Concept Recap Test Mains 6

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CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST
(Set VI)

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360
Pl ease r ead t he i nst r uct i ons car ef ul l y. You ar e al l ot t ed 5 mi nut es
speci f i cal l y f or t hi s pur pose.
You ar e not al l owed t o l eave t he Exami nat i on Hal l bef or e t he end of
t he t est .

INSTRUCTIONS

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.
(i) Section-A (01 to 30) contains 30 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 1 mark for wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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AITS-CRT(Set-VI)-PCM-JEE(Main)/13

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
2

Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
2

Planck constant h = 6.6 10
34
J-s
Charge of electron e = 1.6 10
19
C
Mass of electron m
e
= 9.1 10
31
kg
Permittivity of free space
0
= 8.85 10
12
C
2
/N-m
2
Density of water
water
= 10
3
kg/m
3

Atmospheric pressure P
a
= 10
5
N/m
2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K
1
mol
1
CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K
1
mol
1

= 0.0821 Lit atm K
1
mol
1

= 1.987 2 Cal K
1
mol
1

Avogadro's Number N
a
= 6.023 10
23

Plancks constant h = 6.625 10
34
Js
= 6.625 10
27
ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66 10
27
kg
1 eV = 1.6 10
19
J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,
N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.


3
P Ph hy ys si ic cs s PART I

SECTION A

Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Determine the region of the electron spectrum which liberates photo-electrons from potassium.
Given that the work function of potassium is 2.24 eV.
(A) < 5525 (B) > 5525
(C) < 5.43 (D) none of the above

2. The refractive indices for violet and red colour are 1.54 and 1.52 respectively, the angular
dispersion of a prism of angle 20 and made of such glass will be
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.2
(C) 3.06 (D) 30.6

3. In an interference experiment the separation between the 1
st
and the 11
th
bright fringe on a
screen is 2.5 mm. The screen is at a distance of 3 m from the interfering sources. If
= 5000, Then ratio of intensity at 0.1 mm from central max and maximum intensity is
(A)
2
4
sin
5
(B) 1 cos
5

(C) 1 sin
5
(D)
2
2
cos
5

4. A ball of mass m, attached to a light wire of length l, is rotated in a horizontal circle. The area of
cross-section of the wire is A and its breaking stress is S then maximum angular velocity is
(A)
1
s rad
ml
AS
2
1

(B)
1
s rad
ml
AS

(C)
1
s rad
ml
AS
4
1

(D)
1
s rad
ml
AS 2

m
l
Rough work

4

5. A uniform solid cylinder of mass M and radius R is pulled horizontally by a force
F acting at its center of mass from rest. Then indicate the correct direction of
friction, assuming that it rolls without sliding on a rough horizontal surface
F

(A)
F
f

(B)
F
f
(C)
F
f=0

(D) cannot be interpreted

6. A small block of mass m, having charge q is placed on frictionless
inclined plane making an angle with the horizontal. There exists a
uniform magnetic field B parallel to the inclined plane but perpendicular
to the length of spring. If m is slightly pulled on the inclined in downward
direction, the time period of oscillation will be (assume that the block
does not leave contact with the plane)
B

(A)
m
2
K
(B)
2m
2
K

(C)
qB
2
K
(D)
qB
2
2K
.

7. The first over tone of an open organ pipe and the fundamental tone of a closed organ pipe closed
organ give 5 beats per second when sounded together. If the length of the closed pipe is 25 cm,
what are the possible lengths of the open organ pipe?
(speed of sound in air = 340 m/s):
(A) 90 cm and 100 cm (B) 98.5 cm and 101.5 cm
(C) 100 cm and 103 cm (D) 102 cm and 105 cm

8. A block of mass m is attached with a spring in its natural length,
of spring constant k. The other end A of spring is moved with a
constant acceleration a away from the block as shown in the
figure. Find the maximum extension in the spring. Assume that
initially block and spring is at rest w.r.t ground frame
m
A
a

(A)
ma
k
(B)
1 ma
2 k

(C)
2ma
k
(D)
4ma
k
.
Rough work


5
9. In an A.C. circuit when applied voltage is V = V
0
sin (t /4) then resulting current is I = I
0
sin
(t + /4) then average power developed in the circuit is
(A)
0 0
V I 2 (B) V
0
I
0

