Radio Navigation Exam JAA BRIDGE OA1 June2008

Ayla Aviation Radio Navigation Exam
JAA/ATPL Bridge Course
50 questions 1hr 30min
Radio Navigation Exam 1. The visual and aural indications of the ILS outer marker are : (a) A blue light and 2 dashes per second of 400 Hz modulated tone. (b) A white light and 6 dots per second of a 30 Hz modulated tone. (c) An amber light and alternate dots and dashes of a 1300 Hz modulated tone. (d) A blue light and 2 dashes per second of a 1300 Hz modulated tone 2. Using the 1 in 60 rule calculate the rate of descent (in ft/min) for a 3.3 degree glidepath at a groundspeed of 115 kts. (a) 325 (b) 172 (c) 641 (d) 522 3. For a 2.7 degree glidepath on a Category 1 ILS the vertical coverage is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 1.35- 5.25 1.85- 4.75 2.05- 5.55 1.22- 4.73
4. An aircraft heading 315M shows an NDB bearing 180 on the RMI. Any quadrantal error affecting the accuracy of this bearing is likely to be (a) (b) (c) (d) at a minimum at a maximum zero, as quadrantal errors are not found on the RMI zero, as quadrantal errors affect only the VOR
5. With reference to the VOR: (a) The TO/FROM indicator shows whether the aircraft is heading towards or away from the beacon. (b) A typical VOR frequency is 118.15 Mhz. (c) Failure of the monitor will cause the beacon to cease its ident. (d) Wide coverage is obtained from only a few beacons.
Radio Navigation Exam JAA/ATPL Bridge Course
Ayla Aviation Academy
Radio Navigation Exam 6. An aircraft is on a heading of 100 degrees (m) from a VOR. To make the VOR/ILS deviation indicator needle centralise with the 'TO' flag showing, the following bearing should be selected on the 'OBS' : (a) (b) (c) (d) 280 degrees 290 degrees 110 degrees 100 degrees
7. The tilt angle on the AWR at which an active cloud just disappears from the screen is 4 degrees up. If the beam width is 5 degrees and the range of the cloud is 40 nm use the 1 in 60 rule to calculate the approximate height of the cloud relative to the aircraft. (a) (b) (c) (d) 4000' above 6000' above 4000' below 6000' below
8. The PRF of a primary radar is 500. Its maximum range in kms is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 150 300 200 250
9. What is the maximum theoretical range, in nm, of a radar whose PRF is 750 pps? (a) (b) (c) (d) 218 132 200 108
10. A radar has a PRF of 800 pps. What is the maximum theoretical range and the PRP? (a) (b) (c) (d) 187.5 km 187.5 km 325 nm 325 nm 1250 0.0125 1250 0.0125 micro seconds micro seconds micro seconds micro seconds
Radio Navigation Exam 11. Groundspeed measurement using DME equipment is most accurate flying (a) (b) (c) (d) Towards the station at short range Past the station at long range From the station at long range Past the station at short range
12. An aircraft on an ILS approach is receiving more 90Hz modulation than 150Hz modulation in both localiser and glidepath. The correct action to regain the centreline and glidepath would be to: (a) (b) (c) (d) reduce rate of descent and fly left increase rate of descent and fly right reduce rate of descent and fly right increase rate of descent and fly left
13. An aircraft on a 3 ILS approach at 150kt groundspeed is required to reduce its speed to 120kts at the outer marker, 4nm from the threshold. The rate of descent should reduce by approximately: (a) (b) (c) (d) 120 ft/min 150 ft/min 170 ft/min 190 ft/min
14. A radio signal has a frequency of 3 Ghz. Its wave length is: (a) (b) (c) (d)
10 cm 1.0 cm 100 cm 1.0m
15. Using the 1 in 60 rule calculate the height on a 3 degree glide path of an aircraft 4.5 nm from touchdown. (a) (b) (c) (d) 1370 ft 1420 ft 1480 ft 1230 ft
Radio Navigation Exam
16. An aircraft at FL 250 is using its AWR which has a beam width of 5 degrees. A cloud at 25 nm ceases to paint when the tilt control is selected to 1 degree up. Using the 1 in 60 rule calculate the height of the cloud top. (a) (b) (c) (d) 21200 ft 25000 ft 28800 ft 26000 ft
