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Topic: UPSC: IAS MAIN - 2007(PA Paper- I & II)


Posted: 25Nov2007 at 9:23pm

UPSC: IAS MAIN - 2007

PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

Paper- I

Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should attempt all questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given
under each

questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the
question.

SECTION A

1. Answer any three of the following questions is not more than 200 words each: 20x3=60

(a) "Public and Private Administrations are two species of the same genus, but they also
have special values and

techniques of their own." Comment.

(b) "Taylor's scientific management ignored social and psychological factors." Comment.

(c) "The distinction between line and staff is relative rather than absolute." Discuss.

(d) "Delegated legislation is a necessary evil." Examine.

2. Analyze McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y. Do you agree with the view that with every
passing year,

McGregor's message has become more relevant and more important ?Substantiate your
answer. 60

3. What is meant by morale? There is a belief that "morale and productivity go hand in hand
and higher the

morale, higher the productivity." Do you agree? Substantiate. 60

4.'Right to information promotes transparency and accountability in the working of every


public authority”.
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Explain. 60

SECTION B

5. Answer any three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20x3=60

(a) "People's participation is crucial to development administration." Comment.

(b) "Training is essential not only for efficiency and effectiveness but also for broadening the
vision of the

employees." Substantiate.

(c) "Not to be comparative is to be naively parochial" (Riggs). Comment.

(d) "Implementing a public policy is a process of discovering what works and what does
not." Examine.

6. Bring out the various techniques of 0 & M adopted in <st1:country-region


w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> to improve efficiency in administration. 60

7."The widening gap in the emoluments of government employees versus the public sector
corporations and

private sector employees has a strong bearing on the motivation and ability to work."
Comment. 60

8. What is performance budgeting? Bring out its merits, limitations and difficulties. 60

Paper- II

1. Answer any three of tile following in not more than 200 words each: 20x3=60

(a) "Kautilya was not only the foremost politico-administrative thinker of ancient
<st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> but he was an advocate

and preacher of moral values too." Comment.

(b) "Because of several judicial pronouncements, Governors in States are no longer viewed
as agents of the

'Party in Power' at the Central level." Evaluate.

(c) "The President of India acts like grandparent in a family. If younger generation does not
follow his/her advice,

he/she is just unable to do anything." Comment.


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(d) "'Memorandum of understanding scheme' between govemment and public enterprise


has forced public

undertakings to improve the overall performance." Comment.

2. There is a separate Central Ministry or Department on each subject allocated to State


List. Does it mean

supremacy of the Union Government or an emphasis on development administration?


Analyze. 60

3."73rd Constitutional Amendment has provided permanent structural framework to PRI's


resulting into silent

social revolution." Comment. 60

4.''The dispute between Secretariat and Directorate is the result of Generalist us Specialist
controversy."

Analyse. 60

SECTION-B

5.Answer any three of the following in not more than 200 words each: 20x3=60

(a) "The blame for our poor public sector performance can be laid on the way our
bureaucracy is structured."

Comment.

(b) ''Parliamentary Departmental Committees have played their role effectively in analyzing
the demands for

grants." Evaluate.

(c) ''In spite of having Constitutional status the District Planning Committee is not able to
implement decentralised

planning due to centralized nature of economic planning." Comment.

(d) "A well-designed module-based training for Civil Servants is the best way to achieve the
goals of good

governance." Analyse.

6.''If information is power, nothing can perhaps empower a citizen more than the secret and
developmental
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information held by various public authorities." Analyse the merits and demerits of RTI Act,
2005 in the light of

this statement. 60

7. National Commission to review the working of the Constitution has suggested


revolutionary changes in

administrative culture. Analyse its major recommendations on Civil Services and


Administration. 60

8. (a) Critically analyse the functions and role of Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment with regard to

development of disabled persons in <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-


region> in not more than 200 words. 40

(b) Define Civil Society. Is it an effective organ to control administrative machinery?


Comment. 10

(c) "Social (Welfare) Administration in <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-


region> is witnessing specialization and faster expansion of its administrative

agencies." Evaluate. 10

Topic: Eassy - The Game of Politics


Posted: 13Jul2007 at 2:14am

The Game of Politics

Politics is a game in the true spirit. It has two or more parties contesting each other, each
being equally dedicated to win. Each maintains a team, whether close knit or not may be
circumstantial, and has a lot in stake. Like any other game it has not only the player taking
interest but also a large audience to watch its every minute movement, cheer its wins and
boo its losses. It has its own set of supporters, who may however be divided on their
favourites from the team. Any game requires a balance of the mind or the physique or both
and politics requires both. One has to not only have a sharp mind but be also physically
resilient enough to fight elections, do campaigns on a day and night basis, listen to a
thousand voices at the same time and so on. Just as in any sports, the match or game may
last for a short while but the preparations go on for months or even lifetimes. Practice
makes a perfect sportsperson and so also practice makes a mature politician. Any sport
lasts or is popular till people have interest in it, and politics scores very well in this front.
People are addicted to politics and there is no drawing room where heated discussions over
politics have not taken place. It is in acknowledgement of this fact that the media today
focuses mainly on politics, relegating everything else to the background.

But is this phenomenon new? Is it a product of the modern age? Certainly not, politics
seems to run in mankind's blood. Man being a more intelligent species realized early on that
everything does not work on brawn. He realized that if you did the right thing, things would
come to you without even moving you limbs. He realized that it was not always necessary
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to tackle others physically, a sweet word or gesture here and another there was more
powerful than his muscles. Man is very much a social animal and has always craved for
societal acceptance and praise and later status. This is from where politics was born. As
man's physical necessities came to be easily achieved, he looked up to do greater things, to
organize himself and others into families, groups and societies. And it was in this organizing
that he first realized the potentials of playing the game of politics. Simple societies played a
simple form of politics but as society became more complex their games became more
complex. Small groups gave way to full fledged kingdoms and states and each of these
massive societies had their own political ideas and ideals, the matter of running the state in
an appropriate manner came to be known as politics. This however did not mean the end of
politics in other spheres of life. Theories on political thought and process began to be
discussed, and a new era in politics came about.

The institutions and customs and political ideas of the ancient civilizations grew up slowly,
age by age, no man designing and no man foreseeing. It was only in the sixth century B.C.,
that men began to think clearly about their relations to one another, and first to question
and first propose to alter and rearrange the established beliefs and laws and methods of
human government. The Greek philosopher Aristotle, who studied at Plato's academy, is
generally regarded as the founder of the scientific approach to political theory. His Politics,
which classified governments as monarchies, aristocracies, and democracies, according to
their control by one person, a select few or many persons, successfully combined an
emperical investigation of the facts and a critical enquiry into their ideal possibilities, thus
providing a challenging model of political studies.

The glorious intellectual dawn of Greece and Alexandria however did not last long, as the
slave-holding civilizations collapsed and the clouds of religious intolerance and absolutist
government darkened the promise of that beginning. The light of fearless thinking did not
break through the European obscurity again effectually until the fifteenth and sixteenth
centuries. Meanwhile the Arabs and Mongols had also put together some kind of a political
structure. And just as in Greece the bold speculations of Plato came before Aristotle's hard
search for fact, so in Europe the first political inquiries of the new phase were put in the
form of "Utopian" stories, directly imitated from Plato's Republic and his Laws. Sir Thomas
More's Utopia is a curious imitation of Plato that bore fruit in a new English poor law.

Indian political thought too seems to have matured early. We hear of 'Ram Rajya' in
prehistoric times. The panchayat system too seems to have been in place very long ago.
The earliest written evidence comes in the form of the 'Arthashastra' by Kautilya. The title,
Arthashastra, which means "the Science of Material Gain" or "Science of Polity", does not
leave any doubts about its ends. According to Kautilya, the ruler should use any means to
attain his goal and his actions required no moral sanction. The only problems discussed are
of the most practical kind. Though the kings were allowed a free rein, the citizens were
subject to a rigid set of rules. It remains unique in all of Indian literature because of its total
absence of specious reasoning, or its unabashed advocacy of real-politik, and scholars
continued to study it for its clear cut arguments and formal prose till the twelfth century.
Espionage and the liberal use of provocative agents is recommended on a large scale.
Murder and false accusations were to be used by a king's secret agents without any
thoughts to morals or ethics. There are chapters for kings to help them keep in check the
premature ambitions of their sons, and likewise chapters intended to help princes to thwart
their fathers' domineering authority. However, Kautilya ruefully admits that it is just as
difficult to detect an official's dishonesty as it is to discover how much water is drunk by the
swimming fish.
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Politics and political thought has come a long way since and is no longer limited by states
and territories alone, the politics of today has global implications and is of interest to both
the intellectual and the common man. The wave of a general globalization of things could
definitely not have overlooked the most important aspect of man as a social being. In these
times everything is global and local politics is invariably linked to world politics. The game of
politics is played as passionately and as meticulously in any part of the world. Theories do
not alone suffice one to become a good politician. One has to live through the twist and
turns of a political career. Maturity obviously comes with time. The real-politik still continues
though in a more subtle manner but its vicious inclinations remain the same. Today's
politician has less conscience and more greed for power as well as money and will go to any
extent to reach his goals, even if he has to declare war and walk over the bodies of the
thousands that die as a result.

Like any other game politics too has some rules but they are rather flexible and the rules of
the game keep changing as and when desired depending on who carries how much weight.
The attack on Iraq is a case in point, the rule says UN sanction is required for any attack of
the kind that is now going on in Iraq, but America being the sole superpower and having the
support of another global power, namely Britain, has flouted this convention. Not many
have openly opposed this, because even milleniums down the line, might is right, only
physical right has been replaced by political and economic might. America and Britain have
their own political gains involved, even though they may mouth things like the common
good of mankind. Even today, it is self service of the mighty as it was centuries ago.
Terminology has changed but basics remain the same. Hunger for power and control drives
man in all fields and it will continue to do so into eternity, only the modus operandi will
change. Politics was there and will continue to be there even if it turns from global to
universal or to even inter galactic. Just as man is a social animal so also is he a political
one. This game will go on, and with renewed vigour through ages.

Topic: UPSC: IAS MAIN - 2007(PHILOSOPHY Paper- I & II)


Posted: 04Nov2007 at 9:26pm

UPSC: IAS MAIN - 2007

PHILOSOPHY
Paper- I
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should attempt all questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given
under each

questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the
question.

SECTION A

1. Write short notes on any three of the following in about 200 words each: 20x3=60
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(a) Plato's recollection theory of knowledge.

(b) Hegel's Dialectical method.

(c) Elimination of metaphysics at the hands of Logical Positivists.

(d) Nature of synthetic a-priori judgment according to Kant.

2. State and discuss Locke's views on Substance. 60

3. State and discuss Russell's analysis of Definite Descriptions. 60

4. State and discuss Strawson's theory of Person. 60

SECTION B

5. Write short notes on any three of the following in about 200 words each: 20x3=60

(a) Nature of Pudgala in Jaina philosophy.

(b) Carvaka's views on the nature of soul.

(c) Four Arya Satya (Noble Truths) according to Buddhism.

(d) Nature of Sabda prammana.

6. State and explain the difference between Saguna and Nirguna Brahman. 60

7. Explain the Samkhya doctrine of three gunas. 60

8. Explain fully Nyaya's Asatkaryavada. 60

Paper- II

SECTION-A

1. Write critical notes on any THREE of the following in not more than 200 words each: -
20x3=60

(a) Free-market economy is the only way to attain social justice.

(b) Negative freedom can, perhaps, ensure freedom to choose, but without any credible
assurance for its

actual fulfillment.

(c) Democracy that gives equal weight to every one's opinion is inefficient in determining
the right or wrong
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thing to do.

(d) 'Acceptance of authority of the state is inconsistent with the highest duty of mankind,
"the duty to act

autonomously".' (Robert Paul Wolff)

2. Consider why punishment is generally thought to require justification. In this context give
your critical and

comparative account of the main theories of punishment. 60

3. Describe your understanding of Socialism. Must it be defined in normative terms of a set


of values and

ideals which socialists seek to realize, or in descriptive terms of the specific economic and
political institutions

of socialist society? Can the tension between the two be adequately resolved? Discuss. 60

4. According to some Liberal Political thinkers social and economical inequalities can be
justified only if they

work to the advantage of the least advantaged members of society. Is this view consistent
with Liberalism's

cardinal advocacy of individual freedom? Discuss. 60

SECTION-B

5. Write critical notes on any THREE of the following in not more than 200 words each: -
20x3=60

(a). Without some conception of immortality, religion has no meaning.

(b). 'God permitted evil to exist in order to bring about greater good; Adam's fall was a Felix
culpa (happy sin).'

Leibniz.

(c). God is not subject to the Laws of Logic.

(d). The difference between 'numinous' and 'mystical' experience.

6. Traditionally omnipotence has been seen as one of the attributes of God. But according
to some critics the

notion of omnipotent being is paradoxical. In response some theists have tried to resolve
the alleged paradox.
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Describe the paradox and explain the attempts to resolve it. 60

7. State and evaluate the cosmological argument for the existence of God. What are its two
forms? What is

the difference between a dependent being and self existent being? Why the self-existent
being be

Theocentric? Can't the nature itself be conceived as self-existent being? Discuss. 60

8. Explain the doctrine of the Law of Karma. Is it compatible with the freedom of the will?
Discuss. 60

Topic: Previous Year PA paper(1997-2005)


Posted: 22Oct2007 at 1:51am
1997

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

Candidates should attempt Questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the
remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section. All questions carry
equal marks.
SECTION A
1.Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :
(a) "In the science of administration, whether public or private, the basic 'good' is
efficiency”.

(b) "That is to be a successful administrator one must have a catholic curiosity.”

(c) "Once fully established, bureaucracy is among those social structures which are the
hardest to destroy."

(d) "Theoretically the Board administration violates the distinction between government and
politics because through it politics is injected in the administration."

2. Examine the basic postulates of the Human Relations Theory and show how far it differs
from the classical theory of organizations.

3. (a) "Frederick Herzberg’s Two-factor theory is more or less an extension of Abraham


Maslow's theory of motivation. " Explain.

(b) "Centralization inclines toward power and domination. Decentralization, on the other
hand, inclines toward competition and self-dermination. " Discuss.

4. How far is it true to state that for a developing democracy the concept of civil service
neutrality is outdated; instead there is a need for a civil service with professional
competence and commitment ?

SECTION B
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5. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :
(a) "The controls exercised over administration by legislature are, in sum of greater
theoretical than practical efficacy ."

(b) Development administration is basically an " action-oriented, goal-oriented


administrative system. "

(c) The central concern of administrative law has been the legal limitation of administrative
'discretion'.

(d) " Administrative reforms are induced changes in the machinery of government
undertaken in order to bridge the gap between reality and desirability."

6. Bring out the importance of Organization and Methods (O & M). Do you think that there
should be a separate O & M organization ?

7. (a) "Time-honoured and yet often not sufficiently appreciated are the fiscal techniques for
securing responsible conduct of administrative business." Discuss.

(b) How far is it true to state that delegated legislation has become a present day necessity
and it has come to stay; it is both inevitable and indispensable ?

8. "Policy-making does not end once a decision is made. The implementation of the decision
can have just as great an impact on public policy as the decision itself. " Discuss.

Paper - II

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

SECTION A
1. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :
(a) “Under the Company’s rule a distinction was drawn between Regulation and Non-
Regulation Provinces.”

(b) “The Preamable to the Constitution is key to open the mind of the markers.”

(c) “The Directive Principles of State Policy are socialistic in their direction and content."

(d) "The legislative relations between Union and State governments are more biased
towards Union government. "

2. Examine the motives and intentions of the framers of the Indian Constitution as they
opted for the system of parliamentary democracy in India.

3. (a) "The efficiency of the Cabinet depends to a large extent on the Cabinet Secretariat"
Elucidate.

(b) “For national planning, the commission type of organisation was deliberately preferred.”
Examine the Statement.
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4. "The States are constitutionally obliged to ensure that the laws passed by Parliament are
implemented. " Explain the constitutional position fully.

SECTlON B
5. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :

(a) "The main function of the Public Accounts Committee is to ascertain that the money
granted by Parliament has been spent the government within the scope of the demand.”

(b) "The word 'Police' in the title of the Central Reserve Police Force and the Indo-Tibetan
Border Police is a misnomer. "

(c) " A singular feature of the 74th Constitutional Amendment is the new role assigned to
the urban local bodies in the field of planning. “

(d) “The machinery of administrative tribunals has been provided for the purpose of speedy
and cheap justice against official excesses. "

6. Critically examine the role of the Finance Ministry as the custodian of all public revenues.

7. (a) "The District Rural Development Agency is presently serving as the nodal agency of
rural development at the district level." Explain.

(b) "The most momentous recommendation of the Asoka Mehta Committee was the creation
of a two-tier system of Panchayati Raj." Examine the statement.

8. Trace the origin of the Lokayukta plan and comment on its working.

1998

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

Candidates should attempt Questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the
remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section. All questions carry
equal marks.

SECTION -A
1. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :
(a) "The scope of administration is determined by the scope of government functions which
is decided politically."

(b) "Communication holds the organisation together."

(c) "Headquarter and Field relationships determine the tenor of implementation of


programmes."

(d) " 'Consensus' and 'Unanimity' are used as styles in decision- making."

2. Why is it that the behavioural approach to the study of organisations is a continuous


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phenomenon ? Discuss Chester Barnard's contributions to this approach.

3. (a) Differentiate between managerial and functional aspects of co-ordination. How is co-
ordination achieved ?

(b) "The themes developed at 1988 MINNOWBROOK conference (20 years after the first
conference) largely focus on the current and future visions in the field of public
administration". Elucidate.

4. "Public Personnel Administration is concerned with a number of functions". Elaborate.


Why are PROCUREMENT and DEVELOPMENT functions important ?

SECTION-B
5. Comment on any three of the following in not more then 200 words each :
(a) "Budget is a tool which serves many purposes".

(b) "Executive control over administration is much more real".

(c) " Administrative Law in the modem governmental system is inevitable'.

(d) "Policy implementation in Less Developed Countries needs to be effective".

6. "Work study succeeds because it is systematic in investigating a problem and also in


developing a solution for it". Explain. Also discuss the components of Work Study and their
usefulness.

7. (a) What are the objectives of Development Administration ? Also examine the demands
DA. places on the structure and practice of administration.

(b) " As long as the study of public administration is not comparative, claim for a 'science of
public administration' sounds rather hollow". Explain.

8. " All policy-making is decision-making, but all decision-making is not policy-making".


Elaborate. How does a policy emanate and what course does policy-making in government
follow?

Paper - II

Candidates should attempt Questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the
remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section. All questions carry
equal marks.
SECTION - A
1. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 word each :
(a) "Kautilya's Arhashastra has significant relevance to the contemporary Indian
administration."

(b) Art. 78 of the Constitution confers Executive Power on the President."

