/ditching.
2.2.5 Performance (1) Performance data must be provided in a form in which it can be used without difficulty. (2) Performance data Performance material which provides the necessary data for compliance with the performance requirements prescribed in Part 1 of this technical standard must be included to allow the determination of (a) take-off climb limits - mass, altitude, temperature; (b) take-off field length (dry, wet, contaminated); (c) net flight path data for obstacle clearance calculation or, where applicable take-off flight path; (d) the gradient losses for banked climbouts; (e) en route climb limits; (f) approach climb limits; (g) landing climb limits; (h) landing field length (dry, wet, contaminated) including the effects of an in-flight failure of a system or device, if it affects the landing distance; (i) brake energy limits; and (j) speeds applicable for the various flight stages (also considering wet or contaminated runways). (3) Supplementary data covering flights in icing conditions Any certificated performance related to an allowable configuration, or configuration deviation, such as anti-skid inoperative, must be included. If performance data, as required for the appropriate performance class, is not available in the approved AFM, then other data acceptable to the Commissioner must be included. Alternatively, the operations manual may contain cross-reference to the approved data contained in the AFM where such data is not likely to be used often or in an emergency. (4) Additional performance data Additional performance data, where applicable, including
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(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f)
all engine climb gradients; drift-down data; effect of de-icing/anti-icing fluids; flight with landing gear down; for aeroplanes with 3 or more engines, one engine inoperative ferry flights; and flights conducted under the provisions of the CDL.
2.2.6 Flight planning (1) Data and instructions necessary for preflight and in-flight planning including factors such as speed schedules and power settings. Where applicable, procedures for engine(s)-out operations. ETOPS and flights to isolated aerodromes must be included. (2) The method for calculating fuel needed for the various stages of flight in accordance with TS 135.07.10. 2.2.7 Mass and balance Instructions and data for the calculation of the mass and balance including (1) calculation system (e.g. index system); (2) information and instructions for completion of mass and balance documentation, including manual and computer generated types; (3) limiting masses and centre of gravity of the various versions; and (4) dry operating mass and corresponding centre of gravity or index. 2.2.8 Loading Procedures and provisions for loading and securing the load in the aeroplane. 2.2.9 Configuration deviation list The Configuration Deviation List(s) (CDL), if Provided by the manufacturer, taking account of the aeroplane types and variants operated Including procedures to be followed when an aeroplane is being despatched under the terms of its CDL. 2.2.10 Minimum equipment list The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) taking account of the aeroplane types and variants operated and the type(s)/area(s) of operation.
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2.2.11 Survival and emergency equipment including oxygen (1) A list of the survival equipment to be carried for the routes to be flown and the procedures for checking the serviceability of this equipment prior to take-off. Instructions regarding the location, accessibility and use of survival and emergency equipment and its associated check lists(s) must also be included. (2) The procedure for determining the amount of oxygen required and the quantity that is available. The flight profile, number of occupants and possible cabin decompression must be considered. The information provided must be in a form in which it can be used without difficulty. 2.2.12 Emergency evacuation procedures (1) Instructions for preparation for emergency evacuation including flight crew coordination and emergency station assignment. (2) Emergency evacuation procedures A description of the duties of all members of the flight crew for the rapid evacuation of an aeroplane and the handling of the passengers in the event of a forced landing, ditching or other emergency. 2.2.13 Aeroplane systems A description of the aeroplane systems, related controls and indications and operating instructions. 2.3 PART 3 : ROUTE AND AERODROME INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION Instructions and information relating to communications, navigation and aerodromes including minimum flight levels and altitudes for each route to be flown and operating minima for each aerodrome planned to be used, including (1) minimum flight level/altitude; (2) operating minima for departure, destination and alternate aerodromes; (3) communication facilities and navigation aids; (4) runway data and aerodrome facilities; (5) approach, missed approach and departure procedures including noise abatement procedures; (6) COM-failure procedures;
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(7) search and rescue facilities in the area over which the aeroplane is to be flown; (8) a description of the aeronautical charts that must be carried on board in relation to the type of flight and the route to be flown, including the method to check their validity; (9) availability of aeronautical information and MET services; (10) (11) en /route COM/NAV procedures including holding; and aerodrome categorisation for flight crew competence qualification.
2.4 PART 4 : TRAINING (1) Training syllabi and checking programmes for ail operations personnel assigned to operational duties in connection with the preparation and/or conduct of a flight. (2) Training syllabi and checking programmes must include: (a) For flight deck crew All relevant items prescribed in Part 61 and Subpart 3; (b) For cabin crew All relevant items prescribed in Part 64 and Subpart 3; (c) For operations personnel concerned, including flight crew members: (i) (ii) All relevant items prescribed in Part 92; and All relevant items regarding operator security.
(d) For operations personnel other than flight crew members (e.g. dispatcher, handling personnel etc. ) All other relevant items pertaining to their duties. (3) Procedures (a) Procedures for training and checking. (b) Procedures to be applied in the event that personnel do not achieve or maintain the required standards. (c) Procedures to ensure that abnormal or emergency situations requiring the application of part or all of abnormal or emergency procedures and simulation of IMC by artificial means, are not simulated during commercial flights. (4) Description of documentation to be stored and storage periods.
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135.04.5 OPERATIONAL FLIGHT PLAN 1. Items in operational flight plan (1) An operator must ensure that the operational flight plan used and the entries made during flight contain the following items: (a) Aeroplane registration; (b) aeroplane type and variant; (c) date of flight; (d) flight identification; (e) names of flight crew members; (f) duty assignment of flight crew members; (g) place of departure; (h) time of departure (actual off-block time, take-off time); (i) place of arrival (planned and actual); (j) time of arrival (actual landing and on-block time); (k) type of operation (ETOPS, VFR, ferry flight, etc.); (l) route and route segments with checkpoints/waypoints, distances, time and tracks; (m) planned cruising speed and flying times between check-points/ waypoints. Estimate and actual times overhead; (2) Items which are readily available in other documentation or from an acceptable source or which are irrelevant to the type of operation, may be omitted from the operational flight plan. (3) An operator must ensure that the operational flight plan and its use is described in the operations manual (4) An operator must ensure that all entries in the operational flight plan are made concurrently and that they are permanent in nature. safe altitudes and minimum levels, planned altitudes and flight levels, fuel calculations (records of in-flight fuel checks); fuel on board when starting engines; alternate(s) for destination and, where applicable, take-off and enroute, including information required in subparagraphs (I), tm), tn) and to) above; (s) initial ATS flight plan clearance and subsequent re-clearance; (t) in-flight re-planning calculations; and (u) relevant meteorological information. (5) Items which are readily available in other documentation or from an acceptable source or which are irrelevant to the type of operation, may be omitted from the operational flight plan. (6) An operator must ensure that the operational flight plan and its use is described in the operations manual. (n) (o) (p) (q) (r)
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(7) An operator must ensure that all entries in the operational flight plan are made concurrently and that they are permanent in nature.
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135.04.7 RECORDS OF EMERGENCY AND SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT 1. Emergency and survival equipment list The minimum information to be contained in an emergency and survival equipment list, is prescribed in CAR 91.01.5.
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135.04.9 LOAD AND TRIM SHEET 1. Load and trim sheet
(1) The load and trim sheet must contain the following information: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h) (i) (j) (k) (l) The aeroplane registration and type; the flight identification number and date; the identity of the pilot-in-command; the identity of the person who prepared the document; the dry operating mass and the corresponding CG of the aeroplane; the mass of the fuel at take-off and the mass of trip fuel; the mass of consumables other than fuel; the components of the load including passengers, baggage, freight and ballast; the take-off mass, landing mass and zero fuel mass; the load distribution; the applicable aeroplane CG positions; and the limiting mass and CG values.
(2) The person superintending the loading of an aeroplane must certify that the load distribution is in accordance with the requirements prescribed in the operations manual or flight manual and that the maximum certificated mass has not been exceeded. (3) The load and trim sheet must be signed by the pilot-in-command unless the load and trim sheet is sent to the aeroplane by electronic data transfer. (4) Electronic data transfer When the load and trim sheet is sent to the aeroplane by electronic data transfer, a copy of the final load and trim sheet, as accepted by the pilot-in-command, must be available on the ground. (5) An example of a load and trim sheet is contained in Annexure B.
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135.06.2 APPLICATION FOR OPERATING CERTIFICATE
1. Application for operating certificate The form referred to in CAR 135.06.2, in which application is made for an operating certificate, is contained in Annexure C.
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135.06.3 ADJUDICATION OF APPLICATION FOR AN OPERATING CERTIFICATE
1. Issuing of operating certificate An operating certificate is issued on the form contained in Annexure D.
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135.06.7 DUTIES OF HOLDER OF OPERATING CERTIFICATE
1. Notification Before change is effected to an operating certificate, the holder of the operating certificate must notify the Commissioner in the following manner: (1) The notification must be made in the form contained in Annexure C; and (2) be accompanied by a certified true copy of the air service licence held by the holder and the operating certificate concerned.
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135.07.1
ROUTES AND AREAS OF OPERATION
1. Time/distance limitations (1) An operator may not, unless specifically approved by the Commissioner (ETOPS approval), operate a twin-engine performance Class A aeroplane, with a maximum certificated mass of less than 45 454 kg and a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 seats, over a route that contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome than the distance flown, under standard conditions in still air, in 120 minutes at the one-engined inoperative cruise speed. Upon application by an operator, the Commissioner may approve a distance equivalent to 180 minutes at the one engine inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air, provided the operator can demonstrate an equivalent level of safety to the 120 minute operation and subject to any other conditions that the Commissioner may deem necessary. (2) An operator may not operate a twin engined performance Class B aeroplane on a route that contains a point further, from an adequate aerodrome, than the distance flown, under standard conditions in still air, in 90 minutes at the allengines maximum-range cruise speed, or 300 nautical miles, whichever is the lesser. (3) An operator may not, unless specially approved by the Commissioner (ETOPS approval), operate a twin-engined aeroplane other than the aeroplanes referred to in paragraph (1) or (2) above including cargo aeroplanes, on a route that contains a point further, from an adequate aerodrome, than the distance flown, under standard conditions in still air, in 120 minutes at the one-engineinoperative cruise speed. (4) In the case of approved ETOPS operation, an operator must ensure than an enroute alternate aerodrome is available within the authorised diversion time. 2. Adequate aerodrome (1) When defining aerodromes for the type of aeroplane(s) and operation(s) concerned, an operator must take account of the following: (a) An adequate aerodrome is an aerodrome which the operator considers to be satisfactory, taking account of the applicable performance requirements and runway characteristics. In addition, it should be anticipated that, at the expected time of use, the aerodrome will be available and equipped with necessary ancillary services, such as ATS, sufficient lighting, communications, weather reporting, navaids and emergency services. (2) For an ETOPS on route alternate aerodrome, the following additional points must be considered:
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(a) The availability of an ATC facility; (b) the availability of at least one letdown aid (ground radar would so qualify) for an instrument approach; and (c) the weather at the aerodrome must meet the criteria prescribed for ETOPS in TS 91.07.8. Note: Guidance material for the granting of ETOPS approval is contained in the Information Leaflet No. 20 "Temporary Guidance Material for Extended Range Operation with Two Engine Aeroplanes ETOPS Certification and Operation: July 1995, JAR/IL No. 20, issued by the Joint Aviation Authority.
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135.07.7 AERODROME OPERATING MINIMA 1. Take-off minima (1) General (a) Take-off minima established by the operator must be expressed as visibility or RVR limits, taking into account all relevant factors for each aerodrome planned to be used and the aeroplane characteristics. Where there is a specific need to see and avoid obstacles on departure and/or for a forced landing, additional conditions (e.g. ceiling) must be specified. (b) The pilot-in-command may not commence take-off unless the weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure are equal to or better than applicable minima for landing at that aerodrome unless a suitable take-off alternate aerodrome is available. (c) When the reported meteorological visibility is below that required for take-off and RVR is not reported, a take-off may only be commenced if the pilot-in-command can determine that the RVR/visibility along the take-off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum. (d) When no reported meteorological visibility or RVR is available, a take-off may only be commenced if the pilot-in-command can determine that the RVR/visibility along the take-off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum. (2) Visual reference The take-off minima must be selected to ensure sufficient guidance to control the aeroplane in the event of both a discontinued take-off in adverse circumstances and a continued take-off after failure of the critical power unit. (3) Required RVR/Visibility (a) For multi-engined aeroplanes, whose performance is such that, in the event of a critical power unit failure at any point during take-off, the aeroplane can either stop or continue the take-off to a height of 1 500 feet above the aerodrome while clearing obstacles by the required margins, the take-off minima established by an operator must be expressed as RVR/visibility values not lower than those given in Table 1 below except as provided in paragraph (4) below:
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Table 1 : RVR/Visibility for take-off