(C) zero (D) None of the above

10. A balloon of mass M with a light rope having monkey on the rope is in equilibrium.
If the monkey starts moving up with acceleration a w.r.t. rope. Then the
acceleration of centre of mass of the system is
(A)
a(M m)
(M m)
+
(B) Zero
(C) a (D)
aM
m
.
m
M

11. For what value of R, power developed across 6
resistor is equal to the power developed across 24
resistor?
(A) 12 (B) 6
(C) 24 (D) 8

6

i

i

R

24

12. A cell of emf 2V is connected across a resistance5. The potential difference between the
terminals of the cell is found to be 1.25 V. The internal resistance is
(A)
15
8
(B) 3
(C)
10
3
(D) none of these.

13. In a parallel plate capacitor of plate area A, plate separation d and charge Q, the force of
attraction between the plates is F, then
(A)
2
F Q (B)
2
1
F
A

(C) F d (D)
1
F
d

Rough work

6

14. As arrangement shown in the figure at t = 0 switch S
1
is
closed, find current i through battery at t = 0
(A)
1
v
R

(B)
1 2
v
R R +

(C)
2
v
R

(D) None of the above
L
C
+
r
R
2
R
1
S
1
t = 0

15. The time period of a simple pendulum in air is T. The time period of the same simple pendulum in
another medium which offers a Buoyant force on the bob, one third of its weight, is
(A)
3
2
T (B)
2
3
T
(C)
3
2
T (D)
2
3
T

16. A sealed tank containing a liquid of density moves with a
horizontal acceleration a
0
, as shown in the figure. The difference in
pressure between the points A and B is
(A) hg (B) la
0

(C) hg la
0
(D) hg + la
0

A
B
h
a
0
A

17. Identify the correct definition of gravitational potential at a point.
(A) it is defined in terms of the force required to displace a unit mass from infinity to that point
(B) it is defined in terms of the force required to move a unit mass from the surface of earth to
that point
(C) it is defined in terms of the force required to displace a unit mass from that point to infinity
(D) none of these
Rough work

7

18. The density () versus temperature (T) graph of an ideal gas
undergoing a process AB is as shown in the figure. Choose
the incorrect option
(A) P
A
V
A
= P
B
V
B

(B) P
B
> P
A

(C) W
A

B
is positive
(D) DU
AB
= 0
T

A
B

19. An ideal gas of adiabatic exponent is supplied heat at a constant pressure. Then ratio
dQ : dW : dU is equal to
(A) : 1 :
1
(B) 1 : 1 : 1
(C) : - 1 : 1 (D) : 1 : 1

20. In a thermodynamic process helium gas obeys the law TP
2/5
= constant. The heat given to the
gas when the temperature of 2 moles of the gas is raised from T to 4T (R is the universal gas
constant) is
(A) 9 RT (B) 18 RT
(C) Zero (D) Data insufficient

21. A particle moves with a speed v in a circle of radius R . The
x-component of the average velocity of the particle in a half-
revolution, as shown in figure, is
(A)
v
(B)
2
v

(C)
4
v
(D)
2
v

60
y
initial
position
x
final
position

22. One end of a rope is bound to a vertical wall. The other
end is pulled with a horizontal force of 30 N. An additional
force of 10N is applied to the right at the point A in the
middle of the rope. Which of the following is true about
tensions at points P and Q

Q P
10 N
30 N A

(A) T
P
= T
Q
= 40N (B) T
Q
= T
P
= 20N
(C) T
P
T
Q
= 10N (D) T
Q
= 20N T
P
= 40 N
Rough work


8
23. A particle of specific charge
q
m
= C/kg is projected from the origin towards positive xaxis with a
velocity of 10 m/s in a uniform magnetic field
B 2k =
G
T. The velocity v
G
of particle after time
1
t
12
= s will be (in m/s)
(A) 5[

i 3 j + ] (B) 5(

3 i j + )
(C) 5[

3 i j ] (D) 5[

i j + ]

24. The effective charge experienced by an M( n = 3) electron in an atom of atomic number z is about
(z 7.4) e. The frequency of L
X-rays of such an element is

