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SEMESTER 2 TEST QUESTIONS

NERVOUS SYSTEM OBJECTIVE 1. The graph shows the potential difference across an axon membrane. Which part of the graph shows the action potential? (tx)

A. B. C. D.

iii, iv and v ii, iii, iv and v I, ii, iii, and iv I, ii, iii, iv and v

2. The function of acetylcholinesterase is (tx) A. to activate the release of acetylcholine from the synaptic knob. B. To break down acetylcholine. C. To synthesise acetycholine from choline and acetyl CoA. D. To activate the sodium ligand-gated channel on the postsynaptic membrane. 3. The diagram below shows a portion of a partially contracted myofibril, taken from a striated muscle fibre. (tx)

Which one of the following corredtly indicates the composition of the A, H and I bands? A band A B C D Actin Myosin only Actin and myosin Actin and myosin H band Actin and myosin Actin only Myosin only Actin only I band Myosin only Actin and myosin Actin only Myosin only

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4. The diagram shows a part of a muscle fibre taken from an electromicro-graph. (tx)

What is M, N, and O ? M T tubule T tubule Terminal cisterna Terminal cisterna N Terminal cisterna myofibril T tubule myofibril O myofibril Terminal cisterna myofibril T tubule

A B C D

5. Which of the following is true of the sympathetic nervous system? (tx) I. Increases the heart rate II. Increases the digestive rate III. Has short preganglionic taxons and long postganglionic axins IV. Norepinephrine is secreted at the junction with effector tissue A. I and II B. I, II and IV C. II, III and IV D. I, II, III and IV

6. The table shows the effects of four different drugs on synaptic transmission (tx) Drug I II III IV Effect inhibit release of acetylcholine inhibits cholinesterase inhibits reuptake of dopamine competes with acetylcholine at receptor sites

Which are the effects of the druges curare and cocaine? A. I and II C. II and IV B. II and III D. III and IV

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7. The following diagram shows the changes in membrane potential in an axon

I. Na+ channels open II. K+ channels open III. Na+ channels close IV. K+ channels close What happens at points M, N and O? M I I II II N III, II III III IV, I O IV II I III

A B C D

8. When action potential is generated, the potential across the axon membrane changes from A. -40mV inside to +70mV inside B. -70mV inside to +40mV inside C. +40mV inside to -70mV inside D. +70mV inside to -40mV inside 9. If the sodium-potassiuim pump in the membrane of a neurone is inactivated by a metabolic poison suc as cyanide, the restin potential across the membrane takes several hours to become zero. Why is there a delay? 10. Which of the following changes take place suring heperpilarisation of the postsynaptic membrane? Diffusion of ions from the synaptic cleft into the postsynaptic neurone ClK+ Na+ Ca2+ Diffusion of ions from postsynaptic neurone into the synaptic cleft K+ Na+ Ca2+ Na+

A B C D

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11. Depolarisation of the presynaptic membrane of an axon directly causes A. the voltage-gated calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane to open B. the synaptic vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane C. the action potential to be generated in the postsynaptic neurone D. the neurotransmitter to be released into the synaptic cleft. 12. The following are a few events involve in synaptic transmission. I. Na+ ion channels open, Na+ ions rush into the postsynaptic neurone II. Neurotransmitter is released ionto the synaptic cleft. III. Arrival of impulses at the synaptic knob depolarises the oresynaptic membrane. IV. Neurotransmitter attaches to a specific protein receptor on the postsynaptic membrane. V. Calcium ions rush into the synaptic knob. A. IIV IIIVII B. IIIVVIIII C. VIIIIVIII D. IIIVIIIVI 13. What are the roles of calcium ions in muscular contraction? I. Stimulate the release of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft II. Bind to the troponin; cause a change in its shape so that the myosin-binding sites on the actin filaments are exposed III. Deactivate ATPase A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I, II and III 14. The following table shows two types of nerves and their features Nervous system p parasympathetic nerve s synpathethic nerve Features of the nerves short preganglionic fibre neurotransmitter released by preganglionic neurone at the effector is acetylcholine III prepare the body for emergency IV decrease the strength and rate of heart beat I II

Which is the correct match? I II A s s B p p C s p D p s

III s p s p

15. Which of the following are true about the muscle fibre? I. The sarcolemma is a connective tissue holding the myofibrils together. II. The T system consists of tubules. III. Both actin and myosin filaments have cross-bridges. IV. Contains endoplasmic reticulum A. I and III B. II and IV C. I, II and III D. I, II, III and IV

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16. Which of the following membrane potential diagrams is correct when a nerve impulse is propagated in an axon? A.

+++++++ - - - - - - ++- - - ++ - - +++ - ++ - - - ++ ++ - - - ++ - - +++ - ++ - - - ++

Extracellular fluid Axoplasma Extracellular fluid Axoplasma Extracellular fluid Axoplasma Extracellular fluid Axoplasma

B. C. D.

17. The table below shows the events that occur during the contraction of muscles. I II III IV a cross-bridge is formed bwtween actin and myosin. Calcium ions bind to troponin. Tropomyosin is displaced, exposing the myosin binding site Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events after an impulse reaches a muscle? A. IIVIIIII C. IIIIIVII B. IIIIIIIV D. IVIIIII I

18. A transverse section of an axon is shown in the diagram below.

What does P represent? A. Axoplasm B. Neurilemma C. Schwann cell D. Myelin sheath

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STRUCTURE 1. The diagram shows the structure of a nerve synapse. (tx)

(a) Label structures A to F A: .... F: .... (b) Draw an arrow on the diagram to show the direstion of a nerve impulse (an action potential) in the presynaptic neurone. (c) Name a common neurotransmitter present in the synaptic vesicle. .. (d) Name an ion that (i) moves into the postsynaptic neurone in an excitory symapse. .. (ii) Moves out of the postsynaptic neurone in an inhibitory synapse. .. (e) Suggest one reason why structure C contains large numbers of organelle D. .. ..

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(f) (i) What is the major chemical component of structure A? .. (ii) State the functions of structure A and structure B. Structure A: .. .. Structure B .. ..

2. Figure below represents a longitudinal section through part of a striated muscle.

(a) (i) What is the term used to describe the complete structure from J to J shown above? [1 mark] . (ii) Identify the parts labeled J, K and L. [3 marks] J : . K : . L : .

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(b) The diagram shows the A band, the I band and the H zone. Which one or more of these (i) contains action but not myosin? . . (ii) shortens when the muscle contracts? . . [3 marks]

(c) Describe two roles played by each of the following in muscle contraction. (i) ATP [2 marks]

. . (ii) Calcium ions [1 mark

. .