Take-off RVR/Visibility for take-off Nil (Day only) 500 m Runway edge 250/300 m (Notes 1 lighting and/or and 2) centreline marking Runway edge and 200/250 m (Note 1) centreline lighting Runway edge and 150/200 m (Notes 1 centreline lighting and 4) and multiple RVR information
Note (1) The higher values apply to Category D aeroplanes. (2) For night operations at least runway edge and runway end lights are required. (3) The reported RVR Visibility value representative of the initial part of the take-off run can be replaced by pilot assessment. (4) The required RVR value must be achieved for all of the relevant RVR reporting points with the exception given in Note 3 above. (b) For multi-engined aeroplanes whose performance is such that they cannot comply with the performance conditions in subparagraph (3)(a) above in the event of a critical power unit failure, there may be a need to re-land immediately and to see and avoid obstacles in the take-off area. Such aeroplanes may be operated to the following take-off minima provided they are able to comply with the applicable obstacle clearance criteria, assuming engine failure at the height specified. The take-off minima established by an operator must be based upon the height from which the one engine inoperative net take-off flight path can be constructed. The RVR minima used may not be lower than either of the values given in Table 1 above or Table 2 below.
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Table 2: Assumed engine failure height above the runway versus RVR/Visibility
Take-off RVR/Visibility flight path Assumed engine RVR/Visibility (Note failure height 2) above the take-off runway < 50 ft 200 m 51 100 ft 300 m 101 150 ft 400 m 151 200 ft 500 m 201 300 ft 1 000 m > 300 ft 1 500 m (Note 1)
Note
(1) 1500 m is also applicable if no positive take-off flight path can be constructed (2) The reported RVR/visibility value representative of the Initial part of the take-off run can be replaced by pilot assessment.
(c) When reported RVR, or meteorological visibility is not available, the pilot-incommand may not commence take-off unless he or she can determine that the actual conditions satisfy the applicable take-off minima. (4) Exceptions to paragraph (3)(a): (a) Subject to the approval of the Commissioner, and provided the requirements in paragraphs (i) to (v) below have been satisfied, an operator may reduce the takeoff minima to 125 m RVR (Category A, B and C aeroplanes) or 150 m RVR (Category D aeroplanes) when (i) (iii) (iv) (iv) (v) low visibility procedures are in force; high intensity runway centreline lights spaced 15 m or less and high intensity edge lights spaced 60 m or less are in operation; flight deck crew members have satisfactorily completed training in a simulator approved for this procedure, a 90 m visual segment is available from the cockpit at the start of the take-off run; and the required RVR value has been achieved for all of the relevant RVR reporting points.
(b) Subject to the approval of the Commissioner, an operator of an aeroplane using an approved lateral guidance system for take-off may reduce the take-off minima to an RVR less than 125 m (Category A, B and C aeroplanes) or 150 m (Category D aeroplane) but not lower than 75 m provided runway protection and facilities equivalent to Category III landing operations are available.
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2. Non-precision approach (1) System minima An operator must ensure that system minima for non-precision approach procedures, which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR, NDB, SRA and VDF are not lower than the MDH values given in Table 3 below. Table 3 : System minima for non-precision approach aids
System minima Facility Lowest MDH ILS (no glide path LLZ) 250 ft SRA (terminating at NM) 250 ft SRA (terminating a 1 NM) 300 ft SRA (terminating at 2 NM) 350 ft VOR 300 ft VOR/DME 250 ft NDB 300 ft VDF (QDM and QGH) 300 ft
(2) Minimum descent height An operator must ensure that the minimum descent height for a non-precision approach is not lower than either (a) the OCH/OCL for the category of aeroplane; or (b) the system minimum. (3) Visual reference A pilot may not continue an approach below MDA/MDH unless at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h) (i) (j) Elements of the approach light system; the threshold; the threshold markings; the threshold lights; the threshold identification lights; the visual glide slope indicator, the touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings; the touchdown zone lights; runway edge lights; or other visual references accepted by the Commissioner.
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(4) Required RVR The lowest minima to be used by an operator for non-precision approaches are:
Table 4 (a) : RVR for non-precision approach full facilities

Non-precision approach minima Full facilities (Notes (1), (5), (6) and (7) RVR/Aeroplane category A B C 800 m 800 m 800 m 900 m 1 000 m 1 000 m 1 000 m 1 200 m 1 200 m 1 200 m 1 400 m 1 400 m
MDH 250 ft 299 ft 300 ft 449 ft 450 ft 649 ft 650 ft and above
D 1 200m 1 400 m 1 600 m 1 800 m
Table 4(b) : RVR for non-precision approach intermediate facilities

Non-precision approach minima Intermediate facilities (Notes (2), (5), (6) and (7) MDH 250 ft 299 ft 300 ft 449 ft 450 ft 649 ft 650 ft and above A 1 000 m 1 200 m 1 400 m 1 500 m
RVR/Aeroplane category
B 1 100 m 1 300 m 1 500 m 1 500 m C 1 200 m 1 400 m 1 600 m 1 800 m D 1 400 m 1 600 m 1 800 m 2 000 m
Table 4(c) : RVR for non-precision approach basic facilities