17. The limits of the VHF band are: (a) (b) (c) (d) 3 - 30 MHz. 300 - 3000 KHz. 30 - 300 MHz 300 - 3000 MHz.
18. Which of the following factors could cause an error of an ADF bearing of an NDB ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Phase interference Atmospheric scatter. Scalloping. Night effect.
19. The purpose of the BFO switch on the ADF receiver is to: (a) (b) (c) (d) Improve the strength of the received signal Cut out the static noise Make the signal audible Attenuate the received signal
20. At 5.25 nm from the threshold an aircraft on an ILS approach has a display showing it to be 4 dots low on a 3 degree glidepath. Using an angle of 0.15 per dot of glideslope deviation and the 1 in 60 rule calculate the height of the aircraft from touchdown. (a) (b) (c) (d) 1375 ft 1325 ft 1280 ft 1450 ft
21. The coverage of the ILS localiser at 17 nm is guaranteed up to an angle either side of the extended centreline of: (a) (b) (c) (d) 35 degrees 25 degrees 30 degrees 10 degrees
22. The Course Deviation Indicator shows 248 TO and 3 dots FLY LEFT. If the DME range is 90 nm your VOR radial and distance from the centre line will be: (a) (b) (c) (d) 074 242 062 254 9 nm 6 nm 9 nm 9 nm
23. For a category one ILS glide path of 3.3 degrees the coverage is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 1.65 to 5.77 degrees 1.49 to 5.94 degrees 1.49 to 5.77 degrees 1.65 to 5.94 degrees
24. An aircraft is tracking the 065 radial inbound to VOR X. With 12 port drift which of the following indications will be correct when crossing the 133 radial from VOR Y?
25. You are maintaining a track of 315M on a heading of 299M. The variation at the aircraft is 12E. The true heading is ............. the true track is .......... and the drift is .............. (a) (b) (c) (d) 326 311 16 starboard 287 303 16 port 311 327 16 starboard 311 327 16 port 6 Ayla Aviation Academy
26. An aircraft is attempting to track 186M on an airway defined by a VOR 80nm away. The VOR indicator below indicates the aircraft position. With these indications the aircraft is on the ........... radial and ......... the airway
27. When a DME interrogates a ground station the prf is (a) (b) (c) (a) 150 pps until locked on 150 pps for 15,000 pulse pairs then reduces to 60 pps until locked on 150 pps for 100 secs then reduces to 60 pps until locked on 24 pps until locked on
28. What is the range of long range ground radar? (a) (b) (c) (a) 1000nm 50nm 200nm 300nm
29. An aircraft is maintaining an airway centreline of 000 defined by a VOR ahead of the aircraft. Variation at the VOR is 5E. At 60nm to go the QDM is 004. The aircraft's position relative to the airway lateral boundary is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 3nm inside the airways eastern boundary 1nm inside the airways western boundary 1nm outside the airways western boundary 1nm inside the airways eastern boundary
30. For long range NDBs the most common type is: (a) (b) (c) (d) LF non A1A LF NON A2A MF NON A1A MF NON A2A
31. The maximum safe fly-up indication on the glidepath needle (assuming a5-dot indicator) is (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 dots 1.5 dots 2.5 dots 1 dot
Radio Navigation Exam 32. An aircraft is tracking the 255 radial inbound to VOR X. With 15 port drift which of
the following indications will be correct when crossing the 121 radial from VOR Y?
33. Your QUJ is 335 by VDF. The variation of a VOR at the same location is 12W. What is the phase difference between the reference and variable signals in the aircraft's receivers from that VOR? (a) (b) (c) (d)
323 347 143 167