ESSAY 1. Describe what happens (a) when an action potential arrives at a synaptic knob of an excitory synapse. (b) After a new action potential is generated at the postsynaptic neurone. 2. (a) Describe how a nerve impulse is transmitter along an axon (b) Outline the role of calcium ions in synaptic transmission [10 marks] [5 marks]

3. (a) Describe the mechanism of action of curare on the neuromuscular junction. [5 marks] (b) Describe the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction. [10 marks]

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HORMONE/CHEMICAL COORDINATION OBJECTIVE 1. Which of the following is correct? Hormone Epinephrine Insulin Thyroxine Aldoterone Secretory gland Adrenal medulla Pancreas Thyroid gland Adrenal cortex Effect Triggers fight or flight Increases blood Regulates metabolism Selective reabsortion of Na+ by the distal convoluted tubule

A B C D

2. The following diagram shows changes in the blood concentration levels of four different hormones involved in relating the ovarian cycle and the human mentral cycle. Level of hormones mol/liter

Name the hormones labeled W, X, Y and Z. Follicle stimulating hormone W W X X Luteinising hormone X X W Y Oestrogen Y Z Y W Progesterone Z Y Z Z

A B C D

3. The diagram below shows the longitudinal section of a barley grain.

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Which of the following is a correct match after imbibition of water by the barley grain? Site of production of gibberellic acid W X Y Z Site of synthesis of hydrolytic enzymes X Z W W

A B C D

4. Which of the following statements is false? B. Ethene promotes fruit ripening and abscission. C. Cytokinins promote apical dominance. D. Abscisic acid promotes stomatal closure under water stress. E. Auxins and gibberellins promote stem elongation. 5. Which of the following is not a correct response of flowering related to the length of dark period?

6. The diagram below shows a photoperiodic induction of flowering in a plant.

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What is X, Y and Z? X PFR PFR PR PR Y florigen florigen phytochrome phytochrome Z Short-day plant long-day plant Short-day plant long-day plant

A B C D

7. What is difference in the mechanism of action between steroid hormone and peptide hormone? A. Target cells respond faster to steroid hormone than to peptide hormone. B. Steroid hormone enters the cytoplasm and then passes to the nucleus whereas eptide hormone remain in the cytoplasm. C. Steroid hormone bbinds to a receptor protein whereas peptide hormone binds to a G protein. D. Steroid hormone activates the expression of a specific gene whereas peptide hormone activates a protein/enzyme already present in the cell. 8. Which of the following hormones/structures must b present before ovulation can occur? I. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) II. Oestrogen III. Luteinising hormone (LH) IV. Progesterone V. Graafian follicle VI. Corpus luteum A. I, II and V B. I, II, III and V C. I, II, III, IV and V D. I, II, III, IV, V and VI 9. The below table shows the hormones and their roles during pregnancy. Hormone Hjuman chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) Ocytocin Prolactin Relaxin Functions Prevents the degeneration of corpus luteum Relaxes the elastin fibres that join the bones of the pelvic girdle Stimulates rhythmic contraction of uterus during birth Stimulates milk production and secretion

a b c d

I II III IV

Which of the following is the correct match? a I I IV III b II III I IV c IV IV III I d III II II II

A B C D

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10. Which of the following plant hormones can induce parthencarpy? I. Auxin II. Gibberellin III. Ethene IV. Cytokinin A. I only B. II only C. I and II D. III only 11. The diagram shows the mechanism of action of plant hormone X

What is hormone X? A. Abscisic acid C. Auxin

B. Gibberellin C. Ethene

12. The table below shows five plant hormones and their functions. Hormone Auxin Absisic acid Ethane Gibebrellin Cytokinin Functions Promoter bolting, in some rosette plants Promotes fruit ripening Promotes abscission of fruits and leaves Promotes stem elongation Promotes cell division and delays leaf senescence

a b c d e

I II III IV V

Which is the correct match? a I II III IV b II I IV III c III IV I II d IV V V I e V III II V

A B C D

13. Which of the following is the correct match for the hormones and their physiological effects? Hormone Aldosterone Insulin Thyroxine Glucagon Physiological effect Controls the metabolic rate Decreases the glucose level in the blood Increases the glucose level in the blood Maintains the balance of Na+ and K+ ions

A B C D

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14. Which of the following is the correct match for the hormones and their roles? Hormone Gibberellic acid Cytokinin Auxin Ethene Role of hormone Inhibits the growth of adventitious root Stimulates closing of stomata under conditions of water stress Promotes fruit ripening Stimulates cell divisions of the lateral cambium during secondary growth

A B C D

15. The following are the steps in a hormonal action. I Binding of the hormone to the receptor II Phosphorylation of enzyme III Conversion of ATP to cAMP Which sequence of steps is correct for the hormonal action? A. I, II, III B. I, III, II C. II, III, I D. III, II, I 16. In what way are hormones and enzymes similar? A. They are effective in large amount B. Their basic units are amino acids. C. They are not altered during a metabolic process. D. They are channeled to the target destination through ducts. 17. What is the effect of an increase in oestrogen concentration between the 11th and 14th day of the menstrual cycle? A. The inhibition of GnRH B. The disintegration of endomentrium C. The development of corpus luteum D. An upsurge in the concentration of FSH and LH

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STRUCTURE 1. The diagrams below show two different mechanism of hormone action.

(a) Label the structure M to T. M : N : O : P : (b) Name the processes X, Y and Z. X : . Y : . Z : . Q :.. R :.. S :.. T :..

(c) State one similarity and five differences between mechanism I and mechanism II. Similarity : . ..

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Differences : . .. . .. . .. . ..

2. The figure below shows changes in the blood concentration of gonadotropins and steroid hormones involved in regulating the ovarian cycle and the human menstrual cycle.

(a) What is meant by the term gonadotrophin? .

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(b) Describe how the following hormones are secreted: (i) FSH (ii) LH (iii)-oestradiol (a natural oestrogen) (iv) progesterone (c) For each of the hormone named in (b), state its main site of secretion, its effects, if any, on the ovary and also the endometrium of the uterus. (i) FSH Site of secretion : Effects: .. (ii) LH Site of secretion : .. Effects: ..

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(iii)-oestradiol (a natural oestrogen) Site of secretion : .. Effects: .. (iv) Progesterone Site of secretion Effects: .. 3. Different plants require different daylengths/periods of daylight fr flowering. These plants can be classified into three photoperiodic groups, long-day plants and dau-neutral plants. (b) (i) Using a suitable example, explain what is meant by day neutral plants.

. (ii) An experiments is carried out to investigate the relationship between the period of daylight and flowering on spinach plants. . The results of the experiment are as follows.

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Which photoperiod group does spinach belong to? Give your reasons. . (c) The diagram below shows three different treatments of light and dark periods on a plant.

(i) From the given data, explain which is crucial in determining flowering : light period or dark period. . (ii) Use the results from the experiment to deduce the photoperiodic group to which this plant belongs. . . . (c) In a further experiment, the 15 hours of dark period is interurupted by flashes of red light (R) and /or far-red light (F)

(i) What is your conclusion about the effects of the two types of light on flowering? . .