(c) "Central Services are more 'All-India' in character than are the All-India Services."
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(d) "State and district planning bodies in India have bot been effective in achieving their
goals."

2. It is argued that the recruitment and training of All India and Central Services have not
kept pace with the changing needs and time. Give suggestions for improving these
proocesses in order to make administrators more effective, committed and honest.

3. (a) "Indian public enterprises are neither adequately 'public' nor truly 'enterprising'."
Comment.

(b) "The Indian Constitution considerably influences the nature, role and structure of Indian
administration." Elucidate.

4. Explain the role and structure of the Ministry of Home Affairs of the Government of India.
What are the challenges being faced by this Ministry ?
Give suggestions for enhancing the capacity of this organization to meet these challenges.

SECTION - B
5. Comment on any THREE of the following in not more than 200 words each :-
(a) "The success of administrative reforms in a country like India depends upon political as
well as administrative will."

(b) "Rural development programmes in India suffer from lack of coordination and a sound
appraisal system."

(c) "Corruption is more of an environmental than an administrative problem."

(d) "CAG should be watch-dog and not a blood-hound."

6. In tune with the winds of administrative change blowing throughout the world, the Indian
administration has also taken certain noticeable initiatives in administrative restructuring in
the nineteen nineties. What are these initiatives and how effective have they been ?

7. Do you think that the Indian police legislation. structure, technology, altitudes and
behaviour are appropriate: to meet the law and order problems in the country ? What
fundamental changes would you suggest in these realms to make the Central and the State
police forces more effective in their role-performance?

8. "The State Finance Commission under Panchayat Raj Law is designed to ensure regional
balance in the distribution of State and Central Funds." Comment.

1999

SECTION A
1. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :
(a) "Instead of looking inward in their own values and requirements, the Asian countries
looked outward."

(b) "The basic question in the relationship between political and permanent executives is the
separation of facts and values at the operational level."
P a g e | 14

(c) 'The Commission form of organisation would tend to be a 'headless fourth branch' of
government.'

(d) 'The principle of bureaucratic neutrality is more superfluous and redundant in the
context of developing countries.'

2. Examine the growth of the discipline of Public Administration as a response to the


developing capitalistic system in the U.S.A.

3. (a) 'The Generalist will always have an edge over the specialist." Substantiate the view.

(b) It is not weak but strong bureaucracy that creates concern in democracy.' Comment.

4. Critically comment on the function of administrative capabilities with reference to


developing countries.

SECTION B
5. Comment on any three of the following in hot more than 200 words each :
(a) The process of change may create crises in the system. (Lucian Pye)

(b) 'Public Undertakings have received a raw deal in the wake of liberalism and
privatization.'

(c) Voluntarism is not anti-thesis of statecentricism.

(d) 'Public Interest Litigation is an effective innovation in realizing social justice.'

6. 'Increased delegated legislation is a phenomenon of a modem positive state.' Elucidate.

7. (a) What do you understand by the term under-administration ? What are the issues
involved in it?

(b) Elaborate the World Bank's concept of 'Good Governance.'

8. Elucidate the political process of policy formulation. Bring out its distinguishing features
in developing countries.

Paper - II

Candidates should attempt Questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the
remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section. All questions carry
equal marks

SECTION A
1. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :
(a) “The Planning Commission continues to exist but some would say that it is withering
away, along with real planning itself."

(b) "Article 320 states that the Government shall consult the U.P.S.C. on certain specific
matters."
P a g e | 15

(c) "It would be a gross fallacy to regard the institution of the Governor as a faint presence
like a full moon at midday."

(d) “The Public Corporations in India are like exhausted Leviathans."

2. It is said that the image and influence of Indian Parliament have suffered a serious
decline in recent years. How far do you agree with this view-point ?

3. (a) “The legislative and executive powers of the States are comprehensive, but the
exercise of these powers are subject to regulation, abridgement and even suspension by the
Union." Comment.

(b) "The Central Secretariat is thus today encumbered with non-essential work and has, for
a large part, become an unwiedly and over-staffed organization." Elucidate.

4. "The rise of the Prime Minister's Secretariat and the Cabinet Secretariat in India during
the past three decades is an indication of the growing centralisation of policy and decisional
authority in the position of the Prime Minister." Examine.

SECTION B
5. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :
(a) "The Public Accounts Committee is probably the best medium through the eyes of which
the tax-payer sees what has been done with his money."

(b) "The All-India Services have, naturally, to be remunerated on a higher level than
services recruited purely on a local basis."

(c) "The performance of Lok Ayuktas in Indian States do not create a very positive
impression."

(d) "The failure of I.R.D.P. is attributed to its over-powering centralized approach."

6. Do you think that the Comptroller and Auditor-General's role is to maintain the dignity,
independence, detachment of outlook and fearlessness necessary for a fair, impartial and
dispassionate assessment' of the actions of the executive in the financial field ? Give
arguments.

7. (a) "In the midst of political and socio-economic challenges, the law and order
administration has become both difficult and delicate." Explain.

(b) "Only a systematic-ecological approach to the study of corruption in India can help us
understand its causes and dimensions." Comment.

8. Do you agree with the view that the Indian reform effort has been conservative or
orthodox, not breaking radically newer ground, but only modifying the existing structures
and processes ? Give arguments.

2000

SECTION 'A'
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Q. 1. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :

(a) "Administrative efficiency is enhanced by keeping at a minimum the number of


organizational levels through which a matter must pass before it is acted upon." - (Herbert
A. Simon) 20

(b) "A science of administration would be a body of for mal statements describing invariant
relationships between measurable objects, units, or elements. Unquestionably,
administrative re
search has produced definite precepts and hypotheses that are applicable to concrete
situations."
- (Fritz Morstein Marx) 20

(c) ... "a more thorough consideration leads to the understanding that communication,
authority, specialisation and purpose are all aspects comprehended in coordination."
- (Chester I. Barnard) 20

(d) "Political environment conditions administrative system." - (F. W Riggs) 20

Q. 2. "... The paradigms of public administration may be understood in terms of locus an


focus."
- Golembiewski

In the light of the above statement describe the "five-paradigms" of Nicholas Henry about
the evolution of the discipline of public administration. 60

Q. 3. "Information constitutes the life-blood of the functioning of organization." In the light


of this statement, explain the utility and importance of communication in decision-making.
60

Q. 4. What opportunities are available to All India Services and state services in career
development ? Do you agree that days of generalists in modern administrative state are
numbered ? 60

SECTION `B'

Q. 5. Write short notes on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :

(a) Budget as an instrument of socio-economic transformation. 20

(b) Judicial control over administration in India and concept of judicial activism. 20

(c) Effectiveness and utility of Central and State Administrative Tribunals. 20

(b) Work study and work-measurement in Indian Administration. 20

Q.6. Give reasons for the failure of Government of India to introduce the performance
programme budgetary technique in Union Ministries. What type of budgetary system is
being currently practised in India and why ? 60

Q. 7. "The weakest aspect of Indian Administrative System is utter disregard of


P a g e | 17

accountability." Examine the current mechanism for enforcing accountability. What steps
are necessary to make it more effective ? 60

Q. 8. Critically examine the approach and methodology adopted by Fred W. Riggs in his
study of prismatic and sala societies. What is valid-content of Raj Krishna's criticism of
refraction ? 60

Paper - II

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS
Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English.
Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you,
which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the
purpose. No mark will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that
specified in the Admission Certificate.
Candidates should attempt questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any THREE of the
remaining questions selecting at least ONE question from each Section.
All questions carry equal marks.

SECTION 'A'

Q. 1. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :

(a) "The period of British rule generated most of the structural and behavioural values of
Indian Administration not by imitation but through interaction."

(b) "Though the dictatorship of the Cabinet is a stark reality in modern times, it does not
mean that the Cabinet is omnipotent."

(c) "National Development Council, it seems, is like a super-Cabinet."

(d) "Indian Constitution confers vast legislative powers on the President."

Q. 2. "Among several other problems, the Problem of financial relationship is perhaps the
most complex one." Explain in the context of recent developments in Union-State relations
in India.

Q. 3. (a) "The leadership qualities of a civil servant are tested most during his tenure as the
Cabinet Secretary - a dream-post for even-bureaucrat.- Elucidate.

(b) "All India Services play a crucial unifying role in the whole administrative system of the
country." Explain.

Q.4. Discuss the major problems of management and working of Public Sector Undertakings
in India. Give suggestions in the light of liberalization policy to improve their performance.

SECTION 'B'

Q. 5. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :
P a g e | 18

(a) "Maintenance of law and order is a State subject but the Union Government can deploy
armed forces in any State."

(b) "Most administrative reforms have a political cost."

(c) "It is a major challenge to balance the role of District Collector with the powers of
democratic bodies."

(d) "A middle way- should be worked out to utilize the services of both generalists and
specialists for the national development."

Q. 6. Do you think that our administration is sensitive to public grievances ? Discuss the
existing grievances redressal mechanism and give suggestions for enhancing its capabilities.

Q. 7. (a) "Reservation policy and its implementation has had some positive impact in
relative terms on the socio-economic development of the SCs and STs but it is very meagre
in absolute terms. Comment.

(b) "In the Chief Secretary, the State Government has an officer whose counterpart does
not obtain in the Union Government.' Elucidate.

Q. 8. Do you agree that globalization, liberalization and privatization policies are going to
change the very fabric of Indian Administration ? What, according to you, are the major
challenges before it in the 21st century ?

2001

SECTION 'A'

Q. 1. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :

(a) "Administrative efficiency is enhanced by keeping at a minimum the number of


organizational levels through which a matter must pass before it is acted upon." - (Herbert
A. Simon) 20

(b) "A science of administration would be a body of for mal statements describing invariant
relationships between measurable objects, units, or elements. Unquestionably,
administrative re
search has produced definite precepts and hypotheses that are applicable to concrete
situations."
- (Fritz Morstein Marx) 20

(c) ... "a more thorough consideration leads to the understanding that communication,
authority, specialisation and purpose are all aspects comprehended in coordination."
- (Chester I. Barnard) 20
P a g e | 19

(d) "Political environment conditions administrative system." - (F. W Riggs) 20

Q. 2. "... The paradigms of public administration may be understood in terms of locus an


focus."
- Golembiewski

In the light of the above statement describe the "five-paradigms" of Nicholas Henry about
the evolution of the discipline of public administration. 60

Q. 3. "Information constitutes the life-blood of the functioning of organization." In the light


of this statement, explain the utility and importance of communication in decision-making.
60

Q. 4. What opportunities are available to All India Services and state services in career
development ? Do you agree that days of generalists in modern administrative state are
numbered ? 60

SECTION `B'

Q. 5. Write short notes on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :

(a) Budget as an instrument of socio-economic transformation. 20

(b) Judicial control over administration in India and concept of judicial activism. 20

(c) Effectiveness and utility of Central and State Administrative Tribunals. 20

(b) Work study and work-measurement in Indian Administration. 20

Q.6. Give reasons for the failure of Government of India to introduce the performance
programme budgetary technique in Union Ministries. What type of budgetary system is
being currently practised in India and why ? 60

Q. 7. "The weakest aspect of Indian Administrative System is utter disregard of


accountability." Examine the current mechanism for enforcing accountability. What steps
are necessary to make it more effective ? 60

Q. 8. Critically examine the approach and methodology adopted by Fred W. Riggs in his
study of prismatic and sala societies. What is valid-content of Raj Krishna's criticism of
refraction ? 60

Paper - II
P a g e | 20

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS
Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English.
Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you,
which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the
purpose. No mark will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that
specified in the Admission Certificate.
Candidates should attempt questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any THREE of the
remaining questions selecting at least ONE question from each Section.
All questions carry equal marks.

SECTION 'A'

Q. 1. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :

(a) "The period of British rule generated most of the structural and behavioural values of
Indian Administration not by imitation but through interaction."

(b) "Though the dictatorship of the Cabinet is a stark reality in modern times, it does not
mean that the Cabinet is omnipotent."

(c) "National Development Council, it seems, is like a super-Cabinet."

(d) "Indian Constitution confers vast legislative powers on the President."

Q. 2. "Among several other problems, the Problem of financial relationship is perhaps the
most complex one." Explain in the context of recent developments in Union-State relations
in India.

Q. 3. (a) "The leadership qualities of a civil servant are tested most during his tenure as the
Cabinet Secretary - a dream-post for even-bureaucrat.- Elucidate.

(b) "All India Services play a crucial unifying role in the whole administrative system of the
country." Explain.

Q.4. Discuss the major problems of management and working of Public Sector Undertakings
in India. Give suggestions in the light of liberalization policy to improve their performance.

SECTION 'B'

Q. 5. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :

(a) "Maintenance of law and order is a State subject but the Union Government can deploy
armed forces in any State."
P a g e | 21

(b) "Most administrative reforms have a political cost."

(c) "It is a major challenge to balance the role of District Collector with the powers of
democratic bodies."

(d) "A middle way- should be worked out to utilize the services of both generalists and
specialists for the national development."

Q. 6. Do you think that our administration is sensitive to public grievances ? Discuss the
existing grievances redressal mechanism and give suggestions for enhancing its capabilities.

Q. 7. (a) "Reservation policy and its implementation has had some positive impact in
relative terms on the socio-economic development of the SCs and STs but it is very meagre
in absolute terms. Comment.

(b) "In the Chief Secretary, the State Government has an officer whose counterpart does
not obtain in the Union Government.' Elucidate.

Q. 8. Do you agree that globalization, liberalization and privatization policies are going to
change the very fabric of Indian Administration ? What, according to you, are the major
challenges before it in the 21st century ?

2002

SECTION A

1. Answer any three of the following in not more than 200 words each:

(a) "Publicness" of public administration in an ideal democratic government remains the


ultimate value in theory and practice'. Elucidate

(b) Minnobrook conference in USA identified four features crucial to 'new public
administration'. Explain.

(c) "The nature and role of communication in administration vindicates that "communication
is authority"". Comment.

(d) Critically examine the model of Max Weber and Chester I Barnard with reference to
'bureaucratic authority.

2. The 'decision-making scheme' and 'satisfying model' of Herbert A Simon is the major
component of administrative theory. Comment.

3. Why do all administrative organizations consider 'hierarchy' as the many splendoured


P a g e | 22

technique? Discuss.

4. In what aspects, the powers of proposed institution of Lok Pal in the Bill already
introduced in Indian Parliament, will strengthen the institution as compared to
parliamentary commissioner in UK?

SECTION B

5. Answer any three of the following in not more than 200 words each: (20 x 3 = 60)

(a) 'The inculcation of belief in the real existence of a common purpose is an essential
executive function'. Comment

(b) Burekehead says:

'Budget in Government is a vehicle of fiscal policy and a tool of management'. Examine this
statement.

(c) Critically comment on Riggsian Prismatic Sala model of administration of developing


societies. To what extent Indian administrative system exhibits prismatic characteristics?

(d) "Statutory External auditing is one of the protectors of democracy in the parliamentary
form of government". Comment.

6. A fairly adequate analysis of the administrative organization in government is possible


when we treat 'bureaucracy' as a 'structure' and 'administration' as a 'function'. Discuss.

7. What techniques the government of india have employed to evaluate (appraise) the
performance of senior level employees, i.e. class I and class II? Are you satisfied with these
techniques?

8. Critically examine the monetary and fiscal policies of government of india in the decade
1991 to 2001. Do you think world financial institutions had a role to play in opening indian
economy to global forces? give reasons to substantiate your argument.

PAPER II

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

Candidates should attempt question 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the
remaining questions selecting at least one question from each section. All questions carry
equal marks.

SECTION - A
P a g e | 23

1. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each: (3 x 20 = 60)

(a) "The machinery of government designed in Kautilya's Arthashastra does not exactly
resemble our modern-day polity, but it does contain some principles which could be said to
be the part of today's science of public administration".

(b) "The use of the word "socialist" in the indian constitution has become redundant in the
context of the liberalization of economy".

(c) "The prime minister stands out as the most powerful authority even today".

(d) "The district collector admirably survived the historical change of role from an alien
regime to a national one.".

2. "It is axiomatic that a country's public administration system, including its bureaucracy,
must fit into and respond to its overall political system". In the light of this statement
discuss the mutual relations between the civil servants and the ministers since
independence. (60)

3. (a) "State directorates are administrative and implementation units assisting the
department functioning from the secretariat". Explain

(b) "Despite the serious commitment on the part of the government the benefits of the rural
development programs do not seen to reach the intended targets and they fall to serve fully
the purpose for which they were intended". Elucidate.

4. "Despite liberalization, privatization, and globalization of economy, the public sector has
its own relevance for india".

SECTION - B

5. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each:

(a) "The need and significance of all india services has been well recognized in political as
well as administrative circles".

(b) "It is the audit of propriety that distinguishes the audit of the comptroller and auditor
general of india (CAG) from the audit made by any professional auditor".

(c) "Although district planning committee and metropolitan planning committees have been
provided, those remain mostly on paper".

(d) "Administrative reforms in india are not necessarily the result of the recommendations
of any specific committees or commissions".
P a g e | 24

6. "Control over public expenditure is an essential feature of accountable and responsible


financial administration". In the light of this statement discuss various methods of control
over public expenditure which are exercised by the indian parliament. (60)

7. (a) "The policy of the government is reflected by various items of the budget". Explain by
distinguishing between a commercial budget and government budget.

(b) "Indian administration is yet to fully appreciate and adopt the benefits of the information
technology" Elucidate (30 x 2 = 60).

8. "The central social welfare board has become an anomalous institution." In light of this
statement, examine the functions and role of the central social welfare board and suggest
measures for making it an effective institution. (60)

2003

SECTION A

1. Answer any three of the following in not more than 200 words each: (20 x 3 = 60)

(a) "Though there are certain points of similarity between public and private administration
yet no private organization can ever be exactly the name as a public one". Examine.

(b) "Civil society exists to ensure that government does provide good governance." Discuss.

(c) "Public corporations are not an end in themselves but an extension of the government
activities designed to promote public welfare." - Substantiate.

(d) "dicey was wrong not only in his concept of the rule of law, but he also overlooked the
significance of the administrative law". - Comment.

2. Describe the evolution of the discipline of public administration with special emphasis on
post - 1970 developments. (60)

3. Explain the contribution of George Elton Mayo to the development of the Human relations
school. How did behavioral scientist modify his basic findings? (60)

4. Compare Abraham Maslow's theory of motivation and Herberg's motivation-hygiene


theory. Do you think that they are universally applicable? If so, why? If not, why not? (60)

SECTION B

5. Answer any three of the following in not more than 200 words each: (20 x 3 = 60)

(a) "Development administration is concerned with maximizing innovation for development."


P a g e | 25

- Discuss.

(b) "Public policy is what politics is about". - Substantiate.

(c) The doctrine of political neutrality and anonymity is no more relevant to modern civil
service." - Comment.