Non-precision approach minima Basic facilities (Notes (3), (5), (6) and (7) MDH 250 ft 299 ft 300 ft 449 ft 450 ft 649 ft 650 ft and above A 1 200 m 1 300 m 1 500 m 1 500 m
Table 4 (d) : RVR for non-precision approach Nil approach light facilities
Non-precision approach minima Nil approach light facilities (Notes (4), (5), (6) and (7) MDH 250 ft 299 ft 300 ft 449 ft 450 ft 649 ft 650 ft and above A 1 500 m 1 500 m 1 500 m 1 500 m
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Note: (1) Full facilities comprise runway markings, 720 m or more of HI/MI approach lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights. Lights must be on. (2) Intermediate facilities comprise runway markings, 420 - 719 m of HI/MI approach lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights. Lights must be on. (3) Basic facilities comprise runway markings, < 420 m of HI/MI approach lights, any length of LI approach lights, runway edge Iights, threshold lights and runway end lights. Lights must be on. (4) NiI approach light facilities comprise runway markings, runway edge Iights, threshold lights, runway end lights or no Iights at all. (5) The tables are only applicable to conventional approaches with a nominal descent slope of not greater than 4 . Greater descent slopes will usually reguire that visual glide slope guidance (e.g. PAPI) is also visible at the Minimum Descent Height. (6) The above figures are either reported RVR or meteorological visibility converted to RVR as in TS 135.07.7.8 below. (7) The MDH mentioned In Table 4(a). 4(b), 4(c) and 4(d) refers to the initial calculation of MDH When selecting the associated RVR, there is no need to take account of a rounding up to the nearest ten feet, which may be done for operational purposes, e.g. conversion to MDA. (5) Night operations For night operations at least runway edge, threshold and runway end lights must be on. 3 Precision approach - Category I operations (1) General A Category I operation is a precision instrument approach procedure which provides for an approach to a decision height not lower than 200 ft and a visibility not less than 800 m or RVR not less than 555m. (2) Decision height An operator must ensure that the decision height to be used for a category Iprecision approach is not lower than
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(a) the minimum decision height specified in the aeroplane flight manual (AFM) if stated; (b) the minimum height to which the precision approach aid can be used without the required visual reference; (c) the OCH/OCL for the category of aeroplane; or (d) 200 ft. (3) Visual reference A pilot may not continue an approach below the Category I decision height, determined in accordance with paragraph (2) above, unless at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h) (i) Elements of the approach light system; the threshold; the threshold markings; the threshold lights; the threshold identification lights; the visual glide slope indicator; the touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings; the touchdown zone lights; or runway edge lights.
(4) Required RVR The lowest minima to be used by an operator for Category I operations are:
Table 5 : RVR for Cat 1 approach vs facilities and DH
Category I minima Decision height (Note 7) Full (Notes 1 and 6) 550 m 600 m 650 m 800 m
Facilities/RVR (Note 5)
Interim. (Notes 2 and 6) 700 m 700 m 800 m 900 m Basic (Notes 3 and 6) 800 m 800 m 900 m 1 000 m Nil (Notes 4 and 6) 1 000 m 1 000 m 1 200 m 1 200 m
200 ft 201 250 ft 251 300 ft 301 ft and above
Note : 1. Full facilities comprise runway markings, 720 m or more of HI/MI approach lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights. Lights must be on. Note : 2. Intermediate facilities comprise runway markings, 420 719 m of HI/MI approach lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights. Lights must be on.
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Note : 3. Basic facilities comprise runway markings, 420m of HI/MI approach lights, any length of LI approach lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights. Lights must be on. Note : 4. Nil approach light facilities comprise runway markings, runway edge lights, threshold lights, runway end lights or no lights at all Note : 5. The above figures are either the reported RVR or meteorological visibility converted to RVR as in accordance with technical standard 131.6 Note: 6. The table is applicable to conventional approaches while a glide slope angle up to and including 4. Note: 7. The DH mentioned in Table 5 refers to the initial calculation of DH. When selecting the associated RVR, there is no need to take account of a rounding up to the nearest ten feet, which may be done for operational purposes, e.g. conversion to DA. (5) Single pilot operations For single pilot operations, an operator must calculate the minimum RVR for all approaches in accordance with CAR 135.07.7 and this technical standard. An RVR of less than 800 m is not permitted except when using a suitable autopilot coupled to an ILS or MLS, in which case normal minima apply. The decision height applied may not be less than 1.25x the minimum disengagement height for the autopilot. (6) Night operations For night operations at least runway edge. threshold and runway end lights must be on. 4. Precision approach -Category II operations (1) General A Category II operation is an ILS approach procedure which provides for an approach to a decision height lower than 200 feet but not lower than 100 feet and a RVR of not less than 350 m.
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(2) Decision height An operator must ensure that the decision height for a Category II operation is not lower than (a) the minimum decision height specified in the AFM, if stated; (b) the minimum height to which the precision approach aid can be used without the required visual reference; (c) the OCH/OCL for the category of aeroplane; or (d) the decision height to which the flight crew is authorised to operate; or (e) 100 ft. (3) Visual reference A pilot may not continue an approach below the Category II decision height determined in accordance with paragraph (2) above, unless visual references containing a segment of at least consecutive lights being the centre line of the approach lights, or touchdown zone lights, or runway centre line lights, or runway edge lights, or a combination of these is attained and can be maintained. This visual reference must include a lateral element of the ground pattern, i.e. an approach lighting crossbar or the landing threshold or a barrette of the touchdown zone lighting. (4) Required RVR The lowest minima to be used by an operator for Category II operations are: Table 6 : RVR for Cat II approach vs DH
Category II minima Decision height
100 ft 120 ft Auto-coupled to below DH (Note 1) RVR/Aeroplane Category A,B RVR/Aeroplane Category D and C 300 m 300 m (Note 2) /350 m 400 m 400 m 450 m 450 m
135 ft 140 ft 141 ft and above
Notes 1 : The reference to auto-coupled to below DH in this table means continued use of the automatic flight control system down to a height which is not greater than 80% of the applicable DH. Thus airworthiness requirements may, through minimum engagement height for the automatic flight control system, affect the DH to be applied. Note 2: 300 m May be used for a Category D aeroplane conducting an Autoland.
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2. Precision approach - Category III operations (1) General Category III operations are subdivided as follows: (a) Category III A operations An ILS approach procedure which provides for an approach to a decision height lower than 100 feet or with no decision height and with a RVR of not less than 200 m. (b) Category 111B operations An ILS approach procedure which provides for approach with either decision height lower than 50 feet or no decision height and a RVR lower than 200 m but not less than 75 m. (c) Category IIIC operations An ILS approach procedure which provides for approach with no decision height and no runway visual range limitations. (2) Decision height For operations in which a decision height is used, an operator must ensure that the decision height is not lower than (a) the minimum decision height specified in the AFM, if stated; (b) the minimum height to which the precision approach aid can be used without the required visual reference; or (c) the decision height to which the flight crew is authorised to operate. (3) No decision height operations Operations with no decision height may only be conducted if (a) the operation with no decision height is authorised in the AFM; (b) the approach aid and the aerodrome facilities can support operations with no decision height; and (c) the operator has an approval for CAT III operations with no decision height. Note: In the case of a CAT III runway it may be assumed that operations with no decision height can be supported unless specifically restricted as published in the AIP or NOTAM.
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(4) Visual reference (a) For Category III A operations, a pilot may not continue an approach below the decision height determined in accordance with paragraph (2) above unless a visual reference containing a segment of at least 3 consecutive lights being the centreline of the approach lights, or touchdown zone lights, or runway centre line lights, or runway edge lights, or a combination of these is attained and can be maintained. (b) For Category III B operations with a decision height a pilot may not continue an approach below the decision height, determined in accordance with paragraph (2) above, unless a visual reference containing at least one centreline light is attained and can be maintained. (c) For Category III operations with no decision height there is no requirement for visual contact with the runway prior to touchdown. (5) Required RVR The lowest minima to be used by an operator for Category III operations are: Table 7 : RVR for CAT III approach vs flight control systems and DH
Category III minima Flight control system/RVR (metres) Fail Operational Without roll-out With roll-out guidance or control System system Fail passive Fail operational 200 m Not authorised Not authorised 200 m 125 m Not authorised 200 m 75 m 75 m
Fail Passive
Approach category IIIA IIIB IIIC
Decision height (ft) Less than 100 ft Less than 50 ft No DH
200 m (Note 1) Not authrised Not authrised
Note 1: For operations to actual RVR values less than 300 m a go-around is assumed in the event of an autopilot failure at or below DH. 6. Circling (1) The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling are:
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Table 8 : Visibility and MDH for circling vs aeroplane category

Aeroplane category A B C 400 ft 500 ft 600 ft 1500 1600 2400 m m m
MDH Minimum meteo rological visibilit y
D 700 ft 3600 m
(2) Circling with prescribed tracks is an accepted procedure within the meaning of this paragraph. 7. Visual approach An operator may not use an RVR of less than 1 500 m for a visual approach. 8. Conversion of reported meteorological visibility to RVR
(1) An operator must ensure that a meteorological visibility to RVR conversion is not used for calculating take-off minima, Category II or III minima or when a reported RVR is available. (2) When converting meteorological visibility to RVR in all other circumstances than those in paragraph (1) above, an operator must ensure that the following table is used: Table 9 : Conversion of visibility to RVR
RVR = Reported Met. Visibility x Day Night 1.5 1 2 1.5
Lighting elements in operation HI approach and runway Lighting Any type of lighting installation Other than above No lighting
Not applicable
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135.07.9 FUEL POLICY 1. Contingency fuel At the planning stage, not all factors which could have an influence on the fuel consumption to the destination aerodrome can be foreseen. Therefore, contingency fuel is carried to compensate for items such as (1) deviations of an individual aeroplane from the expected fuel consumption data; (2) deviations from forecast meteorological conditions; and (3) deviations from planned routings and/or cruising levels/altitudes.
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135.07.17
CARRY-ON BAGGAGE
1. Procedures for stowing of carry-on Baggage Procedures established by an operator to ensure that carry-on baggage is adequately and securely stowed must take account of the following: (1) Each item carried in a cabin must be stowed only in a location that is capable of restraining it; (2) mass limitations placarded on or adjacent to stowages must not be exceeded; (3) underseat stowages must not be used unless the seat is equipped with a restraint bar and the baggage is of such size that it may adequately be restrained by this equipment; (4) items must not be stowed in toilets or against bulkheads that are incapable of restraining articles against movement forwards, sideways or upwards and unless the bulkheads carry a placard specifying the greatest mass that may be placed there; (5) baggage and cargo placed in lockers must not be of such size that they prevent latched doors from being closed securely; (6) baggage and cargo must not be placed where it can impede access to emergency equipment; and (7) checks must be made before take-off, before landing, and whenever the pilot-incommand illuminates the fasten seat belts sign (or otherwise so orders) to ensure that baggage is stowed where it cannot impede evacuation from the aircraft or cause injury by failing (or other movement) as may be appropriate to the phase of flight.
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135.08.2 (Reserved.)
GENERAL PROVISIONS FOR ALL CLASSES OF AEROPLANES
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TABLE 1 : MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : SINGLE PILOT CREWS AEROPLANES CERTIFIED FOR SINGLE PILOT OPERATIONS
Local time of start 0500 0659 0700 1359 1400 2059 2100 - 0459
Sectors Up to 4 10 11 10 9
5 9 10 9 8
6 8 9 8 8
7 8 8 8 8
8 or more 8 8 8 8
Note: Pilots engaged in repetitive short flights, with an average eight or more takeoffs and landings per hour, must have a break of at least thirty minutes within any continuous period of three hours, away from the aircraft; however for the purpose of these technical standards each such series of repetitive flights must be counted as a single sector.
TABLE 2 : MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : TWO PILOT CREWS AEROPLANES : ACCLIMATISED TO LOCAL TIME
Local time of start 0500 0659 0700 1359 1400 2059 2100 2159 2200 - 0459
1 13 14 13 12 11
2 12 13 12 11 10
3 11 12 11 10 9
4 10 11 10 9 9
Sectors 5 6 10 9 11 10 10 9 9 9 9 9
7 9 9 9 9 9
8 or more 9 9 9 9 9
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TABLE 3 : MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : TWO PILOT CREWS AEROPLANES : NOT ACCLIMATISED TO LOCAL TIME
Length of preceding Rest (hours) Up to 18 or over 30 Between 18 and 30
1 13 12
2 12 11
3 11 10
Sectors 4 10 9
5 10 9
6 9 9
7 or more 9 9
Note: The reason that available duty times are less following rest periods inside 18 30 hours is the aeromedical advice that the quality of rest isless due to the disturbance of the bodys natural rhythm.
TABLE 4 : MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : BASIC CREW CONSISTING OF THREE FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS AEROPLANES CERTIFIED FOR THREE CREW MEMBERS : ACCLIMATISED TO LOCAL TIME
Local time of start 0500 0659 0700 1359 1400 2059 2100 2159 2200 - 0459
Sectors 1 13 14 13 12 11
2 12 13 12 11 10
3 11 12 11 10 9
4 10 11 10 9 9
5 10 11 10 9 9
6 9 10 9 9 9
7 9 9 9 9 9
8 or more 9 9 9 9 9
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TABLE 5 : MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : BASIC CREW CONSISTING OF THREE FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS AEROPLANES CERTIFIED FOR THREE CREW MEMBERS : NOT ACCLIMATISED TO LOCAL TIME
Length of Preceding Rest (hours) Up to 18 or over 30 Between 18 and 30
Sectors 4
7 or more 9 9
13 12
12 11
11 10
10 9
10 9
9 9
Note: The reason that available duty times are less following rest periods inside 18 30 Hours is the aeromedical advice that the quality of rest is less due to the disturbance of the bodys natural rhythm.
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ANNEZURE A
PILOT-IN COMMANDS DISCRETION REPORT SECTION 1 : EXTENSION OF FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : Operator Aircraft type Flight number Pilot-in-command Date Note: If discretion exercised for part crew or individual state name(s) and Operating capacity below. Part B Flight details YES/NO*
Part A
(1) Crew acclimatised to time zone
(2) Length of preceding rest eighteen to thirty hrs/under eighteen or over thirty hours * (3) Split duty: actual time offtime on (4) Extended FDP for in-flight relief * Delete inapplicable items YES/NO*
FLIGHT DETAILS Schedule (planned) Place UTC