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(ii) How can this knowledge be exploited commercially to induce this species of plant to flower out of season? . . . .

ESSAY 1. Name five common types of plant hormones and discuss the main function of each hormone. 2. (a) Describe the characteristic of human hormones (b) Describe the mechanism of hormone action via gene activation. [7 marks] [8 marks]

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IMMUNITY OBJECTIVE 1. Which of the following statements is not true of T-cells but not true of B-cells? A. They are produced in cells which originate in the bone marrow B. They react with antigens to produce a clone of immunocytes C. They must ass through the thymus gland before they can become fully functional D. They have antigen receptors n their cell surface membranes. 2. Three stages of defence against pathogenic bacteria are listed below: I. The action of T-cells and antibody-producing cells. II. The phagocytic action of macrophages III. The production of antimicrobial enzymes and Ig A by the mucous membranes. What is the correct sequence of these stages? A. IIIIII B. IIIII I C. IIIIII D. IIIIII 3. The table below lists the types of immune response and the different cells involve in these responses: Response Humoral Cell-mediated Cell TH cells Cytotoxic cells Plasma cells B-cells Suppressor cells Memory cells

I II

a b c d e f

Which of the following answers shows the correct matching between immune response and cells involved? I c, d, f b, c, e, f e, f a, b, f II a, b, e, f a, d a, b, c, d c, d, e, f

A B C D

4. Which part of an antibody an epitope binds to? A. The antibody-binding site B. The constant region of the H-chain C. The constant region of the L-chain D. The variable regions of the H and L-chains

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5. Cells that have a surface marker called CD4 are A. natural killer cells B. helper T-cells C. cytotoxic T-cells D. B-cells 6. Which of the following correctly describes an antigen-presenting cell? A An immune cell with MHC class III proteins or its cell surface membrane. B. A cell which has an affinity for cytotoxic T-cells C. A neutrophil that has ingested a bacterium. D. A macrophage which interacts with a helper T-cell with the aid of a CD4 receptor. 7. What is a provirus? A. A dormant virus residing in T lymphocytes B. The template RNA which codes for the synthesis of viral DNA C. Viral DNA that inserts into a host genome D. A virus particle which is the causative agent of AIDS. 8. The diagram shows the structure of an antibody molecule.

The antigen-binding site and the attachment site on the B cell respectively are A. M and N B. N and O C. O and P D. M and Q 9. Which of the statement about immunoglobulin IgG are true? I. The initial exposure to antigen causes abundant production of IgG. II. IgG can cross the placenta and confer immunity to the foetus. III. IgG triggers the complement system and causes lysis of bacteria cells. IV. It stiulates the production of histamine that causes allergic reaction. A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. II and IV

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10. The table shows two types of immune response and the cells involved Types of immune response Humoral immune response (antibodymediated immunity) Cell-mediated immunity Cells involved I II III IV V VI B-cells Antigen-presenting cell (APC) T helper cell Plasma cell T cytotoxic cell T Suppressor cells

a b

Which one is the correct match? a I, II, III II, IV, VI I, IV I, II, III, IV b IV, V, VI I, III, V I, III, V, VI II. III. V. VI

A B C D

11. The table show four types of cells and their actions in a cell-mediated immunity Cells T helper cell T cytotoxic cell T suppressor cell T memory cell Actions a b c d Kills infected sell Activates B cells or other T cells Provides future immunity against a second invasion by the same antigen Suppresses te immune response after the antigen is removed

I II III IV

Which of the following is a correct match? I a b c d II b a d c III c d a a IV d c b b

A B C D

12. Which is not correct about the self and no-self concept? A. MHC protein markers on the surface of cells act as specific antigens. B. Each organism carries a set of antigens which is unique to each individual C. In the embryo, T lymphhocytes which can bind to the receptors (proteins and polysaccharides) of their own body cells are induced t proliferate to form a clone of T cells. D. The immune system can distinguish self (the bodys own tissue) from non-self (foreign tissue).

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13. The table shows two types of lymphocytes and their corresponding explanation. Lymphocyctes B lymphocyte T lymphocyte Statements about the lympocytes Originates from the bone marrow and continues its development in the bone marrow Originates from the bone marrow, moves to the thyus and completes its maturation there Can differentiate into T helper cell, T cytotoxic cell, T suppressor cell and memory cell Can differentiate into plasma cell and memory cell Play a role in cell-mediated immunity Play a role in humoral immune response (antibodymediated immunity)

a b

I II III IV V VI

Which of the following is the correct match? a I, III, VI I, IV, VI II, III, V II, IV, VI b II, IV, V II, III, V I, IV, VI I, III, V

A B C D

14. A person infected by HIV will develop AIDS and develop AIDS and die. The immune system fails to eradicate the virus because I. the body fails toproduce anti-HIV antibodies II. the double-stranded viral DNA becomes incorporated as provirus into the DNA of the infected cell and remains dormant III. the unusually hogh mutation rates give rose to variations in viral antigens IV. the decrease in the T helper cell level results in the loss of humoral and cell mediated immunity A. I and II B. II and III C. I, II and III D. II, III and IV 15. Three types of cells involved in immune response and their functions are shown in the table below. Type of cell B cell Helper T cell Cytotoxic T cell Function Destroys cancer cells Differences into memory and plasma cells Secretes cytokines that activate macrophages

I II III

P Q R

Which cells correspond to their functions? I P P Q Q II Q R P R III R Q R P

A B C D

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STRUCTURE 1. The graph below shows the development of a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection over a period of 10 years. Changes in the number of helper T-cells are also shown.

(b) Describe the changes in the number of HIV particles over the 10-year period. . . . (c) State two ways in which the curve for the TH cells differs from that for the HIV particles. . . (d) Explain why the HIV particles are not eradicated completely in the initial period after infection. . . (e) Explain the relationship between the number of TH cells and the number of virus particles after 5 years. . . (f) On the graph above, sketch the curve that represents changes in relative antibody concentration over the 10-year period.

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2. The diagram shows the structure of HIV, the virus that causes AIDS.

(a) Name the structures labeled A, B, C, D and E A : B : C : (b) (i) Name one viral component which may be used in the production of a vaccine against a certain virus. a. Give one reason for your answer. (iii)Name the type of immunity obtained. (d) Why is antibiotic not effective against diseases caused by virus? (e) AZT (azidothymidine) and ddl (dideoxyinosine) are transcriptase inhibitors. Explain how these drugs slow down the progression of HIV infection. D : E :

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ESSAY 1. Describe how the bodys immune system defends against pathogens through the production of antibodies. 2. Explain the mechanism of (a) humoral (antibody-mediated) immune response (b) cell-mediated immunity.