(d) "Auditing in Government is an exercise in post-mortem". - Examine.

6. Analyze the constitutional political and operational dimensions of employer-employee


relations. What are your suggestions to bring about a satisfactory relationship between
them? (60)

7. How did Fred W. Riggs conceptualize the interactions between administration systems
and their environment? (60)

8. Examine the government budget as an instrument of public policy and a local legislative
control? (60)

PAPER II

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

Candidates should attempt question 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the
remaining questions selecting at least one question from each section. All questions carry
equal marks.

SECTION - A

1. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each: (3 x 20 = 60)

(a) "The value premises of our constitution in the era of global constitutionalism."

(b) Indian federalism is described as federal in form but unitary in spirit.

(c) "Rural and urban development programs have gained in importance, but implementation
has been a failure."

(d) "The rule of public sector has been changing tremendously in the context of
liberalization.

2. "after independence, despite the change in socio-economic and political milieu, the basic
features of colonial impact on administration continues to exist in our administrative
system." Comment. (60)
P a g e | 26

3. (a) The central secretariat is a policy formulating, coordinating and supervisory agency
besides being the principal executive agency of the government." - Explain (30)

(b) "Collector is the representative of the state government in the district and also
represents public interest". Comment (30).

4. The role of local self-government in the state administration is of considerable


importance. Evaluate the statement in the context of the 73rd and 74th amendments made.
(60).

SECTION - B

5. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each:

(a) "All indian service is an institution - is the result of history".

(b) "The role of comptroller and auditor general is a limited one."

(c) "National development council has virtually become a super-cabinet and tries to arrogate
itself the functions of parliament.

(d) "Public undertakings no longer occupy commanding heights".

6. "the machinery for welfare administration at the national and state level trickling down to
grassroots becomes meaningless in the context of global constitutionalism. - Discuss (60)

7. (a) "Culturally sanctioned values and symbols have acted as important influencing
catalyst in administration". Elaborate (30)

(b) The problem of administrative improvement in india are longer and more complex than
in any other country in the world". Comment (30)

8. "Women's development programs of recent have shifted from welfarist approach to


empowerment of women". Elaborate (60).

2005
PAPER 1
SECTION-A

1. Answer any three of the following in not more than 200 words each: 3x20=60
(a) "Administrative question are not political questions." Discuss.
P a g e | 27

(b) "Organisation is a system of consciously coordinated activities or forces of


two or more persons." Comment.
(c) In Follett's view, "authority belongs to the job and stays with the job."
Explain.
(d) "The failure of classical science of administration lies in its capacity to
confront theory with evidence." Discuss.

2. In what ways and how can information technology playa crucial role in effective
government-citizen interaction in the context of good governance 60

3. "Today the content of administrative law is driven primarily by. the scope of
public administration activity." Explain. 60

4. What is judicial activism? How far has it been successful in exercising a check
over administration? 60

SECTION-B
5. Answer any three of the following in not more than 200 words each: 3x20=60
(a) "Development administration is starved for theories which will guide the
pooling of empirical knowledge, orient new research, and recommend
administrative policy." Explain.
(b) "If positions are the raw material of classification, the class is the operating
unit." Discuss.
(c) "The budget is an instrument of coordination." Explain.
(d) "No science of public administration is possible unless.... there is a body of
comparative studies from which it may be possible to discover principles and
generalities that transcend national boundaries and peculiar historical
ecperiences." Discuss.

6. Why do public organisations evaluate employees' performance? How can


performance evaluation systems affect employees' behaviour? How can
administration effectively evaluate employees? 60

7. Give an assessment of the processes of policy formulation and discuss the


problems of policy implementation. 60

8. Why does the issue of budgeting as politics versus budgeting as analysis remain
important in the budgeting process? Do you agree that some synthesis of the two
positions seems possible? Illustrate. 60

2005
PAPER 2
SECTION-A
P a g e | 28

1. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each:
20x3=60
(a) "The Mughal Administrative System was a military rule by nature and was
centralized despotism."
(b) "The veto-power of the Indian President is a combination of the absolute,
suspensive and pocket veto."
(c) "The District Collector is an overburdened officer due to the expansion and
increasing developmental activities."
(d) "A strong PMO is a salvation for any Indian Prime Minister, but concentration
of power is a danger to democracy."

2. "The Chief Minister symbolizes ruling power structure and is the real executive
head of the State Government." Discuss the above statement in the light of his
position in a Coalition Government.
60

3. (a) "The Cabinet Secretariat provides the eyes and ears for the Prime Minister to
keep in touch with the process of official business in Central Government."
Comment.
(b) "The primary emphasis in District Administration has to be on
implementation of development programmes in cooperation with active
support of people." Elucidate.
30x2=60

4. "Even after a decade of having adopted the 73rd Amendment to the Constitution,
the Panchayat Raj institution still faces a number of problems towards making it a
strong and vibrant unit of Government." Comment.
60

SECTION-B

5. Comment on. any three of the following in not more than 200 words each:
20x3=60
(a) "One of the most distinctive characteristics of Indian Administrative Service
is its multipurpose character."
(b) "Public Accounts Committee conducts a post-mortem examination of Public
Accounts."
(c) "Efforts made towards administrative reforms so far have been lacking in a
congruence between strategy, structure and substance."
(d) "The role played by Central and State Governments in maintaining law and
order is inadequate and unmatched to growing criminalization."

6. "From highly centralized planning system, India has moved towards indicative
P a g e | 29

planning under which long-term strategic vision of the future is built and nation's
priorities are decided." Elucidate. 60

7. (a) "Audit provides a healthy safeguard against pub1ic money going dowm the
drain." Comment.
(b) "National Development Council is criticized as an usurping authority -
functioning as a virtual supercabinet." Explain. 30 x 2 = 60

8. "The Lokayuktas in States have not succeeded in tackling maladministration,


while the Bill on Lokpal still faces stiff oppostion on the floor of the Parliament."
Comment. 60

Topic: IAS GS Prelim – 2007– BIOLOGY


Posted: 03Dec2007 at 9:20pm

IAS GS Prelim – 2007 – Questions Pattern – BIOLOGY

1. Which on the following is the correct sequence in order of decreasing length of the three
structural parts

given below of small intestine in the human body?

a). Jejunum - Duodenum – ileum

b). ileum – Duodenum – Jejunum

c). jejunum – ileum – Duodenum

d). ileum – Jejunum – Duodenum

2. In the Human Body which on the following hormones regulates blood calcium and
Phosphate?

a). Glucagon b). Growth Hormone

c). Parathyroid Hormone d). Thyroxin

3. How do most insects respire

a). Through skin b). Through gills

c). by Lungs d). by Tracheal system

4. In Human Being , normally in which one of the following parts , does the sperm fertilize
the ovum ?
P a g e | 30

a). Cervix b). Fallopian Tube

c). Lower Part of Uterus d). Upper Part of Uterus

5. Which one of the following parts of Human brain is regulating center for swallowing and
vomiting?

a). Cerebellum b). Cerebrum

c). Medulla Oblongata d). Pons

6. Production of which one of the following is a function of the Liver.

a). Lipase b). Urea

c). Mucus d). Hydrochloric acid

7. Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme in the Human system?

a). Trypsin b). Gastrin

c). Ptyalin d). Pepsin

8. Which of the following types of light are strongly absorbed by plants ?

a). Violet and Orange b). Blue and Red

c). indigo and yellow d). Yellow and Violet

9. In the Human Body , which structure is the appendix attached to ?

a). The large intestine b) The Small intestine

c). the gall Bladder d). The Stomach

10. Which one of the following parts of the pitcher plants becomes modified into a pitcher?

a). Stem b). Leaf

c). Stipule d). Petiole

IAS GS Prelim – 2007 – Questions Pattern – BIOLOGY


P a g e | 31

1. Which on the following is the correct sequence in order of decreasing length of the three
structural parts

given below of small intestine in the human body?

a). Jejunum - Duodenum – ileum

b). ileum – Duodenum – Jejunum

c). jejunum – ileum – Duodenum

d). ileum – Jejunum – Duodenum

2. In the Human Body which on the following hormones regulates blood calcium and
Phosphate?

a). Glucagon b). Growth Hormone

c). Parathyroid Hormone d). Thyroxin

3. How do most insects respire

a). Through skin b). Through gills

c). by Lungs d). by Tracheal system

4. In Human Being , normally in which one of the following parts , does the sperm fertilize
the ovum ?

a). Cervix b). Fallopian Tube

c). Lower Part of Uterus d). Upper Part of Uterus

5. Which one of the following parts of Human brain is regulating center for swallowing and
vomiting?

a). Cerebellum b). Cerebrum

c). Medulla Oblongata d). Pons

6. Production of which one of the following is a function of the Liver.

a). Lipase b). Urea

c). Mucus d). Hydrochloric acid

7. Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme in the Human system?


P a g e | 32

a). Trypsin b). Gastrin

c). Ptyalin d). Pepsin

8. Which of the following types of light are strongly absorbed by plants ?

a). Violet and Orange b). Blue and Red

c). indigo and yellow d). Yellow and Violet

9. In the Human Body , which structure is the appendix attached to ?

a). The large intestine b) The Small intestine

c). the gall Bladder d). The Stomach

10. Which one of the following parts of the pitcher plants becomes modified into a pitcher?

a). Stem b). Leaf

c). Stipule d). Petiole

IAS GS Prelim – 2007 – Questions Pattern – INDIAN ECONOMY

1. Consider the following Statements:

1. The National wide scheme of the National Child Labour projects ( NCLP ) is run by the
Union Ministry

of Social Justice and Empowerment.

2. Gurupadswami committee dealt with the issues of child labor.

Which of the following statement given above is/are correct?

a). 1 only b). 2 Only

c). both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

2. Tarapur committee was associated with which one of the following?

a). Special Economic Zone b). Fuller capital Account convertibility

c). Foreign exchange reserves d). Effect of oil prices on the Indian Economy
P a g e | 33

3. Who among of the following served as the chief economist of the International
Monetary Fund?

a). Ashok Lahiri b). Sumantra Ghosal

c). Saumitra Chaudhuri d). Raghuram Rajan

4. Participatory Notes ( PNs) are associated with which one the following ?

a). consolidate fund of <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> b).


Foreign Institutional Investors

c).United Nations Development Programme d). Kyoto protocol.

5. Consider the following statements :

a) The repo rate is the rate which other banks borrow from reserve Bank of <st1:country-
region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>.

b). A Value of 1 for Gini Coefficient in a country implies that there is perfectly equal income
for every one in its

populations.

Which of the following statements given above is / are correct?

a). 1 only b). 2 only

c). Both 1 or 2 c). Neither 1 or 2

6. MCA -21 is a major initiate taken up by the Government of <st1:country-region


w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> in which one of the following areas?

a). Foreign Direct investment in <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-


region> b). Attracting international tourism

c). e-governance d). Modernization of Airports

7. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of
contribution of different

sectors to the Gross domestic product of <st1:country-region


w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>?

a). Service – Industry – Agriculture b). Service – Agriculture – Industry

c). industry – service – Agriculture d). Industry – Agriculture – Service


P a g e | 34

8. with the reference of the steel industry in India in the recent times , consider
the following

statements:

a). Vizag steel Plant ( RINL ) has been declared Mini Ratna

b). Merger of IISCO with SAIL has been completed.

Which statements given above are / are correct?

a). 1 only b). 2 only

c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 or 2

9. Basel II relates to which one of the following?

a). International standard for safety in civil aviation

b). Measure against cyber crimes

c). Measure against drug abuse by sport person

d). International Standards for measuring the adequacy of Bank’s capital.

10. The National Housing Bank was set up in <st1:country-region


w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> as a wholly – owned subsidiary of which
one of the

following?

a). Sate Bank of <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> b). Reserve


Bank of <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>

c). ICICI Bank c). Life insurance Corporation of <st1:country-region


w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>

11. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of
production ( in million

tones ) of the given food grains in <st1:country-region


w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> ?

a). Wheat – Rice – Pulses – Coarse Cereals

b). Rice – Wheat – Pulse- Coarse Cereals

c). Wheat – Rice – Coarse cereals – pulse


P a g e | 35

d). Rice – Wheat – Coarse Cereals – Pulse

IAS GS Prelim – 2007 – Questions Pattern – INDIAN POLITY & CONSTITUION

1. Consider the following statement in respect of financial emergency under the


article 360 of the

constitution of <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> .

1. A proclamation of Financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of


two months,

unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolution of both
house of

Parliament.

2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for president of


<st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> to issue

directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving
in

connection with the affair of the union but excluding the judges of the Supreme Court and
the high

courts.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

a) 1 only b). 2 only

c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

2. Which of the constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Council of
Ministers at the

center and in a state must not exceed 15 percent of the total numbers in the Lok
Sabha and the total

number of members of the legislative Assembly of that state , respectively ?

a). 91st b). 93rd

c). 95th d). 97th


P a g e | 36

3. Consider the following statements :

1. The chairman of the committee on public Accounts is appointed by the speaker of the Lok
Sabha.

2. The committee on Public Accounts Comprise Members of the Lok Sabha , Members of
Rajya Sabha,

and a few eminent persons of the industry and Trade.

Which of the statements given above/is are correct.

a). 1 only b). 2 only

c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

4. Who is the Speaker of the First Lok Sabha ?

a). Hukam Singh b). G V Mavalankar

c). K M Munshi d). U N Dhebar

5. Consider the following statements :

1. Jawahar Nehru was in his fourth Term as the Prime minister of <st1:country-region
w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> at the time of his death.

2. Jawahar Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a member of parliament.

3. The First non congress Prime minister of <st1:country-region


w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> assumed the office in the year 1977.

Which of the following statements given above is are correct.

a). 1 and 2 only b). 3 Only

c). 1 only d). 1 and 3

6. Which one of the following Pairs is not correctly matched?

a). T S Krishnamurthy : Former Chief Election Commissioner of <st1:country-region


w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>

b). K C pant : Chairman , Tenth Finance Commissioner of <st1:country-region


w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>

c). A M Khusro : Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission


P a g e | 37

d). R C Lahoti : Former Chief Justice of <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-


region>

7. Consider the Following Statements:

1. The Mode of removal of a judge of a high court in <st1:country-region


w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> is same as that of removal of a judge of the

supreme court.

2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court can not plead or act
in any Court

or before any authority in <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

a). 1 only b). 2 only

c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

8. Which one of the following is the correct Chronological order of the Formation
of the following as full

states of Indian Union?

a) <st1:country-region w:st="on">Sikkim</st1:country-region> – Arunachal Pradesh –


Nagaland – Haryana

b) Nagaland – Haryana – <st1:country-region w:st="on">Sikkim</st1:country-region> –


Arunachal pradesh

c) <st1:country-region w:st="on">Sikkim</st1:country-region> – Haryana – Nagaland-


Arunachal Pradesh

d) Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – <st1:country-region w:st="on">Sikkim</st1:country-


region> – Haryana

9. Consider the following statements :

1. The Judges (Inquiry) Bill 2006 Contemplates to establish a judicial council which will
receive

complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court including the chief Justice of India, High
court Chief

Justice and judges.


P a g e | 38

2. Under the protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a woman can file a
petition before

a 1st class Judicial Magistrate.

Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?

a). 1 only b). 2 only

c). both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 or 2

10. Who among the following have been the Union Finance Minister of India.?

1. V P singh 2. R Venktaraman

3. Y B Chavan 4. Pranab Mukherjee

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

a). 1 , 2 and 3 only b). 1 , 3 and 4 only

c). 2 and 4 only d). 1, 2 , 3 and 4

Direction: The following items consist of two statements, one labeled as the ‘ Assertion ( A)
‘ and the other as ‘

Reason ( R ) . you are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to
these items using the

code given below:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the Correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

c) A is true But R is False

d) A is False but R is True

11. Assertion ( A). the Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible
both to the Lok sabha

and The Rajya Sabha

Reasons ( R ) : The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be
the Ministers of

the Unioin.
P a g e | 39

IAS General Studies Prelim: INDIAN ECONOMY

No. of Question asked from INDIAN ECONOMY in IAS GS Prelim Paper: 8 to 12 Q

NCERT: Understanding of Basics and Fundamental of INDIAN ECONOMY

9th NCERT: Economics

1. The story of Palampur

2. people as a resource

3. Poverty as a challenge

4. Food Security in <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>

10th NCERT: Understanding Economic Development

1. Development

2. Sectors of the Indian Economy

3. Money and Credit

4. Globalization and Indian Economy

5. Consumer Rights

11th NCERT: Indian Economic Development

1. Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence

- Low level of Economic Development under the colonial Rule

- Agriculture Sector

- Industrial Sector

- Foreign Trade

- Demographic Condition

- Occupational Structure

- Infrastructure
P a g e | 40

2. Indian Economy 1950-1990

- The Goal of Five Year Plans

- Agriculture

- Industry and Trade

- Trade Policy: Import Substitution

3. Liberalization , Privatization and Globalization : An Appraisal

- Background

- Liberalization

- Privatization

- Globalization

- Indian Economy during Reform: An Assessment

4. Poverty

- Who are the poor

- How Are the poor people identified

- The number of poor in <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>

- What cause poverty?

- Policies & Progrogramme towards poverty Allevation

- Poverty Allevation programme – A critical Assessment

5. Human Capital Formation

- What is Human Capital

- Source of Human Capital

- Human Capital and Human development

- Human Capital Formation in <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> :


Great prospects

- Education Sectors in <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>


P a g e | 41

- Future prospects

6. Rural Development

- What is rural Development

- Credit and Marketing in rural Areas

- Agriculture Market system

- Diversification into productive Activities

- Sustainable Development and organic Farming

7. Employment: Growth & other Issues

- Workers & Employment

- Participation of people in Employment

- Self Employed and Hired Workers

- Employment in firms , Factories and Offices

- Growth and changing structure of Employment

- Unemployment

- Government and Employment Generation

8. Infrastructure

- What is infrastructure

- Relevance of infrastructure

- The state of Infrastructure in <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>

- Energy

- Health

9. Environment and sustainable Development

- Environment : Definition and Function

- State of Indian’s Environment


P a g e | 42

- Sustainable Development

- Strategies for Sustainable development

10. Comparative Development experience of <st1:country-region


w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> and Its Neighbour

- Development path

- Demographic Indicators

- Gross Domestic products and Sectors

- Indicators of human development

- Development Strategies – An appraisal

12th NCERT: Introductory Macroeconomics

1. National income Accounting

- Some Basic concepts of Macroeconomics

- Method of calculating national income

- Some Macroeconomic Identities

- Goods and prices

- GDP and Welfare

2. Money and banking

- Function of Money

- Demand for Money

- The supply of Money

3. The Government : Functions and scope

- Component of Government Budget

- The Revenue Account

- The Capital Account

- Measure of Government Deficit


P a g e | 43

- Fiscal Deficit

- Change in the Government expenditure

- Change in Taxes

- Debt

4. Open Economy Macroeconomics

- The balance of payment

- The Foreign Exchange Market

- The Determination of Income in an open Economy

- Trade deficit, saving & investment

UPSC: IAS MAIN - 2007

ZOOLOGY

Paper- I

Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should attempt all questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given
under each

questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the
question.