Start of duty Depart Arrive Depart Arrive Depart Arrive Depart Arrive FDP to end Schedule FDP
Local
Duty started Departed Arrived Departed Arrived Departed Arrived Departed Arrived FDP ended Actual FDP Maximum permitted FDP
Actual UTC
Local
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Part C : Pilot-in commands report giving reasons Signed : . Date : .
Operators remarks / Action taken
Signed : . Date : .
Forwarded to CAA Date : . SECTION 2 : REDUCTION OF REST Note: All times to be recorded as date/time six-figure groups, expressed in both UTC and Local time. Part A: Operator Flight number Aircraft type Pilot-in-command Date Note: If discretion exercised for part crew or individual state name(s) and operating Capacity below. Part B: Last duty started Last duty ended Rest earned Calculated earliest next Avialable Actual start of next FDP Rest period reduced By crew affected UTC/Local UTC/Local Hours UTC/Local UTC/Local UTC/Local
Part C: Pilot in commands report Signed : . Date : .
Operators remarks / Action taken
Signed : . Date : .
Forwarded to CAA Filed : .
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ANNEXURE B
LOADSHEET
Aircraft ZS. Date A AIRCRAFT Operating mass, empty Extra equipment (water injectants, defluid etc) Crew (No) Crew Baggage Operating mass, empty B PAYLOAD Passengers (No.) (Passenger manifest must accompany this load sheet) Free baggage Excess Baggage Freight Mail (Other) Aircraft zero fuel mass C FUEL (USABLE) Tank No Tank No Tank No Tank No .. .. .. .. (QUANTITY) . . . . MASS ARM MOMENT Type From. Flight No. To.
TOTAL AIRCRAFT MASS AND CENTRE OF GRAVITY (as loaded).. FUEL EXPECTED TO BE USED ON THIS FLIGHT ESTIMATED LANDING MASS AND CENTRE OF GRAVITY AT THE END OF THIS FLIGHT. I hereby certify the load distribution to be in accordance with the requirements prescribed in the Flight or Operations Manual and that the maximum certificated mass has not been exceeded.
. SIGNATURE OF LOADER LOAD SHEET EXAMINED Date.. Signed Pilot - in - command
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ANNEXURE C
(LOGO) SOUTH AFRICAN CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 1997
APPLICATION FOR NOTIFICATION OF CHANGES TO THE ISSUING OF AN OPERATING CERTIFICATE TO THE PARTICULARS ON AN OPERATING CERTIFICATE Notes: (i.) This application/notificafion must be signed by (a) the holder of the air service licence, if a natural person; (b) each partner, if the application/notification is on behalf of a partnership; or (c) the officer(s) duly authorised to execute documents on its behalf, if the applicant/holder of an air service licence is a company, close corporation or organisation, and must be accompanied a certified true copy of the relevant authorising resolution. (ii.) Where the required information cannot be furnished in the space provided on this form, the information must as a separate memorandum and attached hereto. *Delete if not applicable.
(iii.)
Mark the appropriate block Application for the issuing of an operating certificate Notification of changes to the particulars on the operating certificate. 1. PARTICULARS REGARDING THE APPLICANT
1.1 Full name :
1.2 Trade name if any:
1.3 Full business/residential address: .. .. .. ..
1.4 Postal address: .. .. .. Postal code:
1.5 Telephone number :
1.6 Telefax number :
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*I/We herby declare that * I/we are in possession of an approved operations manual, that it is up to date and that *I/We may not operate the air service concerned contrary to the relevant approved operations manual and any provisions of the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990 (Act No. 115 of 1990), the Aviation Act, 1962 (Act No. 74 of 1962), and the Civil Aviation Offences Act, 1972 (Act No 10. of 1972).
Name(s) of signatory(ies) . . . . .
Signature(s) . . . . .
I certify that the deponent(s) *has/have acknowledged that * he knows and understands/they know and understand the contents of this statement, which was signed and *affirmed/sworn to before me at
.on19 .
. Commissioner of Oaths
Full . Business .
Name:
address:
. Capacity . Area .
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ANNEXURE D
(LOGO)
SOUTH AFRICAN CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 1997 OPERATING CERTIFICATE
Operating certificate number : .. This is to certify that . Of
To whom (a) Class/Classes.
Licence(s), number(s) Dated. . Has been authorised to operate the said air service(s) in accordance with the approved operations manual and the provisions of the Air Service Licensing Act, 1990 (Act No. 115 of 1990), the Aviation Act, 1962 (Act No 74 of 1962), and the Civil Aviation Offences Act, 1972 (Act No. 10 of 1972).
Expiry date : ..
Issued at PRETORIA ..19..
on
Commissioner of Civil Aviation
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APPENDIX A
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AIR LAW
Appendix A
Questions are often asked in the examination concerning the use of navigation lights at night to avoid collision. Once a few principles are understood, these problems should not prove difficult at all. Using the diagram below let us examine the illustrated situations and formulate some rules.
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Red to red and green to green is safe therefore no risk of collision exists. Easy enough. Red to green (and vice versa!) is unsafe - but when and ,what must you do? If the relative bearing between yourself and the other aircraft is either increasing or decreasing then, although not safe, there is no collision risk. If the bearing remains constant then there is a risk of collision and if: You have the other aircraft on your right, the ANR's say you must alter heading to the right to avoid collision. You have the other aircraft on your left, maintain heading but be prepared to take action should the other aircraft not take avoiding action. (Remember he has you on his right and he must therefore give way.) Finally, should you be approaching an aircraft from behind (with its white tail light visible, that is, within 70 of its fore-aft axis and it is getting closer, bearing remaining constant, you are on a collision course. You are in fact busy overtaking the other aircraft and you must thus alter heading to the right. In the table below consider the conditions given in columns (1) to (3). Select the correct answer from the following 4 alternatives and insert it in column 4. (a) (b) (c) (d) There is no risk of collision. There is a collision risk. Alter heading to port. There is a collision risk. Alter heading to starboard. There is a collision risk. Maintain heading but be prepared to take action if the other fails to give way.
Assume the following: (i.) You are flying at night in a flying machine. (ii.) The lights seen are those of another flying machine at about the same altitude. (iii.) If avoiding action is necessary there is sufficient time for normal action.
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NOTES: (i.) Increases or decreases in column (3) refers to the numerical change in the value of the bearing. A dash in column (3) means that no information about change in relative bearing is required to answer that question. Lights of the other flying machine seen in addition to its anti collision light (1) Question 1 Question 2 Question 3 Question 4 Question 5 Question 6 Question 7 Question 8 Question 9 Question 10 Question 11 Question 12 Question 13 Question 14 Question 15 Question 16 Question 17 Question 18 Question 19 Question 20 Steady Red and White Steady Red and Green Steady Green Steady Green Steady Red Steady White getting nearer Steady Green Steady Red and Green Steady Red Steady Green Steady Red Steady White to which you are getting nearer Steady Green Steady Red and Green Steady Red Steady White getting nearer Steady Red Steady Green Steady Red Steady Green Relative bearing of the lights when first seen (2) 040 080 030 350 045 010 300 000 050 340 030 350 330 040 020 310 320 290 030 340 Subsequent change in the relative bearing, if any Answer
(ii.)
(3) Remains constant Decreases quickly Decreases quickly Remains constant Decreases quickly Increases quickly Increases quickly Decreases quickly No change Remains constant Increasing slowly No change No change No change No change
(4)
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ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A A A A C A C A A A B D A A C A D C D
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APPENDIX B
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QUESTIONS
1. The final decision regarding the admission of any person to the flight deck shall be the responsibility of the: a) b) c) Co-pilot Pilot-in-command Commissioner
2.
A person may smoke in a South African registered aeroplane when such aeroplane is used in a scheduled air transport service operation and has departed from and will be landing within the Republic a) b) c) True False Not Applicable
3.
Where may infants in small commercial air transport aeroplanes NOT be seated: a) b) c) Windows Adults laps Exits
4.
How many passengers with a disability or unaccompanied minors may be carried in a small commercial air transport aeroplane: a) b) c) 1 2 3
5.
An infant is defined as being a) b) c) 3 years or younger Not yet reached his/her second birthday 1 year or younger
6.
A child is defined as being a) b) c) Between 2 years and 12 years Between 2 years and under 12 years Between 1 year and under 12 years
7.
Over a 14 day period, the number of days off should not be less than: a) b) c) 3 days 2 days 4 days
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8.
The minimum RVR/visibility for take-off with runway edge lighting and/or center-line marking in an aircraft other than a category D aircraft is: a) b) c) 500 m 250 m 300 m
9.
For a visual approach, the minimum RVR may not be less than: a) b) c) 1000 m 1500 m 2000 m
10.
Night duty means a period of not less than 4 hours between a) b) c) 20h00 to 06h00 24h00 to 06h00 02h00 to 06h00
11
No twin or single engine aircraft may be operated over water without a life raft if more than: a) b) c) 10 minutes or 50 NM from shore; 90 minutes or 300 NM from shore; 30 minutes or 100 NM from shore.
12
No aircraft shall be used to conduct single pilot IFR flights unless equipped with: a) b) c) Auto-pilot with heading mode; Auto-pilot with altitude and heading mode; Auto-pilot with altitude mode.
13
No aircraft owner or operator shall operate an aircraft without each seat being equipped with: a) A seat belt; b) A safety harness for all crew members; c) A seat belt for cabin crew members and a safety harness for each flight deck crew member.
14
An aircraft may not be operated over water without a life jacket for each person aboard more than .. from the shore: a) b) c) Gilding distance; 50 NM; 10 NM.
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15
No aircraft shall be operated by day unless it is equipped with: a) b) c) An anti-collision light and torch for each crew member; An anti-collision light and an emergency electrical power source for the illumination of all instruments and equipment used by the flight crew; An anti-collision light system.
16
No aircraft shall be operated at night without: a) b) c) An anti-collision light system, navigation lights or position lights; Anti-collision light system, navigation lights, position lights and two landing lights or a single light having two separately energised filaments; Two parachute flares if the maximum certificated mass is less than 5700 kgs.
17
No pilot shall act as Pilot In Command of an aircraft on an instrument approach in IMC unless the pilot has within the preceding 90 days completed at least: a) b) c) 2 actual approaches in IMC; 2 simulated approaches; 1 actual approach in IMC.
18
No person acting as a flight crew member, may consume alcohol before commencing a flight, within: a) b) c) 8 hours; 12 hours; none of the above.
19
When two aircraft are converging at the same level, which aircraft has the right of way: a) b) c) The one on the right; The one on the left; Neither.
20
When an aircraft is being overtaken by another aircraft, which aircraft has the right of way and in which direction must the aircraft giving way turn: a) b) c) The overtaken aircraft to the right; The overtaking aircraft to the left; The aircraft being overtaken and the overtaking aircraft must turn to the left.
21
When can an overtaking aircraft alter its heading to the left: a) b) c) When a pilot deems it necessary in the interest of safety; When a right-hand circuit is in force; When a left-hand circuit is in force.
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22.
At what time intervals must an operator establish the mass and the centre of gravity of the aircraft by actually weighing the aircraft a) b) c) Every 5 years Every 3 years Every 4 years
23.
No pilot shall operate an aircraft in formation flight, except: a) b) c) By prior written approval having been granted by the Commissioner By arrangement between the pilot-in-command of each aircraft In uncontrolled airspace
24
An aircraft following a line feature at or below 1500 ft. AGL and within 1 nm. of that line feature shall: a) b) c) Fly to the right of the line feature Fly to the left of the line feature Fly directly along the line feature
25
Special VFR can be given a) b) c) By day only When visibility is less than 1500m. Both A & B.
26
Every VFR flight shall be so conducted that the aircraft is flown with visual reference to the surface by day and at no time above more than. a) b) c) Four eighths cloud within a 3 nm. radius Three eighths cloud within a 5 nm. radius Three eighths cloud within a 3 nm. radius
27
As stated under Part 1 of the CARs, day means the period of time from: a) b) c) 15 minutes before sunrise to 15 minutes after sunset. 15 minutes after sunrise to 15 minutes before sunset 15 minutes after sunrise to 15 minutes after sunset.