(A)
( )
2
3cR z 1
4

(B)
( )
2
3cR z
4

(C)
( )
2
5cR z 7.4
18
(D)
( )
2
5cR Z 7.4
36

25. Wavelength of K
X-ray of an element A is
1
and wavelength of K
X-ray element B is
2
.
1
2
is
equal to
1
4
and Z
1
and Z
2
are the atomic numbers of element A and B respectively. Then relation
between Z
1
and Z
2
are given by
(A)
2 1
2 1 Z Z = (B)
2 1
2 1 Z Z =
(C)
2
1
4
Z
Z
= (D)
1
2
4
Z
Z
=

26. In Youngs experiment, light of wave length 6000 is used to produce fringes of width 0.32
mm. If the whole apparatus is dipped in a liquid of refractive index 1.6 then fringe width will be
(A) 0.5 mm (B) 0.6 mm
(C) 0.4 mm (D) 0.2 mm

27. A converging lens of focal length 30 cm and a
converging mirror of focal length 40 cm are placed with
their principal axis at a distance of 40 cm from the lens
an object is placed. It is found that final image is formed
at focus of lens, then distance between lens and mirror
is
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
S
Object
40cm
(A) 160 cm (B) 120 cm
(C) 200 cm (D) None of these
Rough work

9

28. The point masses m
1
and m
2
are placed at the two
ends of a rigid massless rod of length l. The system is
set into rotation with an angular velocity about an
axis which is at a distance x from the mass m
1
and
perpendicular to rod. The value of x for which the work
done in the process is minimum is
m
1
m
2
l

(A)
2
l
(B) l
2
1
m
m

(C)
2 1
1
m m
m
+
l
(D)
2 1
2
m m
m
+
l

29. A block of mass m is connected to two springs of spring constants 2k and 3k
respectively, as shown in the diagram, with both the springs being vertical and
fixed at their other ends. Both springs are initially unstretched and the mass m is
given an initial velocity u in the downward direction. The block oscillates. The
amplitude of oscillation of the block is given by
(A)
2
mu mg
5K 5K
+ (B)
mg
5K

2k
3k
m
(C)
2
2
mu mg
5K 5K
| |
+
|
\ .
(D)
2
mu mg
5K 5K

30. In a resonance-column experiment to measure the velocity of sound, the first resonance is
obtained at a length l
1
and the second resonance at a length l
2
, (end correction is taken into
consideration), then
(A)
2 1
3 l l >
(B)
2 1
3 l l =
(C)
2 1
3 l l <
(D) may be any of the above depending on the frequency of the tuning fork used.
Rough work


10
C Ch he em mi is st tr ry y PART II

SECTION A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound

C
O
NH CH
3
Cl

(A) p-acetamido chlorocyclohexane (B) 4-chloro-N-methylcyclohexane carboxamide
(C) N-methyl amido chlorocyclohexane (D) None of the above

2. Compare relative stability of the following resonating structure:

(p)
C
O
N
(q) (r)
C
O
N
C
O
N

(A) p > q > r (B) q > p > r
(C) q > r > p (D) p > r > q

3. How many distinct monochlorinated products (including stereoisomers) may be obtained when
the alkane shown below is heated in presence of Cl
2

(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8

4. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(A) [NiCl
4
]
-2
is Ni(CO)
4
both are tetrahedral in shape
(B) [NiCl
4
]
-2
is paramagnetic while Ni(CO)
4
is diamagnetic
(C) [NiCl
4
]
-2
shows colour while Ni(CO)
4
is colourless
(D) [NiCl
4
]
-2
and Ni(CO)
4
both contains nickel in +2 oxidation state
Rough Work


11
5. The E
2
product of the following reaction will be?

