Scholarship Chemistry 2nd Semester Examination practice

Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. What type of ions have names ending in -ide? a only cations . b only anions . c . d . only metal ions only gaseous ions

____

2. What is the correct name for the N a nitrate ion . b nitrogen ion .

ion? c . d . nitride ion nitrite ion

____

3. When naming a transition metal ion that can have more than one common ionic charge, the numerical value of the charge is indicated by a ____. a prefix c Roman numeral following the name . . b suffix d superscript after the name . .

____

4. In which of the following are the symbol and name for the ion given correctly? a Fe : ferrous ion; Fe : ferric ion . b Sn : stannic ion; Sn : stannous ion . c Co : cobalt(II) ion; Co : cobaltous ion . d Pb : lead ion; Pb : lead(IV) ion .

____

5. Which of the following is NOT a cation? a iron(III) ion . b sulfate .

c . d .

Ca mercurous ion

____

6. In which of the following are the symbol and name for the ion given correctly? a NH : ammonia; H : hydride c OH : hydroxide; O : oxide . . b C H O : acetate; C O : oxalite d PO : phosphate; PO : phosphite

____

7. An -ate or -ite at the end of a compound name usually indicates that the compound contains ____. a fewer electrons than protons c only two elements . . b neutral molecules d a polyatomic anion . .

____

8. Which of the following compounds contains the Mn ion? a MnS c Mn O . . b MnBr d MnO . .

____

9. How are chemical formulas of binary ionic compounds generally written? a cation on left, anion on right . b anion on left, cation on right . c Roman numeral first, then anion, then cation . d subscripts first, then ions .

____ 10. Which of the following formulas represents an ionic compound? a CS c N O . . b BaI d PCl . .

____ 11. Which of the following compounds contains the lead(II) ion? a PbO c Pb2O . . b PbCl4 d Pb2S . .

____ 12. Which set of chemical name and chemical formula for the same compound is correct? a ammonium sulfite, (NH ) S c lithium carbonate, LiCO . . b iron(III) phosphate, FePO d magnesium dichromate, MgCrO . .

____ 13. Molecular compounds are usually ____. a composed of two or more transition elements . b composed of positive and negative ions . c composed of two or more nonmetallic elements . d exceptions to the law of definite proportions .

____ 14. When naming acids, the prefix hydro- is used when the name of the acid anion ends in ____. a -ide c -ate . . b -ite d -ic . .

____ 15. When the name of an anion that is part of an acid ends in -ite, the acid name includes the suffix ____. a -ous c -ate . . b -ic d -ite . .

____ 16. In any chemical compound, the elements are always combined in the same proportion by ____. a charge c volume . . b mass d density . .

____ 17. Which of the following pairs of substances best illustrates the law of multiple proportions? a H and O c CaCl and CaBr . . b P O and PH d NO and NO . .

____ 18. What SI unit is used to measure the number of representative particles in a substance? a kilogram c kelvin . . b ampere d mole . .

____ 19. Avogadro's number of representative particles is equal to one ____. a kilogram c kelvin . . b gram d mole

____ 20. How many moles of silver atoms are in 1.8 a 3.0 10 . b 3.3 10 .

10 atoms of silver? c 3.0 10 . d 1.1 10 .

____ 21. How many molecules are in 2.10 mol CO ? a 2.53 10 molecules . b 3.79 10 molecules .

c . d .

3.49 1.26

10 10

molecules molecules

____ 22. The atomic masses of any two elements contain the same number of ____. a atoms c ions . . b grams d milliliters . .

____ 23. What is true about the molar mass of chlorine gas? a The molar mass is 35.5 g. . b The molar mass is 71.0 g. . c The molar mass is equal to the mass of one mole of chlorine atoms. . d none of the above .

____ 24. The molar mass of C H a carbon atoms . b anions .

and the molar mass of CaCO contain approximately the same number of ____. c cations . d grams .

