pk

1. Which of the following is not a rabi crop? (a) Wheat (b) Barley (c) Jute (d) Rapeseed Ans. (c) 2. Blue Revolution is associated with (a) Fish (b) Milk (c) flower (d) Litmus Ans. (a) 3. Study the following features of farming in India: 1. The farmers voluntarily pool their land together cultivation. 2. They divide the produce in proportion to the land pooled. 3. They forego their proprietary rights in the land. 4. They cannot withdraw their land from the pool after due notice and paying for the improvements. Which of these features belong to cooperative farming? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 Ans. (a) 4. Which of the following states is the main producer of Tendu Leaves? (a) Orissa (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (c) Uttar Pradesh Ans. (b) 5. The largest food crop of India is (a) wheat (b) rice (c) maize (d) gram Ans. (b) 6. The maximum edible oil in India is produced from (a) Rapeseed and mustard (b) Til (c) Sunflower (d) Groundnut Ans. (d) 7. Tobacco cultivated in Gujarat is mostly used for the manufacture of (a) beedi (b) cigarette (c) zarda (d) snuff powder Ans. (a) 8. India is the largest producer of (a) tobacco (b) sugar (c) tea (d) rice Ans. (c) 9. Rubber plantations are located mostly in (a) Kerala and Karnataka (b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu (c) Maharashtra and Kerala (4) West Bengal and Kerala Ans. (a)

10. Food grain production of India in million tones is nearest to the figure of (a) 120 (b) 150 (c) 200 (d) 280 Ans. (c) 11. Self sufficiency in food, in the true sense of freedom from hunger, has not been achieved in India inspite of a more than three-fold rise in food grains production over 1950-1990. Which of the following are reason for it? 1. The Green Revolution has been restricted to small pockets of the country. 2. The cost of food is too high compared to the earnings of the poor. 3. Too much emphasis is laid on what and paddy compared to the coarse grains. 4. The gains of the green revolution have largely accrued to the cash crop rather than food crops. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) l, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (a) 12. The state which is known as the Granary of India is (a) Kerala (b) U.P (c) Haryana (d) Punjab Ans. (d) 13. Which of the following states is the Leading producer of tobacco? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Karnataka (c) Maharashtra (d) Andhra Pradesh Ans. (c) 14. Which of the following is the most important cash crop of West Bengal? (a) Tea (b) Jute (c) Arecanut (d) Coffee (e) None of these Ans. (b) 15. Sowing season for kharif crop is (a) February-March (b) June -July (c) August September (d) October -December Ans. (b) 16. Which one of the following crop combinations is characteristic of the upper Bhramaputra Valley? (a) Rice, Jute, Oilseeds (b) Rice, Pulses, Oilseeds (c) Rice, Tea, Oilseeds (d) Tea, Gram, Jute Ans. (c) 17. Which irrigation canal irrigates the portion of Thar Desert? (a) Indira Gandhi canal (b) Nangal canal (c) Western Yamuna canal (d) None of these Ans. (c) 18. Which region in India is known as the Rice Bowl of India? (a) North-east region (b) Indo Gangetic plain (c) Krishna -Godavari delta (d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu Ans. (c) 19. The highest milk producing breed of goat in India is (a) Barbari (b) Beetal (c) Jamnapari (d) Black Bengal Ans. (b)

20. Which state produces maximum wheat in the country? (a) Punjab (b) U.P (c) M.P (d) Rajasthan Ans. (b) 21. Which one of the following is not a part of the green revolution strategy? (a) Irrigation (b) Fertilizer (c) High yielding varieties of seeds (d) Crop insurance Ans. (d) 22. Which of the following is not a rabi crop? (a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Linseed (d) Barley Ans. (a) 23. Which of the following states ranks first in the production of cotton in the country? (a) Maharashtra (b) West Bengal (c Punjab (d) Gujarat Ans. (d) 24. In India, the greatest variety of flowers is found in (a) Assam (b) Kerala (c) U.P. hills (d) Sikkim Ans. (d) 25. Bangladesh has become a leading competitor of India in the world in the field of (a) cotton (b) jute (c) tea (d) rice Ans. (b) 26. Which of the following is the largest livestock ( in number) in India? (a) Sheep (b) Goats (c) Buffaloes (d) Horses and Ponies Ans. (b) 27. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India? 1. It is largely practised in Assam 2 It is referred to as slash and burn technique 3 in it, the fertility is exhausted in a few years (a) l, 2 and 3 (b) l and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Ans. (a) 28. The most widely consumed cereal in India is (a) barley (b) wheat (c) rice (d) sorghum Ans. (c) 29. Terrace farming is widely practised in (a) Malabar coast (b) Mountain areas (c) Deserts (d) Deccan plateau Ans. (b) 30. Which of the following oilseed crops is grown most extensively in India? (a) Mustard (b) Linseed