H
Br
CH
3
H
NaOH

(A)
H
CH
3
OH
H

(B)
CH
3
H
H
OH

(C)
CH
3
H

(D)
CH
3
H H
H

6.
O
CHO
COCl
C
O
RO
( ) A
( ) D
( ) C
( ) B

Find out the reactivity order with LiAlH
4
is:
(A) A > B > C > D (B) B > C > D > A
(C) D > C > B > A (D) B > D > C > A

7.
H I
C H
3
O
14
( )
base
A
C H
3
H
O
( ) OH dilute
B
A +
Product B in the above reaction is:
(A)
C H
3
H
O
14

(B)
C H
3
C H
3
H
Br
C
O
14

(C)
C H
3
O
14

(D)
14 O
H

Rough Work


12

8.
OH
Product of the reaction is
C H
3
CH
Et
OAc
( ) d dextrorotatory
(A)
C H
3
CH
Et
OH( ) d
(B)
C H
3
CH
Et
OH( ) A

(C)
C H
3
CH
Et
OH( ) d& A
(D)
C H
3
C
C H
3
CH
2

9. Which of the following product will be obtained in the given (consider minor product also)
Backmann-type rearrangement?

O
O
Me
O
( )
( )
2
5
i NH OH, HCl
ii PCl ,
Products are:

(i)
O
O
N
H
O
Me
(ii)
O
O
N
O
H
Me
(iii)
O
O
N
Me

(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

10. Which of the following will react fastest with sodium?
(A)
CH
2
OH

(B)
CH
2
OH

(C)
CH
2
OH
O

(D) (CH
3
)
3
C OH
Rough Work


13
11. Arrange decreasing order of reactivity of given compounds with NBS (N-Bromosuccinimide)
(I) C
6
H
5
CH
3
(II) C
6
H
5
CH
2
CH
2
CH
3

(III) C
6
H
5
CH
2
CH = CH
2
(IV)
6 5 2
|
3
CH
C H CH CH CH =
Select the correct answer from the codes given below codes:
(A) IV, III, I & II (B) IV, III, II & I
(C) I, II, III & IV (D) I, III, II & IV

12. An excited hydrogen atoms returns to the ground state. The wavelength of emitted photon is .
The principal quantum number of the excited state will be:
(A)
1/ 2
R
R 1
(
(

(B)
1/ 2
R 1
R
+ (
(

(C) ( )
1/ 2
R R 1 ( +

(D)
( )
1/ 2
1
R R 1
(
(
+
(

13. Binding energy per nucleon versus mass number for w, x, y, z are indicated on the curve:

Mass number
5.0
7.5
8.0
8.5
z
y
x
w
Binding energy
per nucleon
(MeV)

The process that would release energy is:
(A) y 2z (B) w x + z
(C) w 2y (D) x y + z

14. Figure shows two spherical containers P and Q connected by a tap T. P contains an ideal gas at
pressure 5 10
5
N/m
2
and temperature 300 K. Q contains same gas at pressure 2 10
5
N/m
2

and temperature 400 K. If the tap is opened the final pressure becomes m 10
5
N/m
2
. What is
the value of m? The volume of Q is four time the volume of P:
P
Q
T

(A) 1.4 (B) 2.4
(C) 1.8 (D) 2.8

15. It is believed that non Stoichiometric compound Fe
0.93
O formed by dopping of Fe
3+
ions in FeO
crystal by replacement of Fe
2+
. The total no. of cationic vacancies in 0.1 mole of Fe
0.93
O are:
(A) 0.07 moles (B) 0.007 moles
(C) 0.021 moles (D) 0.014 moles
Rough Work


14
16. Insulin (C
6
H
10
O
5
)
n
dissolved in a medium shows osmotic pressure at C gm/cm
3
concentration
and 300 K temperature. The slope of against C is 4.1 10
-3
. Molecular mass of insulin is
(A) 3 10
3
(B) 6 10
6

(C) 3 10
6
(D) 6 10
3

17. Calculate the cell potential of the following cell:
Pt(s) | H
2
(g) (0.1 bar) | BOH (0.1 Meq.) || HA(0.1 M) | H
2
(g) (1 bar) | Pt.
Given: K
a
(HA) = 10
-7

K
b
(BOH) = 10
-5

(A) 0.39 V (B) 0.93 V
(C) 0.36 V (D) 0.63 V

18. According to VSEPR theory, the most stable arrangement is
(A)
X
X

(B)
X
X
(C)
X
X

(D) X
X

19.
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
3
2
2 3 2 3
2
AgBr s 2S O aq. Ag S O aq. Br aq.