____ 25. How many moles of CaBr are in 5.0 grams of CaBr ? a 2.5 10 mol c 4.0 10 mol . . b 4.2 10 mol d 1.0 10 mol . .

____ 26. What is the number of moles in 500 L of He gas at STP? a 0.05 mol c 22 mol . . b 0.2 mol d 90 mol . .

____ 27. What is the percent composition of chromium in BaCrO ? a 4.87% c 20.5% . . b 9.47% d 25.2% . .

____ 28. The lowest whole-number ratio of the elements in a compound is called the ____. a empirical formula c binary formula . . b molecular formula d representative formula . .

____ 29. Which of the following is NOT an empirical formula? a C N H c BeCr O . . b C H O d Sb S . .

____ 30. What is the empirical formula of a substance that is 53.5% C, 15.5% H, and 31.1% N by weight? a C HN c C H N . . b C H N d CH N . .

____ 31. Which of the following sets of empirical formula, molar mass, and molecular formula is correct? a CH, 78 g, C H c CaO, 56 g, Ca O . . b CH N, 90 g, C H N d C H O, 120 g, C H O . .

____ 32. What does the symbol in a chemical equation mean? a Heat is supplied to the reaction. c yields . . b A catalyst is needed. d precipitate . .

____ 33. A skeleton equation does NOT show which of the following? a the correct formulas of the reactants and products . b the reactants on the left, the products on the right . c an arrow connecting the reactants to the products . d the relative amounts of reactants and products .

____ 34. In the chemical equation H O (aq) H O(l) a catalyst . b solid .

c . d .

O (g), the product reactant

is a ____.

____ 35. Which of the following is the correct skeleton equation for the reaction that takes place when solid phosphorus combines with oxygen gas to form diphosphorus pentoxide? a P(s) O (g) PO (g) c P(s) O (g) P O (s) 2 . . b P(s) O(g) P O (g) d P O (s) P (s) O (g) . .

____ 36. What are the coefficients that will balance the skeleton equation below? AlCl + NaOH a 1, 3, 1, 3 . b 3, 1, 3, 1 . Al(OH) NaCl c . d . 1, 1, 1, 3 1, 3, 3, 1

____ 37. Which of the following statements is NOT true about what happens in all chemical reactions? a The ways in which atoms are joined together are changed. . b New atoms are formed as products. . c The starting substances are called reactants. . d The bonds of the reactants are broken and new bonds of the products are formed. .

____ 38. What are the missing coefficients for the skeleton equation below? Cr(s) Fe(NO ) (aq) a 4, 6, 6, 2 Fe(s) Cr(NO ) (aq) c 2, 3, 3, 2

. b 2, 3, 2, 3 .

. d .

1, 3, 3, 1

____ 39. In order to predict whether or not a single-replacement reaction takes place, you need to consult a chart that shows the ____. a periodic table . b activity series of metals . c common polyatomic ions . d ionic charges of representative elements .

____ 40. In order for the reaction 2Al 6HCl 2AlCl a Al must be above Cl on the activity series. . b Al must be above H on the activity series. . c Heat must be supplied for the reaction. . d A precipitate must be formed. .

3H to occur, which of the following must be true?

____ 41. What are the correct formulas and coefficients for the products of the following double-replacement reaction? RbOH H PO a Rb(PO ) H O . b RbPO 2H O . c . d . Rb PO H Rb 3H O PO OH

____ 42. A double-replacement reaction takes place when aqueous cobalt(III) chloride reacts with aqueous lithium hydroxide. One of the products of this reaction is ____. a Co(OH) c LiCo . . b Co(OH) d LiCl . .

____ 43. The first step in most stoichiometry problems is to ____. a add the coefficients of the reagents c convert given quantities to volumes . . b convert given quantities to moles d convert given quantities to masses . .