(c) Sunflower (d) Groundnut Ans. (d) 31. Which of the following canals is not used for irrigation? (a) Indira Gandhi Canal (b) Buckingham Canal (c) Western Yamuna Canal (d) Upper Ganga Canal Ans. (b) 32. In India, what percentage of area is covered by wheat growing regions? (a) 10% (b) 13.5% (c) l7.8% (d) 19.5% Ans. (b) 33. The density of cattle population per 100 hectares of gross cropped area is the highest in (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Haryana Ans. (d) 34 The maximum density of canals lies in which of the following states? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Punjab (d) Uttar Pradesh Ans. (d) 35. Kerala is famous for the cultivation of 1. Coconut 2.Black pepper 3, Rubber 4. Groundnut (a) l, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 ant 4 (c) l and 4 (d) l, 2, and 3 Ans. (d) 36. In the Northern Plains of India, rice is the main crop from Bengal to eastern Uttar Pradesh, whereas in western Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Punjab, wheat is the main produce. This is because (a) in the eastern region, fine clayey soil is avail able (b) the western region remains cold during the winter season. (c) the average rainfall decreases towards the west. (d) the cultivation of rice requires cheap labour force Ans. (b) 37. Jute is grown on a large scale in the delta of (a) Ganges (b) Sutlej (c) Damodar (d) Indus Ans. (c) 38. Indian farmers insurance against crop failure is the process of one of the major methods of risk coverage by Indian farmers in (a) Dry farming (b) Share cropping (c) Mixed cropping (d) Relay cropping Ans. (c) 39. Consider the following statements: I. The Green Revolution has been limited in its spatial coverage in India. II. It has been confined mainly to Punjab, Haryana and western UttarPradesh. Of these statements, (a) both I and II are true. (b) I is true but II is false. (c) Both I and II are false. (d) I is false but II is true. Ans. (b)

40. India has attained self sufficiency in the production of (a) coal (b) iron (c) nickel (d) manganese Ans. (d) 41. The largest coal deposit in India is in (a) Godavari Valley (b) Brahmani Valley (c) Damodar Valley (d) Satpura Valley Ans. (c) 42. The headquarters of ONGC is situated at (a) Bombay (b) Delhi (c) Dehradun (d) Vadodara Ans. (c) 43. Numaligarh in Assam is associated with which industry (a) Oil refinery (b) Automobile (c) Cofee (4) Cooperative farming Ans. (a) 44. Mathura refinery receives crude oil from (a) Cauvery basin (b) Vadodara (c) Kandla (d) None of these Ans. (d) 45. Which of the following power systems provides the highest quantity of energy in India? (a) Hydroelectric (b) Nuclear (c) Thermal (d) Wind and tidal Ans. (a) 46. Gujarat is the largest producer of salt in India because (a) it has extensive dry coast (b) its coastal waters are very saline (c) it has extensive shallow seas (d) besides producing salt from saline water it has reserves of rock salt Ans. (c) 47. Coking coal is found in (a) Rajasthan (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Bihar (d) Orissa Ans. (c) 48. The new oil refinery in North India is going to be set up at (a) Bhatinda (b) Panipat (c) Udaipur (d) Mathura (e) Udhampur Ans. (b) 49. Manganese ore is abundantly found in (a) Karnataka (b) Rajasthan (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Orissa Ans. (c) 50. Bombay High is famous for (a) atomic reactor (b) steel plant (c) chemical industry

(d) petroleum deposits Ans. ( d)

SAIL English paper for MT Exam Fill in the Blanks with appropriate Words 1. Please and Thank you are the little courtesies by which we keep the.. of life oiled and running smoothly. (a) river (b) garden (c) path (d) machine 2. The bright colour of this shirt has. away. (a) gone (b) disappeared (c) faded (d) paled 3. One major .between the Election Commission and the Union Government is related to the powers of the former in respect of the deployment of central police forces at places where an election isheld. (a) conflict (b) pain (c) irritant (d) culprit 4.Even a glance will reveal the mystery (a)crude (b)cursory (c) critical (d) curious 5. His standard of living has. since his son joined service. (a) lifted (b) increased (c) risen (d) heightened 6. The passengers were afraid but the captain .them that there was no danger. (a) instructed (b) advised (c) promised (d) assured 7. His first failure did not him from making another attempt. (a) interfere (b) forbid (c) frighten (d) deter 8. No one will .. you for having been rude to your teacher. (a) exclaim (b) admire (c) advise (d) recommend 9.The doctor .. the patient from taking certain medicines. (a) banned (b) prohibited (c) prescribed (d) proscribed 10.I ..a car to be absolutely necessary these days.

(a) think (b)regard (c) consider (d) agree 11. He didnt have the.. idea of villagers problems. (a) smallest (b)finest (c) faintest (d) feeblest 12. This is a translation of the speech. (a) verbatim (b)verbal (c) literal (d) literary 13.The news of the secret deal soon despite official silence. (a) discovered (b) disclosed (c)leaked out (d) divulged 14. No man had a more ..love for literature, or a higher respect for it, than Samuel Johnson. (a)arduous (b) ardent (c) animated (d) adroit 15.I have often why he went to live abroad. (a) puzzled (b) wondered (c) thought (d) surprised 16.He lives near a lonely of countryside. (a) piece (b) length (c) stretch (d) section 17. To nobody else did the story seem (a) contingent (b) credible (c) credulous (d) creditable 18. The transfer of territories could not take place because one state ..the findings of the Commission. (a) objected (b) questioned (c)rejected (d) disputed 19.Anticipating renewed rioting, the authorities erected .to block off the streets. (a) dykes (b) barrages (c) barricades (d) barracks 20.When their examinations were over, the children gleefully. the books they had been reading. (a) despised

(b) neglected (c) shelve (d)overthrow Answers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 D C A B C D D B B c c c c b b c b d c b

Mechanical-Engineering MT 2009
A definite area or space where some thermodynamic process takes place is known as A thermodynamic system B thermodynamic cycle C thermodynamic process D thermodynamic law