28
As stated under Part 1 of the CARs, estimated time of arrival in respect of a VFR flight, means: a) b) c) Estimated time that the aircraft will touchdown at the destination aerodrome. Estimated time that the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome Estimated time that the aircraft commences shutdown
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29
As stated under Part 91, no person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft: a) b) c) Within 24 hrs. following scuba diving Within 12 hrs. following scuba diving Within 36 hrs. following scuba diving
30
As stated under Part 91 CARs, no person shall consume alcohol less than: a) b) c) 16 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty, 12 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty, 8 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty.
31
As stated under Part 91 CARs, no person shall act as a flight deck crew member of an aircraft if flight time exceeds: a) b) c) 120 hrs. during the preceding 30 days 350 hrs. during the preceding 90 days 400 hrs. during the preceding 30 days
32
As stated in Part 91 CARs, a pilot shall not act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers by night unless the pilot has carried out 3 take-offs and landing by night in the same class/category aircraft within: a) b) c) 90 days 60 days 6 months
33
As stated in part 91 CARs, the PIC of the aircraft shall ensure that breathing oxygen is available if flights in a non-pressurised aircraft are contemplated: a) b) c) Above 10,000 feet Above 14,000 feet Above 18,000 feet
34
If a flight plan is to be filed in flight, at least how long must it be filed before entering controlled or advisory airspace: a) b) c) 30 minutes 60 minutes 10 minutes
35
A flight folio must be retained for at least how many years from the date of its last entry: a) b) c) 3 years 5 years 7 years
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36
An owner / operator may not operate a non-pressurised aircraft at altitudes above feet and up to feet for longer than ... minutes, unless supplemental oxygen is provided for the crew and all passengers. a) b) c) 12000'/14000'/ 60 minutes. 10000/2000'/ 45 minutes. 10000' /12000'/ 60 minutes.
37
At least one hand fire extinguisher must be conveniently located on the flight deck for use by flight deck crew. This must be of the following type : a) b) c) CO 2. Halon 1211. Dry Chemical.
38
An aircraft owner / operator must ensure that the ELT on board the aircraft is capable of transmitting on the distress frequencies : a) b) c) 121.5 kHz and 243 MHz. 121.5 kHz and 234 kHz. 121.5 MHz and 243 MHz.
39
By day or night, a series of projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of 10 seconds showing, on bursting, red and green lights or stars will indicate to an aircraft : a) b) c) It is flying in, or about to enter, a restricted, prohibited or danger area. Aerodrome is unsafe - do not land. Aerodrome radio station unserviceable - continue unmanned.
40
For marshalling of fixed - wing aircraft, the signalman shall be facing the aircraft, within view of the pilot, in a position : a) b) c) Forward of the right wingtip. Forward of the left wingtip. In the centre of both wingtips.
41
The meaning of an intercepting aircraft rocking its wings whilst in front of and to the right of an intercepted aircraft, by day, is : a) b) c) Follow me away from a prohibited area, Follow me to a landing terrain. Land on this landing area.
42
The highest allowable VFR Flight Level is : a) b) c) FL 185. FL 195. FL 205.
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43 a) b) c)
A signal made by radiotelegraphy consisting of S0S in Morse code will be: . . . - - - - - . - - . ---...
44
When using GPS in controlled airspace, the ATS unit must be advised if RAIM is lost for periods greater than minutes, even if GPS is still providing positional information. a) b) 15 minutes. 5 minutes. c) 10 minutes.
45
Critical phase of flight includes all ground operations and taxi, take-off and climb to cruise. a) b) c) Up to 1 500 feet Above 10 000 feet Up to 10 000 feet
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ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
B B C A B B A B B A C B B B A A A A A A B A B A A B A B A C B A A C B C B C A B B B A C C
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MOCK EXAM CPL AIR LAW
TIME: TOTAL MARKS: NO. OF QUESTIONS: PASS MARK:
2 HOUR
75%
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1.
When a pilot in command of an aircraft departs from the provisions of Air Navigation regulations in the interests of safety, the pilot in command shall report such departure and the reasons therefore to the : a) Commissioner of Civil Aviation within seven days, b) Nearest major police station, c) Nearest convenient air traffic services unit as soon as is practicable.
2.
Except with the written permission of the Commissioner, and subject to any condition he may impose in the interests of safety, no aircraft shall circle over or within one kilometre of, or do repeated overflights over an open air assembly of persons below a height of: a) 3000 feet above the surface, b) 2000 feet above the surface, c) 1500 feet above the surface.
3.
Except when necessary for taking off or landing, or except by individual permission from the Commissioner, aircraft shall be flown over built up areas at heights : a) which will permit, in the event of the failure of a power unit, an emergency landing without due hazard to persons or property on the surface, b) of not less than 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a radius of 2000 feet from the aircraft, c) of not less than 1500 feet above the highest obstacle within a radius of 2000 feet from the aircraft.
4.
An aircraft flown in accordance with VFR shall not be required to comply with the provisions of Flight Levels if flown at a height above the surface of less than : a) 1000 feet, b) 1500 feet, c) 2000 feet.
5.
No pilot shall use a public road as a place of landing or take off, except : a) in the case of emergency involving the safety of the aircraft, b) with the permission of the Public Roads Department, c) where no licensed aerodrome is available.
6.
Except by an individual from the Commissioner, aircraft shall not be flown acrobatically within: a) five nautical miles of an aerodrome unless at a height not less than 4000 feet above ground level, b) six nautical miles of an aerodrome unless at a height not less than 5000 feet above ground level, c) eight nautical miles of an aerodrome unless at a height not less than 5000 feet above ground level.
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7.
Except when instructed to do otherwise by an ATC unit, an aircraft flying at or below 1500 feet above the surface and following a road, a railway line or any other line feature, shall fly a) to the left of the line feature, b) overhead the line feature, c) to the right of the line feature.
8.
Where a right hand circuit is being followed at an aerodrome, a faster aircraft in the circuit may: a) overtake a slower aircraft on the left of the slower aircraft, b) not overtake the slower aircraft, c) overtake a slower aircraft on the right of the slower aircraft.
9.
Unless otherwise authorised by an ATC, no person shall fly an aircraft within a control zone or an aerodrome traffic zone at an indicated airspeed of more than : a) 180 knots piston engine aircraft and 210 knots turbine powered aircraft, b) 160 knots piston engine aircraft and 200 knots turbine powered aircraft, c) 170 knots piston engine aircraft and 220 knots turbine powered aircraft.
10.
Decision Height (DH) is referenced to : a) mean sea level, b) runway threshold elevation, c) aerodrome elevation.
11.
The minimum RVR or VIS, below which no approach to land shall be commenced or continued, shall be determined by the : a) Pilot in command, b) Commissioner, c) Operator of the aircraft.
12.
The pilot in command shall, prior to undertaking an IFR flight, obtain a weather forecast for the destination and alternate aerodromes for a duration of at least: a) one hour before and one hour after the ETA at both aerodromes, b) the fuel endurance of the aircraft, c) the ETA plus 1 hours at both aerodromes.
13.
An aircraft is cleared for a Cobra 2 Alfa STAR for an ILS approach to Johannesburg runway 03 L. In the event of a missed approach, the aircraft will divert to Durban. If the aircraft is not visual at the MAPt the correct procedure is to comply with the : a) missed approach procedure and divert from the JS NDB, b) climb straight ahead to the JB NDB, turn left onto heading 280 and at 8300 ft. turn left for Bloemfontein, c) RHINO 2A SID
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14.
VMC minima for IFR flights above flight level 200 are : a) visibility 8 kilometres distance from cloud 1 km horizontally, 1000 feet vertically, b) visibility 5 kilometres distance from cloud 2000 feet horizontally, 500 feet vertically, c) visibility 5 kilometres distance from cloud 1 km horizontally, 1000 feet vertically.
15.
No person shall act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger by night unless he has carried out, in an aircraft of the same class and category, not less than a) five take offs and landings within six months of the flight, b) three take offs and landings within 90 days preceding the flight, c) three take offs and landings within six months of the flight.
16.
An applicant for a commercial pilot's licence shall be not less than 18 years of age and have completed not less than 200 hours of flight time which shall include : a) 100 hours as pilot in command, 20 hours cross country flight time as pilot in command, 10 hours of night flying as pilot in command and 20 hours of instrument flight instruction, b) 100 hours as pilot in command, 30 hours cross country flight time as pilot in command, 20 hours of night flying as pilot in command and 20 hours of instrument flight instruction, c) 100 hours as pilot in command, 20 hours cross country flight time as pilot in command, 10 hours of night flying as pilot in command and 40 hours of instrument flight instruction.
17.
An applicant for an instrument rating shall have completed not less than : a) 150 hours of flight time as pilot in command and 40 hours of instrument time, b) 100 hours of flight time as pilot in command and 40 hours of instrument time, c) 150 hours of flight time as pilot in command and 20 hours of instrument time.
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18.
Except in an emergency, no aircraft shall take off or land by night unless: a) The aircraft is equipped with landing lights in: accordance with Air navigation Regulations in which case such landing lights may be regarded as sufficient equipment for take off and landing at night. b) The pilot in command is familiar with the aerodrome and that the aerodrome is manned; c) The place of take off or landing is equipped for night flying and the pilot in command shall be responsible for ensuring that night flying facilities are available for the take off or landing.
19.
A loadsheet shall be completed for flights made by South African aircraft which are classified and operated under the public transport category and have a maximum certified mass greater than : a) 1600Kg, b) 2700Kg, c) 5700Kg.
20.
A pilot in command of an aircraft in flight shall not permit objects to be picked up unless: a) the aircraft is suitably equipped and certified by the aircraft operating manual, b) prior authority is granted by the Commissioner, c) such pick up can be made without hazard to persons or property on the ground.
21.
You are requested to fly a foreign registered aeroplane for which you have the appropriate type rating on your South African licence. a) You may fly the aeroplane in South African airspace subject to SA Air Navigation Regulations, b) You may fly the aeroplane with written permission of the owner, c) You may not fly the aeroplane if you do not hold a licence as prescribed under the laws of the country in which the aeroplane is registered.
22.
An accident involving a South African registered aircraft outside South Africa shall be reported as soon as possible to the : a) appropriate aviation authority in the country where the accident occurred and the Commissioner for Civil Aviation, Pretoria. b) aircraft owner, the police and the aviation authority in the country where the accident occurred, c) ATC and the aviation authority in the country where the accident occurred.
23.
An aircraft may use an airport licensed for private use : a) with ATC permission, b) with permission granted by the licensee only, c) with permission of the Commissioner.
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24.
An unlicensed aerodrome is recognized by : a) the letter "P" in a circle at the centre of the aerodrome, b) crosses at each end of runways, c) the absence of aerodrome markings.
25.
When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same height, the aircraft that has he other on its right shall give way, except : a) gliders shall give way to balloons, airships shall give way to aircraft which are seen to be towing other aircraft, b) gliders shall give way to airships and balloons.
26.
The loadsheet of a public transport aircraft must be retained after a flight for a period of not less than: a) 30 days b) 90 days c) 60 days
27.
The pre flight inspection of an aircraft is the responsibility of the: a) co pilot, b) flight engineer, c) pilot in command.
28.
A pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft unless he has, in the preceding: a) 90 days carried out three take offs and landings in an aircraft of the same class and category or an approved simulator, b) six months carried out three take offs and landings in an aircraft of the same class and category or an approved simulator, c) six months carried out six take offs and landings in an aircraft of the same class and category or an approved simulator,