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Radio Navigation Exam 34. If a DME transponder becomes saturated it will; (a) (b) (c) (d) give preference to the nearest 100 aircraft give preference to the furthest aircraft up to a maximum of 70 give preference to the aircraft with the strongest transmissions give preference to the first 100 aircraft which interrogated it
35. Which of the ILS signal presentations shown below indicates that the aircraft is at its
maximum recommended deviation below the glidepath and is to the right of the centreline?
36. The VHF frequency band has a wavelength limit of: (a) (b) (c) (d) 100 m to 10 m 1 m to 100 cms 10 m to 1m 100 cms to 10 cms
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Radio Navigation Exam 37. A radar which employs an interrogator/transponder technique is: (a) (b) (c) (d) primary radar continuous wave radar secondary radar Doppler radar
38. The PRF of a primary radar is 500. Its maximum range in nm is approximately (a) (b) (c) (d) 300 160 320 600
39. By using a random PRF the airborne DME can: (a) (b) (c) (d) prevent interference from random transmissions recognise a beacons reply among a mass of ground returns reduce the effect of weather interference distinguish between its own replies and those replies triggered by other aircraft
40. The wavelength of a radio signal is 200 metres. What is its frequency? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1.5KHz 1.5GHz 1.5MHz 15MHz
41. With reference to a VOR, the "cone of confusion" is: (a) (b) (c) (d)
the area outside the DOC the area overhead the VOR the change over of the TO & FROM flag when the OBS is set 90 to the radial the area in which more than one VOR can be received on the same frequency
42. Accurate glidepath signals cannot be guaranteed above a certain angle relative to the
horizontal. The angle is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
0.45 x the glidepath angle 5.25 x the glidepath angle 1.35 x the glidepath angle 1.75 x the glidepath angle 12 Ayla Aviation Academy
Radio Navigation Exam 43. If a NDB with a transmitter power of 25KW which has a range of 50nm is adjusted to
give a power output of 100KW the range of the NDB will be about
(a) (b) (c) (d)
100 nm 200 nm 50 nm 150 nm
44. The indications of a VOR in an aircraft tracking towards a VOR are 075(M) TO and
deviation indicator central. A co-located NDB shows 012 relative. What are the drift and heading in (M)?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
12S 087 12P 063 12S 063 12P 087
45. The factor which determines the minimum range of a radar is: (a) (b) (c) (d) PRF Pulse interval Pulse width Radio frequency of transmission
46. The max theoretical range of a radar whose PRF is 750 pps is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 218 nm 132 nm 200 nm 108 nm
47. The range (in nm) at which an aircraft flying at 8500ft wi1l receive a VHF transmission
from a station 520ft amsl is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
115 144 87 131
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Radio Navigation Exam 48. The ILS localiser transmits VHF frequencies between: (a) (b) (c) (d) 108 and 117.95 Mhz 112 and 117.95 Mhz 108 and 111.95 Mhz 118 and 136.95 Mhz
49. As the frequency of a transmitter is increased, the range of the ground wave will: (a) (b) (c) (d) Increase Decrease Decrease only at night Increase only over the sea
50. An aircraft is tracking 060 (T) in still air. The relative bearing of an NDB is 035 at
1300. 12 min later the relative bearing is 070. If the G/S is 180kt, what is the aircraft's distance from the NDB at 1312
(a) (b) (c) (d)
18 nm 36 nm 24 nm 30 nm
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Ayla Aviation Radio Navigation Exam

JAA/ATPL Bridge Course

50 questions 1hr 30min

Radio Navigation Exam JAA/ATPL Bridge Course

Ayla Aviation Academy

Radio Navigation Exam JAA/ATPL Bridge Course

Ayla Aviation Academy

Radio Navigation Exam JAA/ATPL Bridge Course

Ayla Aviation Academy