2. Which of the following is an intensive property of a thermodynamic system? A volume B Temperature C mass D energy

3. Temperature at which the volume of the gas becomes 0 is called A absolute scale of temperature B absolute 0 temperature C absolute temperature D none of these

4. The unit of energy in SI units is A joule B joule metre C watt D joule/metre

5. 1 joule is equal to A 1 Nm B kNm C 10 Nm/s D 10 kNm/s 6. In an irreversible process there is a A loss of heat B no loss of heat C gain of heat D no gain of heat

7. The following is an SI engine A diesel engine B petrol engine C gas engine D none of the above 8. In a 4 stroke cycle petrol engine during suction stroke A only air is sucked in B only petrol is sucked in C mixture of petrol and air is sucked in D none of the above 9. The thermal efficiency of petrol engine as compared to diesel engine is A lower B higher C same for same power output D same for same speed 10. Compression ratio of diesel engines may have a range A 8 to 10 B 10 to 15 C 16 to 20 D none of the above 11 The thermal efficiency of good I.C engine at the rated load is in the range of A 80 to 90% B 60 to 70% C 30 to 35% D 10 to 20% 12 Carburettor is used for A SI engines B gas engines C CI engines D none of the above 13 In SI engine to develop high voltage for spark plug A battery is installed B distributor is installed C carburetor is installed D ignition coil is installed 14 In a four cylinder petrol engine the standard firing order is A 1-2-3-4 B 1-4-3-2 C 1-3-2-4 D 1-3-4-2 15 The knocking is SI engines increases with A increase in inlet air temperature B increase in compression ratio C increase in cooling water temperature D all of the above 16 Petrol commercially available in India for Indian passenger cars has octane number in the range A 40 to 50 B 60 to 70 C 80 to 85 D 95 to 100 17 The knocking tendency in C.I engines increases with A decrease of compression ratio B increase of compression ratio C increasing the temperature of inlet air D increasing cooling water temperature

18 The air standard otto cycle comprises A two constant pressure processes and two constant volume processes B two constant pressure and two constant entropy processes C two constant volume processes and two constant entropy processes D none of the above 19 The thermal efficiency of theoretical otto cycle A increases with increase in compression ratio B increases with increase in isentropic index gamma 1. C does not depend upon the pressure ratio D follows of the above 20 Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant has compared to diesel engine plant is A higher B lower C same D may be higher or lower

21 Mechanical efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to internal combustion Reciprocating engine is A higher B lower C same D unpredictable 22 For a gas turbine the pressure ratio may be in the range A 2 to 3 B 3 to 5 C 16 to 18 D 18 to 22 23 Thermal efficiency of a closed cycle gas turbine plant increases by A reheating B intercooling C regenerator D all of the above 24With the increase in pressure ratio thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine Plant with fixed turbine inlet temperature A decreases B increases C first increases and then decreases D first decreases and then increases 25In two stage turbine plant, reheating after first stage A increases work ratio B decreases work ratio C does not affect work ratio D none of the above 26For a jet propulsion unit , ideally the compressor work and turbine work are A equal B unequal C not related to each other D unpredictable 27 Various kinematic pairs are given below.choose the lower pair A ball bearings B tooth gears in mesh C camm and follower D crank shaft and bearing

28The relation between the number of pairs forming a kinematic chain and the Number of links is A l=2p-2 B l=2p-3 C l=2P-4 D l=2p-5 29In a reciprocating engine A crankshaft and flywheel form 2 kinematic links B crankshaft and flywheel form 1 kinematics links C crankshaft and flywheel do not form kinematic links D flywheel and crankshaft separately form kinematic links 30A kinematic chain is known as a mechanism when A none of the link is fixed B one of the links is fixed C two of the links are fixed D all of the links are fixed 31 Which of the following is an inversion of single slider crank chain? A beam engine B watts indicator mechanism C elliptical trammels D whitworth quick return motion mechanism

32 control volumes refer to A a fixed region in space B a specified mass C an isolated system D a closed system 33An isentropic process is always A irreversible and adiabatic B reversible and isothermal C friction less and irreversible D reversible and adiabatic 34Work done in a free expansion process is

A0 B minimum C maximum D positive

35.The figure shows a pin-jointed plane truss loaded at the point M by hanging a mass of 100 kg. The member LN of the truss is subjected to a load of?

(a) 0 Newton (b)490 Newtons in compression (c)981 Newtons in compression (d) 981 Newtons in tension 36.In terms of.Poissons ratio (v) the ratio of Youngs Modulus (E) to Sh ear Modulus (G) of elastic materials is ? (a)2(1 + v) (b) 2(1 v) (c)(1 + v)/2 (d)(1 v)/2 37. Two mating spur gears have 40 and 120 teeth respectively. The pinion rotates at 1200 rpm and transmits a torque of 2O N. m. The torque transmitted by the gear is (a) 6.6 Nm (b) 20 Nm (c) 40 Nm (d) 60 Nm 38. The figure shows the state of stress at a certain point in a stressed body. The magnitudes of normal stresses in the x and y direction are 100 MPa and 20 MPa respectively. The radius of Mohrs stress circle r epresenting this state of stress is

(a)120 (b)80 (c)60 (d)40

39.For a mechanism shown below, the mechanical advantage for the given configuration is?

(a)0 (b) 0.5 (c)1.0 (d)Infinity 40.A vibrating machine is isolated from the floor using springs. If the ratio of excitation frequency of vibration of machine to the natural frequency of the isolation system is equal to 0.5, the transmissibility of ratio of isolation is (a)1/2 (b)3/4 (c)4/3 (d)2 41. A torque of 10 Nm is transmitted through a stepped shaft as shown in figure.