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TRANSMISSION GENETIC OBJECTIVE 1. The flower of a sweet pea plants are either orange or white in colour. The colour is determined by two pairs of allelomorph genes (A, a and B , b). If at least one dominant gene from each allelomorph pair is present, the colour of flower is range. All other genotypes are white. Ia a young plant bearing orange flowers has an AaBb genotype and is produced by two pure-breeding parental plants, the genotypes of the parental plants are A. B. C. D. AABB and aabb AAbb and AAbb aaBB and aaBB aaBB and AAbb

2. For a self-fertilising tree which has the genotype Aa for a certain pair of alleles, the genotypes of seed endosperm produced will show the ratio of A. AA, Aa. aa B. AAA, AAa. aaa C. AAA, AAa. aaa D. AAA, AAa. Aaa, aaa 3. For the fly Drosophila melanogaster, vestigial wings are caused by a recessive gene, vg, and normal wings are caused by a dominant gene, vg+. On the, ebony body of the fly is caused by a recessive gene, e, and grey body is caused by a dominant gene, e+. If the cross between two heterozygous flies with normal wings and grey body produces 144 offspring, how many lies with normal wing and ebony body are produced among the F1 offspring after fertilization? A. 9 B. 27 C. 54 D. 81 4. A cross between a tall plant with round leaves and a dwarf plant with round leaves produces the following offspring: 121 tall plants with round leaves r+ - round leaves 124 dwarf plants with round leaves r - oval leaves 42 tall plants with oval leaves t+ - tall 39 dwarf plants with oval leaves t - dwarf What are the parental genotypes? A. r+ r t+ t x r+ r t t B. r+ r t+ t x r+ r+ t t C. r+ r t+ t+ x r+ r t t D. r+ r t+ t+ x r+ r+ t t

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5. Which of the following examples of human inheritance can be explained by comparative alleles on autosomes? A. ABO blood group system B. Down syndrome C. Haemophilia D. Sickle-cell anaemia 6. In Drosophila, the male is heterogameteous. The allele for white eye is recessive and sex-linked. A female Drosophila that is heterozygous at this locus is crossed with a normal male. The white eye characteristic can be found A. in all the offspring B. in all male offspring but not in female offspring C. not in female offspring and in 50% of the male offspring D. not in male offspring and in 50% of the female offspring. 7. In an organism, the frequency of crossing over between gene A and gene B is found to be 20%, between gene A and gene C, 5%, and between gene C and gene D, 30%. Which of the following combination is correct? Gene sequence A B C D ABCD ABCD ACBD CABD Cross over value between gene A and gene D 60% 25% 25% 25%

8. The diagram below shows a family pedigree which includes a few members who suffer from heart disease resulting from hypercholesterolemia. Children who inherit both dominant mutant alleles usually die before reaching puberty.

What is the probability that the third child of parents X and Y is normal? A. 0.00 B. 0.25 C. 0.75 D. 1.00

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9. The diagram below shows the inheritance of haemophilia in a family.

What is the genotype of the 7th family member? A. XHXH B. XHXh C. XhXh D. XhY 10. In tomato plants, yellow-flowered are dominant over white flowers and tall plants are dominant over dwarf plants. A tomato plant has undergone fertilization and produced the following progeny ratio. Phenotype Yellow-flowered, tall Yellow-flowered, dwarf White-flowered, tall White-flowered, dwarf Ratio 9 3 3 1

What is the ratio for yellow-flowered, tall F1 plants that are expected to produce the progeny ration of I yellow-flowered, tall plants and 1 yellow-flowered, dwarf plant if they are crossed with whiteflowered, dwarf F1 plants? A. 1/9 C. 3/9 B. 2/9 D. 4/9 11. The phenotypes and genotypes of the fur colour of cats are as follows. Phenotype Black Yellow Tortoise-shell Genotype Male Female g XY XgXg XGY XGXG XGXg

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Which of the following crosses produce all female offspring with tortoise-shell spotted fur? I. Female with tortoise-shell spotted fur x male with yellow fur II. Female with tortoise-shell spotted fur x male with black fur III. Female with yellow fur x male with black fur IV. Female with black fur x male with yellow fur A. I and II C. II and III B. I and III D. III and IV 12. Phenylketonuria (inability to taste phenylthiocarbamide which is bitter) is an inherited condition caused by a recessive allele. A female and her husband are CARRIERS and have three children in their family. What is the probability that a. All three of their children have the normal phenotype? b. At least one of their children has penylketonuria? c. All three of their children have phenylketonuria? d. At least one of their children has the normal phenotype? A. 1/64 C. 37/64 B. 27/64 D. 63/64 13. Two different pure strains which are crossed will produce progeny which are called A. Trait B. Hybrids C. Mutants D. phenotype 14. In a monohybrid cross, the genotypic ratios for the F2 genetration are the same, 1:2:1. What does this result indicate? A. The presence of lethal gene B. The presence of linked gene C. Incomplete dominant D. Dominance/recessive interaction

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STRUCTURE 1. (a) Explain what is meant by the term epistasis

(b) The colour of fur in rats is controlled by a pair of genes in different loci. The epistatic gene determines the presence of colour in the fur and the hypostatic gene on another locus determines the colour produced. Wild rats have agouti fur and have at least one dominant allele (A) for the hypostatic gene. Black rats are homozygous recessive (aa). If at last one dominant allele (E) for the gene that determines pigment synthesis is present, the fur pigment can be synthesized and fur colour (agouti fur or black fur) then appears. If the epistatic gene is in a recessive homozygous condition (ee), no fur pigment will be synthesized although the alleles for agouti fur or black fur are present. Thus the rat is albino, with white fur. (i) A cross between black rat and albino rat produces all agouti rats in the F1 generation. Draw a cross diagram to explain this condition.

(ii)

A cross between F1 individuals produces F2 progeny in the ratio 9 (agoutiaaa0: 3 (black): 4 (albino). Using a genetic cross diagram, explain how it occurs.

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i.

(a) What is meant by the term percentage of crossing over? Give one formula that can be used to determine the percentage of crossing over.

(b) In the fly Drosophila melanogaster, there is a dominant gene for grey body and a dominant gene for normal wings. Recessive alleles for both of the genes produce black body and vestigial wings respectively. Homozygous flies with grey body and normal wings have been crossed with flies with black body and vestigial wings. The results of the test cross for F1 progeny are as follows. Grey body, normal wings 236 Black body, vestigial wings 248 Grey body, vestigial wings 44 Black body, vestigial wings 52 (i) Calculate the map distance units between the genes for body colour and wing shape.

(ii) Define Mendels second law.

(iii)Is the progeny of the test cross in accordance with Mendels ratio?

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(iv) State two basic facts that explain why such a phenotype ratio is obtained.

(c) Using suitable symbols, prepare a diagram to explain the results.