29.
An aerodrome or its environs shall not be crossed at a height of less than: a) 1000 feet. b) 1500 feet. c) 2000 feet.
30.
The holder of any licence, certificate or rating shall inform the Commissioner of any change of permanent address within a period of: a) 7 days, b) 14 days, c) 1 month.
Revision: 4 348
AIRLAW
31.
The vehicle moving along a runway or taxiway shall as far as practical keep to the : a) right side of the runway or taxiway, b) either edge of the runway or taxiway, c) left side of the runway or taxiway.
32.
'Flight' means the time period between the : a) moment the aircraft commences its take off until the moment it completes the next landing, b) moment the aircraft moves under its own power until it comes to rest at the end of the flight, c) moment the aircraft becomes airborne until the moment of touch down.
33. 34.
'Day' means the period of time from: 'Night' means the period of time from: a) sunset to sunrise, b) the end of evening twilight to the beginning of morning twilight, c) 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes before sunrise.
35.
Instrument flight time means the time period an aircraft is: a) On an IFR flight plan b) Above FL 200 c) Piloted solely with reference to instruments without external reference points.
36.
Life saving rafts and associated equipment shall be carried over water if the distance and time from the shore is: a) 400 miles or 120 minutes, whichever is the greater, if the aircraft has four engines b) 400 miles or 120 minutes, which ever is the lesser, if the aircraft has four engines c) 400 miles or 120 minutes, whichever is the lesser, if the aircraft has three or more engines.
37.
All aeroplanes operating in the public transport category shall carry a flight data recorder if the maximum certified mass is : a) 2 700 Kg or over b) 4 700 Kg or over c) 27000 Kg or over
38.
A certificate of release to service is to be retained by the owner/operator for a period of: a) 9 months b) 6 months c) 12 months
Revision: 4 349
AIRLAW
39.
The pilot of an aircraft observes the anti collision beacon and the red navigation light of another aircraft on a relative bearing of 030 , the bearing remaining constant. a) there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the right, b) there is no danger of collision. c) there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the left.
40.
The pilot of an aircraft observes the anti collision beacon and the green navigation light of another aircraft on a relative bearing of 330 , the bearing remaining constant. a) there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the right, b) there is no danger of collision. c) there is a danger of collision.
41.
The maximum indicated airspeed for an aircraft flying outside controlled airspace and between 1000 feet and 10 000 feet is : a) 200 knots b) 250 knots, c) 300 knots.
42.
A flight plan shall be filed at least : a) 30 minutes before departure, b) 1 hour before departure, c) 1 hours before departure.
43.
If a flight plan has been filed prior to departure and the departure of the aircraft is delayed and the ATC is not informed, the fight plan will be cancelled after: a) 30 minutes after the ETD, b) 1 hour after the ETD, c) 1 hours after the ETD.
44.
ATC shall be informed if the average TAS of an aircraft at cruising level changes by: a) 5% b) 10% c) 15%
45.
If radio contact cannot be made between an intercepting aircraft and an intercepted aircraft, visual signals shall be used. If the intercepting aircraft rocks its wings while in front of and to the left of the intercepted aircraft, this means : a) follow me away from a prohibited area, b) leave the prohibited area by reversing track, c) follow me to a landing terrain.
Revision: 4 350
AIRLAW
46.
If radio contact cannot be made between an intercepting aircraft and an intercepted aircraft visual signals shall be used. If the intercepting aircraft rocks its wings while in front of and to the right of the intercepted aircraft, this means : a) follow me away from a prohibited area, b) leave the prohibited area by reversing track, c) follow me to a landing terrain.
47.
No article other than fine sand or clean water used as ballast or chemical substances for the purpose of spraying or dusting may be dropped from an aircraft in flight, except: a) by special permission granted by the Commissioner for Civil Aviation; b) in an emergency; c) both (a) and (b) are correct.
48.
On a VFR flight form X to Z an Airway has to be crossed at right angles. Both X and Z are situated outside Controlled airspace. a) it is only necessary to file a flight plan if alerting action is required: b) it is not necessary to file a flight plan. c) both a) and b) are correct.
49.
The pre flight inspection regarding serviceability of the aircraft and its equipment and instruments are the responsibility of: a) the flight engineer and the co pilot; b) the flight engineer: c) the pilot in command.
50.
The pilot in command of an aircraft shall not permit objects to be picked up except a) if the aircraft is suitably equipped and such operation is authorised in the operating manual of the aircraft; b) if such pick up can be made with no hazard to propertyor persons on the ground; c) with prior authority of the Commissioner for Civil Aviation.
51.
AIRCRAFT "A" : 120 degrees first available FL above FL 200 AIRCRAFT "B" : 300 degrees first available FL above FL 200 a) There is a risk of collision. b) There is no risk of collision.
52.
A flight plan for a flight to be conducted in Controlled airspace or Advisory airspace must be submitted at least: a) 60 minutes before departure; b) 30 minutes before departure; c) 45 minutes before departure.
Revision: 4 351
AIRLAW
53.
From 1500 feet above the surface to FL 100 flight visibility and distance from cloud must be: a) one nautical mile and clear of cloud: b) 5 km visibility, 2000 feet horizontally and 500 feet vertically: c) 5 km visibility, 1 nm horizontally and 1000 feet vertically.
54.
From above FL 100 up to and including FL 200 flight visibility and distance from cloud must be: a) 5 km visibility, horizontally 2000 feet and 500 feet vertically; b) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1,5 km and 1000 feet vertically; c) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1,5 km and 500 feet vertically.
55.
From above FL 200, day and night, flight visibility and distance from cloud must be: a) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1,5 km and 1000 feet vertically; b) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1500 feet and 500 feet vertically; c) 5 km visibility, horizontally 1,8 km and 1500 feet vertically.
56.
An aircraft is to maintain a track of 357 degrees (T). TAS 110 KTS : wind velocity 285/20 variation 10 W. Which of the following IFR flight levels can be selected? a) F115:F080:F215: b) F 205 :F100 :F 230;. c) F 090 :F210:F 130.
57.
An aircraft is to maintain a track of 175 degrees (T). TAS 110 KTS: wind velocity 070/20; variation 07 W. Which of the following IFR flight levels can be selected? a) F 140 : F 280 :F 310; b) F 160 : F 195 :F 280: c) F 210 : F 240 :F 310.
58.
AIRCRAFT "A": 000 degrees VFR AIRCRAFT "B": 180 degrees IFR What would be the minimum flight separation between the two aircraft? a) 1500 feet; b) 1000 feet; c) 500 feet.
59.
AIRCRAFT "A" : 359 degrees VFR AIRCRAFT "B" : 179 degrees IFR What would be the minimum flight separation between the two aircraft? a) 1000 feet: b) 1500 feet: c) 500 feet.
Revision: 4 352
AIRLAW
60.
AIRCRAFT "A" : 179 degrees VFR AIRCRAFT "B" : 000 degrees IFR What would be the minimum flight separation between the two aircraft? a) 1000 feet; b) 2000 feet: c) 500 feet.
61.
The pilot operating on or in the vicinity of an aerodrome where there is no Air Traffic Control, shall be responsible for: a) making all turns to the right when other air traffic is observed doing so; b) making all turns to the left unless a right hand circuit is in force; c) making turns to the left or right, providing there is no risk or collision.
62.
Cloud ceiling as defined shall mean: a) the height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below 10,000 feet, covering more than half the sky; b) the height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below 20,000 feet, covering less than half the sky; c) the height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below 20,000 feet, covering more than half the sky.
63.
The semi circular rule is based on : a) magnetic track; b) magnetic heading; c) true track.
64.
Lights to be displayed by heavier than air aircraft are: a) red on the right, green on the left and white on the tail; b) red on the left, green on the right and white on the tail: c) green on the right, white on the left and red on the tail.
65.
When two aircraft are on a converging track: a) the one which has the other on its left shall give way and must avoid passing ahead of the other, unless well clear of it: b) the one which has the other on its right shall give way and must avoid passing ahead of the other, unless well clear of it; c) both aircraft should alter heading to the left and maintain so until the possibility of collision is well avoided.
Revision: 4 353
AIRLAW
66.
Where a right hand circuit is being followed at an airfield, an aircraft wishing to overtake another aircraft may: a) overtake the slower aircraft by passing on its right: b) overtake the slower aircraft by passing on its left; c) not overtake the slower aircraft.
67.
The pilot in command may depart from the prescribed Rules and Regulations in the interest of safety, when such a departure has been made the pilot must report it to the: a) Director General : Department of Transport; b) Nearest convenient Air Traffic Service Unit: c) Nearest police station.
68.
Except when necessary for taking off or landing, or except with the individual permission from the Commissioner for Civil Aviation, an aircraft shall be flown over built up areas at a height: a) of not less than 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a radius of 2000 feet from the aircraft; b) which, in the event of the failure of a power unit, will permit an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface; c) of not less than 1500 feet above the highest obstacle within a radius 2000 feet from the aircraft:
69.
If A files a flight plan and B does not : a) A has priority; b) No one has priority: c) A may be given priority.
70.
Acrobatic flight is permitted if: a) the aircraft can be brought to an even keel at not less than 2000 ft above ground level; b) near a suitable forced landing field, c) with permission from the owner of the aircraft.
71.
Minimum height when circling over a crowd of people is a) 1000 feet; b) 3000 feet; c) not permitted.
Revision: 4 354
AIRLAW
72.
Whilst flying at night, you observe the green side light of another aircraft on a relative bearing of 320 deg. at the same flight level and the bearing remains constant; you should; a) maintain heading and speed but be prepared to take action if the other aircraft fails to give way: b) alter heading to starboard; c) maintain speed and alter heading to port.
73.
In order to fly according to visual flight rules, below 1000 feet outside controlled airspace, the flight visibility must be at least a) 5 kilometres: b) 3 kilometres: c) 1 kilometres.
74.
The signal which, when directed from an aerodrome at an aircraft in the air shall constitute an instruction to the aircraft to give way to other aircraft and continue circling a) an intermittent green beam; b) a continuous red beam; c) an intermittent read beam.
75.
In a Control Zone for a turbo prop aircraft, the maximum IAS is a) 160 knots: b) 200 knots; c) 170 knots.
76.
The mandatory red and green lights on wingtips for a night flight should be visible above and below the horizontal plane, and from dead ahead through an angle ofa) 70 deg.; b) 110 deg.: c) 120 deg.:
77.
In a simulated instrument flight, the safety pilot must a) occupy a control seat; b) occupy a control seat and have adequate vision in all directions; c) have adequate vision in all directions.
78.
At an airfield without an ATSU, an aircraft taking off on runway 35 on a cross country flight shall turn :a) left: b) right; c) it will depend on whether there is a left or right hand circuit on RW 35 after take off to set a course of 090 deg.
Revision: 4 355
AIRLAW
79.
A steady green light to aircraft in the air means: a) cleared to land; b) return for landing; c) give way to other traffic, and then land.
80.
Whilst on an IFR flight, complete radio communication failure is experienced and the subsequent procedure is: a) continue flying in VMC if possible and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome: b) although flight is possible in VMC the flight must continue to the aerodrome of original destination: c) proceed to an alternate aerodrome with a known cloud base of at least 1000 feet.
81.
In Item 10 of an ICAO flight plan, the letters S, D and Z appear; this means that the following equipment is carried: a) VHF, ADF, VOR, ILS, DME and other; b) VHF, ADF, ILS, DME and GPS; c) VHF, ADF, DME and Transponder.
82.
A special VFR flight is applicable to: a) An ATZ, ATA and CTR b) Only a CTR c) An ATZ and CTR
83.
Acrobatic fight, including spins, may not take place, except with the permission of the CAA a) below 4000 feet; b) below 2000 feet; c) below 3000 feet.
84.
To overtake another aircraft in the circuit, the overtaking aircraft must: a) turn right: b) turn left: c) turn right except in a right hand circuit.
85.
Gliders have right of way over balloons a) True b) False
Revision: 4 356
AIRLAW
86.