The torsional stiffnesses of individual sections of lengths MN, NO and OP are 20 Nm/rad 30 Nm/rad and 60 Nm respectively. The angular deflection between the ends M and P of the shaft is? (a) 0.5 rad (b) 1.0 rad (c) 5.0 rad (d) 10.0 rad 42.

43. The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at (a)10 3 cycles (b) 10 4 cycles (c)10 6 cycles (d) 10 9 cycles 44. In the window air conditioner, the expansion device used is (a)capillary tube (b) thermostatic expansion valve (c)automatic expansion valve (d) float valve 45. During chemical de-humidification process of air (a) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity decrease (b) dry bulb temperature increases and specific humidity decreases (c) dry bulb temperature decreases and specific humidity increases (d) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity increase 46.An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity, 7.4 x 10-7 m2 /s, specific gravity, 0.88) is held between two parallel plates. If the top.plate is moved with a velocity of 0.5 rn/s while the bottom one is held stationary, the fluid attains a linear velocity profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascals on the surface of top plate is ? (a)0.651 x 10 -3 (b) 0.651 (c)6.51 (d) 0.651 x 103 47.Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. Its chemical formula is ? (a)CH ClF2

(b) C2 Cl 3F3 (c)C2 Cl 2F4 (d) C2 H2F4 48.

(a)x2y=0 (b) 2x+y=0 (c)2xy=0 (d) x+2y=0 49. A gas contained in a cylinder is compressed, the work required for compression being 5000 kJ. During the process, heat interaction of 2000 kJ causes the surroundings to the heated. The change in internal energy of the gas during the process is (a)7000kJ (b) 3000kJ (c)+ 3000 kJ (d) + 7000 kJ 50.The compression ratio of a gas power plant cycle corresponding to maximum work output for the given temperature limits of Tmin and Tmax will be

51. (a)10 microns (b) 20 microns (c)30 microns (d) 60 microns 51.

(a) circular Interpolation clockwise (b) circular Interpolation counterclockwise (c) linear Interpolation (d) rapid feed 52. The mechanism of material removal in EDM process is (a) Melting and Evaporation (b) Melting and Corrosion (c) Erosion and Cavitation

(d) Cavitation and Evaporation 53. Two 1 mm thick steel sheets are to be spot welded at a current of 5000 A. Assuming, effective resistance to be 200 micro-ohms and current flow time of 0.2 second, heat generated during the process will be (a)0.2 Joule (b) 1 Joule (c)5 Joule (d) 1000 Joules 54. In PERT analysis a critical activity has (a)maximum Float (b) zero Float (c)maximum Cost (d) minimum Cost 55. For a product, the forecast and the actual sales for December 2002 were 25 and 20 respectively. If the exponential smoothing constant (a) is taken as 0.2, the forecast sales for January 2003 would be ? (a)21 (b)23 (c)24 (d) 27 56. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to (a) very high pouring temperature of the metal (b) insufficient fluidity of the molten metal (c) absorption of gases by the liquid metal (d) improper alignment of the mould flasks 57. The percentage of carbon in gray cast iron is in the range of (a)0.25 to 0.75 percent (b) 1.25 to 1.75 percent (c)3 to 4 percent (d) 8 to 10 percent 58.In the figure shown,

the relative velocity of link1 with respect to link 2 is 12 m/sec. Link 2 rotates at a constant speed of 120 rpm. The magnitude of Coriolis component of aceeleration of link 1 is (a)302 m/s2 (b)604 m/s2 (c)906 m/s2 (d) 1208 m/s2 59. The figure below shows a planar mechanism with single degree of freedom.

The instant center 24 for the given configuration is located at a position ? (a) L (b) M (c) N (d)Infinity 60.A uniform stiff rod of length 200 mm and having a weight of 300 N is pivoted at one end and connected to a spring at the other end.

For keeping the rod vertical in a stable position the minimum value of spring constant K needed is ?

(a) 300 N/m (b) 400 N/m (c) 500 N/m (d) 1000 N/m 61. In a bolted joint two members are connected with an axial tightening force of 2200 N.

If the bolt used has metric threads of 4 mm pitch, the torque required for achieving the tightening force is? (a)0.7Nm (b)1.0 Nm (c)1.4 Nm (d) 2.8 Nm

GENERAL AWARENESS 85. Which of the following Vedas is the oldest? 1. 2. 3. 4. 86. Who wrote Panchtantra? 1. 2. 3. 4. Bhavbhuti Vishnu Sharma Kalidasa Shri Harsha Samveda Yaju veda Atharva veda Rig veda

87. Who was the last Guru of the Sikhs? 1. 2. 3. 4. Guru Govind Singh Guru Tegh Bahadur Guru Nanak Dev Guru Harkishan

88. Who said, Man is a social animal. 1. 2. 3. 4. Aristotle Rosseau Plato Laski

89. Which one of the following dynasties was ruling the time of Alexanders invasion? 1. 2. 3. 4. The Nanda Dynasty The Maurya Dynasty The Kanva Dynasty The Sunga Dynasty

90. The Census was introduced for the first time in India during the tenure of 1. 2. Lord Cornwallis Lord William Bentinck

3. 4.