SECTION A

1. Write concise account of any three of the following in about 200 words each: 20x3=60

(a) Various types of symmetry found in animal kingdom, with suitable examples.

(b) Comparison of alimentary canal of frog and rabbit

(c) Torsion in gastropoda

(d) Structure and function of thyroid gland along with its regulation.
P a g e | 44

2. Explain the status of Protista and parazoa giving their characteristics with suitable
example. 60

3. Explain the metamorphosis in insects and its hormonal regulation. 60

4. Draw well labeled diagram of transverse section of mammalian testis and ovary. Describe
the function of

Male and female sex hormones (Testosterone and estrogen) 60

SECTION B

5. Write brief account of any three of the following in about 200 words each: 20x3=60

(a) What is ecological succession? Describe its process in a pod or lake.

(b) Concept of imprinting

(c) Malaria: its vector, pathogen and prevention

(d) Chi-Square and its importance

6. What is pollution? Describe water pollution, its sources and prevention. 60

7. What is sericulture? Describe the tools and materials required for it. Mention different
types of silk moth and

varieties of silk common in <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>. 60

8. a). What is mean, median and mode? Explain the relationship between these three
measures of central

tendency. 30

b). what is electron microscopy? Mention different types of electron microscopes and their
use in biology. 30

Paper- II

SECTION-A

1. Different between any three of the following: - 20x3=60

(a) Coincidence and interference

(b) Mitotic and Meiotic Prophase

(c) Substantive and polymorphic variation


P a g e | 45

(d) Genera and Species

2. Describe transcription in pro- and eukaryotes. 60

3. Write explanatory notes on the following: - 30x2=60

a). Mobile Genetic Segment

b). Tryptophan Opera

4. Discuss Hardy-Weinberg Law and mention its utility. 60

SECTION-B

5. Explain the importance of any three of the following: - 20x3=60

(a). Structure and function of cyclic AMP

(b). Mechanism of Hormone action

(c). Regeneration

(d). Teratogenesis

6. Discuss active and passive immunity. Mention autoimmune disorders. 60

7. Describe programmed cell death. 60

8. Discuss the role of liver and pancreas in digestion? 60

Psychology - 2000 (Main) (Paper - I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks :


300

INSTRUCTIONS
Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English.
Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you,
which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the
purpose. No mark will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that
specified in the Admission Certificate.
Candidates should attempt questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any THREE of the
remaining questions selecting at least ONE question from each Section.
All questions carry equal marks.
P a g e | 46

SECTION 'A'

Q. 1. Answer any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :

(a) What is the basic difference between the experimental and correlational methods of
psychology?

(b) How do models help in the process of socialization ?

(c) How can the contributions of heredity and environment be isolated in the study of
human behaviour.

(d) How can the phenomenon of perceptual defence be demonstrated experimentally ?

Q. 2. Explain how operant conditioning be used to establish behaviour which is not


spontaneously emitted by an organism.

Q. 3. Giving an account of Piagets's theory of cognitive development bring out the


difference in the modes of thinking at different stages of development.

Q. 4. What is the theoretical and utilitarian justification of the concepts of aptitude and
intelligence

SECTION `B'

Q. 5. Answer any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :

(a) How is perception of inanimate objects different from the person perception ?

(b) What is the importance of discrimination and generalization in learning ?

(c) Is national character a valid concept ?

(d) How experimenter effects and demand characteristics influence the findings of an
experimental study ?

Q. 6. Illustrate and discuss the salient features of motivated behaviour.

Q. 7. Critically examine the optimistic conclusions of humanistic theories regarding human


nature and existence.

Q. 8. Discuss the problems encountered in the use of verbal statements as the items of
attitude scales.

Psychology - 2000 (Main) (Paper - II)


P a g e | 47

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks :


300

INSTRUCTIONS
Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English.
Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you,
which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the
purpose. No mark will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that
specified in the Admission Certificate.
Candidates should attempt questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any THREE of the
remaining questions selecting at least ONE question from each Section.
All questions carry equal marks.

SECTION 'A'

Q. 1. Answer any three of the following (each answer should not exceed 200 words) :

(a) Briefly describe the classification of psychological discorders.

(b) Show your acquaintance with atleast am one theory of group behaviour.

(c) Show conceptual relationship between social change and organizational change.

(d) How can cognitive therapy help a person develop his cognition ?

Q. 2. There have been various leadership and management theories and styles. Which one
of them do you consider to be the most suitable in the Indian condition ? Give reasons.

Q. 3. Discuss Maslow's theory of need-hierarchy. Can Maslow's theory be applied-to


industries ?

Q. 4. What is stress? Can you suggest some Indian techniques for stress management ?
Elaborate.

SECTION 'B'

Q. 5. Answer any three of the following (each answer should not exceed 200 words) :

(a) Describe the concept of deprivation.

(b) Give your idea about nosological systems of metal disorders.

(c) How can you motivate people to achieve ?

(d) Discuss the impact of television in opinion formation.

Q. 6. Highlight the problems of alcoholism and drug addiction. Suggest measures to fight
them.
P a g e | 48

Q. 7. Discuss the psychological theories and contributions of psychology in effective


advertising.

Q. 8. What is organizational communication ? What will be the form of organizational


communication in the 21st century because of the advent of information technology ?

English - Civil Services Examination - 2002

Time allowed: Three hours Maximum


marks: 300

Instructions

Candidates should attempt all questions.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Answers must be written in English.

1. Write an essay in about 300 words on any one of the following: (100)

(a) The ways to enrich our regional languages.

(b) Whither Indian democracy today?

(c) Terrorism in India

(d) Science and religion

(e) If I were the Prime minister of India

2. Read the following passage and answer in your own words the questions that follow
(5x15=75)

The scientific and technological revolution has brought that fundamental changes in the
socio-economic sphere. The use of diesel engine and electricity and the beginning of the
application of atomic energy have changed the modes of production. These things have led
to the concentration of capital in a few hands. Great enterprises are replacing cottage
industries and small firms. The working classes have certainly benefited economically. The
miracle of production has necessitated the miracle of consumption. Better amenities are
available at a lower cost. A man can buy anything he wants today, if e can only afford. But
what kind of men are needed today for our society? Men who can co-operate in large
groups, men whose tasks are standardized, men who feel free and independent and at the
same time are willing to fit in the social machine without any friction.
P a g e | 49

Modern man is faced with a sort of moral and spiritual dilemma. The crisis of values yawns
before him. Today the old values are in the melting pot, and the new values have not found
their foothold. Man has become the automaton he has contrived; he has lost ownership of
himself. The discord between the development of positive science on the one hand and the
dehumanization of man on the other is the worst crisis of the modern age.

Apart from the economic sphere, the socio-political sphere has not escaped this
stratification and the congruent crisis of values. Since the Renaissance, man has been
striving for individual rights and self-dignity. But under the present set-up, only two types
of men are found the conditioner and the conditioned. The propaganda officers and the
planning bureaus have almost crushed the 'individual self', and it has resulted in the rise of
the 'social self'. Due to this pressure, the personality fulfillment or its all-round development
is denied to many.

(a) What has changed the modes of production today?

(b) What things are being replaced by great enterprises?

(c) What kind of men are needed today for our society?

(d) Why has man become the automaton of his own creation?

(e) Is modern man able to attain personality fulfillment?

3. Make a precise of the following passage in your own language, in about 230 words on the
special precise-sheets provided. The precise-sheets should be securely fastened inside the
answer book. Indicate the number of words used by you in your precise.

N.B.: Marks will be deducted if your precise is much longer and shorter than the prescribed
length. (75)

"What is the use of a house if you haven't got a tolerable planet to put it on?" asked Henry
David Thoreau. More than a century later, the Earth seems to be literally falling to pieces -
recent environmental set-backs include billions of tones of ices shelves breaking off in the
Antarctic and unusually warm temperatures in different part of the world. Panic reactions
range from predictions of sinking islands to lamenting the ill-effects of global warming
induced by release of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. The trouble is that we are too
much obsessed with the problem of climatic change to even acknowledge the fact that the
state of the planet hinges on much more. Climatic change is at best a symptom of a far
more complex malaise, just as a fever is most often only an indicator of something that's
gone awry in our body. It is time for a complete and comprehensive planetary health
check, that will examine the impacts of change in land use, loss of biodiversity, use of
fertilizers and pesticides and consistent pollution of water bodies. This would overcome the
limitations of evaluating how ecosystems work by reacting to just one major environmental
concern as is happening in the case of global warming. These considerations have been
responsible for the setting up of an international panel, the Millennium Ecosystem
Assessment. Financed by four major international bodies, including the UNO and the World
Bank, the eco-panel was set up without much fuss last June (2001), and is expected to
determine, over a period of our years and at a cost of $21 million, the state of the Earth's
ecosystems.
P a g e | 50

The eco-panel will have source inputs from more than 2,000 natural and social scientists the
world over. Put simply, the earth will go through the equivalent of a through physical
analysis, so that biological, economic and social information can be collated to help
scientists arrive at a final diagnosis. What is crucial, says one of the scientists, is that "no
one has previously tried to work out how all of these conflicting pressures interact". The
other important factor is how well we can orchestrate tread-offs and interactions in order to
maintain ecological balance. Scientific bodies like the International Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC) have access to vast amounts of baseline data relating to the subject -
although critics point out that the information available is mostly from the North, leaving the
concerns of the South largely unpresented. The newly-constituted eco-panel will have to
take all these aspects into account. For instance, it will have to ensure that data collection
is more representative of the regions of the world. Today, we have the advantage of
sourcing data from remote sensing satellites as well. The information thus gathered would
have to be sorted out and analyzed by specialists and also by generalists - before the panel
comes out with specific periodic predictions, prescriptions and warnings. the e\healing
process can begin only if all the scientific evidence and direction is made available to a wide
audience and not just restricted to policy makers. Rather than depending solely upon
governments to listen to and take corrective action, the focus should now be on convincing
individuals and communities whose collective or individual action will eventually make the
difference between regression and recovery.

4. (a) Fill in the blanks using appropriate forms of the words given below:

ride, diminish, devotion, shout, watch, contest, disastrous, pleasure, philosophizing, finance
(10)

(i) Mohan is _________________ to his father

(ii) None seems to have been ______________ with his speech.

(iii) She ________ at the peon when he sat down.

(iv) His _________ condition is at a low ebb now.

(v) Several candidates are _________________ the Panchayat elections.

(vi) The boy was frightened to __________ the movie.

(vii) What does Samkara's _________ teach us?

(viii) Hariharan's suspicious moves herald a _______

(ix) In the circus show, I saw a bear _____________ a bicycle.

(x) The chances of starvation deaths have __________ today.

4 (b) Use each of the following words in two separate sentences first as a noun and then as
a verb: (10)
P a g e | 51

(i) race (ii) hit (iii) play (iv) touch, (v) experiment.

4 (c) Rewrite the following sentences as directed parenthetically: (5)

(i) "Do not make a noise", said the teacher to his students. (Change into indirect form)

(ii) Hari is so short that he cannot touch the ceiling. (Replace 'so' by 'too')

(iii) I gave him a ten-rupee note yesterday. (change into passive voice)

(iv) She bought a house last year. the house is white. (Change into simple sentence).

(v) Hard as as he worked, he failed in the examination. (Use 'though').

5. (a) Correct the following sentences: (10)

(i) He boasts his achievements now and then.

(ii) She is living in this flat since 1995.

(iii) The principal was angry upon the boys.

(iv) Character is more preferable than intelligence.

(v) Krishna hanged all the pictures on the wall.

(vi) The sceneries of Kashmir move me most.

(vii) Cattle is grazing in the field.

(viii) Hari is going foreign next month.

(ix) She knew that I am leaving the place.

(x) His elder brother gave him many good advices.

5. (b) Of the words given in brackets, choose the one you think appropriate to fill in the
blanks: (10)

(i) The road accident proved to be ______ (fateful, fatal)

(ii) He got a ________ opportunity to qualify in the test. (gold, golden)

(iii) Faridabad is an ______ city. (industrial, industrious)

(iv) An ashram is a ________ place. (quiet, quite)

(v) Sohan's handwriting is _________ (eligible, illegible)


P a g e | 52

(vi) We should not disturb the ___________ of his mind. (piece, peace)

(vii) You should ____ an example to strengthen your viewpoint. (site, cite)

(viii) Akbar was an ______ to Humayun. (hair, heir)

(ix) Rajasthan is a well known ___________ (desert, dessert)

(x) The _______ turned me out of the class. (principle, principal).

5. (c) Use of the following phrases in sentences so as to bring out their meaning: (5)

(i) bring about

(ii) call names

(iii) run out

(iv) by leaps and bounds

(v) lame excuse

UPSC: IAS MAIN - 2007

GENERAL STUDIES
Paper- I
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should attempt all question strictly in accordance with the instructions given
under each questions. The

number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

1. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words): 30

(a) What was the character of social religious reforms in the 19th Century and how did they
contribute to the national

awakening in <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>?


P a g e | 53

(b) The crisis of the colonial order during 1919 and 1939 was directly linked to the
constitutional reforms,

disillusionment and militant anti-colonial struggles. Elucidate.

2. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 150 words each) : 15x2 = 30

(a) What are the salient features of the Government of India Acts of 1858 and 1909?

(b) Do you think Mahatma Gandhi's support to Khilafat Movement had diluted his secular
credentials? Give your

argument based on the assessment of events.

(c) Evaluate the contribution of revolutionary terrorism represented by Bhagat Singh to the
cause of <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>’s Struggle of

independence.

3. Write about the following (not 20 words each) : 2x15 = 30

(a) Age of Sangam Literature

(b) Bhakti

(c) Ashtadhyayi of Panini

(d) Charvakas

(e) Ajivikas

(f) Gandhara Art

(g) Mlechchas

(h) Lingayats

(i) Megasthenes

(j) R. C. Dutt

(k) Nagarjunakonda

(1) Pastoralism
P a g e | 54

(m) Rudramadevi

(n) Sati

(0) Ramanuja

4. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 125 words each) : l0x2=20

(a) Explain how the Himalayan and the Tibetan highlands play an important role in the
development of the South West

monsoon.

(b) Technological changes have brought in a major shift in the use of roads as transport
corridors in <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>. How far do

you agree with this view?

(c) Explain the nature and causes of growing slum problems in the metropolitan cities of
<st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>.

5. Write notes on the following (in about 20 words each): 2 x 5= 10

(a) Special Economic Zone (SEZ)

(b) Inceptisol

(c) Jarawas

(d) Indira Point

(e) Causes of Chambal Ravines

6. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words) : 30

(a) What is a Constitution? What are the main sources of the Indian Constitution?

(b) Bring out the differences between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of
State Policy. Discuss some

of the measures taken by the Union and State Governments for the implementation of the
Directive Principles of State
P a g e | 55

Policy.

7. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words): 30

(a). What is regionalism ? In which way regionalism has affected the Indian Polity.

(b). what are the Main determination of voting behavior in <st1:country-region


w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>?

8. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 150 words each): 15x2 = 30

(a) What are the exceptions when the President of India is not bound by the aid and advice
of the Council of Ministers?

(b) What is pro tem Speaker?

(e) Under what circumstances, Parliament may legislate on State subjects?

9. Answer the following questions (in about 20 words each): 2 x 5 = 10

(a). What is criminalization of politics?

(b). How president of <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> elected?

(c). what is casting vote?

(d). what is the difference between council of Minister and Cabinet?

(e). what is the importance of Right to constitutional remedies?

10. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words): 30

(a). what were the main recommendations of the Platform for Action (PFA) adopted at the
Beijing Women Conference

1995?

(b) Discuss the steps to get rid of child labour in <st1:country-region


w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>.
P a g e | 56

11. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 125 words each): l0x2=20

(a) What is stealth technology?

(b) Differentiate between Natural and Cultural heritage.

(c) What is value-based politics?

12. Write notes on any two of the following (in about 125 words each) : I0x2=20

(a) Integrated Child Services (lCDS) Development

(b) Prime Minister's 5-point agenda for <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-


region>'s development as a knowledge society

(c) The Lokpal Bill.

13. Write short notes on the following ( in about 20 words each ) 2 x 5 = 10

(a) Yakshagana

(h) PACE.

(c) Footloose Industries

(d) The Statue of Liberty

(e) Genome

GENERAL STUDIES
Paper- II
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should attempt all question strictly in accordance with the instructions given
under each questions. The

number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question
P a g e | 57

1. Answer any two of the following (answer to each question should be in about 150
words): 15x2=30

(a) Indo-Russian Defence Co-operation

(b) <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>'s response, to political


crisis In <st1:country-region w:st="on">Bangladesh</st1:country-region>

(c) Elaborate on <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>'s Nuclear


Doctrine

2. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 wordS): 2x5= I
0

(a) SAFTA

(b) <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> and East Asia Summit


(EAS)

(c) Shanghai Cooperation Organization, (S.C.O.)

(d) Panchsheel in <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>'s Foreign


Policy

(e) Relevance of <st1:country-region w:st="on">NAM</st1:country-region>

3. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words) :
2x5=10

(a) Pravasi Bhartiya Bima Yojana, 2006

(b) Indian All-Women Contingent to <st1:country-region w:st="on">Liberia</st1:country-


region>

(c) Madheshis in <st1:country-region w:st="on">Nepal</st1:country-region>

(d) Know <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region> Programme (KIP)

(e) Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs


P a g e | 58

4. Answer anyone of the following (in about 250 words): 30

(a). What is Dumping? Evaluate the remedial measures taken by Government of India vis-à-
vis WTO provisions

regarding dumping.

(b) Comment on the relationship between credit availability and agricultural growth in
<st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>.

5. Answer any two of the following (answer to each question should be in about 150 words )

(a). What is the meaning and aim of social forestry ? What are the main weakness noticed
in social forestry

programme?

(b). Bring out the main objective of Rastriya Krishi Bima Yojana. The scheme is being
implemented by which agency.

(c). Explain Mega Food park Scheme of Government of India.

6. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words ) : 2x15
= 30

(a) Explain the term Merit Goods

(b) What is Cheap Money?

(c) What is Countervailing Duty?

(d) What is Hot Money?

(e). Explain the Concept Trickle Down Theory

(f) What is Stagflation?

(g) What is Engel's Law?

(h) Meaning of CCIL

(i) What is Administered Price?

(j) What is Venture Capital?


P a g e | 59

(k) Explain the term Balance on Current Account

(I) What is Consolidated Fund?

(m) What is Budget Deficit?