Maximum speed in a TMA is a) 250 kts; b) 200 kts; c) none of these.
87.
For a flight from George Airport (controlled) to Beaufort West (uncontrolled) a Flight Plan a) must be filed; b) can be filed for SAR: c) must be filed if the flight is at night.
88.
A Green flashing light followed by a Red pyrotechnical light means: a) the aerodrome is unsafe; do not land; b) do not land for the time being; c) return for landing, but the taxiways are unsafe.
89.
When a pilot departs from the provisions of the ANR's in the interests of safety, he shall: a) b) c) d) report to the CAA within a period of seven days: as soon as practicable, report the matter to the police: as soon as practicable, report such departure and the reasons for it, to the nearest convenient air traffic services unit.
90.
Which of the following series of flight levels apply to a magnetic track of 150 deg. a) 190,230,290,310: b) 70, 250, 290, 330: c) 155,195,270,350.
91.
When flying to VD on a QDM of 150 deg., an appropriate flight level would be: a) 310; b) 290, c) 215.
92.
The minimum height above a proclaimed game reserve: a) 1500 feet: b) 2000 feet; c) neither (a) or (b).
93.
A parachute flare showing a red light means a) do not land for the time being; b) grave and imminent danger threatens; c) do not take off.
Revision: 4 357
AIRLAW
94.
VFR flight levels start at: a) FL 35; b) FL15; c) above the airfield transition level.
95.
You are to fly VFR from A to B having to cross an airway at right angles. Both A and B are situated outside controlled airspace a) it is not necessary to file a flight plan; b) it is only necessary to file a flight plan if altering acting is required; c) both a) and b) are correct.
96.
Circuit height at any airfield is a) 1000 feet above airfield elevation: b) 1000 feet for reciprocating aircraft, 1500 feet for turbine powered aircraft; c) 1000 feet above airfield elevation, unless the AIP specifies something different.
97.
A safety pilot must be rated on the type of aircraft and he must also:a) occupy a control seat; b) be able to keep a look out in all directions: c) occupy a control seat and be able to keep a good look out.
98.
With reference to aircraft speed no person shall fly a turbine aircraft within an ATA at an IAS of more than (safety permitting) a) 200 kts; b) 160 kts; c) 250 kts.
99.
Instrument Flight Time is the time during which: a) the aircraft is piloted solely by reference to instruments; b) the aircraft is IMC; c) the aircraft is on an IFR plan.
100.
An AFIS operates at : a) an aerodrome with an ATZ; b) an aerodrome with an ATA; c) a private aerodrome.
101.
An AFIS has authority to declare IFR in force. a) True. b) False
Revision: 4 358
AIRLAW
102.
On a magnetic track of 185 deg., variation of 20 deg. W, wind velocity 110/30, a suitable flight level at night would be (maximum spot height enroute 5253 ft):a) F055 b) F060; c) F080.
103.
If the ETA at a reporting point on a controlled flight deviates by more than 5 minutes, the ATSU must be informed: a) True. b) False.
104.
Three signals are listed here; one of them is out of place: a) red shells at short intervals; b) red parachute flare; c) flashing red lights.
105.
Ceiling as defined in the ANRs is : a) The height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below 20,000 feet, covering more than half of the sky; b) the maximum height to which an aircraft can climb: c) neither (a) or (b).
106.
The pilot in command is the pilot: a) responsible for the flight: b) the most experienced licenced pilot in the aircraft; c) the pilot in the left front seat.
107.
Safety harness and belts must be worn: a) before acrobatic manoeuvres are undertaken: b) all the lime: c) during the landing roll.
108.
A VFR flight may never be conducted above: a) any cloud at all: b) more than three eighths of cloud within 5 nm of A/C; c) five eighths of cloud.
109.
For a private flight from Umtata (controlled) to Escourt (controlled) a Flight Plan: a) must be filed; b) must be filed if for SAR; c) need only be filed if the flight is at night.
Revision: 4 359
AIRLAW
110.
A flight plan TAS is recorded as 150 kts in controlled airspace. Due to headwinds, to improve the range you reduce power, and the TAS is now 138 ktsa) you must inform ATSU, because your ETA's have changed; b) you must inform ATSU, because your TAS has changed; c) you must inform ATSU, because your TAS and ETA's have changed.
111.
Your TAS changes from 150 kts to 145 kts: Your ETA for a compulsory reporting point changes by 2 minutes a) you must inform ATSU, because your ETA's have changed; b) you must inform ATSU, because your TAS has changed: c) you need not inform ATSU.
112.
Minimum visibility in a control zone for visual flight is: a) 8 km; b) 1,5 km; c) 5 km.
113.
The ceiling minimum for a visual flight in an ATA is: a) 500 ft if you have two way contact when departing; b) 1000 ft; c) 2000 ft.
114.
The horizontal/vertical limits of cloud above 1500 ft. up to FL100 are: a) 2000 m ./500 m.; b) 2000 ft./500 ft.; c) 1,5km./1000ft.
115.
A CTA is locateda) on top of an airfield; b) around an airfield; c) above one or more major airfields.
116.
In uncontrolled airspace, the pilot maintains radio contact with an information or advisory service; these services :a) issue clearances, which must be strictly adhered to; b) give information regarding other traffic, and weather if possible. c) only offer information if the pilot requests it.
117.
A CTA always has an upper limit: a) only when located at an airfield; b) sometimes: c) never.
Revision: 4 360
AIRLAW
118.
Air Traffic Control operates in: a) control zones, aerodrome traffic zones and in upper airways; b) aerodrome traffic zones, aerodrome traffic areas and terminal control areas; c) aerodrome traffic areas, terminal control areas and upper airways.
119.
Outside controlled airspace normal radio contact is with: (a) (b) (c) information, aircraft, to aircraft or on AFIS: information, aircraft to aircraft: information or air traffic control.
120.
At an airfield with an AFIS, the AFIS: a) issues clearances and controls the aircraft in the ATA: b) issues clearances and controls the aircraft in the ATZ; c) gives information to expedite traffic, but leaves the decisions to the pilot in command.
121.
An ATIS isa) a recorded message broadcast on a VOR frequency; b) a branch of air traffic services which operates in an ATA; c) a service offered by the aerodrome operator.
122.
The ICAO is a body which: a) Decides about all international aviation law b) Offers guidelines to local aviation authorities c) Is to do with air traffic control
123.
Who is responsible for the signing of the load and trim sheet. a) The operator b) The Pilot in Command c) The Loadmaster
124.
Who is responsible for certifying that a load a trim sheet is correct? a) The operator b) The Pilot in Command c) The supervising person loading the a/c.( Loadmaster.)
125.
When is the PIC not required to sign and load and trim sheet. a) When the co pilot signs for it. b) When the operator signs it. c) When it is sent as an electronic copy.
Revision: 4 361
AIRLAW
126.
An aircraft specified to have a Flight Data Recorder may commence a flight with the FDR inoperative. a) For 50 hrs before it must be repaired. b) Provided it must not exceed 6 consecutive flights before it is repaired. c) Must be repaired within 24 hrs. of it becoming defective.
127.
An aircraft specified to have a Flight Data Recorder may commence a flight with the FDR inoperative. a) If not more than 48 hours have elapsed since the FDR became u/s. b) Not more than 24 hours have elapsed since the FDR became u/s. c) Need not be repaired in not on the MEL.
128.
An aircraft specified to have a Flight Data Recorder may commence a flight with the FDR inoperative, from an aerodrome where the FDR can be repaired. a) But must be fixed within 48 hours. b) Can depart if not on the MEL. c) Cannot depart until FDR is replaced or repaired.
129.
Circling to Land MDA refers to. a) Aerodrome elevation. b) Runway elevation. c) Both a and b
130.
When carrying out a non precision approach the MDA refers to a) The Aerodrome Elevation. b) The runway elevation. c) The runway threshold elevation.
131.
When would a non precision approach MDA not refer to the runway threshold elevation. a) When a circling to land approach was intended. b) When a missed approach was carried out. c) Both a and b are correct.
132.
When is the MDA in a non precision approach not related to the Runway threshold. a) When the outer marker is u/s. b) When the FAF is u/s. c) When the runway threshold is more than 2 meters ( 7 feet lower than the aerodrome elevation).
Revision: 4 362
AIRLAW
133.
Two aircraft are in controlled airspace one has filed an IFR flight plan the other not, which one has the right of way? a) The one having filed the IFR flight plan b) Neither c) The a/c that is lower.
134.
How many handicapped passengers and infants may be carried on any one flight under part 135 of the CAR's? a) One of each. b) One only. c) One of each provided they are accompanied by an adult.
135.
What type of fire extinguisher must be carried on board a SA registered a/c. a) Dry Powder type. b) An approved type. c) An approved type using Halon 1211.
136.
Whilst on an IFR flight in IMC complete radio communication failure is experienced and the subsequent procedure is: a) Maintain last assigned F/L for 3 mins. Climb to planned F/L proceed to destination using NDB leave NDB ETA plus 10 minutes, and complete NDB approach to destination aerodrome: b) Although flight is possible in IMC the flight must continue to the aerodrome of original destination: c) Proceed to an destination aerodrome with a known cloud base of at least 1000 feet.
137.
What are the minima for SVFR. a) 500 foot cloudbase 1500 meters RVR by day b) 600 foot cloudbase 1500 meters Viz. c) 600 foot cloudbase 1500 meters Viz by day only
138.
When does a pilot not have to comply with the semi circular rule. a) When not permitted by weather conditions. b) When flown below 1500 feet AGL VFR c) When flying due North or South.
139.
Contingency fuel is. a) The higher of 5% or 3% of the Trip fuel only b) 5% of the Taxi and Trip Fuel. c) 3 % of the Taxi and Trip fuel.
Revision: 4 363
AIRLAW
140.
When would less than 3 % contingency fuel be approved. a) When approved by the operator and the Commissioner. b) Subject to the approval of the CAA and the Commissioner, c) Approved by the Commissioner using inflight replanning with an en route alternative available.
141.
Alternate fuel must be sufficient for. a) A missed approach, climb and full trip to most distant alternate. b) A missed approach, climb and full trip to most distant alternate and a landing at this alternate. c) A missed approach, climb and full trip to most distant alternate and a landing at this alternate with a possible missed approach taken into account.
142.
Final reserve fuel for a turbine powered aircraft is. a) 45 Minutes at holding speed 1500 feet above the aerodrome. b) 20 Minutes at holding speed 1500 feet above the aerodrome. c) 30 Minutes at holding speed 1500 feet above the aerodrome.
143.
When does the Commissioner not require 2 crew in a small commercial air transport turbo prop or turbo jet under IFR or by night. a) (a)A/C certified for 1 crew and operator has a recurrent training program for the pilot. b) A/C certified for 1 crew and fully IFR equipped with autopilot with altitude and heading hold. c) (c) A/C certified for 1 crew and fully IFR equipped with autopilot with altitude and heading hold and boom mike.
144.
How many hours must a newly qualified commercial pilot have before being able to carry passengers more that 50 nautical miles from the aerodrome of departure under VFR. a) 200 hours and a suitable type rating b) 300 PIC hours and a suitable type rating. c) 300 hours Total Time or 200 hours and a valid Instrument rating.
145.
How many hours must a newly qualified commercial pilot have before being able to carry passengers in a single crew multi engine type VFR more than 50 nautical miles from the aerodrome of departure. a) 300 hours and a suitable type rating. b) 300 PIC hours and a suitable type rating. c) 300 hours Total Time or 200 hours and a valid Instrument rating.
Revision: 4 364
AIRLAW
146.
How many hours must a commercial pilot have before being able to carry passenger in a single crew multi engine aircraft under IFR . a) 400 hours Total Time 200 hours PIC and 100 Hours multi hours. b) 400 hours Total Time 200 PIC and 40 hours multi hours. c) 400 hours Total Time 100 PIC and 40 hours multi hours.
147.
Under part 135 how often must a pilot have proficiency checks . a) Every six months b) Every 12 months. c) 90 days.
148.
What is the validity of proficiency and operational checks under part 135. a) Six months. b) Six and 12 months respectively. c) 12 months.
149.
What is the landing distance required when landing on a wet runway as opposed to the normal dry length required? a) 120 % b) 110 % c) 115 %
150.
During a Cat 1 ILS what is the minimum RVR a pilot of a Class D aircraft may use and when may this be decreased? a) 800 meters may be decreased using a suitable coupled autopilot. b) 1500 meters may be decreased using a suitable coupled autopilot c) 550 meters if pilot is recent in terms of Part 91.02.4 a or b.
Revision: 4 365
AIRLAW
CPL AIR LAW MOCK EXAM ANSWERS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 C A B B A A C A B B C A C A B A B C A B C A B C A B C A C B A A B C C B C C A 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 C B A B A A C C C C C B B B B A C A C C C B C A B B B B A A A B A C B B B B C 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 A A A B B C B C B B C B B C 500 met A C C C C A A B A C A A A A A B A C C C A B A B B 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 A A C A B B C C B A C A C A C C B C A C B A C B C A C A B A B C A
Revision: 4 366
AIRLAW