____ 44. Which of the following is true about the total number of reactants and the total number of products in the reaction shown below? C a . b . c . d . H (l) + 8O (g) 5CO (g) + 6H O(g) 9 moles of reactants chemically change into 11 moles of product. 9 grams of reactants chemically change into 11 grams of product. 9 liters of reactants chemically change into 11 liters of product. 9 atoms of reactants chemically change into 11 atoms of product.

____ 45. How many moles of aluminum are needed to react completely with 1.2 mol of FeO? 2Al(s) + 3FeO(s) 3Fe(s) + Al O (s) a 1.2 mol . b 0.8 mol . c . d . 1.6 mol 2.4 mol

____ 46. How many moles of glucose, C H O , can be "burned" biologically when 10.0 mol of oxygen is available? C H O (s) + 6O (g) 6CO (g) + 6H O(l) a 0.938 mol . b 1.67 mol . c . d . 53.3 mol 60.0 mol

____ 47. At STP, how many liters of oxygen are required to react completely with 3.6 liters of hydrogen to form water? 2H (g) + O (g) 2H O(g) a 1.8 L . b 3.6 L . c . d . 2.0 L 2.4 L

____ 48. The equation below shows the decomposition of lead nitrate. How many grams of oxygen are produced when 11.5 g NO is formed? a 1.00 g . b 2.00 g . c . d . 2.88 g 32.0 g

____ 49. Which of the following statements is true about the following reaction? 3NaHCO (aq) + C H O (aq) 3CO (g) + 3H O(s) +Na C H O (aq) a 22.4 L of CO (g) are produced for every liter of C H O (aq) reacted. . b 1 mole of water is produced for every mole of carbon dioxide produced. . c 6.02 10 molecules of Na C H O (aq) are produced for every mole of NaHCO (aq) . used. d 54 g of water are produced for every mole of NaHCO (aq) produced. .

____ 50. Which of the following is NOT true about limiting and excess reagents? a The amount of product obtained is determined by the limiting reagent. . b A balanced equation is necessary to determine which reactant is the limiting reagent. . c Some of the excess reagent is left over after the reaction is complete. . d The reactant that has the smallest given mass is the limiting reagent. .

____ 51. Identify the limiting reagent and the volume of CO formed when 11 L CS reacts with 18 L O to produce CO gas and SO gas at STP. CS (g) + 3O (g) CO (g) + 2SO (g) a CS ; 5.5 L CO . b O ; 6.0 L CO . c . d . CS ; 11 L CO O ; 27 L CO

____ 52. Which statement is true if 12 mol CO and 12 mol Fe O are allowed to react? 3CO(g) + Fe O (s) 2Fe(s) + 3CO (g) a The limiting reagent is CO and 8.0 mol Fe will be formed. . b The limiting reagent is CO and 3.0 mol CO will be formed. . c The limiting reagent is Fe O and 24 mol Fe will be formed. . d The limiting reagent is Fe O and 36 mol CO will be formed. .

____ 53. Which of the following is NOT true about "yield"? a The value of the actual yield must be given in order for the percent yield to be calculated.

. b . c . d .

The percent yield is the ratio of the actual yield to the theoretical yield. The actual yield may be different from the theoretical yield because reactions do not always go to completion. The actual yield may be different from the theoretical yield because insufficient limiting reagent was used.

____ 54. In a particular reaction between copper metal and silver nitrate, 12.7 g Cu produced 38.1 g Ag. What is the percent yield of silver in this reaction? Cu + 2AgNO a 56.7% . b 77.3% . Cu(NO ) + 2Ag c . d . 88.2% 176%

____ 55. According to the kinetic theory, collisions between molecules in a gas ____. a are perfectly elastic c never occur . . b are inelastic d cause a loss of total kinetic energy . .

____ 56. Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the kinetic theory? a There is no attraction between particles of a gas. . b Only particles of matter in the gaseous state are in constant motion. . c The particles of a gas collide with each other and with other objects. . d All of the statements are true. .