ESSAY 1.(a) Explain the characteristics of the pea plant Pisum sativum used by Gregor Mendel in carrying out crossbreeding experiments. (b) With examples, explain what is meant by the genetic terms in each pair below. (i) Test cross and back cross (ii) Multiple alleles and polygenic inheritance (i) Linkage and sex linkage

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POPULATION GENETIC OBJECTIVE 15. Which of the following statements is true about a gene pool? A. The sum total of all the genes and their different alleles that are present in a sexually reproducing population of a particular species at a given time. B. The ratio of any given allele in a population, relative to all the other alleles of that gene at the same locus. C. The percentage of individuals with a specific genotype in a population. D. The frequency of the gene pool in a small population remains constant from one generation to the next generation. 2. TT and Tt individuals have the ability to role their tongues while tt individuals cannot roll their tongues. The frequency of allele t is 0.4. What is the frequency of the heterozygous individuals (Tt)? A. 0.24 B. 0.36 C. 0.48 D. 0.60 3. In a population, 12% of the babies are born with sickle-cell anaemia. What is the frequency of the carrier genotype in the population? A. 0.346 B. 0.427 C. 0.452 D. 0.654 4. Assuming that the population is in genetic equilibrium, what are the frequencies of G and g alleles in a population in which the heterozygous (Gg) frequencies is 0.50? A. G = 0.94, g = 0.06 B. G = 0.25, g = 0.25 C. G = 0.50, g = 0.50 D. G = 0.75, g = 0.25 5. In a population of rats, the frequency of the recessive allele for white fur is 0.2. What is the frequency of the dominant allele for black fur? A. 0.32 B. 0.04 C. 0.64 D. 0.80 6. Which of the following population shows Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? Population A B C D I II III IV Genotypic frequencies p2 (AA) 2pq (Aa) q2 0.49 0.26 0.26 0.36 0.55 0.09 0.58 0.26 0.16 0.64 0.32 0.04

7. In a population where7% of the babies are born with sickle-cell anaemia, what is the frequency of the babies born having the heterozygous genotype? A. 0.005 B. 0.389 C. 0.541 D. 0.930

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8. In a population of 640 pea plants, 8 are short plants. What are the frequencies of the homozygous dominant tall plants and homozygous recessive short plants? Homozygous dominant 0.0875 0.9996 0.7889 0.8882 Homozygous recessive 0.0125 0.0125 0.1118 0.1118

A B C D

9. In a survey carried out in a school with 800 students (equal number of males and females), 20 male students are found to be colour-blind. Red-green colour blindness is controlled by a X-linked recessive allele. What is the number of heterozygous females who have normal colour vision? (Note: In Xlinked disease, calculation of allele frequencies must take into account the fact that females carry twice as many X-linked alleles as males. The females have two X chromosomes compared to only one X chromosomes in males) A. 38 B. 76 C. 361 D. 391 10. The Hardy-Weinberg equation does not apply if I. there is migration into or migration out of the population II. there is natural selection III. mutations occur IV. there is no-random mating V. there is a large population A. I, II, III and IV B. I, II, III and V C. I, III, IV and V D. II, III, IV and V 11. The haemophilia allele is a recessive, sex-linked allele. In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the recessive allele is 2%. How many haemophilia carriers are there in the population? A. 0.04% B. 1.96% C. 3.93% D. 9.6% 12. Colour-blindness is caused by a recessive allele on X chromosome. In a study involving 20000 individuals, it was found that 16 females were colour-blind. What is the percentage of males that are colour-blind? A. 0.08% B. 0.16% C. 1.94% D. 2.83% 13. The possibility of disease to be caused by a recessive gene in a population is 1%. What is he probable percentage for the whole population to be carriers but not affected by the disease? A. 9% B. 18% C. 81% D. 99%

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14. In a human population, one out of 25000 babies is born with sickle-ell anaemia. The baby is homozygous recessive (genotype ss). Which of the following statements are true? I. Frequency for the recessive allele is 0.0063. II. Frequency for the dominant allele s 0.9937 III. Frequency for normal babies is 98.74% IV. Number of carriers in the 25000 babies is 313. A. I and II B. I, II and III C. I, II and IV D. I, II, III and IV 15.The ability to taste the chemical phenylthiobarbamide is controlled by dominant allele T. what is the frequency of allele t in a population comprising 412 tasters and 235 non-tasters? A. 0.40 B. 0.57 C. 0.60 D. 0.80 16. In a population of 100 000 chicken in died due to the chicken influenza virus. By assuming that the virus resistance gene is dominant, how many chicken in the farm are carriers of the recessive gene? A. 1000 B. 10 000 C. 18 000 D. 90 000

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STRUCTURE 1. The human blood group MN is controlled by two co-dominant alleles LM and LN. The following data for the MN blood types were obtained from a population sampling in a certain locality. Blood group Number of individuals (d) What is meant by: (iii)codominant? .. .. (iv) Incomplete dominance? .. .. (b) Calculate the frequency of: (i) allele LM M 78 MN 61 N 139

(ii) allele LN

(c) Calculate the frequency of the heterozygous genotype LMLN in the population.

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2. The groundsel plant (Senecio vulgaris) can produce three types of flowers. The types of flowers produced is controlled by a pair of alleles, both have no dominance. The type of flowers and their genotypes are as shown below. Phynotype Floret with long spikes Floret with short spikes Floret without spikes Genotype RR Rr rr

In a population of 500 plants, it is found that : 142 plants have florets with long spikes 248 plants have florets with short spikes 110 plants have florets without spikes (a) Calculate the frequencies of alleles R and r

(b) What are the conditions that must be fulfilled so that the frequency of alleles in a population is constant?

(c) Calculate the observed frequencies of different genotypes in the population and by using the equation p+ q = 1, calculate the frequencies expected for the different genotypes in the population.

(d) Is the population obeying the principles of the Hardy-Weinberg Law?

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ESSAY 1. (a) Explain what is meant by: (i) gene pool (ii) allele frequency (iii)genotype frequency in a population (b) The resistance to a certain poisonous compound in a snail population is controlled by a dominant allele A. 36% of the snail population in an area is resistant to the poison. (i) Calculate the frequency of the dominant allele A in the population (ii) Calculate the possible number of snails with the genotypes AA, Aa and aa in a population consisting of 400 snails. (iii) If all the recessive homozygous snails were killed by the poison, what would be the frequency of snails produced without resistance to the poison in the following generation?

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MUTATION OBJECTIVE 1. Down Syndrome may exists in two forms. The classic Down Syndrome affects all cells and is very severe. The mosaic type consists of two or more types of cells which are different in the number and structure of chromosomes. How does the mosaic condition occur? A. Non-disjunction of chromosomes during meiosis in oogenesis B. Non-disjunction of chromosomes during meiosis in spermatogenesis C. Non-disjunction of chromosomes during mitosis during early fetal development D. Non-disjunction of chromosomes happens in adult somatic cells. 2. Which of the following statements is gales regarding no-disjunction? A. Non-disjunction only happen during anaphase I meiosis. B. Abnormalities in the number of sex chromosomes and autosomes can happen. C. Turner Syndrome is a result of non-disjunction. D. It may produce a polyploid. 3. The diagram shows two homologous pairs of chromosomes that synapse during prophase I meiosis. Each pair of chromosome shows a type of chromosomal aberration.

