1) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) Ehrlich chemotherapy B) Koch aseptic surgery C) Pasteur proof of biogenesis D) Jenner vaccination 2) Which of the following statements about viruses is false? A) They lack cells. B) They cannot metabolize nutrients. C) They cannot reproduce themselves. D) They have both DNA and RNA. 3) Who proved that microorganisms cause disease? A) Fleming B) Koch C) van Leeuwenhoek D) Pasteur 4) You are observing a cell through a microscope and note that it has no apparent nucleus. You conclude that it most likely A) Has a peptidoglycan cell wall. B) Has a cellulose cell wall. C) Moves by pseudopods. D) Is part of a multicellular animal. 5) A multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives in an animal host is a(n) A) Alga. B) Bacterium. C) Fungus. D) Helminth. 6) You are looking at a white cottony growth on a culture medium. Microscopic examination reveals it is multicellular. Which of the following conclusions about this organism is false? A) It has cell walls. B) It has DNA enclosed in a nucleus. C) It is eukaryotic. D) It is a bacterium. 7) Fungi differ from bacteria in that fungi A) Have cell walls. B) Have DNA. C) Have a nucleus. D) Spoil food.

8) Regular use of antibacterial cleaning products A) Prevents occurrence of infections. B) Is necessary for good health. C) Promotes survival of bacteria that are resistant. D) Prevents bacteria from growing. 9) Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a A) Depletion of nutrients. B) Hypotonic environment. C) Lower osmotic pressure. D) Hypertonic environment. 10) The term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that A) Doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it. B) Is killed by oxygen. C) Uses oxygen or grows without oxygen. D) Requires less oxygen than is present in air. 11) Which of the following is an advantage of the standard plate count? A) Can readily count cells that form aggregates B) Requires incubation time C) Determines the number of viable cells D) Chemical and physical requirements are determined by media and incubation. 12) Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of undiluted sample in a standard plate count. How many cells were in the original sample? A) 4 B) 9 C) 18 D) 36 13) A culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms grow and a yellow halo surrounds Staphylococcus aureus colonies is called a(n) A) Selective medium. B) Differential medium. C) Enrichment culture. D) A and B 14) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Psychrotroph growth at 0C B) Thermophile growth at 37C C) Mesophile growth at 25C D) Psychrophile growth at 15C 15) During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin? A) Lag phase B) Log phase C) Death phase D) Stationary phase

16) Three cells with generation times of 30 minutes are inoculated into a culture medium. How many cells are there after 5 hours? A) 3 210 B) 1024 C) 243 D) 48 17) Place the following surfactants in order from the most effective to the least effective antimicrobial activity: 1-Soap; 2-Acid-anionic detergent; 3-Quats. A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 3, 2 C) 2, 1, 3 D) 3, 2, 1 18) Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization? A) Dry heat B) Pasteurization C) Autoclave D) Formaldehyde 19) Which concentration of ethanol is the most effective bactericide? A) 100% B) 70% C) 50% D) 40% 20) Which of the following substances is NOT used to preserve foods? A) Biguanides B) Nisin C) Potassium sorbate D) Sodium nitrite 21) Toxoid vaccines such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus elicit a(n) A) TC cell response. B) Immune complex. C) Dendritic cell proliferation. D) Antibody response against these bacterial toxins. 22) What type of immunity results from vaccination? A) Innate immunity B) Naturally acquired active immunity C) Naturally acquired passive immunity D) Artificially acquired active immunity

23) What type of immunity is NOT due to antibodies? A) Innate immunity B) Naturally acquired active immunity C) Naturally acquired passive immunity D) Artificially acquired active immunity 24) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cellular immunity? A) The cells originate in bone marrow. B) Cells are processed in the thymus gland. C) It can inhibit the immune response. D) B cells make antibodies. 25) The best definition of antigen is A) Something foreign in the body. B) A chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies. C) A chemical that combines with antibodies. D) A pathogen. 26) Which one of the following causes transmembrane channels in target cells? A) Antigen B) Hapten C) IL-1 D) Perforin 27) A drug that inhibits mitosis, such as griseofulvin, would be more effective against A) Gram-positive bacteria. B) Gram-negative bacteria. C) Fungi. D) Wall-less bacteria. 28) Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic? A) Competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis B) Inhibition of RNA synthesis C) Injury to plasma membrane D) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis 29) Which of the following statements about drug resistance is false? A) It may be carried on a plasmid. B) It may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation. C) It may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics. D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria. 30) Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because A) Bacteria from other animals replace those killed by the antibiotics. B) The few surviving bacteria that are affected by the antibiotics develop immunity to the antibiotics, which they pass on to their progeny. C) The antibiotics cause new mutations to occur in the surviving bacteria, which results in resistance to antibiotics. D) The antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal.

31) Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against A) Viruses. B) Bacteria. C) Fungi. D) Protozoa. 32) Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by the catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescent stages? A) Bordetella pertussis B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis D) Streptococcus pyogenes 33) The recurrence of influenza epidemics is due to A) Lack of antiviral drugs. B) The Guillain-Barr syndrome. C) Antigenic shift. D) Lack of naturally acquired active immunity. 34) The symptoms of tetanus are due to A) Deep puncture wounds. B) Hemolysins. C) Lack of oxygen. D) Clostridial neurotoxin. 35) Which of the following is NOT caused by prions? A) Sheep scrapie B) Rabies C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D) Kuru 36) An 8-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother, who had shingles. What infection does the 8-year-old have? A) Chickenpox B) Measles C) Fever blisters D) Scabies 37) Thrush and vaginitis are caused by A) Herpesvirus. B) Chlamydia trachomatis. C) Candida albicans. D) Staphylococcus aureus.

38) The etiologic agent of chickenpox is A) Herpes simplex. B) Herpes zoster. C) HHV-6. D) Poxvirus. 39) Which of the following is used to treat smallpox? A) Penicillin B) Sulfonamide C) Fungicide D) None of the above 40) A 35-year-old woman has a red, raised rash on the inside of her thighs. Gram-stained skin scrapings show large budding cells with pseudohyphae. The infection is caused by A) Candida albicans. B) Herpes simplex virus. C) Staphylococcus aureus. D) Streptococcus pyogenes.