____ 57. What is the SI unit of pressure? a candela . b mole .

c . d .

pascal newton

____ 58. What is one standard atmosphere of pressure in kilopascals? a 0 kPa c 101.3 kPa . . b 760 kPa d 1 kPa . .

____ 59. How does the atmospheric pressure at altitudes below sea level compare with atmospheric pressure at sea level? a The atmospheric pressure below sea level is higher. . b The atmospheric pressure below sea level is lower. . c The pressures are the same. . d Differences in pressures cannot be determined. .

____ 60. What happens to the average kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of matter as the temperature of the sample is increased? a The average kinetic energy decreases. . b The average kinetic energy increases. . c The average kinetic energy does not change. . d The change in average kinetic energy cannot be determined. .

____ 61. With which temperature scale is temperature directly proportional to average kinetic energy? a Celsius c Kelvin . . b Fahrenheit d centigrade . .

____ 62. Consider an iron cube and an aluminum cube. If the two cubes were at the same temperature, how would the average kinetic energy of the particles in iron compare with the average kinetic energy of the particles in aluminum? a The average kinetic energy of the iron particles would be greater. . b The average kinetic energy of the aluminum particles would be greater. . c There would be no difference in the average kinetic energies. . d No determination can be made based on the information given. .

____ 63. What is the key difference between a liquid and a gas? a intermolecular attractions c average kinetic energy . . b the ability to flow d the motion of their particles . .

____ 64. Why does a liquid's rate of evaporation increase when the liquid is heated? a More molecules have enough energy to overcome the attractive forces holding them in . the liquid. b The average kinetic energy of the liquid decreases. . c The surface area of the liquid is reduced. . d The potential energy of the liquid increases. .

____ 65. If a liquid is sealed in a container and kept at constant temperature, how does its vapor pressure change over time? a It continues to steadily increase. . b It increases at first, then remains constant. . c It increases at first, then decreases. . d It continues to steadily decrease. .

____ 66. When the vapor pressure of a liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure, the liquid ____. a has no observable changes. c evaporates. . . b boils vigorously. d begins to boil. . .

____ 67. What is the pressure when a liquid is boiling at its normal boiling point? a 0 kPa c 202 kPa . . b 101.3 kPa d 505 kPa . .

____ 68. When the external pressure is 505 kPa, what is the vapor pressure of water at its boiling point? a 0 kPa c 505 kPa . . b 101.3 kPa d 1010 kPa . .

____ 69. The normal boiling point of chloroform, which has a higher vapor pressure than water at 100 C, is ____. a higher than the normal boiling point of water . b lower than the normal boiling point of water

. c the same as the normal boiling point of water . d unable to be measured .

____ 70. The direct change of a substance from a solid to a gas is called ____. a evaporation c condensation . . b sublimation d solidification . .

____ 71. How are conditions of pressure and temperature, at which two phases coexist in equilibrium, shown on a phase diagram? a by a line separating the phases . b by the endpoints of the line segment separating the phases . c by the planar regions between lines in the diagram . d by a triple point on the diagram .

____ 72. Why is a gas easier to compress than a liquid or a solid? a Its volume increases more under pressure than an equal volume of liquid does. . b Its volume increases more under pressure than an equal volume of solid does. . c The space between gas particles is much less than the space between liquid or solid . particles. d The volume of a gass particles is small compared to the overall volume of the gas. .

____ 73. Why does the pressure inside a container of gas increase if more gas is added to the container? a There is an increase in the number of collisions between particles and the walls of the . container. b There is an increase in the temperature of the gas. . c There is a decrease in the volume of the gas. . d There is an increase in the force of the collisions between the particles and the walls of . the container.

____ 74. If the volume of a container of gas is reduced, what will happen to the pressure inside the container? a The pressure will increase.

. b The pressure will not change. . c The pressure will decrease. . d The pressure depends on the type of gas. .

____ 75. As the temperature of the gas in a balloon decreases, which of the following occurs? a The volume of the balloon increases. . b The average kinetic energy of the gas decreases. . c The gas pressure inside the balloon increases. . d all of the above .