Which of the following are the types of chromosal aberrations shown? Pair I Inversion Translocation Deletion Duplication Pair II Translocation Inversion Duplication Deletion

A B C D

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4. The diagram below shows a pair of homologous chromosomes that synapses during prophase I meiosis.

What type of chromosome mutation has happened? A. Inversion C. Deletion B. Translocation D. Duplication 5. Thalassaemia is caused by the following type of gene mutation A. Subtitution of a base C. Insertion of a base B. Deletion of a base D. Inversion of a base 6. Which of the following may result in polyploidy? I. Treatment with cochicine II. Crossing over III. Independent assortment of chromosomes IV. Non-disjunction A. I and II C. II and III B. I and IV D. II and IV 7. Hydroxylamine is a type of mutagen. It changes the cytosine base to a type of compound that is abel to pair with the adenine base. Treatment of DNA sample with hydroxylamine will cause mutation by A. deletion of a base B. insertion of a base C. inversion of a base D. substitution of a base 8. The three diagrams below show the pattern formed by three-pairs of homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis.

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Which of the following is a correct match of the mutation that has occurred in the mutated chromosome? Deletion A B C D (i) (ii) (ii) (iii) Addition or duplication (ii) (i) (iii) (ii) Inversion (iii) (iii) (i) (i)

9. An organism with more than two sets of chromosomes derived from the same species is known as A. an aneuploid B. an amphidiploids C. an allopolyploid D. am autopolyploid 10. Which of the following are examples of diseases that can be caused by non-disjunction? I. Turner syndrome II. Klinefelter syndeome III. Haemophilia IV. Sickle-cell anaemia A. I and II B. III and IV C. I, II and III D. II, III and IV 11. Let (+) represents the addition of one nucleotide and (-) represents the deletion of one nucleotide. By assuming that both mutations are adjacent to each other, which mutation will result in a frameshift mutation? B. (+)(-) C. (+)(+)(+) D. (+)(+)(+)(-) E. (+)(-)(-)(+)

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STRUCTURE 1. (a) (i) What is meant by chromosomal aberration? ___________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________ (ii) Although chromosomal aberration usually occurs spontaneously but the rate can be increased. Give two ways how this can occur. ___________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________ (iii) Name four types of chromosome aberrations that could happen. ___________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________

(b) A cell which is undergoing meiosis is examined under the microscope. A pair of homologous chromosomes has the configuration as shown below.

(i) What type of chromosomal aberration has occurred? ___________________________________________________________________ (ii) Give one example of a genetic disease which can be caused by the chromosomal aberration as shown in (b)(i). ___________________________________________________________________

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(c) The diagram below shows the position of two pairs of different homologous chromosomes before synapsis during meiosis. The letters used represent the sequence of genes on the chromosomes.

(i) What type of chromosomal aberration has occurred? ___________________________________________________________________ (ii) Draw a digram to show the configuration of these two pairs of different homologous chromosomes after synapsis. Prophase I meiosis.

ESSAY QUESTIONS 1. (a) Explain what is meant by the tern mutation? (b) Explain why a single base deletion from one DNA molecule usually causes greater effect than the replacement of one base by another different base. (c) Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disease caused by mutation. Describe how this may occur.

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GENE EXPRESSION OBJECTIVE 1. The Operon Model was proposed in 1961 by A. Avery, MacLeod and Mc Carty B. Jacob and Monod C. Hershey and Chase D. Beadle and Tatum 2. Gene expression begins when A. Replication occurs B. Transcription occurs C. Translation occurs D. A protein is produced 3. Enzyme which are continuously being produced by the cell for cellular metabolism are known as A. Inducible enzymes B. Constitutive enzymes C. Repressible enzymes D. Hydrolytic enzymes 4. Transcription of structural genes in the lac operon occurs when A. Glucose is present and lactose is absent B. Glucose is present and lactose is present C. Glucose is scarce and lactose is absent D. Glucose is scarce and lactose is present 5. The diagram below shows the gene regulation and expression of a lac operon when lactose is present.

What are the substances represented by P, Q, R and S? P Structural genes Promoter Regulator genes Regulator genes Q operator Structural genes Repressor Repressor R Promoter operator operator Structural genes S Regulator genes Repressor Structural genes operator

A B C D

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6. What is the function of the inducer of the lac operoon? A. Binds to the promoter and prevents the repressor from binding to the operator. B. Binds to the operator and prevents the repressor from binding to the promoter C. Binds to the repressor and prevents it from binding to the promoter D. Binds to the repressor and prevents it from binding to the operator 7. In the lac operon, cAMP acts as A. An activator protein B. A repressor protein C. An effector molecule D. Am inhibitor molecule 8. Which of the following statements is not true? A. Constitutive enzymes are constantly synthesized. B. Synthesis of inducible enzymes can be switched on under certain conditions. C. Prokaryotic mRNA contains introns which are removed by process called splicing. D. When glucose is available, catabolite repression prevents transcription of the lac operon. 9. Which of the following helps RNA polymerase bind to the promoter in an operon? A. Cofactor C. Repressor B. Inhibitor D. Catabolic activator 10. What is the function of regulator gene in an operon? A. To produce a promoter B. To produce an activator C. To produce an operator D. To produce a repressor protein 11. Which statement is true of the structural genes in lactose operon? A. The lacA gene encodes a permease enzyme. B. The lacy gene encodes a transacetylase enzyme C. The lacZ gene encodes the enzyme B-galactosidase D. The lacZ, lacy and lacA genes are transcribed into separate mRNA molecules. 12. What is the role of enzymes produced by the structural genes of the lactose operon? A. Inducing the lactose operon B. Binding allolactose to the repressor protein C. Breaking down lactose to glucose and galactose D. Facilitating the transport of glucose into the cell.

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STRUCTURE
1. The diagram below shows a lactose operon in Escherichia coli.

(a) Name the specific DNA sequences labelled A, B, C, D, E, F and G.

A: __________________________ B: __________________________ C: __________________________ D: __________________________

(b) State the role of A, B, C and G.

E: __________________________ F: __________________________ G: __________________________

A : ____________________________________________________________________________ B: ____________________________________________________________________________ C: ____________________________________________________________________________ G: ____________________________________________________________________________ (c) Explain why the lactose operon in E. coli is turned off most of the time in the natural environment.

___________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________

(d) State one advantage of grouping genes of related function into one transcription unit.

___________________________________________________________________________

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___________________________________________________________________________
(e) Why is it possible for a single, long polycistronic mRNA to translate into separate polypeptide?