+ +
ZZZX
YZZZ

Given: ( ) ( )
13 13
sp f 2 3
K AgBr 5 10 ; K Ag S O 5 10
= =
What is the molar solubility of AgBr in 0.1 M Na
2
S
2
O
3
?
(A) 0.5 M (B) 0.045 M
(C) 0.45 M (D) None of these

20. The heat liberated when 1.89 g of benzoic acid is burnt in a bomb calorimeter at 25
o
C, increase in
temperature of 18.94 g water in calorimeter is 0.632
o
C. If the specific heat of water is at 25
o
C is
0.998 cal/g deg. The value of heat of combustion of benzoic acid is
(A) 881.1 k cal (B) 771.4 k cal
(C) 981.1 k cal (D) 871.2 k cal

21. On heating a mixture of SO
2
Cl
2
and CO, two equilibria are simultaneously established:
( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2 2
SO Cl g SO g Cl g +
ZZZX
YZZZ

( ) ( ) ( )
2 2
CO g Cl g COCl g +
ZZZX
YZZZ

On adding more SO
2
at equilibrium what will happen?
(A) Amount of CO will decrease
(B) Amount of SO
2
Cl
2
and COCl
2
will increase
(C) Amount of CO will remain unaffected
(D) Amount of SO
2
Cl
2
and CO will increase
Rough Work


15
22. The number of isomers possible for disubstituted borazine B
3
N
3
H
4
X
2
is
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 5

23. 10 g of bleaching powder on reaction with KI required 50 ml of 2 N hypo solution. Thus
percentage of bleaching powder is:
(A) 100 (B) 80
(C) 63.5 (D) 35.5

24. Which of the following statement is incorrect:
(A) ICl is a good conductor of electricity in fused state
(B) Cl
2
O
7
is an anhydride of perchloric acid
(C) Melting and boiling points of HBr is more than HCl
(D) F
2
form stable oxoacids

25. Functionally active form of vitamin D is:
(A) Cholecalciferol (B) dehydro cholesterol
(C) Ergocalciferol (D) Calcitriol

26. A complex is prepared by mixing CoCl
3
and NH
3
0.1 M solution of the complex was found to
freeze at 0.372
o
C. The formula of the complex is (K
f
= 1.86
o
C/m for H
2
O)
(A) [Co(NH
3
)
6
]Cl
3
(B) [Co(NH
3
)
4
Cl
2
]Cl
(C) [Co(NH
3
)
5
Cl]Cl
2
(D) [Co(NH
3
)
3
Cl
3
]
Rough Work


16

27.
( )
4
MnO /H
A colourless salt A delocalisation of permegnate solution occurs
+
( )
2
H O Heat
gases
x y z, z 'B' + +

Gas y + B Milkiness
Gas burns with blue flame. Mark the correct choice.
A x y z B
(A) CaCO
3
CO CO
2
CaO Ca(OH)
2

(B) CaC
2
O
4
CO CO
2
CaO Ca(OH)
2

(C) CaC
2
O
4
CO
2
CO CaO Ca(OH)
2

(D) CaOCl
2
Cl
2
O
2
CaO Ca(OH)
2

28.
CH
2
CH
2
NMe
3
Cl
CH
3
O
Wolff ishner
reduction
Product (P)
The structure of (P) is

(A)
CH
2
CH
2
NMe
3
Cl
CH
3

(B)
CH
3
O
CH
2
(C)
CH
3
CH
2

(D)
CH
3
O
CH
2

29. Arrange Ce
+3
, La
+3
, Pm
+3
and yb
+3
in increasing order of their size
(A) yb
+3
< Pm
+3
< Ce
+3
< La
+3
(B) Ce
+3
< yb
+3
< Pm
+3
< La
+3

(C) yb
+3
< Pm
+3
< La
+3
< Ce
+3
(D) Pm
+3
< La
+3
< Ce
+3
< yb
+3

30. When an impurity in metal has greater affinity for oxygen and is more easily oxidized the metal
itself then the metal is refined by:
(A) Cupellation (B) Zone refining
(C) Poling (D) Electrolytic process
Rough Work