____ 76. Why does air escape from a tire when the tire valve is opened? a The pressure outside the tire is lower than the pressure inside the tire. . b The pressure outside the tire is greater than the pressure inside the tire. . c The temperature is higher outside the tire than inside the tire. . d There are more particles of air outside the tire than inside the tire. .

____ 77. The volume of a gas is doubled while the temperature is held constant. How does the gas pressure change? a It is reduced by one half. . b It does not change. . c It is doubled. . d It varies depending on the type of gas. .

____ 78. When the pressure and number of particles of a gas are constant, which of the following is also constant? a the sum of the volume and temperature in kelvins . b the difference of the volume and temperature in kelvins . c the product of the volume and temperature in kelvins . d the ratio of the volume and temperature in kelvins

____ 79. A gas occupies a volume of 2.4 L at 14.1 kPa. What volume will the gas occupy at 84.6 kPa? a 497 L c 14 L . . b 2.5 L d 0.40 L . .

____ 80. If a balloon containing 3000 L of gas at 39 C and 99 kPa rises to an altitude where the pressure is 45.5 kPa and the temperature is 16 C, the volume of the balloon under these new conditions would be calculated using the following conversion factor ratios: ____. a c . . 3000 L 3000 L b d . . 3000 L 3000 L

____ 81. How is the ideal gas law usually written? a . =R b . = nR

c . d .

PV = nRT

P=

____ 82. If the atmospheric pressure on Mt. Everest is one-third the atmospheric pressure at sea level, the partial pressure of oxygen on Everest is ____. a one-sixth its pressure at sea level c one-half its pressure at sea level . . b one-third its pressure at sea level d equal to its pressure at sea level . .

____ 83. If oxygen is removed from a sample of air as iron rusts, what happens to the partial pressure of oxygen in the air? a It increases. c It decreases. . . b It stays the same. d The change cannot be determined. . .

____ 84. When a container is filled with 3.00 moles of H , 2.00 moles of O , and 1.00 mole of N , the pressure in the container is 768 kPa. What is the partial pressure of O ? a 256 kPa c 128 kPa . .

b 128 kPa .

d .

192 kPa

____ 85. The tendency of molecules to move toward areas of lower concentration is called ____. a suffusion c effusion . . b suspension d diffusion . .

____ 86. Which of the following gases will effuse the most rapidly? a bromine c ammonia . . b chlorine d hydrogen . .

____ 87. What causes water's low vapor pressure? a dispersion forces . b covalent bonding .

c . d .

hydrogen bonding ionic attractions

____ 88. Which atom in a water molecule has the greatest electronegativity? a one of the hydrogen atoms . b both hydrogen atoms . c the oxygen atom . d There is no difference in the electronegativities of the atoms in a water molecule. .

____ 89. The fact that ice is less dense than water is related to the fact that ____. a the molecular structure of ice is much less orderly than that of water . b the molecules of ice are held to each other by covalent bonding . c ice has a molecular structure in which water molecules are arranged randomly . d ice has a molecular structure that is an open framework held together by hydrogen bonds .

____ 90. Which of the following substances is the most soluble in water? a sodium chloride c bromine . .

b methane .

d .

carbon

____ 91. Which of the following substances dissolves most readily in gasoline? a CH c NH . . b HCl d NaBr . .

____ 92. An electric current can be conducted by ____. a methane gas . b a sugar solution .

c . d .

a salt solution rubbing alcohol

____ 93. Which of the following materials is NOT a colloid? a glue c smoke . . b alloy d muddy water . .

____ 94. Which of the following usually makes a substance dissolve faster in a solvent? a agitating the solution . b increasing the particle size of the solute . c lowering the temperature . d decreasing the number of particles .

____ 95. Which of the following expressions is generally used for solubility? a grams of solute per 100 grams of solvent . b grams of solute per 100 milliliters of solvent . c grams of solute per 100 grams of solution . d grams of solute per 100 milliliters of solution .