___________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________

ESSAY
1. Describe the events responsible for the changes in gene expression in bacterium E. coli: (a) Before the addition of lactose, and (b) After the addition of lactose to th

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MODERN GENETIC TECHNOLOGY OBJECTIVE ii. Which of the following sequences in double-strand DNA is most likely to produce stick end fragments when treated with a restriction enzyme? A. 5 C T A A G C 3 3 G A T T C G 5 B. 5 T T C C T T 3 3 A A G G A A 5 C. 5 G A A T T C 3 3 C T T A A G 5 D. 5 T C A G T C 3 3 A G T C A G 5 2. Match the tools of recombinant DNA technology with their uses Enzyme Restriction enzyme DNA polymerase DNA ligase Reverse transcriptase a ii i iv iv b i ii iii i c iv iv ii ii d iii iii i iii Function Amplify DNA in the PCR process Catalyses the formation of phosphodiester bridges Produces cDNA from mRNA Cleaves DNA at specific recognition sequences

a b c d

i ii iii iv

A B C D

3. In modern genetic technology, the term vector can refer to A. the organism that ransfers foreign DNA into a living cell B. the sequence of radioactive nycleotides used to detect the presence of a particular gene C. the organism from which restriction enzymes are isolated D. the organism which transfers pathogenic viral DNA into a host cell 4. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between cDNA and genomic DNA? A. cDNA is synthesized using restriction enzymes whereas genomic DNA is synthesized using polymerase enzymes B. cDNA, when transcribed, produces functional mRNA, whereas genomic DNA produces segments of non-coding mRNA in the transcription process C. cDNA is synthesized using a DNA template, whereas genomic DNA is synthesized form an mRNA template D. cDNA is synthesized in vivo, whereas genomic DNA is synthesized in vitro.

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5. The statements below refer to different stages in the production of human insulin by genetic engineering techniques. What is the correct sequence of production? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. DNA cut with restriction enzymes mRNA extracted from pancreatic cells Plasmid DNA and human DNA joined using ligase enzymes DNA copy made using reverse transcriptase Recombinant plasmid incorporated into bacterial cell

A. 1 3 4 2 5 B. 1 2 4 3 5 C. 2 4 1 3 5 D. 2 1 4 3 5 6. The diagram below outlines the cloning process in recombinant DNA technology.

What are P, Q, R and S? P Antibiotic Antibiotic Restriction enzyme Restriction enzyme Q DNA polymerase Restriction enzyme DNA ligas DNA polymerase R Transduction Electroporation Transfomation Transfomation S Amplification Replication Amplification Replication

A B C D

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7. The following are the steps involved in the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) 1. Binding of primer to one end of strand 2. New strands synthesized 3. Strand separation by heating to 980C 4. DNA polymerase added The correct sequence of steps is A. 1 4 3 2 B. 4 1 2 3 C. 3 1 4 2 D. 4 3 1 2 8. Which of the following sequences shows the correct restriction site and cutting points for the restriction enzyme EcoRI? A. 5 G A A T T C 3 3 C T T A A G 5 B. 5 G G A T T C 3 3 C C T A G G 5 C. 5 G G C C 3 3 C C G G 5 D. 5 G A T C 3 3 C T A G 5

9. What is the importance of restriction endonucleases in a bacterial cell? A. it enables bacterial autolysis to occur B. it provides resistance against antibiotics. C. It cuts viral DNA molecules into fragments D. It destroys antigens and neutrallises toxins. 10. The characteristics of a plasmid include II. present in all bacteria III. Circular DNA IV. Carries genes for the deactivation of certain antibiotics V. Capable of autonomic replication, free from the influence of the chromosome A. I, II and III B. I, III and IV C. II, III and IV D. I, II, III and IV

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11. The diagram below shows a technique used to produce a recombinant DNA that contains a gene for human insulin.

Which of the following enzymes represent P, Q, R and S? P A B C D Ligase Reverse transcriptase DNA polymerase Restriction enzyme Q Reverse transcriptase Restriction enzyme Ligase Reverse transcriptase R DNA polymerase DNA polymerase Reverse transcriptase DNA polymerase S Restriction enzyme Ligase Restriction enzyme Ligase

12. Why is the human cDNA used, instead of the original DNA, to combine with a plasmid vector in some cloning processes? I. The original DNA contains exons and introns II. cDNA does not contain introns III. Bacteria cannot process exons IV. Bacteria cannot process introns A. I, II and III B. I, II and IV C. II, III and IV D. I, II, III and IV

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13. Screening is B. the process of choosing the clone which has undergone transformation C. the isertion of a foreign gene into a vector D. the process of producing a transgenic organism E. the insertion of a vector into a host cell 14. The PCR (polymerase chain reaction) technique I. transfers DNA minisatellite fragments agarose gel to a nylon membrane II. amplifies the amount of DNA in small sample III. separates DNA minisatellite fragments that have different sizes and charges IV. clones DNA in vitro A. I only B. II only C. I and III D. II and IV 15. Which of the following is not a step in the DNA fingerprinting procedure? E. Cloning F. Electroporesis G. Autoradiography H. Action of restriction enzyme 16. Which of the following are the main tools used in recombinant DNA technology? I. Helicase II. Plasmids III. DNA ligase IV. Restriction enzyme A. II and III B. I, II and III C. II, III and IV D. I, II, III and IV 17. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is a procedure in recombinant DNA technology. What is it usually used for? B. Cloning of genes with plasmids C. Amplification of gene in vitro D. Isolation of DNA fragments of different lengths E. Transfer of genes from one organism to another organism 18. Which type of plasmids are used as cloning vectors? Plasmid that contain genes B. resistant to certain antibodies C. which control bacterial activities D. for synthesis of restriction enzymes E. resistant to certain antibiotics 19. What are oncogenes? A. Genes for syntheisis of ligase B. Genes that can cause cancer C. Genes for synthesis of polymerase D. Genes for synthesis of restriction enzymes

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20. Which statement is not true of plasmids? A. They are DNA molecules. B. They carry a small number of genes C. They replicate independently of the hosts chromosome D. Examples of plasmids include EcoRI and BamHI. 21. Which statement best describes restriction enzymes? A. They are named according to their actions. B. They cut double-stranded DNA to produce blunt ends. C. They cut double-stranded DNA at specific nucleotide sequences. D. They are used in recombinant DNA technology to join two DNA fragments 22. The DNA profile of a baby X compared with the DNA profiles of four couples P, Q, R and S is shown in the diagram below. Baby X Couple P Husband Wife Couple Q Husband Wife Couple R Husband Wife Couple S Husband Wife

Which couple is the parents of the baby X? A. Couple P B. Couple Q C. Couple R D. Couple S

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STRUCTURE 2. Cyctic fibrosis (CF) is a common genetic disease among Causcasians, and is autosomal recessive disorder. The normal allele codes for the production of a protein CFTP (cystic fibrosis transmembrane protein) which transports chloride ions out of the epithelial cells of the respiratory passages and into the mucus. This make the mucus watery. In CF patients, the mucus is thick and sticky. The diagram below outlines a method of gene therapy for cyctic fibrosis.

(a) Suggest why the mucus of a healthy person is watery. . .