Lord Rippon Lord Clive

91. Who designed the National Flag of India? 1. 2. 3. 4. Pingly Venkaiyya Vallabh Bhai Patel B.R. Ambedkar Aurobindo Ghosh

92. From which of the following state does the Tropic of cancer not pass? 1. 2. 3. 4. Rajasthan Jharkhand Tripura Manipur

93. Which among the following is the smallest state area-wise? 1. 2. 3. 4. Nagaland Mizoram Meghalaya Manipur

94. As per Census 2001, which one of the following states recorded the lowest growth rates of population during the period of 1991 to 2001. 1. 2. 3. 4. Andhra Pradesh Karnataka Kerala Tamil Nadu

95. Which of the following rivers does not form a delta? 1. 2. 3. 4. Ganges Narmada Mandavi Mahanadi

96. The weight of an object will be minimum when it is placed at: 1. 2. 3. 4. The North Pole The South Pole The Equator The Center of the Earth

97. Which one of the following is a land-locked country? 1. 2. 3. 4. Cambodia Thailand Vietnam Laos

98. Earthquake travels fastest in1. 2. 3. 4. Soil Molten Rock Water Flexible Rock

99. Joint sitting of both the houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by 1. 2. 3. 4. The President of India The Speaker of Lok Sabha The Chairman of Rajya Sabha The Prime Minister

100. To who is the Council of Ministers collectively responsible? 1. 2. 3. 4. The President The Prime Minister The Lok Sabha The Rajya Sabha

101. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of: 1. 2. 3. 4. only the elected members of both Houses of Parliament only Rajya Sabha members all members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies all members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

102. Centre-State financial distribution takes place following the recommendations made by the 1. 2. 3. 4. Inter-State Council Finance Commission Planning Commission Parliament

103. Sellers market denotes a situation where 1. 2. 3. 4. Commodities are available at competitive rates Demand exceeds supply Supply exceeds demand Supply and demand are equal

104. Development means economic growth plus 1. 2. 3. 4. Inflation Deflation Price Stability Social change

105. Which of the following ports of India has a free trade zone? 1. 2. 3. 4. 106. Dual pricing implies 1. 2. 3. 4. Wholesale price and Retail price Pricing of agents and Pricing of retailer Price fixed by Government and Price in the open market Daily prices and Weekly prices Cochin Mumbai Kandla Diu

107. Sudden Death rule is associated with:

1. 2. 3. 4.

Wrestling Hockey Water Polo Football

108. Galvanised Iron sheets have a coating of 1. 2. 3. 4. Tin Lead Zinc Chromium

109. The Principle on which a Jet Engine is base is: 1. 2. 3. 4. Theory of Angular Momentum Newtons third Law Theory of Friction Theory of Kinetic Energy

110. The different colours of different stars are due to the variations in 1. 2. 3. 4. temperature pressure density radiation from them

111. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through 1. 2. 3. 4. glass vacuum air water

112. Which of the following tennis tournaments is played on Clay court? 1. 2. 3. 4. Australian Open French Open Wimbledon U.S. open

113. The instrument that measures and record the purity of milk is called: 1. 2. 3. 4. Hydrometer Hygrometer Lactometer Barometer

114. At which part of the tongue are the taste buds for sweet taste located? 1. 2. 3. 4. Tip Back Sides Middle

115. Stem cuttings are commonly used for re-growing 1. 2. 3. Cotton Banana Jute

4.

Sugar Cane

116. Which one of the following human nutrients plays an important role in the coagulation of blood? 1. 2. 3. 4. Calcium Iron Potassium Sodium

117. Which of the following is known as first line defense for the body? 1. 2. 3. 4. Antibodies WBC Nails Skin

118. In the case of a test tube baby 1. 2. 3. 4. Fertilisation takes place inside the test tube Development of the baby takes place inside the test tube Fertilization takes place outside the mothers body Unfertilized egg develops inside the test tube

119. Which of the following cell organelles is the site for Protein synthesis?

o o o o

Ribosome Mitochondria Chloroplast Golgi Complex

VERBAL ABILTY In questions 120-123, the word which is opposite in meaning to the word given on the top is: 120. SPURIOUS 1. 2. 3. 4. 121. ENUNCIATE 1. 2. 3. 4. 122. RESILIENT 1. 2. 3. 4. 123. EXPEDITE 1. 2. 3. 4. explore obstruct prompt disburse pungent worthy unyielding insolent pray deliver request mumble genuine angry glorious antique

Instructions for Questions 124-128: Read the following passage and answer the questions after it. Differentiation of the two kinds of socialization is to some extent explained by reference to the complex manpower requirements of the modern state. The social learning acquired through upbringing often needs to the extended because it does not provided for the national need in many countries for trained personnel like clerical workers technician, civil servants and so on. In this respect secondary socialization can be regarded as complementary to primary socialization. The former, we might say, provides the individual with skills which allow him to take on specialist employment and to have a role in a larger social environment, whereas the latter allows him to be integrated into the particular social group into which he is