____ 96. The solubility of a gas in a liquid is ____. a proportional to the square root of the pressure of the gas above the liquid .

b directly proportional to the pressure of the gas above the liquid . c inversely proportional to the pressure of the gas above the liquid . d unrelated to the pressure of the gas above the liquid .

____ 97. To increase the solubility of a gas at constant temperature from 1.20 g/L, at 1.4 atm, to 2.3 g/L, the pressure would have to be increased to ____. a 0.37 atm c 1.37 atm . . b 0.7 atm d 2.7 atm . .

____ 98. In which of the following is the solution concentration expressed in terms of molarity? a c . . b . d .

____ 99. What is the molarity of a solution containing 56 grams of solute in 959 mL of solution? (molar mass of solute = 26 g/mol) a 1.5M c 2.1M . . b 2.2M d 0.0022M . .

____ 100. The volume of alcohol present in 620 mL of a 40.0% (v/v) solution of alcohol is ____. a 372 mL c 248 mL . . b 40.0 mL d 580 mL . .

____ 101. Colligative properties depend upon the ____. a nature of the solute . b nature of the solvent .

c . d .

number of solute particles in a solution freezing point of a solute

____ 102. The molality of a solution containing 8.1 moles of solute in 4847 g of solvent is ____. a 39m c 0.17m . .

b 1.7m .

d .

598m

____ 103. What is the mole fraction of ethanol in a solution of 3.00 moles of ethanol and 5.00 moles of water? a 0.375 c 1.67 . . b 0.6 d 15 . .

____ 104. To which of the following variables is change in boiling point directly proportional? a molarity of solution c percent by volume of solution . . b molality of solution d percent (mass/mass) of solution . .

____ 105. The freezing point of a solution that contains 0.550 moles of NaI in 615 g of water is ____. ( K = 1.86 C/m; molar mass of water = 18 g) a 1.66 C c 3.33 C . . b 1.66 C d 3.33 C . .

____ 106. What is the boiling point of a solution of 0.1 mole of glucose in 200 mL of water? ( K = 0.512 C/m) a 100.06 C c 100.26 C . . b 100.13 C d 100.5 C . .

____ 107. How does a calorie compare to a joule? a A calorie is smaller than a joule. . b A calorie is larger than a joule. .

c . d .

A calorie is equal to a joule. The relationship cannot be determined.

____ 108. If heat is released by a chemical system, an equal amount of heat will be ____. a absorbed by the surroundings c released by the surroundings . . b absorbed by the universe d released by the universe . .

____ 109. What is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 200.0 g of aluminum by 10 C? (specific heat of aluminum = 0.21 a 420 cal . b 4200 cal . ) c . d . 42,000 cal 420,000 cal

____ 110. What does the symbol H stand for? a the specific heat of a substance . b the heat capacity of a substance . c the heat of reaction for a chemical reaction . d one Calorie given off by a reaction .

____ 111. The heat content of a system is equal to the enthalpy only for a system that is at constant ____. a temperature c pressure . . b volume d mass . .

____ 112. Calculate the energy required to produce 7.00 mol Cl O on the basis of the following balanced equation. 2Cl (g) + 7O (g) + 130 kcal a 7.00 kcal . b 65 kcal . 2Cl O (g) c . d . 130 kcal 455 kcal