17
M Ma at th he em ma at ti ic cs s PART III

SECTION A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. In a very particular language code for a true statement is 2 and for a false statement is 1.
(i) Image of the point (2, 3) in the line y + x = 0 is (3, 2)
(ii) Maximum distance between the two points lying on the two given circles
x
2
+ y
2
+ 2x + 4y + 4 = 0 and 2x
2
+ 2y
2
20x 24y + 59 = 0 is 10
(iii) No tangent can be drawn from the (3, 2) to the ellipse 9x
2
+ 16y
2
= 144
(iv) Total four circles can be drawn which touch all the sides of a triangle formed by x = 0, y = 0
and 3x + 4y = 42
If codes of the above statements are written in the form of a natural number in the same
order then that number is
(A) 2122 (B) 2112
(C) 1221 (D) 1212

2. A function f(x) is given by
( )
( ) ( ) ( )
( ) ( ) ( )
2011 4011 6011
1 1 1
2011 4011 6011
1 1 1
1 sin x 1 cos x 1 tan x
f x
1 cosec x 1 sec x 1 cot x

+ + +
=
+ + +

then range of f(x) lies in the internal
(A) (0, 2
6011
) (B) [2
2011
, 2
6011
]
(C) (2
6011
, 2
8011
) (D) [2
10
, 2
8011
]

3. If 2c is the shortest distance between the lines
x z
1
n
=
A
, y = 0 and
y z
1
m n
+ = , x = 0 then which
of the following is true
(A)
2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1
m n c
+ =
A
(B)
2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1
m n c
+ + =
A

(C)
2
1 1 1 1
m mn n
c
+ + =
A A
(D)
2 2 2 2
m n c + + = A
Rough work


18
4. The exhaustive set of conditions on a and b such that the ellipse
2 2
2 2
x y
1
a b
+ = and the hyperbola
2 2
x y
1
25 16
= have exactly four tangents in common are
(A) a (5, 5) {0}; b R {0}; a b (B) a (5, 5) {0}; b (4, 4) {0}
(C) b (4, 4) {0}; a R {0}; a b (D) a (5, 5); b (4, 4) {0}; a b

5. A system of curves is given by
2
2
y
x
25
2
1
2x y = 8
2
y 3
x
2
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(

(
(

. Find the range of values of and such
that the points (1, ) and (, 2) lies in the largest region enclosed by the above system of curves
(A) ( ) 4 5, 1 and (1, 2) (B) ( ) 4 6, 1 and (1, 2)
(C) ( ) 4 6, 1 and (1, 2) (D) ( ) 4 6, 1 and (1, 2)

6. In how many ways Ram can distribute 40 applies in his six children named A, B, C, D, E and F
such that A gets two more than B, C gets 3 more than F and D gets five less than E and any one
must have atleast one fruit
(A) 101 (B) 91
(C) 96 (D) 136

7. A book is having 500 pages printed back to back numbered from 1 to 1000. The number of sides
where digit 3 is printed. Exactly once, exactly twice and thrice is respectively
(A) 228, 29, 1 (B) 243, 27, 1
(C) 233, 28, 1 (D) 300, 26, 1

8. Number of planes containing the two family of lines
x 1 y 2 z 1
2 0 k
+
= = and
x 3 y 1 z k
1 k 2
+
= =

(A) no such plane (B) exactly one plane
(C) exactly two planes (D) exactly three planes
Rough work


19
9. If y = (sin x + cosec x)
2
+ (cos x + sec x)
2
+ (tan x + cot x)
2

where x R {x ; x = n, (2n + 1)/2 n I} and minimum value of y = p then
p
3
(
(

is where [.]
denotes the greatest function
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8

10. Let C
1
and C
2
be two curves on the complex plane defined as
C
1
: ( ) z z 2 z 1 + =
C
2
: arg (z + 1 + i) =
Where (0, ) such that the curves C
1
and C
2
touches each other at P(z
0
) then the value of
|z
0
|
2
is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

11. Roots of a quadratic equation x
2
+ 5x + 3 = 0 are 4cos
2
+ a, and 4sin
2
+ a. Another quadratic
equation is given as x
2
+ px + q = 0 where p, q N and p, q [1, 10]. If roots of second quadratic
equation are real then the probability that they are 4cos
4
+ b and 4sin
4
+ b is
(A)
1
16
(B)
3
32

(C)
1
32
(D)
5
100

12. Let

a i 2j 3k = +
G
,

b 2i j k = +
G
then the vector x
G
satisfying a x a b = and a x 0 = is of
length
(A) 10 (B) 5
(C)
5
2
(D)
5
4