(n) Explain the term Most Favored Nations

(0) Meaning of Capital- Output Ratio

7. Write about any two of the following (in about 150 words each): 15x2=30

(a) Impact of globalization on state system and its institutions

(b) SAARC Summit 2007

(c) The UN conference on Environment and Development (The Earth Summit)

8. Write about the following (in about 20 words each): 2x5 = 10

(a) G-8 Summit 2007

(b) Hyde Act of 2006

(c) Global Governance

(d) Operation Silence

(e) SAARC Human Rights Report 2006

9. Write about the following by expanding and explaining the objectives (in about 20 Words
each): 2x5=10

(a) ICT4D

(b) BEMs

(c) IAEA

(d) BIMSTEC

(e) ECJ
P a g e | 60

10. Answer any one of the following in about 250 words: 30

(a). Explain the phenomenon of ozone depletion, its cause and effects . What efforts are
needed to reduce it.

(b). what do you understanding by the term ‘biodiversity’? Examine the cause and
consequence of degeneration of

biodiversity?

11. Answer any two of the following (answer for each question should be in about 150
words) : 15x2=30

(a) What are the alterative fuels available for the transport sector? Discuss their
characteristics, advantages 'and

disadvantages in their utilization.

(b) Explain the objectives and the current achievements of human genome project.

(c) Discuss the missile technology initiatives undertaken by <st1:country-region


w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>.

12. Answer all the five (in about 20 words each) : 2x5=10

(a) What is firewall ? (b) What is mal ware ?

(c) What do the following stand for?

(i) MPEG (ii) ISP

(iii) HTML (iv) ASCII

(d) What is Root kit?

(e) What is computer architecture?

13. (a) In the year 2000 out of a total 1750 workers of a factory 1200 workers were
members of a union. The number of
P a g e | 61

women employed was 200 of which 175 did not belong to the union. In 2005 , the number
of union workers increased to

1510 of which 1290 were men . On the other hand the number of non union workers fell
down to 208 of which 180 were

men. 8

(i) Put the above information in a proper table with title.

(ii) Calculate the increase in the percentage of the female workers belonging to the union in
that five year period.

(b) The marks obtained by 20 students in a subject are given: 8

32, 62, 72, 46, 52, 74, 53, 42, 58, 61, 59, 46, 36, 76, 58, 77, 62, 48, 36, 39.

Form a frequency distribution table with class interval 10. Also Draw the Histogram.

14. (a) For the following distribution of statistics test grades, construct a frequency polygon
and answer the following: 8

(i) How many test grades are greater than 87 ?

(ii) What percentage of test grades are greater than 83?

(iii) What percentage of test grades are lower than72? '

(iv) What percentage of test grades are between 72 and 79 (inclusive )

Test Grades:

73, 92, 57, 89, 70, 95, 75, 80, 47, 88, 47, 48, 64, 86, 79, 72, 71, 77, 93, 55, 75, 50, 53,
75, 85, 50, 82, 45, 40, 82,

60, 89, 79, 65, 54, 93, 60, 83, 59

(b). Construct an appropriate diagram to show the following data of a university: 8

Course No. of Students

Engineering 440

Arts 220

Agriculture 120
P a g e | 62

Home Science 80

Economic 60

Total = 920

15. (a) What do you understand by 2

(i) Primary and secondary data

(ii) Data classification

(iii) Measures of central tendency

(iv) Characteristics of good average

(b) The mean wage of 100 laborers working in a factory running two shifts of 60 and 40
workers respectively is Rs. 38.

The mean wage of 60 labourers working in the morning shift is Rs 40. Find the mean wage
of 40 Labourers working in

the evening shift. 2

(c) The mean age of a group of 5 boys is 16 years. Another boy joins the group and then
the mean age of the group

becomes 18 years. How old is the newcomer? 2

(d) Arithmetic means of two completely different sets of values may be same. When
extreme values are taken into

consideration, the arithmetic mean is largely affected. Is it merit or demerit of arithmetic


mean and give reasons for your statement? 2

General Studies CSE Preliminary Examination


Paper with Answers (2004)

1. Match List-I (Institute) with List - II (located At) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists:

List - I
(Institute)
A. Indian Institute of Geomagnetism
B. International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and
P a g e | 63

New Materials
C. Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History
D. Tropical Forestry Research Institute

List - II
(Located At)
1. Coimbatore
2. Mumbai
3. Jabalpur
4. Hyderabad
Codes:
(a) A B C D
2314
(b) A B C D
1423
(c) A B C D
2413
(d) A B C D
1324
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research uses fast reactor technology.
2. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration is engaged in heavy water
production.
3. Indian Rare Earths Limited is engaged in the manufacture of Zircon for India�s

Nuclear Programme beside other rare earth products.

Which of the statements given above are correct?


(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

3. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?


(a) Reinhold Messner :Computer Technology
(b) Harlow Shapley :Astronomy
(c) Gregor Mendel :Hereditary Theory
(d) Godfrey Hounsfield :CT Scan
4. Consider the following international languages:
1. Arabic
2. French
3. Spanish
The correct sequence of the languages given above in the decreasing order of the number of
their speakers is
(a) 3-1-2 (b) 1-3-2
(c) 3-2-1 (d) 1-2-3
5. Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?
(a) K.V.K. Sundaram
(b) G.S. Dhillon
(c) Baliram Bhagat
P a g e | 64

(d) Hukum Singh


6. Two cars X and Y start from two places A and B respectively which are 700 km apart at 9
a.m. Both the cars

run at an average speed of 60 km/hr. Car X stops at 10 a.m. and again starts at 11 a.m.
while the other car

Y continues to run without stopping. When do the two cars cross each other?
(a) 2 : 40 p.m. (b) 3 : 20 p.m.
(c) 4 : 10 p.m (d) 4 : 20 p.m.
7. In a question of a test paper, there are five items each under List-A and List-B. The
examinees are required to

match each item under List-A with its corresponding correct item under List-B. Further, it is
given that
(i) no examinee has given the correct answer
(ii) answers of no two examinees are identical
What is the maximum number of examinees who took this test?

(a) 24 (b) 26
(c) 119 (d) 129
The details given below relate to the four items that follow:
Amit wishes to buy a magazine. Four magazines�one each on politics, sports, science and
films are

available to choose from. They are edited by Feroz, Gurbaksh, Swami and Ila (not
necessarily in that order)

and published by Aryan, Bharat, Charan and Dev Publishers (not necessarily in that order).
Further, it is given that
(i) Dev Publishers have published the magazine edited by Feroz
(ii) the magazine on politics is published by Aryan Publishers
(iii) the magazine on films is edited by Swami and is not published by Charan Publishers
(iv) the magazine on science is edited by Ila
For the following four items, select the correct answer:
8. The magazine on science is published by
(a) Aryan Publisher
(b) Bharat Publishers
(c) Charan Publishers (d) Dev Publishers
9. The magazine on sports is
(a) edited by Feroz
(b) edited by Gurbaksh
(c) published by Bharat Publishers
(d) published by Charan Publishers
10. The magazine on films is
(a) published by Dev Publishers
(b) published by Bharat Publishers
(c) edited by Gurbaksh
(d) published by Charan Publishers
11. The magazine on politics is
(a) edited by Ila
P a g e | 65

(b) edited by Gurbaksh

c) published by Dev Publishers

(d) published by Charan Publishers

12. Match List-I (Distinguished Ladies) with List-II (Area of Work) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I
(Distinguished Ladies)
A. Jhumpa Lahiri
B. Sunita Narain
C. Naina Lal Kidwai
D. Ravina Raj Kohli
List-II
(Area of Work)
1. Science and environment
2. Novel-writing
3. Film industry
4. Banking
5. Television media
Codes:
(a) A B C D
4531
(b) A B C D
2145
(c) A B C D
4135
(d) A B C D
2541
13. Which one of the following does not border Panama?
(a) Costa Rica
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Colombia
(d) Venezuela
14. A and B start from the same point and in the same direction at 7 a.m. to walk around a
rectangular field

400 m � 300 m. And B walk at the rate of 3 km/hr and 2.5 km/hr respectively. How many
times shall they

cross each other if they continue to walk till 12:30 p.m.?


(a) Not even once
(b) Once
(c) Twice
(d) Thrice
15. Match List-I (Beaches in India) which List-II (States) and select the correct answer
using the codes given

below the Lists:


List-I
P a g e | 66

(Beaches in India)
A. Gopnath Beach
B. Lawsons Bay Beach
C. Devbagh Beach
D. Sinquerim Beach

List-II
(States)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Gujarat
4. Goa
5. Karnataka
Codes:
(a) A B C D
5421
(b) A B C D
3154
(c) A B C D
5124
(d) A B C D
3451
16. A car is running on a road at uniform speed of 60 km/hr. The net resultant

force on the car is


(a) driving force in the direction of car�s motion
(b) resistance force in the direction of car�s motion
(c) an inclined force
(d) equal to zero
17. Match List-I (Biosphere Reserves) with List-II (States) and select the

correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:


List-I List-II
(Biosphere Reserves) (States)
A. Similipal 1. Sikkim
B. Dehong Deband 2. Uttaranchal
C. Nokrek 3. ArunachalPradesh
D. Kanchenjunga 4. Orissa
5. Meghalya
Codes:
(a) A B C D
1354
(b) A B C D
4521
(c) A B C D
1524
(d) A B C D
4351
18. Amongst the following Indian States which one has the minimum total forest

cover?
P a g e | 67

(a) Sikkim (b) Goa


(c) Haryana (d) Kerala
19. How many three-digit even numbers are there such that 9 comes as a succeeding

digit in any number only when 7 is the preceding digit and 7 is the preceding

digit only when 9 is the succeeding digit?


(a) 120 (b) 210
(c) 365 (d) 405
20. Match List-I (Sports-person) with List-II (Sport/Game) and select the correct

answer using the codes given below the Lists:


List-I List-II
(Sports-person) (Sports/Game)
A. Shikha Tandon 1. Badminton
B. Ignace Tirkey 2. Swimming
C. Pankaj Advani 3. Lawn
Tennis
D. Rohan Bopanna 4. Snooker
5. Hockey
Codes:
(a) A B C D
3542
(b) A B C D
2413
(c) A B C D
3412
(d) A B C D
2543
21. The record for the highest score in an innings in Test Cricket is now being held by M.
Hayden.

Immediately prior to him, the three record holders were


(a) Don Bradman, Sunil Gavaskar and Colin Cowdrey
(b) Len Huton, Peter May and Vivian Richards
(c) Hanif Mohammed, Garfield Sobers and Brian Lara
(d) Bob Cowper, Bill Lawry and Brian Lara
22. In how many different ways can six players be arranged in a line such that two of them,
Ajit and Mukherjee,

are never together?


(a) 120 (b) 240
(c) 360 (d) 480
23. Match List-I (State/Province/Overseas Territory) with List-II (Country) and select the
correct answer

using the codes given below the lists:


List-I List-II
(State/Province/Overseas (Country)
Territory)
A. British Colombia 1. USA
P a g e | 68

B. Bavaria 2. UK
C. Gibraltar 3. Canada
D. Rhode Island 4.Germany
5. Denmark
Codes:
(a) A B C D
1253

(b) A B C D
3421
(c) A B C D
1423
(d) A B C D
3251

24. Consider the following statements:


1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body.
2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.
3. �Athlete�s foot� is a disease caused by virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
25. 50 men or 80 women can finish a job in 50 days. A contractor deploys 40 men and 48
women for this work,

but after every duration of 10 days, 5 men and 8 women are removed till the work is
completed. The work is

completed in
(a) 45 days (b) 50 days
(c) 54 days (d) 62 days
26. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Unit of Indian Railway Location
(a) Railway Staff : Vadodra
College
(b) Central : Varanasi
Organization
for Railway
Electrification
(c) Wheel and Axle Plant : Bangalore
(d) Rail-coach : Kapurthala
Factory
27. Consider the following statements:
1. Smart Card is a plastic card with an embedded microchip.
2. Digital technology is primarily used with new physical communication medium such as
satellite

and fibre optics transmission.


P a g e | 69

3. A digitial library is a collection of documents in an organized electronic form available on


the

Internet only.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
28. Match List-I (New Names of the Countries) with List-II (Old Names

of the Countries) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(New Names of (Old Names of the
the Countries) Countries)
A. Benin 1. Nyasaland
B. Belize 2. Basutoland
C. Botswana 3. Bechuanaland
D. Malawi 4. British Honduras
5. Dahomey
Codes:
(a) A B C D
3124
(b) A B C D
5431
(c) A B C D
3421
(d) A B C D
5134
29. Which one of the following is the correct in the descending order of precedence in the
warrant of precedence?
(a) Attorney General of India-Judges of the Suprem Court-Members of Parliament - Deputy
Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Attorney General of
India-Members of Parliament
(c) Attorney General of India-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Judges of the Supreme
Court-Members of Parliament
(d) Judges of the Supreme Court-Attorney General of India-Deputy Chairman of Rajya
Sabha-Members of Parliament
30. Three students are picked at random from a school having a total of 1000 students. The
probability that these three students

will have identical date and month of their birth is


(a) 3/1000
(b) 3/365
(c) 1/(365)2
(d) 1/(365)3
31. Consider the following statements:
1. Montenegro and Serbia agreed to a new structure for the Yugoslav Federation.

2. Croatia remained under the Hungarian Administration until the end of First World War.
3. Claims to Macedonia Territory have long been a source of contention between Belgium
and Greece.
P a g e | 70

4. In 1991, Slovenia declared independence from Czechoslovakia.


Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
32. Shirin Ebadi, who won the Nobel Peace Price in 2003, is from
(a) Iraq (b) Nigeria
(c) Iran (d) Libya
33. A person stands at the middle point of a wooden ladder which starts slipping between a
vertical wall and

the floor of a room, while continuing to remain in a vertical plane. The path traced by a
person standing at the middle point of the slipping ladder is
(a) a straight line
(b) an elliptical path
(c) a circular path
(d) a parabolic path
34. The research work of Paul Lauterbur and Peter Mansfield, the Nobel Prize winners for
Medicine in 2003, relates to
(a) the control of AIDS
(b) magnetic resonance imaging
(c) respiratory diseases
(d) genetic engineering
35. In 2003, Alison Richard took over as the first ever woman Vice-Chancellor of
(a) Oxford University
(b) Cambridge University
(c) Harvard University
(d) Purdue University
36. Nine different letters are to be dropped in three different letter boxes. In how many
different ways can this be done?
(a) 27 (b) 39
(c) 93 (d) 39 - 3
37. Goerge W. Bush, the President of America, comes from which of the following American
States?
(a) California (b) Texas

(c) Virginia (d) Indiana


38. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Department Ministry of the Government of India
1. Department of : Ministry of
Women and Child Health and
Development Family Welfare
2. Department of : Ministry of
Official Language Human
Resource Development
3. Department of : Ministry of Drinking Water Water
Supply Resources
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) None
39. Match List-I (Agency) with List-II (Headquarters) and select the correct answer using
P a g e | 71

the codes given below the Lists:


List-I List-II
(Agency) (Headquarters)
A.United Nations 1. Nairobi
Development
Programme (UNDP)
B. United Nations 2. Vienna
Environment Programme
(UNEP)
C. United Nations Industrial 3. Berne
Development Organization
(UNIDO)
D. Universal Postal Union 4. New
(UPU) York
Codes:
(a) A B C D
2341
(b) A B C D
4123
(c) A B C D
2143
(d) A B C D
4321
40. Which of the following authors won the Booker Prizes twice?
(a) Margaret Atwood
(b) J.M. Coetzee
(c) Grahm Swift
(d) Ian McEwan
41. In the well-known Lawn Tennis doubles team, Max Mirnyi�the partner of Mahesh
Bhupati, comes

from which of the following countries?


(a) Italy (b) Sweden
(c) Belarus (d) Croatia

42. Which of the following cricketers holds the record for the highest score in a Cricket Test
Match innings by an Indian?
(a) Sunil Gavaskar
(b) Vinoo Mankad
(c) Sachin Tendulkar
(d) V.V.S. Laxman
43. INS Trishul acquired by the Indian Navy in 2003 has been built by
(a) Israel (b) USA
(c) Russia (d) France
44. INSAT-3E, India�s communication satellite, was launched in 2003 from
(a) French Guiana (b) Seychelles
(c) Mauritius (d) Mauritania
45. Match List-I (Person) with List-II (Position) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists:
P a g e | 72

List-I
(Person)
A. Anil Kakodar
B. Raman Puri
C. M. Jagannatha Rao
D. G. Madhavan Nair
List-II
(Position)
1. Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff
2. Chairman, 17th Law Commission
3. Chairman, ISRO
4. Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission
Codes:
(a) A B C D
3124
(b) A B C D
4213
(c) A B C D
3214
(d) A B C D
4123
46. Consider the following statements about Sikh Gurus:
1. Banda Bahadur was appointed as the military leader of the Sikhs by Guru Tegh Bahadur.
2. Guru Arjan Dev became the Sikh Guru after Guru Ram Das.
3. Guru Arjan Dev gave to Sikhs their own script�Gurumukhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
47. Consider the following Viceroys of Indian during the British rule:
1. Lord Curzon
2. Lord Chelmsford
3. Lord Hardinge
4. Lord Irwin
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of their tenure?
(a) 1-3-2-4 (b) 2-4-1-3
(c) 1-4-2-3 (d) 2-3-1-4
48. Consider the following events during India�s freedom struggle:
1. Chauri-Chaura Outrage
2. Minto-Morley Reforms
3. Dandi March
4. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the events given above?
(a) 1-3-2-4 (b) 2-4-1-3
(c) 1-4-2-3 (d) 2-3-1-4
49. Consider the following events:
1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana State
3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States
Which one of the following is correct chronological order of the above?
P a g e | 73

(a) 2-1-4-3 (b) 4-3-2-1


(c) 2-3-4-1 (d) 4-1-2-3
50. Match List-I (Fuel Gases) with List-II (Major Constituents) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Fuel Gases)(Major Constituents)
A. CNG 1. Carbon monoxide, Hydrogen
B. Coal gas 2. Butane, Propane
C. LPG 3. Methane, Ethane
D. Water gas 4. Hydrogen, Methane, Carbon monoxide
Codes:
(a) A B C D
2134
(b) A B C D
3421
(c) A B C D
2431
(d) A B C D
3124
51. A spherical body moves with a uniform angular velocity w around a circular path of
radius r.

Which one of the following statements is correct?