Scholarship Chemistry 2nd Semesrer Examination 2005/2006 Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: B 2. ANS: C 3. ANS: C OBJ: 9.1.1 4. ANS: A OBJ: 9.1.1 5. ANS: B OBJ: 9.1.1, 9.1.2 6. ANS: C OBJ: 9.1.1, 9.1.2 7. ANS: D 8. ANS: C OBJ: 9.2.1 9. ANS: A 10. ANS: B 11. ANS: A OBJ: 9.2.1 12. ANS: B OBJ: 9.1.3, 9.2.2 13. ANS: C 14. ANS: A 15. ANS: A 16. ANS: B 17. ANS: D 18. ANS: D DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 REF: p. 254 REF: p. 254 REF: p. 254, p. 255 REF: p. 254, p. 255 REF: p. 254, p. 255, p. 257 REF: p. 254, p. 257 REF: p. 257 REF: p. 262, p. 263 REF: p. 261 REF: p. 262 REF: p. 262, p. 263 REF: p. 264, p. 265, p. 266 REF: p. 268 REF: p. 272 REF: p. 272 REF: p. 274 REF: p. 274 REF: p. 290 OBJ: 9.3.1, 9.3.2 OBJ: 9.4.1 OBJ: 9.4.1 OBJ: 9.5.1 OBJ: 9.5.1 OBJ: 10.1.2 OBJ: 9.2.1 OBJ: 9.2.1 OBJ: 9.1.2 OBJ: 9.1.1 OBJ: 9.1.1

19. ANS: D 20. ANS: A OBJ: 10.1.2 21. ANS: D OBJ: 10.1.2 22. ANS: A 23. ANS: B 24. ANS: D OBJ: 10.1.4 25. ANS: A 26. ANS: C 27. ANS: C 28. ANS: A 29. ANS: A 30. ANS: C 31. ANS: B 32. ANS: A 33. ANS: D 34. ANS: C 35. ANS: C 36. ANS: A OBJ: 11.1.3 37. ANS: B 38. ANS: C OBJ: 11.1.3 39. ANS: B 40. ANS: B

DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L1

REF: p. 290 REF: p. 290, p. 291 REF: p. 291, p. 292 REF: p. 294 REF: p. 294 REF: p. 295, p. 296 REF: p. 299 REF: p. 301 REF: p. 307 REF: p. 309 REF: p. 309 REF: p. 310 REF: p. 312 REF: p. 323 REF: p. 323 REF: p. 323 REF: p. 323 REF: p. 324, p. 325 REF: p. 325 REF: p. 324, p. 325 REF: p. 333 REF: p. 333

OBJ: 10.1.2

OBJ: 10.1.3 OBJ: 10.1.3

OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.3.1 OBJ: 10.3.2 OBJ: 10.3.2 OBJ: 10.3.2 OBJ: 10.3.3 OBJ: 11.1.2 OBJ: 11.1.2 OBJ: 11.1.2 OBJ: 11.1.2

OBJ: 11.1.3

OBJ: 11.2.1 OBJ: 11.2.1

41. ANS: C OBJ: 11.2.1 42. ANS: A OBJ: 11.2.2 43. ANS: B 44. ANS: A 45. ANS: B OBJ: 12.2.1 46. ANS: B OBJ: 12.2.1 47. ANS: A OBJ: 12.2.2 48. ANS: B OBJ: 12.2.2 49. ANS: B OBJ: 12.2.2 50. ANS: D 51. ANS: B 52. ANS: A 53. ANS: D 54. ANS: C 55. ANS: A 56. ANS: B 57. ANS: C 58. ANS: C 59. ANS: A 60. ANS: B 61. ANS: C

DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L1

REF: p. 334, p. 335 REF: p. 334, p. 335 REF: p. 356 REF: p. 356 REF: p. 359, p. 360 REF: p. 359, p. 360 REF: p. 363, p. 364, p. 365, p. 366 REF: p. 360, p. 361, p. 362 REF: p. 363, p. 364, p. 365, p. 366 REF: p. 369 REF: p. 371 REF: p. 369 REF: p. 372 REF: p. 375 REF: p. 385 REF: p. 385 REF: p. 387 REF: p. 387 REF: p. 386 REF: p. 388 REF: p. 389 OBJ: 12.3.1 OBJ: 12.3.1 OBJ: 12.3.1 OBJ: 12.3.2 OBJ: 12.3.2 OBJ: 13.1.1 OBJ: 13.1.1 OBJ: 13.1.2 OBJ: 13.1.2 OBJ: 13.1.2 OBJ: 13.1.3 OBJ: 13.1.3 OBJ: 12.1.2 OBJ: 12.1.2