born. Thus we might argue that primary socialization defined the individuals role in a small social group and enables him to identify himself as a member of his family and his local community. Secondary socialization, on the other hand provides for the individuals role in society as a whole and enables him to identify himself as a citizen of the state. In Short, and to oversimplify, we might say that the first kind of socialization provides a sense of security and social interaction, whereas the second provides opportunity and the possibility of social mobility. 124. Which of the following is NOT possible through primary socialization? 1. defining individuals role in a small social group 2. identifying oneself with ones family 3. identifying oneself as a citizen of the state 4. integrating into the local community 125. The modern state very much requires: 1. primary socialization of its citizens 2. many unskilled workers 3. a large social environment 4. specialist manpower 126. The opportunity to go up in ones profession and society is: 1. derived from ones upbringing 2. derived form secondary socialization 3. availed through complex manpower requirements 4. availed by identifying oneself with ones state 127. Secondary socialization is important in ones life because it helps one to: 1. take one specialized employment 2. identify oneself with ones family 3. define his role in his social group 4. integrate with his community 128. Complex manpower requirements means 1. man requires complex powers 2. highly trained personnel are required 3. acquiring power in a complex process 4. power of man is required to be complex Instructions for questions 129-133: Read the following passage and answer the questions after it. Nowadays the fine old simplicities are lost. Physicists assure us that there is no such thing as matte r and psychologists assure us that there is no such thing as mind. This is an unprecedented occurrence. To begin with the latter some of them attempt to reduce everything that seems to the mental activity to an activity of the body. There are however various difficulties in the way of reducing mental activity to physical activity. What we can really say on the basis of Physics itself is that what we have hitherto called out body is really as elaborate scientific construction, not corresponding to any physical reality. The modern would be materialist, thus finds himself in a curious conceptual dilemma. Evidently we have to look for something that is neither body nor mind, out of which both can spring. The common man however thinks that material objects must certainly exist since they are evident to the senses. The physicists disagree as matter in motion which in motion which used to seem so unquestionable turns out to be a concept quite inadequate for the needs of physics. 129. In the sentence To begin with the latter, some of them.. latter refers to : 1. physicists 2. matter 3. psychologists 4. mind 130. But the philosopher was apt to reduce it usually to . Here it refers to : o his analysis of man o the human body o the mind of the man o idea in the mind 131. A plain man thinks that material objects exist because1. they constitute the metaphysics 2. they are real in his through process 3. certain electrons and protons form them 4. he can perceive them 132. Psychologists mentioned in the passage 1. believe that mental activities get manifested in abnormal physical activities 2. try to equate mental activity to physical activity

3. do not accept the distinction between body and soul 4. support the physicists perception of a body 133. Which of the following does the modern science support according to the passage? 1. Mind the matter are necessary to organize events 2. Metaphysical division of events 3. The discovery of equally important mind and matter 4. Mind and Soul do not exist as an entity In questions 134-138, then word which is nearest in meaning to the word given on the top is: 134. ATROCITY 1. 2. 3. 4. 135. FORTITUDE 1. 2. 3. 4. 136. GARRULOUS 1. 2. 3. 4. 137. RESPERCUSSION 1. 2. 3. 4. 138. SYCOPHANT 1. 2. 3. 4. fun-loving self-controlled benevolent flatterer reaction resistance repetition repulsion sociable showy gourmet talkative enthusiasm bravery cleverness excitement endurance hatred brutality aversion

In questions 139-143, the key word is used in four different ways. Choose the options in which the usage of the word is NOT correct. 139. COVER 1. 2. 3. 4. 140. PUSH 1. 2. 3. 4. 141. FLASH 1. 2. 3. 4. 142. OPENING 1. 2. 3. 4. 143. ISSUE 1. 2. 3. 4. The problem came to a successful issue. My article appeared in the August issue of the magazine. The government issued a special stamp on World Health Day. There were problems of property as he died without any issue. The audience could hardly hear the opening remarks. I like to get out in the opening air on weekends. The films opening night was a huge success. the opening of the novel is by far its best part Camera bulbs flashed as the Prime Minister appeared on the podium. The news on Tsunami flashed around the world within minutes. Violence flashed in many areas of the town last night. A strange through flashed through her mind. The manufacturers are really pushing this new shampoo. He has difficulty pushing his feelings into words. We should be able to move this table if we push it together. She pushed through the crowd saying that she was a doctor. The light was so bright that I had to cover my eyes. Did you see the cover of the college magazine this year? We took cover from the rain in a bus shelter. People try to avoid tax by setting up a cover to donate money to charity.

In questions 144-146, each statement has a part missing. Choose the best option to complete the statement. 144. Of the many technological advances that took place during the 19th Century none was to have _____________ of the steam engine. 1. quite such enormous impact as inventing 2. quite such an enormous impact as the invention 3. quite such enormous an impact like inventing 4. quite such an enormous impact like invention 145. One of the most ___________ which holds that America is a highly materialistic nation, a nation which exalts the money-grubber and has a minimum of respect for things of the mind and spirit. 1. fashionable of the clichs is the one 2. fashionable clichs is the one 3. fashionable clich is the one 4. fashionable of the clich is that 146. ____________who watch a great deal of television and also among children, who view television shortly before bed time. 1. Among children more common sleep disturbances are 2. More common sleep disturbances among children are 3. sleep disturbance among children are more common 4. sleep disturbance are more common among children In questions 147-149, a sentence with two blanks is given. From the alternative pairs, select the words of which best completes the given sentence. 147. State hospitality extended to a visiting foreign dignitary is often used symbolically to convey ________ messages, and very often pomp and ceremony serve to _________ sharp differences. 1. subtle..mask 2. loud..camouflage 3. sharp..hide 4. important.....accentuate 148. A number of journalist and cameramen were ______ questioned by the police when they went to cover the ___________ drive of the state government. 1. deliberately..constitute 2. mistakenly..discover 3. inadvertently..install 4. wantonly..create 149. It is _________ to try to destroy pests completely with chemical poisons, for as each new chemical pesticides is introduced, the insects gradually become __________ to it. Quantitative Aptitude 150. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 36 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Pipe C can empty the tank in 30 minutes. First A and B are opened. After 7 minutes, C is also opened. In how much total time, the tank will be full. o 36 minutes o 42 minutes o 46 minutes o 45 minutes A toy was sold at a loss for Rs. 60. Had it been sold for Rs. 81, the gain would have been 3/4th of the former loss. The cost of the toy is o Rs. 65 o Rs. 70 o Rs. 81 o Rs. 72 Vijay invested Rs. 50,000 partly at 10% and partly at 20%. His total income after a year was Rs. 6000. How much did he invest at the rate of 10%? o Rs. 30,000 o Rs. 40,000 o Rs. 12,000 o Rs. 20,000 Two alloys A and B contain iron in the ration 7:3. IF 25 kg of alloy A and 25 kg of alloy B are mixed to form a new alloy which contains 35% of iron, find the amount of iron in alloy B. o 15 kg