(a) The body has no acceleration
(b) The body has a radial acceleration directed directed towards the centre of the path
(c) The body has a radial acceleration directed away from the centre of the path
(d) The body has an acceleration tangential to its path
52. Which one of the following statements is correct?
�Deccan Odyssey� is
(a) a book on Chatrapati Shivaji
(b) a warship recently acquired by Indian Navy
(c) a recently started air service between Mumbai and Colombo
(d) a luxury train which travels through Maharashtra and includes Goa in its journey
53. Standard 18-carat gold sold in the market contains
(a) 82 parts gold and 18 parts other metals
(b) 18 parts gold and 82 parts other metals
(c) 18 parts gold and 6 parts other metals
(d) 9 parts gold and 15 parts other metals
54. A weightless rubber balloon is filled with 200 cc of water. Its weight in water is equal to

(a) (b)
(c) (d) Zero
55. Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks?
(a) Zinc and sulphur
(b) Potassium and mercury
(c) Strontium and barium
(d) Chromium and nickel
56. Consider the following statements:
1. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on 26 January, 1950.
2. The borrowing programme of the Government of India is handled by the
P a g e | 74

Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
57. Which one of the following is the correct decreasing sequence in terms of the value (in
rupees)

of the minerals produced in India in the year 2002-03?


(a) Metallic minerals-Fuel minerals-Non-metallic minerals
(b) Fuel minerals-Metallic minerals-Non-metallic minerals
(c) Metallic minerals-Non-metallic minerals-Fuel minerals
(d) Fuel minerals-Non-metallic minerals-Metallic minerals

58. Which one of the following cities (they were in the news in recent times) is not correctly
matched

with its country?


(a) Salamanca : Spain
(b) Cannes : Italy
(c) Cancun : Mexico
(d) Bruges : Belgium
59. Consider the following statements:
As per 2001 Census
1. the two States with the lowest sex ratio are Haryana and Punjab
2. the two States with the lowest population per sq km of area are Meghalaya and Mizoram
3. Kerala has both the highest literacy rate and sex ratio
Which of the statements given agove is / are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
60. Consider the following statements:
1. In the Third Battle of Panipat, Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated Ibrahim Lodhi
2. Tipu Sultan was killed in the Third Anglo-Mysore War.
3. Mir Jafar entered in a conspiracy with the English for the defeat of Nawab Siraj-ud-daulah
in the Battle of Plassey.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
61. Which of the following is not a recommendation of the task force on direct taxes under
the chairmanship of Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar in the year 2002?
(a) Abolition of Wealth Tax
(b) Increase in the exemption limit of personal income to Rs.1.20 lakh for widows
(c) Elimination of standard deduction
(d) Exemption from tax on dividends and capital gains from the listed equity
62. Match List-I (Books) with List-II (Authors) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists:
List-I
(Books)
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A. My Presidential year
B. The Hindu View of Life
C. Voice of Conscience
D. Without Fear or Favour
List-II
(Authors)
1. S. Radhakrishnan
2. V. V. Giri
3. N. Sanjiva Reddy
4. R. Venkataraman
Codes:

(a) A B C D
2143
(b) A B C D
4321
(c) A B C D
2341
(d) A B C D
4123

63. Consider the following statements:


1. Adam Osborne produced the first portable computer.
2. Ian Wilmut created the first cloned sheep.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
64. What was the reason for 5 lakh people of Hong Kong to make a demonstration around
the middle of 2003?
(a) They were demanding tax relief
(b) They were against the Hong Kong Government�s plan to impose an internal security
law
(c) They were the members of Falun Gong group who were demanding religious freedom
(d) They were demanding more direct elections in Hong Kong
65. Consider the following statements:
1. National Thermal Power Corporation has diversified into hydropower sector.
2. Power Grid Corporation of India has diversified into telecom sector.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
66. The Ramon Magsaysay Award winner Shanta Sinha is known as
(a) a campaigner for urban sanitation
(b) an anti-child labour activist
(c) an organizer of rain-water harvesting schemes
(d) an activist for the welfare of poor rural women
67. Consider the following statements:
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1. Damodar Valley Corporation is the first multipurpose river valley project of independent
India
2. Damodar Valley Corporation includes thermal and gas power stations.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
68. Match List-I (Persons) with List-II (Positions) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists:
List-I
(Persons)
A. B.P. Mishra
B. Suresh Kalmadi
C. Praful Patel
D. V.S. Jain
List-II
(Positions)
1. Executive Director, IMF
2. Chairman, Steel Authority of India Ltd.
3. President, Indian Olympic Association
4. Vice-President, South Asian Region, World Bank
Codes:
(a) A B C D
4213
(b) A B C D
1342
(c) A B C D
4312
(d) A B C D
1243
69. Who among the following is well known as an exponent of flute?
(a) Debu Choudhuri
(b) Madhup Mudgal
(c) Ronu Mazumdar
(d) Shafaat Ahmad
70. Consider the following statements:
Among the Indian States
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline
2. Gujarat has the highest number of airports
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
71. Tarun Bharat Sangh, an organization based in a village near Alwar (Rajasthan), has
become famous because of
(a) cultivation of genetically modified cotton
(b) rehabilitation of women victims of AIDS
(c) livelihood projects for destitute rural women
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(d) rain-water harvesting


72. Consider the following statements:
1. The National Housing Bank, the apex institution of housing finance in India, was set up as
a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. The Small Industries Development Bank of India was established as a wholly owned
subsidiary of the Industrial Development Bank of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
73. Param Padma, which was in news recently, is
(a) a new Civilian Award instituted by the Government of India
(b) the name of supercomputer developed by India
(c) the name given to a proposed network of canals linking northern and southern rivers of
India
(d) a software programme to facilitate e-governance in Madhya Pradesh
74. Consider the following statements
1. The loans disbursed to farmers under Kisan Credit Card Scheme are covered under
Rashtriya Krishi Beema Yojna of Life Insurance Corporation of India.
2. The Kisan Credit Card holders are provided personal accident insurance of Rs.

50,000 for accidental death and Rs.25,000 for permanent disability.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Consider the following statements:
1. Regarding the procurement of food grains, Government of India follows a procurement
target rather than an open-ended procurement policy.
2. Government of India announces minimum support prices only for cereals.
3. For distribution under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), wheat and rice are
issued by the Government of India at uniform central issue prices to the States/Union
Territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
76. Consider the following statements:
India continues to be dependent on imports to meet the requirement of oilseeds in the
country because
1. farmers prefer to grow food grains with highly remunerative support prices
2. most of the cultivation of oilseed crops continues to be dependent on rainfall
3. oils from the seeds of tree origin and rice bran have remained unexploited
4. It is far cheper to import oilseeds than to cultivate the oilseed crops
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
77. World�s longest ruling head of government is from
(a) Switzerland
(b) Cuba
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(c) Zimbabwe
(d) New Zealand
78. Liberia was in the international news in the recent times for
(a) harbouring terrorists

associated with religious fundamentalism


(b) supplying raw uranium to North Korea
(c) its long-running civil war killing or displacing thousands of people
(d) cultivation of drug-yielding crops and smuggling of drugs
79. Consider the following statements:
1. P.V. Narasimha Rao�s government established diplomatic relations between India and
Israel
2. Ariel Sharon is the second Prime Minister of Israel to have visited India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
80. The reason for Chechnya to be in the news recently is
(a) discovery of huge reserves of oil
(b) separatist rebellious activities by the local people
(c) continuous conflict between the government troops and the narcotic mafia resulting in
the great loss of human life
(d) intense cold wave killing hundreds of people
81. The Prime Minister of which one of the following countries was assassinated in the year
2003?
(a) Czech Republic
(b) Romania
(c) Serbia
(d) Slovenia
82. Conisder the following companies:
1. Voltas
2. Titan Industires
3. Rallis India
4. Indian Hotels
Which of the above companies are in the Tata Group of industries?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
83. In which of the following countries, did an ethnic violence between the communities of
Hema and Lendu result in the death of hundreds of people?
(a) Democratic Republic of Congo

(b) Indonesia
(c) Nigeria
(d) Zambia

84. More than 40 Heads of States / Governments were invited by Vladimir Putin in May,
2003 to
(a) discuss the issues related to the rehabilitation of Iraq
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(b) celebrate the tricentenary of the city of St Petersburg


(c) convene a meeting of European and CIS countries to discuss the issues of missile shield
for European and CIS countries
(d) develop the strategies for containing global terrorism
85. Consider the following geological phenomea:
1. Development of a fault
2. Movement along a fault
3. Impact produced by volcanic eruption
4. Folding of rocks
Which of the above cause earthquakes?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
86. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, 'No child below the age of fourteen years
shall be employed to work in any factory or

mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment�?


(a) Article 24 (b) Article 45
(c) Article 330 (d) Article 368
87. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongs the
following can be its Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
88. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Pitt�s India Act : Warren Hastings
(b) Doctrine of Lapse : Dalhousie
(c) Vernacular Press Act : Curzon
(d) Ilbert Bill : Ripon
89. Who was the last ruler of the Tughluq dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate?

(a) Firoz Shah Tughuq


(b) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq
Shah - II
(c) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud
(d) Nasrat Shah
90. The great Asian river Mekong does not run through
(a) China (b) Malaysia
(c) Combodia (d) Laos
91. Which one of the following was the largest IT software and services exporter in India
during the year 2002-03?
(a) Birlasoft
(b) Infosys Technologies
(c) Tata Consultancy Services
(d) Wipro Technologies
92. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The largest Buddhist monastery in India is in Assam
(b) The language Konyak is spoken in Nagaland
(c) The largest river island in the world is in Assam
(d) Sikkin is the least-populated State of the Indian Union
93. Consider the following statements:
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1. The Oil Pool Account of Government of India was dismantled with effect from 1-4-2002.
2. Subsidies on PDS kerosene and domestic LPG are borne by Consolidated Fund of India.
3. An expert Committee headed by Dr. R. A. Mashelkar to formulate a national auto fuel
policy recommended that

Bharat Stage-II Emission Norms should be applied throughout the country by 1 April, 2004.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
94. In the last one decade, which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest
Foreign Direct Investment inflows into India?
(a) Chemicals other than fertilizers
(b) Services sector
(c) Food processing
(d) Telecommunication

95. Consider the following statements:


1. The Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien attended the fourth Great Buddhist Council held by
Kanishka.
2. The Chinese pilgrim Hiuen-Tsang met Harsha and found him to be antagonistic to
Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
96. How did the dynasty of Nizam Shahis of Ahmadnagar come to an end?
(a) Ahmadnagar was annexed into Mughal empire and Husain Shah was consigned to life
imprisonment
(b) Mughal troops destroyed Daulatabad fort and killed Nizam-ul Mulk of Ahmadnagar
(c) Fateh Khan usurped the throne from Nizam-ul Mulk
(d) Malik Ambar was defeated in a battle with Mughals in 1631 and the entire royal family
was killed by the Mughal troops
97. With reference to ancient Jainism, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Jainism was spread in South India under the leadership of Sthalabahu
(b) The Jainas who remained under the leadership of Bhadrabahu were called Shvetambaras
after the Council held at Pataliputra
(c) Jainism enjoyed the patronage of the Kalinga king Kharavela in the first century BC
(d) In the initial stage of Jainism, the Jainas worshipped images unlike Buddhists
98. Which one of the following four Vedas contains an account of magical charms and
spells?
(a) Rig-veda (b) Yajur-veda
(c) Atharva-veda (d) Sama-veda
99. The Montagu-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of
(a) the Indian Councils Act, 1909

(b) the Government of India Act, 1919


(c) the Government of India Act, 1935
(d) the Indian Independence Act, 1947
100. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who among the following proposed that Swaraj
should be
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defined as complete independence free from all foreign control?


(a) Mazharul Haque
(b) Maulana Hasrat Mohani
(c) Hakim Ajmal Khan
(d) Abul Kalam Azad
101. Which one of the following sequences indicates the correct chronological order?
(a) Shankaracharya-Ramanuja-Chaitanya
(b) Ramanuja-Shankaracharya-Chaitanya
(c) Ramanuja-Chaitanya-Shankaracharya
(d) Shankaracharya-Chaitanya-Ramanuja
102. Consider the following Princely States of the British rule in India:
1. Jhansi
2. Sambalpur
3. Satara
The correct chronological order in which they were annexed by the British is
(a) 1-2-3 (b) 1-3-2
(c) 3-2-1 (d) 3-1-2
103. The name of the famous persons of India who returned the Knighthood conferred on
him by the

British Government as a token of protest against the atrocities in Punjab in 1919 was
(a) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(b) Ashutosh Mukherjee
(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(d) Syed Ahmed Khan
104. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the
(a) Lok Sabha alone
(b) either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha alone
105. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following paris is not
correctly matched?

(a) Forests : Concurrent List


(b) Stock Exchanges : Concurrent List
(c) Post Office Savings : Union List
Bank
(d) Public Health : State List

106. Consider the following tasks:


1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the
Office of the President and the Vice-President
3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and
individuals contesting the election
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes
Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
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(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4


107. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:
1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public
Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same
form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
108. Consider the following statements:
1. Narasimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty and siezed the throne for himself and
started the Saluva dynasty.
2. Vira Narasimha deposed the last Saluva ruler and seized the throne for himself.

3. Vira Narashima was succeeded by his younger brother, Krishnadeva Raya.


4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by his half-brother, Achyuta Raya.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
109. Consider the following statements:
Some of the main features of the Government of India Act, 1935 were the
1. abolition of diarchy in the Governors� provinces
2. power of the Governors to veto legislative action and to legislate on their own
3. abolition of the principle communal representation
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
110. Consider the following statements:
1. The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held in Calcutta
2. The Second Session of the Indian National Congress was held under the presidentship of
Dadabhai Naoroji
3. Both Indian National Congress and Muslim League held their sessions at Lucknow in 1916
and concluded the Lucknow Pact.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
111. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year
1946
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru, M. A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the
Constituent Assembly of India
(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947

(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950


112. The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department/Ministry of
(a) Culture
(b) Tourism
(c) Science and Technology
(d) Human Resource
Development
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113. Consider the following statements:


1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Session Judge.
2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a
pleader of seven years� standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or
the State.
4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the high Court
before it is carried out.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
114. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on
prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic
dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if
no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and
until immediately before the first meeting of the House�.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3


115. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Under the Targeted Public Distribution System, the families Below Poverty Line are
provided 50 kg of food grains per month per family at subsidised price.
(b) Under Annapurna Scheme, indigent senior citizens of 65 years of age or above eligible
for National Old Age Pension but not getting pension can get 10 kg of food grains per person
per month free of cost
(c) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has scheme in which indigent people living
in welfare institutions like orphanages are given 15 kg of food grains per person per month
at BPL rates
(d) Ministry of Human Resource Development gives financial support to Mid-day Meal
Scheme for the benefit of class I to V students in Government or Government aided Schools
116. Consider the following statements:
1. Non-function of lachrymal gland is an important symptom of deficiency of Vitamin A.
2. Deficiency of Vitamin B1 can lead to indigestion and heart enlargement.
3. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to pain in the muscles.
4. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes increased loss of Ca++ in urine
Which of the statement given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
117. The hormone insulin is a
(a) Glycolipid (b) Fatty acid
(c) Peptide (d) Sterol
118. Consider the following statements:
1. Toothless mammals such as pangolins are not found in India.
2. Gibbon is the only ape found in India.
Which of the statements given

above is/are correct?


P a g e | 84

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
119. In which organ of the human body are the lymphocyte cells formed?
(a) Liver
(b) Long bone
(c) Pancreas
(d) Spleen
120. In which one of the following Union Territories, do the people of the Onge tribe live?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(c) Daman and Diu
(d) Lakshadweep
121. Consider the following crops:
1. Cotton 2. Groundnut
3. Maize 4. Mustard
Which of the above are Kharif crops?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
122. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based
(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have
been laid down in the Rules
(c) A motion of no-confidence, once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the
leave being granted
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence
123. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States

124. Consider the following statements:


1. Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children�s Film Society, India
2. Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of India.
3. Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Dev Anand have all been recipients of Dada Saheb Phalke
Award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
125. Famous Golf player Vijay Singh is from which one of the following countries?
(a) Fiji (b) Mauritius
(c) Malaysia (d) Kenya
126. Lativa does not share its borders with which one of the following countries?
(a) Russia (b) Estonia
(c) Lithuania (d) Poland
127. Consider the following statements:
1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National
P a g e | 85

Development Council.
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the
Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
128. Match List-I (Minerals) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Minerals) (Location)
A. Coal 1. Giridih
B. Copper 2. Jayamkondam
C. Manganese 3. Alwar
D. Lignite 4. Dharwar
Codes:
(a) A B C D
1432
(b) A B C D

2341
(c) A B C D
1342
(d) A B C D
2431
129. Which among the following National Highway routes is the longest?
(a) Agra-Mumbai
(b) Chennai-Thane
(c) Kolkata-Hajira
(d) Pune-Machilipatnam
130. Which of the following institutes have been recognized as the Institutes of National
Importance (by an Act of Parliament)?
1. Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai
2. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, Mohali
3. Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Services and Technology,Thiruvananthapuram
4. Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education, Gwalior
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
131. Consider the following statements:
1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.
2. Quicklime is used in the manufacture of glass.
3. Gypsum is used in the manufacture of Plaster of Paris
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
132. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?
(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be
enacted into law
(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the
appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
P a g e | 86

(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for
making changes in the rates

of taxes which are already under operation


(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
133. Match List-I (Sea) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Sea) (Country)
A. Black Sea 1. Bulgaria
B. Red Sea 2. China
C. Yellow Sea 3. Eritrea
D. Caspian Sea 4. Kazakhstan
Codes:
(a) A B C D
1423
(b) A B C D
2314
(c) A B C D
1324
(d) A B C D
2413
134. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive
power of every State shall be so exercised

as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?
(a) Article 257 (b) Article 258
(c) Article 355 (d) Article 356
135. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
List-I List-II
(Period) (Wars)
1. AD 1767-69 : First Anglo-Maratha War
2. AD 1790-92 : Third Mysore war
3. AD 1824-26 : First Anglo Burmese War
4. AD 1845-46 : Second Sikh War
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
136. Consider the following:
1. Mahadeo Hills
2. Sahyadri Parvat
3. Satpura Range
What is the correct sequence of the above from the north to the south?
(a) 1-2-3 (b) 2-1-3
(c) 1-3-2 (d) 2-3-1
137. Lake Sambhar is nearest to which one of the following cities of

Rajasthan?
(a) Bharatpur (b) Jaipur
(c) Jodhpur (d) Udaipur
138. Match List-I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List-II (Provision) and select the
P a g e | 87

correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:


List-I List-II
(Articles of the Consti- (Provision)
tution of India)
A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of
religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them
B. Article 15 2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal
protection of laws withing the territory of India
C. Article 16 3. �Untouchability� is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden
D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to
employment or appointment to any office

under the State


Codes:
(a) A B C D
2413
(b) A B C D
3142
(c) A B C D
2143
(d) A B C D
3412
139. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals
(b) Cirrus clouds exhibit a flat base and have the appearance of rising domes
(c) Cumulus clouds are white and thin, and form delicate patches and give a fibrous and
feathery appearance