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AIR LAW

Air Law GEN 39-45 & 53,54 Revision : 1/1/2001 Page 1

FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE Version 4

DATE AMMENDED 24/12/1997 31/12/1998 1/12/1999 1/5/2001

GOV NOTICE NOT R1753 R1701 R639 R1219

GOV GAZETTE NO 18562 19644 20076 21390

Air Law GEN 39-45 & 53,54 Revision : 1/1/2001 Page 2

FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE Version 4

Air Law GEN 39-45 & 53,54 Revision : 1/1/2001 Page 3

FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE Version 4

Air Law GEN 39-45 & 53,54 Revision : 1/1/2001 Page 4

FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE Version 4

Air Law GEN 39-45 & 53,54 Revision : 1/1/2001 Page 5

FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE Version 4

Air Law GEN 39-45 & 53,54 Revision : 1/1/2001 Page 6

FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE Version 4

Air Law GEN 39-45 & 53,54 Revision : 1/1/2001 Page 7

FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE Version 4

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FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE Version 4

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for helicopters (i) (ii) single-rotor helicopters; multi-rotor helicopters;

gyroplanes; for gliders (i) (ii) unpowered gliders; powered gliders.

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(c) (d) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)

(11) (12) (13)

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(ii) (b) (c)

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to act as pilot-in-command in air transportation.

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(7) (8) (9)

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2.38 Maintenance of Competency: Requirements for Instrument Approaches in IMC

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