62. ANS: C 63. ANS: A 64. ANS: A 65. ANS: B 66. ANS: D 67. ANS: B 68. ANS: C 69. ANS: B OBJ: 13.2.4 70. ANS: B 71. ANS: A 72. ANS: D OBJ: 14.1.1 73. ANS: A 74. ANS: A 75. ANS: B 76. ANS: A 77. ANS: A 78. ANS: D 79. ANS: D 80. ANS: C 81. ANS: C 82. ANS: B 83. ANS: C 84. ANS: A 85. ANS: D

DIF: L3 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L3 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L1

REF: p. 388 REF: p. 390 REF: p. 391 REF: p. 392 REF: p. 393 REF: p. 395 REF: p. 394 REF: p. 394, p. 395 REF: p. 401 REF: p. 402 REF: p. 413, p. 414 REF: p. 415 REF: p. 416 REF: p. 417 REF: p. 416 REF: p. 418 REF: p. 421 REF: p. 419 REF: p. 419 REF: p. 426 REF: p. 433 REF: p. 433 REF: p. 434 REF: p. 435

OBJ: 13.1.3 OBJ: 13.2.1 OBJ: 13.2.2 OBJ: 13.2.3 OBJ: 13.2.4 OBJ: 13.2.4 OBJ: 13.2.4

OBJ: 13.4.1 OBJ: 13.4.2

OBJ: 14.1.2 OBJ: 14.1.2 OBJ: 14.1.2 OBJ: 14.1.2 OBJ: 14.2.1 OBJ: 14.2.1 OBJ: 14.2.1 OBJ: 14.2.2 OBJ: 14.3.1 OBJ: 14.4.1 OBJ: 14.4.1 OBJ: 14.4.1 OBJ: 14.4.2

86. ANS: D 87. ANS: C 88. ANS: C 89. ANS: D OBJ: 15.1.2 90. ANS: A 91. ANS: A 92. ANS: C OBJ: 15.2.3 93. ANS: B 94. ANS: A OBJ: 16.1.1 95. ANS: A 96. ANS: B 97. ANS: D OBJ: 16.1.4 98. ANS: D OBJ: 16.2.1 99. ANS: B 100. ANS: C 101. ANS: C OBJ: 16.3.1 102. ANS: B 103. ANS: A 104. ANS: B 105. ANS: D 106. ANS: C OBJ: 16.4.2

DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L3 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L3

REF: p. 436 REF: p. 447 REF: p. 446 REF: p. 448, p. 449 REF: p. 451 REF: p. 451 REF: p. 452, p. 453 REF: p. 460 REF: p. 471, p. 472 REF: p. 473 REF: p. 476 REF: p. 476, p. 477 REF: p. 480, p. 481 REF: p. 481 REF: p. 485 REF: p. 487, p. 488 REF: p. 491 REF: p. 492 REF: p. 494 REF: p. 495 REF: p. 495, p. 496

OBJ: 14.4.2 OBJ: 15.1.1 OBJ: 15.1.1

OBJ: 15.2.2 OBJ: 15.2.2

OBJ: 15.3.2

OBJ: 16.1.2 OBJ: 16.1.3

OBJ: 16.2.1 OBJ: 16.2.3

OBJ: 16.4.1 OBJ: 16.4.1 OBJ: 16.4.2 OBJ: 16.4.2

107. ANS: B 108. ANS: A 109. ANS: A 110. ANS: C 111. ANS: C 112. ANS: D

DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 DIF: L2

REF: p. 506 REF: p. 506 REF: p. 508 REF: p. 514 REF: p. 511 REF: p. 515

OBJ: 17.1.1 OBJ: 17.1.1 OBJ: 17.1.3 OBJ: 17.2.1 OBJ: 17.2.1 OBJ: 17.2.2