13. Number of integral values of k such that the equation cos
1
x + cot
1
x = k possesses solution is
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 2 (D) 8
Rough work


20
14. If we know that sin A =
12
13
and sin B =
15
17
but the actual values of A and B are not given, then
how many different values of cos(A B) are possible depending upon the actual values of A and
B
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

15. For a triangle if inradius is six units and the distance of the vertices of a triangle from the nearest
point of contact of the incircle with the sides be p.q and r respectively then
pqr
p q r + +
is
(A) 36 (B) 6
(C) 18 (D) 216

16. If f(x) = 3x
9
2x
4
+ 2x
3
3x
2
+ x + cos x + 5 and g(x) = f
1
(x) then find the value of g(6)
(A)
1
2
(B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4

17. Let
( ) ( )
x
0
f x t t dt = +
and the mean value theorem says that there must be atleast one c (4, 9)
such that f(c) is equal to the average slope of f(x) on [4, 9] then for this number c, c c + is
equal to
(A)
123
30
(B)
119
30

(C)
63
8
(D)
111
35

18. For the following system of equations
2 4 1 x y 9
2 2 1 y = x 5
2 1 0 z 4z 3
( ( ( (
( ( ( (
+
( ( ( (
( ( ( (

find the value of
x + y + z = ?
(A) 6 (B) 5
(C)
9
2
(D) 2
Rough work


21
19. Let
n n n n n n
n 0 1 1 2 n 1 n
S C C C C ..... C C
= + + + where n N if
n 1
n
S 15
S 4
+
= the sum of all possible
values of n is
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 5

20. If z be a complex number such that |z
2
| + |z 4| = 5 where R
+
always represents an
ellipse then the number of integral values of is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5

21. Let z be a nonzero complex number and w ( 1) be a nonreal can be root of unity. If the area of
triangle formed by A(Z), B(wz) and C(w
2
z) be 48 3 then |z| is
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 8 3

22. If the coefficient of x
7
and x
8
in the expansion of
n
x
2
3
| |
+
|
\ .
are equal the value of n is
(A) 15 (B) 45
(C) 35 (D) 55

23. Let A(z
1
), B(z
2
) and C(z
3
) be the vertices of a triangle ABC such that z
3
+ iwz
2
= (1 + iw)z
1
where
w is the cube root of unity not 1, then ABC is
(A) isosceles triangle with A
6
= (B) isosceles triangle with A

3
=
(C) right angle isosceles (D) equilateral

24. Given
n 10
n
r
r 0
r 3 7.2 2
C
r 1 10
=
+ | |
=
|
\ + .
then value of n is
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 9
Rough work


22
25. Consider the triangle with sides as a = n + 1, b = n + 2 and c = n with tan C =
4
3
and n N then
area ABC is
(A) 84 (B) 72
(C) 64 (D) 50

26. Number of solutions of the equation
2
3 1 3
cos x sinx 1
2 4
| |
+
+ = +
|
\ .
in the internal [, ] is
(A) 2 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) 8

27. Three vertices of a triangle ABC are given as A(2, 1), B(7, 1), C(3, 4) images of this triangle are
taken in xaxis, yaxis and the line y = x. Now G
1
, G
2
and G
3
are the centroids of the three image
triangles then the area of the G
1
G
2
G
3
is
(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 20 (D) 13

28. For which of the following functions
x 0
lim f(x)
exists
(A)
( )
{ }
x
f x
sinx
= (B)
( )
{ }
x
f x
sinx
=
(C)
( )
| |
x
f x
sinx
= (D)
( )
| |
x
f x
sinx
=

29. If the equation
3 2
x bx cx 1 0, + + + = ( ) b c < , has only one real root . Then the value of
( )
( )
1 1 2
2tan cosec tan 2sin sec

+ , is
(A) (B)
2

(C)
2
(D)

30. Square ABCD is inscribed in a circle point E is on the circle. If AB = 8, then the value of
AE
2
+ BE
2
+ CE
2
+ DE
2
is
(A) 196 (B) 256
(C) 144 (D) 364
Rough work

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X-rays of such an element is

The structure of (P) is

= (B) isosceles triangle with A

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