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(b) The diagram is an outline of a possible gene therapy procedure to treat CF. Is the procedure shown germline therapy or somatic gene therapy. Explain your answer. . . (c) In addition to DNA ligase, what other compound should be added to the mixture of human DNA and cleaved plasmids in step X? . . (d) What is the process indicated by step Y in the diagram. Explain how this process is carried out. . . . . (e) What are liposomes and how do they transfer DNA into the epithelial cells of the lung? . . (f) If the normal allele for CFTP is expressed in the epithelial cells, the patient can be expected to get temporary relief from the symptoms of cyctic fibrosis. Suggest why this treatment is effective for a short period only . .

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STRUCTURE 1. In some genetic engineering process, a synthetic gene is inserted into a bacterial host cell. The process is shown below.

(a) (i) Give a term used to describe the function of plasmid in this prcess. . (ii) What is meant by restriction endonuclease enzyme? Give two examples of restriction enzymes, restriction sites and cutting points. . . . . . . . .

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(iii) Explain why restriction endonuclease does not cut the bacterial DNA. . . . (b) At present, human insulin used for treating diabetes mellitus can be produced through genetic engineering. State three advantages of using such insulin. . . . . . . (b) Explain why, instead of the original DNA, the human cDNA is used to combine with bacterial plasmids in some cloning processes. . . . . . . .

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2. Figure 1 shows a DNA fragment containing a desired gene and a bacterial plasmid.

(b) Identify a restriction site found on the DNA fragment and plasmid and state the site [1 mark] . (c) Explain how you are able to identify the site . (d) Name a restriction endonuclease that can cleave at the restriction site that you have identified in (a) [1 mark] . (e) How does the restriction endonuclease that you have named in (c) cut the DNA fragment and the plasmid at the restriction site? [2 mark] . (f) Draw to show (ii) a DNA restriction fragment containing the desired gene and

[2 marks]

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(iii)the ends of the open plasmid

[2 marks]

(f) Why is it necessary to use the same restriction enzyme to cut both the DNA fragment and the plasmid? [2 marks] . . . .

ESSAY 1. (a) (i) Explain How amnioncentesis is used for the screening for genetic defects. (ii) State two differences between chorionic villus testing and amniocentesis. (b) By giving one name example, explain how gene therapy can be used to threat a disease. (c) Explain the main steps in the formation of DNAfingerprints and state the use of this technique.

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REPRODUCTION OBJECTIVE 1. The diagram shows the relative importance of the sporophyte and gametophyte generations in the life cycle of three different plants a, b and c

To which phylum do these plants belong? Bryophyta a a b c Filicinophyta b c c b Angiospermophyta c b a a

A B C D

2. The table below shows five kinds of animals and their methods of asexual reproduction. Animal Axolotl larva Aphis Apis Planaria Fasciola Method of asexual reproduction Paedogenesis Fragmentation and regeneration Polyoembryony Haploid parthenogenesis Diploid parthenogenesis

I II III IV V

a b c d e

Which is the correct match? I a a b b II d e d e III IV e c d b e a d c V b c c a

A B C D

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3. Which of the following is a correct match? I II III IV Parthenogenesis Paedogenesis Polyembryony Regeneration I b b c d II d d b b III IV c a a c a d c a a b c d The potential to divide and replace damaged or missing parts Larval or pupal forms with the potential to reproduce before attaining the adult stage Production of two or more individuals from zygote Production of new individual from an egg without fertilization.

A B C D

4. Which of the following pairs is incorrect? A. Interstitial cells: production of testosterone B. Seminiferous tubule: production of spermatozoa C. Vas deferens: production of seminal fluid D. Urethra: carries the semen to the outside 5. Which of the following is the correct pathway of the spermatozoa, starting from the site of production until they leave the body? A. Seminiferous tubule epididymis vas deferens urethra B. Epididymis seminiferous tubule vas deferens urethra C. vas deferens urethra Seminiferous tubule epididymis D. urethra Seminiferous tubule epididymis vas deferens 6. The table below shows three kinds of animals and their mthods of reproduction. Animal Type of reproduction I Guppy (fish) a Oviparity II Rabbit b Ovoviviparity III Pigeon c Viviparity Which of the following is a correct match for the methods of reproduction of these three animals? I a a b b II b c a c III c b c a

A B C D

7. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of spermatogenesis? A. Germinal epithelium spermatocyte spermatogonium spermatid spermatozoon B. Germinal epithelium spermatogonium spermatid spermatocyte spermatozoon C. Germinal epithelium spermatogonium spermatocyte spermatid spermatozoon D. Germinal epithelium spermatid spermatogonium spermatocyte spermatozoon

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8. If the triploid condition is represented by 3n, the diploid condition by 2n and the haploid condition by n, then which of the following is a correct match of the number of chromosomes in the different parts of a plant?
Pollen grain Tube nucleus Synergid Primary endosperm nucleus Cells of ovary wall

A B C D

2n 2n n n

n n n n

2n 3n 2n n

2n n 3n 3n

2n 2n n 2n

9. During double fertilization, which of the following structures in the embryonic sac fuse with the male nucleus producing a zygote and an endosperm?

A B C D

Zygote 1 2 2 3

Endosperm 2 3 4 2

10. The term alternation of generation refers to the plant cycle which alternates between A. production of haploid gametes by meiosis with division of zygote by mitosis to form the embryo. B. haploid gametophyte generation with diploid sporophyte generation C. diploid gametophyte generation with haploid sporophyte generation D. a maximum growth period followed by a senescent period. 11. Which of the following is a correct pair? A. Monoecius: plants with both the male and female flowers B. Dioecius: complete flower C. Protandry: the female reproductive organs (carpels) mature before the stamen D. Actimorphic: bilateral symmetrical flowers

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12. The table below lists the extra-embryonic membranes and their functions. Which of the pairs is matched wrongly? Membrane Amnion Chorion Allantois Yolk sac Function Produces amniotic fluid Cushions the developing embryo Site of gas exchange Stores nutrients

A B C D

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016-6412016

Thuran

STRUCTURE 1. The diagram with structures labelled A to G shows the various stages in the life cycle of a plant

(a) Give an example of a plant which shows this type of life cycle.

(b) (i) Name the phylum to which it belongs.

(ii)Give three characteristics of this phylum.

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Bright Minds

016-6412016

Thuran

(c) Give the names of the structures labelled A to G in the life cycle of this plant. A: __________________________ B: __________________________ C: __________________________ D: __________________________ E: __________________________ F: __________________________ G: __________________________

(d) State two ways how the type of reproduction in this plant is adapted to life on land.

(e) In the life cycle of the plant, there are two different types of generations. Name the two types of generation and state two differences between them.

ESSAY 1. (a) Compare the methods of nutrition and protection of the embryonic stages of mammals and birds. (b) With the aid of diagrams, explain alternation of generation in a homosporous fern.

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