7.8 kg 8.7 kg 18.2 kg Two trains 121 m and 99 m long, are running in opposite directions at speeds of 40 km/hr and 32 kg/hr respectively. In what time will they completely clear each other form the moment they meet? o 7 seconds o 9 seconds o 10 seconds o 11 seconds The rate of interest on a sum of money is 4% per annum for the first two years, 6% per annum for the next 4 years and 8% per annum for the period beyond 6 year. If the simple interest accrued by the sum for a total period of 9 years is Rs. 1120, what is the sum? o Rs. 1500 o Rs. 2000 o Rs. 2500 o Rs. 4000 A soldier ascends a greased pole 36 meters high. He ascends 3 metres in first minute and descends 1 metre in second minute. He again ascends 3 meters in third minute and descends 1 metre in fourth minute and so on. In how much time will he reach to top? o 36 minutes o 33 minutes

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minutes

o minutes The current of a stream runs at 1 km.hr. A motor boat goes 35km upstream and is back again to the starting point in 12 hours. The speed of motorboat in still water is: o 6 km/hr o 7 km/hr o 8 km/hr o 8.5 km/hr The average age of a couple (a husband and wife) was 23 years when they were married 5 years ago. The average age of the husband, the wife and a child, who was born during the interim period, is 20 years now. What is the present age of the child? Kripal, Vinay and Apoorva went for lunch to a restaurant. Kripal had Rs. 100 with him, Vinay had Rs. 104 and decided to give a tip of Rs. 16. They further decided to share to total expenses in the ratio of the amounts of money each carried. The amount of money which Kripal paid more than what Apporva paid is o Rs. 120 o Rs. 200 o Rs. 60 o Rs. 36 Two merchants each sell an article for Rs. 1000. If merchants A computes his profit on cost price, while merchant B computes his profit on selling price, they end up making profits of 25% respectively. By how much is the profit made by merchant B greater than that of merchant A? o Rs. 66.67 o Rs. 50 o Rs. 125 o Rs. 200 What is the greatest value of a positive integer n such that 3n is a factor of 1818? o 15 o 18 o 30 o 33 If x+y=5; x+z=7 and y+z=12, then the value of x+y+z=? o 12 o 2 o 5 o 24 What is the remainder when 3x22x2y-13xy2+10y3 is divided by (x-2y)?

0 y x+y x+2y At a certain ice cream parlor, customers can choose from among five different ice cream flavors and can choose either a sugar cone or a waffle cone. Considering both ice cream flavor and cone types, how many distinct triple-scoop cones with three different ice cream flavors are available? o 12 o 16 o 20 o 24 If a straight line y = ax+b passes through (2,1) and (-1,0), then ordered pair (a,b) is: o (3, -1)

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(-1,3) (3,3) If ABCD is a quadrilateral such that its diagonals AC and BC intersect at O to form four triangles equal in area . Then ABCD must be a: o parallelogram o Rectangle o Square o All of the above The chords AP and AQ of a circle of radius 6 cm are at a distance 3cm and respectively from the centre O of the circle, then the area of the smaller sector POQ is : o 24 p cm2 o 21 p cm2 o 15 p cm2 o 12 p cm2 On the xy-coordinate plane, points A and B both lie on the circumference of a circle whose center is O, and the length of AB equals the circles diameter. If the (x,y) coordinates of O are (2,1) and the (x,y) coordinates of B are (4,6), what are the (x,y) coordinates of A?

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ABCD is a square, each of side of which is 2 cm. Taking AB and AD as axes, the equation of the circle circumscribing the square is : o x2+y2 = (x+y) o x2+y2 = 2(x+y) o x2+y2 = 4 o x2+y2 = 16 If a is the length of the base and b the height of a right angled triangle hypotenuse of which is h and if the values of a and b are positive integers, which of the following cannot be a value of the square of the hypotenuse? o 13 o 23 o 37 o 41 The circumference of the front wheel of a cart is 30 ft long and that of the back wheel is 36 ft long. What is the distance travelled by the cart, when the front wheel has done five more revolutions than the rear wheel? 200 ft 250 ft 750 ft