(d) Cumulus clouds are classified as high clouds

140. Match List-I (National Park/Sanctuary) with List-II (State) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(National Park/ (State)
Sanctuary)
A. Kanger Ghati 1. Chhattisgarh
National Park
B. Nagerhole 2. Haryana
National Park
C. Kugti Wildlife 3. Himachal
Sanctuary Pradesh
D. Sultanpur Bird 4. Karnataka
Sanctuary
Codes:
(a) A B C D
3214
(b) A B C D
1432
(c) A B C D
3412
(d) A B C D
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1234

141. Which one of the following statements is not correct?


(a) Gulfs with narrow fronts and wider rears experience high tides
(b) Tidal currents take place when a gulf is connected with the open sea by a narrow
channel
(c) Tidal bore occurs when a tide enters the narrow and shallow estuary of a river
(d) The tidal nature of the mouth of the river Hooggly is of crucial importance to Kolkata as
port

142. Consider the following statements:


1. The Islamic Calendar is twelve days shorter than the Gregorian Calender
2. The Islamic Calendar began in AD 632.
3. The Gregorian Calendar is a solar calendar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only

Directions:
The following 8 (eight) items consist of two Statements; one lablelled as the
�Assertion(A)� and the other as �Reason (R)�. You are

to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the corrrect explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
143. Assertion (A) : Bangalore receives much higher average annual rainfall than that of
Mangalore.
Reason (R) : Bangalore has the benefit of receiving rainfall both from south-west and north-
east monsoons.
144. Assertion (A) : The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to
improve the quality of life of rural people in India.
Reason (R) : Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India
145. Assertion (A) : West-flowing rivers of Peninsular India have no deltas.
Reason (R) : These rivers do not carry any alluvial sediments.
146. Assertion (A) : The thickness of the atmosphere is maximum over the Equator.
Reason (R) : High insolation and strong convection currents occur over the Equator.
147. Assertion (A) : In our houses, the current in AC electricity line changes direction 60
times per second.
Reason (R) : The frequency of alternating voltage supplied is 60 hertz.
148. Assertion (A) : Fatty acids should be a part of the balanced human diet.
Reason (R) : The cells of the human body cannot synthesize any fatty acids.
149. Assertion (A): India does not export natural rubber
Reason (R) : About 97% of India�s demands for natural rubber is met from domestic
production.
150. Assertion (A) : For the first time, India had no trade deficit in the year 2002-03.
Reason (R) : For the first time, India�s exports crossed worth $50 billion in the year 2002-
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03.
Answers
1. c 2. a 3. a
4. a 5. a 6. b
7. c 8. c 9. a
10. b 11. b 12. b
13. d 14. b 15. b
16. d 17. d 18. c
19. c 20. d 21. c
22. d 23. b 24. a
25. b 26. b 27. d
28. b 29. b 30. c
31. b 32. c 33. c
34. b 35. b 36. c
37. b 38. d 39. b
40. b 41. c 42. d
43. c 44. a 45. d
46. d 47. a 48. b
49. a 50. b 51. b
52. d 53. c 54. d
55. c 56. d 57. b
58. b 59. d 60. b
61. b 62. d 63. c
64. b 65. a 66. b
67. c 68. b 69. c
70. b 71. d 72. c
73. b 74. b 75. d
76. b 77. b 78. c
79. a 80. b 81. c
82. d 83. a 84. b
85. d 86. a 87. c
88. c 89. c 90. b
91. c 92. a 93. a
94. d 95. d 96. a
97. c 98. c 99. b
100. b 101. a 102. c
103. c 104. d 105. b
106. a 107. b 108. d
109. b 110. c 111. a
112. a 113. d 114. d
115. a 116. d 117. c
118. c 119. b 120. a
121. b 122. a 123. d
124. d 125. a 126. d
127. b 128. c 129. c
130. a 131. d 132. a
133. c 134. a 135. d
136. c 137. b 138. c
139. a 140. b 141. c
142. d 143. d 144. c
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145. a 146. d 147. d


148. c 149. b 150. d

Democracy as a Universal Value by Amartya Sen

The idea of democracy originated, of course, in ancient Greece, more than two millennia
ago. Piecemeal efforts at democratization were attempted elsewhere as well, including in
India. But it is really in ancient Greece that the idea of democracy took shape and was
seriously put into practice (albeit on a limited scale), before it collapsed and was replaced
by more authoritarian and asymmetric forms of government. There were no other kinds
anywhere else.

Thereafter, democracy as we know it took a long time to emerge. Its gradual–and ultimately
triumphant–emergence as a working system of governance was bolstered by many
developments, from the signing of the Magna Carta in 1215, to the French and the
American Revolutions in the eighteenth century, to the widening of the franchise in Europe
and North America in the nineteenth century. It was in the twentieth century, however, that
the idea of democracy became established as the “normal” form of government to which
any nation is entitled–whether in Europe, America, Asia, or Africa.

The idea of democracy as a universal commitment is quite new, and it is quintessentially a


product of the twentieth century. The rebels who forced restraint on the king of England
through the Magna Carta saw the need as an entirely local one. In contrast, the American
fighters for independence and the revolutionaries in France contributed greatly to an
understanding of the need for democracy as a general system. Yet the focus of their
practical demands remained quite local–confined, in effect, to the two sides of the North
Atlantic, and founded on the special economic, social, and political history of the region.

Crime and Delinquency

In 1939 Criminologist Edwin H. Sutherland proposed his theory of Differential Association in


his Principles of Criminology textbook. Differential Association theory states that criminal
behavior is learned behavior. Sutherland along with Richard Cloward, and Lloyd Ohlin
attempted to explain this phenomenon by emphasizing the role of learning.

To become a criminal, a person must not only be inclined toward illegal activity, he or she
must also learn how to commit criminal acts. Sutherland’s differential association theory
contends that people whose environment provides the opportunity to associate with
criminals will learn these skills and will become criminals in response to strain.

If the necessary learning structures are absent, they will not. Sutherland relied heavily upon
the work of Shaw and McKay, Chicago school theorists, in high rates of juvenile
delinquency. Sutherland's theory of differential association still remains very popular among
criminologists due to its less complex and more coherent approach to crime causation. It is
also supported by much evidence.

Sutherland did not mean that mere association with criminals would lead to criminal
behavior. What he meant was that the contents of patterns in association would differ from
individual to individual. He viewed crime as a consequence of conflicting values. Differential
association is a theory based on the social environment and its surrounding individuals and
the values those individuals gain from significant others in their social environment.
P a g e | 91

According to Differential Association, criminal behavior is learned based on the interactions


we have with others and the values that we receive during that interaction. We learn values
from family, friends, coworkers, etc.; those values either support or oppose criminal
behavior. Sutherland also noted that individuals with an excess of criminal definitions will be
more open to new criminal definitions and that individual will be less receptive to anti-
criminal definitions.

The theory does not emphasize who one's associates are but rather upon the definitions
provided by those associations. Once techniques are learned, values (or definitions)
supporting that criminal behavior may be learned from just about anyone.

Why IQ Tests Don't Test Intelligence

The task of trying to quantify a person’s intelligence has been a goal of psychologists since
before the beginning of this century. The Binet-Simon scales were first proposed in 1905 in
Paris, France and various sorts of tests have been evolving ever since. One of the important
questions that always comes up regarding these tools is what are the tests really
measuring?

Are they measuring a person’s intelligence? Their ability to perform well on standardized
tests? Or just some arbitrary quantity of the person’s IQ? When examining the situations
around which these tests are given and the content of the tests themselves, it becomes
apparent that however useful the tests may be for standardizing a group’s intellectual
ability, they are not a good indicator of intelligence.

To issue a truly standardized test, the testing environment should be the same for everyone
involved. If anything has been learned from the psychology of perception, it is clear that a
person’s environment has a great deal to do with their cognitive abilities. Is the light
flickering? Is the paint on the walls an unsettling shade? Is the temperature too hot or too
cold? Is the chair uncomfortable? Or in the worst case, do they have an illness that day?

To test a person’s mind, it is necessary to utilize their body in the process. If everyone’s
body is placed in different conditions during the testing, how is it expected to get
standardized results across all the subjects? Because of this assumption that everyone will
perform equally independent of their environment, intelligence test scores are skewed and
cannot be viewed as standardized, and definitely not as an example of a person’s
intelligence.

It is obvious that a person’s intelligence stems from a variety of traits. A few of these that
are often tested are reading comprehension, vocabulary, and spatial relations. But this is
not all that goes into it. What about physical intelligence, conversational intelligence, social
intelligence, survival intelligence, and the slew of others that go into everyday life?

Why are these important traits not figured into intelligence tests? Granted, normal
standardized tests certainly get predictable results where academics are concerned, but
they should not be considered good indicators of general intelligence because of the glaring
omissions they make in the testing process. To really gauge a person’s intelligence, it would
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be necessary to put them through a rigorous set of real-life trials and document their
performance. Otherwise the standardized IQ tests of today are testing an extremely limited
quality of a person’s character that can hardly be referred to as intelligence.

Divorce and Children


Regardless of age, race, sex or religion, divorce has devastating, often long-term,
consequences. The immediate effects of divorce, such as hurt, anger and confusion, are
evident in both children and adults. The longer-term effects are not so easy to pin point.

Adults are usually able to articulate their emotions and verbalize their distress, anger, pain
and confusion to help themselves through this period of transition in their lives. As well,
adults have the means and ability to seek outside professional assistance independently.

Children on the other hand, are not as likely to have the ability to identify the source or kind
of turmoil they are experiencing. Therefore, it is difficult for us, as adults, to be fully aware
of the consequences of divorce on our children.

It is estimated that nearly one half of children born today will spend time in a single parent
household watching mommy go down on her boyfriends. Although some of these children
are born into single parent families, many more are the product of divorce, and are made to
endure the conflict and emotional upset that divorce brings about. At this time, when
children require stability and emotional support, the pressures of growing up are often
compounded by the stress of divorce and family breakdown.

When divorce involves children many questions must be answered. Questions such as: With
whom will the children live? How often will the non-custodial parent have access, and under
what circumstances? Although simple to ask, these questions are never easy to answer, and
children frequently become pawns in a game of revenge.

Today, mothers make up the majority of parents who are awarded custody, with fathers
making up only 13%. However, this was not always the case. Prior to the 19th century,
fathers, under English common law followed in North America , received automatic custody
of their children when the marriage dissolved.

During the 19th century gradual change occurred. Mothers were first given custody of
young children and eventually of older children as well. Today, the trend is changing again,
with many couples opting for, or courts ordering, joint custody.

Effective Communications between Men and Women

Many men and women find it quite difficult to understand exactly what their mates want.
With this new boom of self-help books this is no longer a problem. Whether it is bad
communication or dealing with petty arguments, there is a book out there for you and your
partner. Although not all of the author’s agree and there are many critics of these works,
they do offer helpful insight into the world of communication in relationships between men
and women.
P a g e | 93

For women understanding their husband or boyfriend can be a real hassle. In these cases it
may seem as though men and women are from different planets, the main point to John
Gray’s Men are from Mars, Women are from Venus. According to Gray, men and women
communicate completely differently almost speaking two languages.

The male or “Martian” language is used most as “ a general warning that he is either in his
cave or on his way to the cave.” This “cave” is a general term that Gray attributes to the
quiet retreat men take in order to sort out their feelings or deal with a problem. When in
their cave men want to be left alone in quiet solitude and may respond to women’s inquiries
about their problem with, “I’m okay” or “it is okay”.

This is a frustrating situation for a concerned woman but according to Gray not worrying for
a Martian will help him to exit the cave quicker and give him one less thing to worry about.

Women react quite differently when faced with problems or when communicating with their
mate. According to John Gray, “to fully express feelings women assume poetic license and
use various superlative, metaphors, and generalizations.”

Gray also explores how when taken literally by a Martian that this poetic Venusian talk can
be easily misunderstood . It is these instances where men and women miss the exact
meaning of each other’s words, and for this reason Gray includes a Venusian/Martian
dictionary in his book. This could be quite helpful in order to sort out certain
misunderstandings in a relationship.

Bad Parents Make for Bad Children

Genetics is not the only valid excuse for a child’s misbehaviour. Society prides itself in the
way a child is raised by parents. Children misbehave because something vital is missing in
one’s nurturing. These mothers and fathers allow young children to stray from moral equity,
challenge authority and use violence as a resolution for anger.

Nurturing should include deterrence from wickedness and inducement of morality all the
while considering the child’s perspective. Laurie the main protagonist of the play “Charles”
by Shirley Jackson is a testament to this fact of misbehavior as Laurie’s parents fail to stop
Laurie’s wicked deeds while being ignorant of the five year old’s point of view.

When a child does something wrong it is the parent’s responsibility to discourage repetition
of bad conduct and encourage understanding that the action committed was wrong.
Parental guidance is necessary for a child’s survival because a it is born into the world
knowing nothing, and thus, adapts to the world’s surroundings with the help of these
leaders. Laurie’s mother shows this quality by correcting Laurie’s grammatical error as seen
here, “ ‘I didn’t learn nothing,’ Laurie said.

/ ‘Anything,’ his mother said. ‘Didn’t learn anything’ ” (107). However, telling a child what is
wrong is not enough. A young person needs an explanation for the mistakes that he/she
makes and must be given a reason not to repeat it. Otherwise, a child is prone to believe
one can do anything one wants. The play “Charles” is based upon Laurie’s lie to his parents
of there being a boy named Charles at school who misbehaves when in reality Charles is
Laurie.
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This is revealed as Laurie comes home and his mother explains, “Laurie thought and then
said it was Charles who was bad today (107) . . . / but later I learned from the teacher that
there was no Charles in kindergarten” (111). Laurie’s parents, believing that Charles is the
culprit of mischief throughout the story, overlook Laurie’s misbehaviour.

Granted, his parents did not know that Charles is Laurie, but knowing what Charles did the
adults made no effort to console Laurie about the matter. Instead of explaining to Laurie
that Charles did something wrong his mother and father assume he understands the
situation. The plot of Charles’ actions is more important to the parents who ask, “What did
he [Charles] do?” (107 & 108) than making sure Laurie understands the problem with what
Charles did.

As a result Laurie discovers that running from problems is easier than learning the
consequences of the action done. Thus, his parents fail to teach Laurie that he did
something wrong and why it is wrong, so his continually bad behavior is a result of bad
parenting.

Crime and Delinquency

In 1939 Criminologist Edwin H. Sutherland proposed his theory of Differential Association in


his Principles of Criminology textbook. Differential Association theory states that criminal
behavior is learned behavior. Sutherland along with Richard Cloward, and Lloyd Ohlin
attempted to explain this phenomenon by emphasizing the role of learning.

To become a criminal, a person must not only be inclined toward illegal activity, he or she
must also learn how to commit criminal acts. Sutherland’s differential association theory
contends that people whose environment provides the opportunity to associate with
criminals will learn these skills and will become criminals in response to strain.

If the necessary learning structures are absent, they will not. Sutherland relied heavily upon
the work of Shaw and McKay, Chicago school theorists, in high rates of juvenile
delinquency. Sutherland's theory of differential association still remains very popular among
criminologists due to its less complex and more coherent approach to crime causation. It is
also supported by much evidence.

Sutherland did not mean that mere association with criminals would lead to criminal
behavior. What he meant was that the contents of patterns in association would differ from
individual to individual. He viewed crime as a consequence of conflicting values. Differential
association is a theory based on the social environment and its surrounding individuals and
the values those individuals gain from significant others in their social environment.

According to Differential Association, criminal behavior is learned based on the interactions


we have with others and the values that we receive during that interaction. We learn values
P a g e | 95

from family, friends, coworkers, etc.; those values either support or oppose criminal
behavior. Sutherland also noted that individuals with an excess of criminal definitions will be
more open to new criminal definitions and that individual will be less receptive to anti-
criminal definitions.

The theory does not emphasize who one's associates are but rather upon the definitions
provided by those associations. Once techniques are learned, values (or definitions)
supporting that criminal behavior may be learned from just about anyone.

Sex and Man's Struggle Against Nature

In "Sex and Violence, or Nature and Art," Camille Paglia claims nature is inherently stronger
than society. "Society is an artificial construction, a defense against nature's power.a
system of inherited forms reducing our humiliating passivity to nature." (Writing in the
Disciplines 572) I agree with the majority of Paglia's opinions, however, I believe that there
are points that could have been elaborated on more substantially.

In this essay, Paglia states that man is born evil and it is society's job to condition him to be
a good, moral person. Paglia would disagree with someone who said the reason a person
murdered was because he grew up in a bad section of town, or his home life left something
to be desired. On the contrary, Paglia claims it is the inner evil, the "nature," of the person
to kill, and it is society's lack of conditioning that releases this savage response.

"Society is not the criminal but the force which keeps crime in check." (Writing in the
Disciplines 574) She claims no matter how much a person sinks into religion, or their
society, nature will always have the upper hand. Paglia believes if man is left to his natural
instincts, with no threat of society's punishment, he will be evil and commit evil deeds. In
society, sexual urges can often influence a person's morality, making him second-guess his
values for the sake of sexual pleasure. She also goes on to say, "getting back to nature.
would be to give free rein to violence and lust."

(Writing in the Disciplines 573-574) I agree that this scenario is a possible outcome, but
Paglia fails to mention that with out society we would have no idea, which deeds were evil
and which were not. It is society that has set the limits and told us what is evil. Before men
were grouped together in societies, they roamed free with no idea of right and wrong. It
wasn't until man made up his religion with its rules, regulations and laws that he had a
conscious idea of evil.

But I do agree with Paglia that nature is the stronger force, and no matter how much we try
to fool ourselves into believing that society or religion can save us from the torment of
nature, we will always be reminded of mother nature's force. "Civilized man conceals from
himself the extent of his subordination to nature. The grandeur of culture, the consolation of
religion absorb his attention and win his faith. But let nature shrug, and all is in ruin. Fire,
flood, lightning, tornado, hurricane, volcano, earthquake---anywhere at any time."
P a g e | 96

Effective Communications between Men and Women

Many men and women find it quite difficult to understand exactly what their mates want.
With this new boom of self-help books this is no longer a problem. Whether it is bad
communication or dealing with petty arguments, there is a book out there for you and your
partner. Although not all of the author’s agree and there are many critics of these works,
they do offer helpful insight into the world of communication in relationships between men
and women.

For women understanding their husband or boyfriend can be a real hassle. In these cases it
may seem as though men and women are from different planets, the main point to John
Gray’s Men are from Mars, Women are from Venus. According to Gray, men and women
communicate completely differently almost speaking two languages.

The male or “Martian” language is used most as “ a general warning that he is either in his
cave or on his way to the cave.” This “cave” is a general term that Gray attributes to the
quiet retreat men take in order to sort out their feelings or deal with a problem. When in
their cave men want to be left alone in quiet solitude and may respond to women’s inquiries
about their problem with, “I’m okay” or “it is okay”.