900 ft 172. Four circular card-board pieces; each of radius 7 cm are placed in such a way that each piece touches two other pieces. The are of the space enclosed by the four pieces is: o 21 cm2 o 42 cm2 o 84 cm2 o 168 cm2 The circumcircle of an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm is drawn. Find the area that is inside the circle but outside the triangle? o 22.21 o 19.78 o 22.11 o 18.76 A spherical lead ball of radius 10 cm is melted and small lead balls of radius 5mm are made. The total number of possible small lead balls is: o 800 o 125 o 400 o 8000 A rectangle, having a 72 cm perimeter, is divided into 9 congruent rectangles and two congruent squares. The edge of square is the same as one of the edges of the smaller rectangle. What is the perimeter and area of the smaller rectangle? o 24 cm, 36 cm2 o 24 cm, 32 cm2 o 12 cm, 32 cm2 o 12 cm, 36 cm2 In a triangle ABC, the sum of the exterior angles at B and C is equal to: o 180o - BAC o 180o + BAC o 180o - 2BAC o 180o + 2BAC If x = sin0+cos0 and y = sin 20, then which of the following is true? o x2-y=1 o x2 =1-y o y=x2+1 o y2=x+1 The angle of elevation of the top of a 30 m high tower, from two points on the level ground on its opposite sides are 45 degrees and 60 degrees. What is the distance between the two points? o 30 o 51.96 o 47.32 o 81.96 A person aims at a bird on top of a 5m high pole with the elevation of 30 degree. If a bullet is fired, it will travel P m before reaching the bird. The a value of P (in m) is :

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10

Of the two boxes, Box 1 contains 2 Pink and 5 White chalks while Box 2 contains 4 Blue and 3 Green chalks. Four chalks are taken out, two from Box 1 and remaining from Box 2. What is the probability of getting four different colour chalks?

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A problem is given to three students x,y,z whose chances of solving the problem are What is the probability that the problem will be solved? and respectively.

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In questions 182-183, a series is given. Which one of the number or letter-number clusters in the given series is wrong. G 4 T, J 10 R, M 20 P, P 43 N, S 90 L o G4T o J 10 R o M 20 P o P 43 N 5, 12,19,33,47,75,104. o 33 o 47 o 75 o 101 In questions 183 to 185, a number-series is given. Which one of the alternatives will ensure the sequential continuity of the series? 3, 6, 5, 20, 7, 42, 9,.. o 54 o 60 o 66 o 72 0, 2, 8, 14, 24, . o 34 o 35 o 36 o 42 In question 186-187, a series is given with a blank shown by a question mark. Which one of the alternatives can correctly fill-in the question mark? 6, 15, 3, (?), 143, 221 o 63 o 77 o 90 o 56 7T19, 9Q16, 11N13, 13K10, 15H7, (?) o 17 E 4

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18 F 5 17 E 3 18 D 4

In questions 188-189, a letter series is given, in which some letters are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. Find the correct alternative. aa _ ab _ aaa _ a o aaab o aabb o abab o baaa mnonopqopqrs _ _ _ _ _ _ o mnopq o oqrst o pqrst o qrstu The arrangement of letters of which of the given clusters is different from the rest? o GTSH o BYXC o ETUF o LONM The arrangement of letters of which of the given clusters is different from the rest? o BD o CI o EY o AC In a certain code MANISH is written as 415918. How will PRASHANT be written in the same code? o 79181152 o 79181125 o 79118125 o 79118152 If in an cricket season, Mumbai defeated Hyderabad twice. Bangalore defeated Mumbai twice, Hyderabad defeated Bangalore twice, Mumbai defeated Kolkata twice and Bangalore defeated Kolkata twice. Which of the teams lost the largest number of matches? o Mumbai o Hyderabad o Bangalore o Kolkata 194. A bus for Bombay leaves after every forty minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 10.45 a.m. At what time did the enquiry clerk give this information to the passenger? 1. 10:05 a.m. 2. 9:55 a.m. 3. 10:35 a.m. 4. 10:15 a.m. 195. As a Lion is to Cub, a Camel is to: 1. Signet 2. Stag 3. Calf 4. Foal 196. Identify the correct deduction. Statements: All labourers are wrestlers. All grocers are labourers. Conclusions: 1. 2. 3. All grocers are wrestlers Some wrestlers are grocers. Some wrestler are labourers.

Some labourers are grocers. 1. All conclusions are correct 2. Only 1 and 4 conclusions are correct 3. Only 4 conclusion is correct 4. Only 2 and 3 conclusions are correct 197. Identify the correct deduction. Statements: All fruits are sweets. All sweets are chocolates. Conclusions: All sweets are fruits. All fruits are chocolates Some chocolates are sweets. No chocolate is sweet. 1. Only conclusion 1 is correct 2. All conclusions are correct 3. Only conclusion 2 and 3 are correct 4. Only conclusion 3 and 4 are correct 198. In the question, five figures marked 1,2,3,4 and 5 are given on the top. Which among the figures marked a,b,c,d given below it would continue the series 1-2-3-4-5. 1. 2. 3. 4.

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In each of the questions 199 to 200, five figures marked 1,2,3,4 and 5 continuous a continuous series with a gap marked (?) are given. Which figure from among the figures marked a,b,c,d given below them would accurately fill-in the place marked with the questions mark. 199. Answer the Question:

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Answer the Question:

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4. In each of the questions 201 to 203, the figure marked as X is incomplete. Which of the figures marked as a, b, c, and d would accurately complete the given figure?

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4. In each of the questions 204 to 206, a figure drawn on a transparent paper is given on the left hand side. Which (from among the given four figures given on the right hand side marked as abcd) will this figure take if its is folded along the dotted lines.

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In each of the questions 207 to 209, figure 1 and 2 as also 3 and 4 (?) have a certain relationship. From among the given figures a, b, c and d which one, when placed at the position of the question mark, would establish the same relationship. 207.

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