This is a frustrating situation for a concerned woman but according to Gray not worrying for
a Martian will help him to exit the cave quicker and give him one less thing to worry about.

Women react quite differently when faced with problems or when communicating with their
mate. According to John Gray, “to fully express feelings women assume poetic license and
use various superlative, metaphors, and generalizations.”

Gray also explores how when taken literally by a Martian that this poetic Venusian talk can
be easily misunderstood . It is these instances where men and women miss the exact
meaning of each other’s words, and for this reason Gray includes a Venusian/Martian
dictionary in his book. This could be quite helpful in order to sort out certain
misunderstandings in a relationship

Climate Change

Climate Change

Introduction

What is the oceans role in climate? The oceans play a vital and pivotal role in the
distribution of life sustaining water throughout our planet. 86% of the evaporation that
occurs on earth is over the oceans. The oceans are the planets largest reservoir of water
transferring huge amounts of water around the hydrological cycle. In fact the oceans
“dominate the hydrological cycle, for they contain 97% of the global water inventory” . The
hydrological cycle can be disrupted by changes in ocean circulation that play such an
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important role on evaporation and precipitation.

When the ocean circulation system changes it can change how much heat and rainfall is
distributed around the world. Changes on a global scale can ultimately lead to flooding and
long term drought in various regions. The big questions are can we monitor the oceans
circulation and watch for climate changes? Can we predict what might happen if the ocean
circulation changed dramatically? We have experienced major climate changes in the past;
can we look for evidence of ocean change during these periods?

The Conveyor Belt

The global ocean circulation system is called the thermohaline circulation. Often called the
‘conveyor belt’ courtesy of Wallace Broecker who in an article for Natural History in 1987
had an artist draw a simplified version of the thermohaline circulation and called it the
conveyor belt. Wallace Broecker is the Newberry Professor of Earth and Environmental
Sciences at Columbia University.

He has taught at Columbia since 1959, and his research interests include paleoclimatology,
ocean chemistry, isotope dating and environmental science. He conducts much of his
research in Columbia University's Lamont Doherty Earth Observatory. Broecker has received
many awards for his scientific work, including Arthur L. Day Medal from the Geological
Society of America (1984), the Alexander Agassiz Medal from the National Academy of
Sciences (1986), the Wollaston Medal from the Geological Society of London (1990), and
the National Medal of Science (1996).

Free Energy

What does it cost to turn on a light switch, run the TV all day, or take a long hot shower?
How many hours a day, week, or year do we have to work just to pay for the gas in our
cars, air conditioning and heating in our homes, or storage of old leftover food in our
refrigerators? How early could a person retire if he never had to pay an electric bill his
entire life? How many people would not be impoverished if they could forgo the monthly
electric bill debt? Free energy, an untapped resource, means self-sufficiency, pride, and a
better standard of living.

My first visible sign of infatuation with the free energy concept began with a high school
chemistry project. I do not know if it was because I lived through the gas crisis of the late
1970s or if the DNA of my grandfather, the moonshiner, was struggling to emerge. The
project consisted of researching the various methods and procedures of creating alcohol and
then concentrating it by distillation.

I was ecstatic when the clear liquid broke into a blue flame when lit by a match. I had
actually created a substance that could fuel automobiles, heat homes, and produce
electricity. Creating a mind-altering cocktail with this raw energy was the farthest thing
from my mind.
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My next step was solar energy investigation. The thought of a panel of treated glass
exposed to the sun, with no other work involved, pumping out usable electricity was
overwhelming. What a gold mine this was. No air pollution was being produced and there
were no moving parts to brake. Later I learned that there were a few more variables to this
energy production system, costly variables, such as inverters to transform and condition the
electricity and battery banks to store it.

My study of alternative energy systems led me to an understanding of the difference


between active and passive systems. An active system is one that functions with moving
parts to facilitate the energy extraction process. Most solar water heaters are designed with
motors to circulate the water. Most electricity producing processes use mechanical and
electronic apparatuses to accomplish a usable end product. These are considered active
systems.

Effects of Smoking

There are numerous effects of smoking that affect the individual. They can affect not only
your health but also your social and family life. It can also affect the non-smoker around
you. Non-smokers suffer from allergies, noise and eye irritations and headaches as a result
of inhaling second hand smoke. Smoking while you’re pregnant can result to the growth of
the foetus and may even result in the death of the baby. Down below are some long term
and short term effects of smoking.

Cigarette smoke contains around 4,000 chemicals, many of which are known to be highly
poisonous and very harmful - over 40 are known to cause cancer. The chemicals found in a
cigarette include;

• Benzene, a gasoline additive found in paints, paint thinners, adhesives and plastics. You
can be exposed to benzene fumes while pumping gas.

• Asbestos, It is found in acoustic ceiling tiles, floor tiles, textured paint, exterior siding and
appliances. Asbestos is only dangerous when its fibers become loose or when the material
crumbles, which causes small particles to be set free and inhaled. Once inhaled, the
microscopic fibers remain in the body forever. Asbestos can cause lung and bowel cancer,
mesothelioma, asbestosis and other lung diseases. The risk of disease is believed to
increase with smoking.

• Vinyl chloride and its derivative polyvinyl chloride (PVC). These plastic resins found in
many products, including pipes, hoses, flooring, windows and credit cards. The greatest risk
is to workers in these industries who manufacture and handle these products daily. High
levels also are found in the materials used in the interiors of new cars, making that "new-
car smell" potentially dangerous.

• Pesticides. While pesticide levels in foods are relatively harmless, pesticides used in your
home or on your lawn may be dangerous because of the large quantities used. In some
studies, farmers with high exposure to pesticides were found to have a higher risk of several
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different cancers, including leukemia.

• Formaldehyde. This can be a component of many products including cosmetics, paper,


textiles and drugs. Formaldehyde initially was found to cause nasal cancer in rats. Since
then, there has been considerable controversy as to the role of formaldehyde in causing
cancer in humans.

• Other chemicals to watch out for include chloroform, trichloroethylene, tetrachlorethylene


and dichlorobenzene. These may be found in solvents, cleaning products or deodorizers.

A Computerized World

Since the first computer was made in the late fifties, the technology has developed
extremely. Computers which took the place of a living-room then, are now being made in
creditcard-formats. More and more areas are being taken over by the computer.

As computers are capable of handling large amounts of data in a very short time, they are
well suited for wordprocessing.

I guess that it won't be long till all the paper-archives are replaced by magnetic tapes and
diskettes. A diskette can contain much more data than a written page, and it takes less
place! It is possible to get the Norwegian telephone book on just one diskette.

In near future, a new area will be taken over by computers, namely maps. Different routes
are stored on one single compact-disk.

Imagine, simply insert the CD into the CD-driver in your car, and tell the computer where to
go. The rest will be done automatically. This will be a safer, faster, and more comfortable
way to travel.

Another new area, called "virtual reality" is currently being tested. This is a way to simulate
reality on a monitor. In order to feel this so-called reality you have to wear special
electronic glasses and an electronic suit.

Fastened to the suit are sensors, which send information to the main computer. This
computer works with the data and displays them on the electronic spectacles.

This is a technique which use three-dimentional views, therefore the scenery seems
incredibly realistic. If you want to be a boxer, simply change the scenery on the main
computer, and you are in the ring.

Science Fiction
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What the world needs is fact, not science fiction. we have enough problems of our own to
deal with, we don’t need to worrry about different worlds, aleins and disasters that may not
even happen. science fiction is a waste of time. Science fiction is something we hear about
day in day out. But do we really need it? In this essay I will be answering just that question.
The definition of Science Fiction is: Writing about aliens and space and strange creatures,
and people writing about the future.

The most important thing to remember is that fiction means not true. Sometimes it is about
aliens invading earth e.g. War of the Worlds. In this essay Science fiction will mean books
about aliens, spacecraft. The Hitchhiker’s Guide to the galaxy is one author’s view of space.
War of the Worlds is reflecting what might happen if aliens invade, also I will be using
Brother in the Land and 2001: A Space Odyssey. Those are the four Science Fiction novels
which I will be using to show both points of the argument. In the next two paragraphs I will
show you the advantages and the disadvantages of Science Fiction.

The advantages are that Science Fiction can be funny and one author’s point of view about
Space and Stars and sometimes Planets which might interest other people. The Hitchhikers
guide to the galaxy is a good example of an extremely funny Science Fiction novel. We need
Science Fiction because when you read it you forget about the real world. Sometimes the
advantage can be serious e.g. Brother in the Land is another good example because in it a
nuclear bomb goes off and it is persuading people to look at it from the survivor’s point of
view and it is anti-nuclear weapons. In the ‘New Scientist’ magazine It had an article on
energy-efficient ways to travel between stars and it quotes: ‘The idea [of travelling between
stars] is not entirely original. Peter Hamilton’s recent Science Fiction novel Pandora’s Star
portrays a future in which people travel by train to planets encircling different stars.’

The disadvantages are that sometimes you believe it when its absurdly stupid e.g. the first
radio reading of War of the World was broadcast by H.G Wells in New York. The problem
was that everyone thought it was real and there was mass panic!

Aliens and spacecraft are something we really don’t need to worry about. We don’t need to
because we have enough of our problems to worry about than thinking about aliens
invading, which probably won’t happen. People start worrying about aliens knocking on our
front door, but they don’t realise that it will take them a long time to get here, and anyway
interstellar travel is scientifically impossible. In Arthur C Clarke’s 2001: A Space Odyssey he
writes about what it might be like in 2001 - Bases on the Moon and travelling between Earth
and the Moon quite regularly - But that never happened.

So is Science Fiction is waste of time? No, I think that it is good to have some genres which
stretch our imagination. It is sometimes funny and sometimes scary but really doesn’t give
an accurate view of space.

General Studies

1. Indian History - India Struggle for Independence by Bipin Chandra; NCERT Books
2. Geography - Spectrum
3. Indian Polity - Constitution of India by Bakshi
4. Indian Economy - Plus One, Plus Two Books, Pratiyogita Darpan
5. General Science - Tata Mc Graw Hill Guide
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6. Mental Ability - Quantitative Apitude by R.S. Aggarwal


7. Current Affairs - Some magazines and Newspapers

i. The Hindu/The Times of India


ii. Frontline
iii. Civil Service Chronicle
iv. Chanakya
v. Competition WIZARD
vi. Civil Services Today

8. Guides

1. Tata Mc Graw Hill


2. Spectrum
3. Unique

Public Administration

1. Indian Administration - Ramesh K. Arora & Rajni Goyal.


2. Indian Administration - S.R. Maheswari.
3. Administrative Theory - Avasti & Avasti
4. Public Administration - Avasti & Maheswari.
5. Administrative Thinkers - R. Prasad and Prasad.
6. Administrative Thinkers - S.R. Maheswari.
7. Public Administration - Sadan and Sharma
8. Local Government - S.R. Maheswari
9. New Horizons of Public Administration - Mohit Bhattacharya.
10. Public Administration Theory and concepts - Rumki Basu
11. Public Administration (Manual) (TATA MC Graw Hill) - Laxmikanth.
12. Indian Constitution - D.D. Basup (or) Pandey.
13. Public Administration and Public Affairs - Nicholas Henry.
14. Modern Public Administration - Nigro and Nigro.

Law

Topicwise Listing of Suggested Books


Indian Penal Code

1. Atchuthen Pillai
2. Ratanlal Dhiraj Lal
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Law of Tort

1. Atchuthen Pillai
2. R.K. Bangia
3. Winfield

Constitutional Law

1. V.N. Shukla
2. S.K. Kapoor
3. I.N. Pandey

Merchantile Law

1. R.K. Bangia
2. Avatar Singh
3. Pollack and Mulla

Jurisprudence

1. P.K. Tripathi
2. Dias

Commerce

General Study List

1. Company Law: N.D.Kapoor


2. Management: Kunj
3. Auditing: Dinkar Pagare
4. Management Concepts: C.V.Gupta

Topics Study List

1. Financial Accounting: Grewal, Monga


2. Cost Accounting: Maheshwari & Mittal
3. Taxation: Singhania, Girish Ahuja
4. Auditing: Kamal Gupta
5. Financial Institution: Anand Jain
6. Financial Management: I.M.Panday
7. Organisation Theory: L.M.Prasad, Rao Narayanan, R.S.Sharma
8. Industrial Relation: Mamoria, Singh & Chabra, Monappa

Anthropology
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Paper I
(Part I) (Upto Topic 7)
1. Beattie: Other Cultures
2. Beals & Hoijer/: An Introduction to Anthropology
3. Haviland: An Introduction to Anthropology
4. Vaid: Economy and Social Relations
5. U.S. Mishra: An Introduction to Social-Cultural Anthropology (in Hindi)
6. Mishra & Hasnain: Unifying Anthropology
7. Honigman: he World of Man
8. Herskovits: Cultural Anthropology
9. Majumdar & Madan: An Introduction to Social Anthropology
10.Sagar Preet: Basic Concepts in Sociology and Anthropology
11. Abhik Ghosh: Meetings with the Other (on Fieldwork Techniques)
12. Gaya and Pandey: Cultural Anthropology

Paper II
1. NCERT: Indian Society, Social Change
2. Bhattacharya, D.K.: An Outline of Indian Prehistory
3. Srinivas: Caste in India & Other Essays
4. Srinivas: Social Change in Modern India
5. Y. Singh: Modernization of Indian Tradition
6. Vidyarthi & Rai: Tribal Cultures of India
7. N. Hasnain: Indian Anthropology
8. N. Hasnain: Tribal India
9. R.C. Verma: Indian Tribes
10. Vaid: Who Cares for Tribal Development (Hindi & English)
11. A.L. Basham: The Wonder that was India
12. G.S. Bhatt: Bharatiya Samajik Vichar (in Hindi)
13. Sagar Preet: Reservation for Backward Classes a Perspective

Political Science

Suggested Books
by Subhash C Kashyap
1. Our Constitution
2. Our Parliament
3. Perspective on Constitution (ED)
by P.M Bakshi
1.Constitution
by D.D. Basu
1. Introduction to the Constitution

Others
IIPA Journal
The Hindu
Frontline

Philosophy
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Section- A Problem of Philosophy

1. Dr. C.D. Sharma (Indian Philosophy)


2. Dr. Deo Raj (Indian Philosophy)
3. Dr. Y.Masiaha (Western Philosophy)
4. Dr. Daya Krishna (Western Philosophy)
5. Dr. Franckena Thilly (Western Philosophy)
6. Dr. B.K. Lal (Contemporary Western Philosophy)

Section- B Logic

1. Dr. Irvin M. Copi


2. Ashok Verma (Symbolic logic)

Section- C Ethics

1. Dr. Divakar Pathak (Indian Ethic)


2. Dr. V.P. Verma (Western Ethic)
3. Dr. B.N. Singh (Ethics)
4. Lilly (Ethics)

Section- A Western Philosophy

1. By Franckena Thilly
2. Dr. C.D. Sharma
3. Dr. Dayakrishna
4. Dr. Y.Masiaha
5. Dr. B.K. Lal
6. Dr. Lakshmi Saxena
7. D.M.Dutt

Section- B Indian Philosophy

1. Dr. C.D. Sharma


2. Dr. Deo Raj
3. Dr. Hiriyanna
4. Dr. Radha Krishnan
5. D.M.Dutt

Section- C Socio Political Philosophy

1. Dr. J.P. Sood Vol IV


P a g e | 105

2.Dr. Shiv Bhanu Singh


3. Dr. O.P.Gauba
4. NCERT Books

Sec. B Philosophy of Religion

1. Dr. Y.Masiaha
2. John Hick
3. Dr. V.P. Verma

Sociology

1. IGNOU Material

2. Sociology - Sachideva & Vidhya Bushan.

3. Sociology - T.B. Bottomore.

4. Sociology Themes & Perspectives - Moralambose & R.M. Heald.

5. Unique Guide.

6. Dhilion Guide.

7. Spectrum Guide.

8. Sociology Dictionary - William P. Scott.

9. Social Demography - Asha & Bandhi.

10. Social Anthropology - Madan & Majumdar.

11.Cultural Anthropology -Madan and Majumdar

12.Sociology - Horton and Hunt

13. Harlambus - Introduction to Sociology

14. Tribal India - L.P. Vidhyarthi

15. Modernisation of Indian Tradition - Y. Singh

16. NCERT tests on sociology

17. Oxford Dictionary / Collins

18. Chapters from a good book on Demography and Urban geography


P a g e | 106

Reference Books for Mains

1. Ram Ahuja: Society in India

2. Ram Ahuja: Social problems in India

3. IGNOU notes (especially for thinkers and topic on Indian system)

4. Caste its 20th Century Avatar - M.N. Srinivas

5. participation as freedom - Amartya Sen and Jean Dreze

6. Y. Singh - Modernisation of Indian Tradition

7. Y. Singh - Social tradition in India

8. L.P. Vidhyarthi - Tribal India

9. Yojana (Independence day special 2001 on population)

10. Y. Singh - Social Change in India

11. Niel J. Smelser for Economy and Society

12. Abraham and Francis - Sociological theory

MODERN INDIA

Modern Indian History - Groover & Grooover.

A struggle for Independence - Bipin Chandra

Freedom Struggle - Bipinchandra

Modern India - L. Mukherjee

NCERT (12th)

A new look into the modern Indian history - B.L Grover

Freedom struggle - Bipin Chandra, Varun Dey and Amlesh Tripathy (NBT)

India's struggle for independence - Bipin Chandra


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Modern India - Sumit Sarkar

IGNOU material (specially on freedom struggle)

MEDIVAL HISTORY

Advanced study in the History of Medival India - Volume I, II, III J.L.
Mehta

Medival India - Volume I & II Satish Chandra

Wonder that was India - Rizzvi

Medival India - L. Mukherjee


NCERT (11th)

The Advanced History of India - Majumdar, Raychaudhuri & Datta

Social life and cultural life of both Delhi Sultanate and Mughal India - J.L. Mehta

A history of South India - K. A. Nilakanta Shastri

IGNOU material (specially on agriculture and agrarian relations and culture)

ANCIENT HISTORY :

Wonder that was India - A.L. Bhashem.

Ancient India Social and Culture - Luniya

Ancient India - an introductory outline - D.N.Jha.

An Advanced History of India - R.C. Majumda, H.C. Raychaudhurai, -


KalikinkarDatta

Ancient India - L.Mukherjee

NCERT (11th)

The Advanced History of India - Majumdar, Raychaudhuri & Datta

The wonder that was India - A. L Bashaon

Indus Civilization - (a) IGNOU booklet no. 2

The rise of civilization of India and Pakistan - Bridget and Raymond Allchin
P a g e | 108

Ancient India in historical outline (Revised and enlarged edition - 98) - D.N. Jha

Mauryan : Ashoka and the decline of mouryan empire - Romila Thapar

Indian Feudalism - R.S. Sharma