Boeing 737 New Generation - Questionnaire Warning Systems

Note: A minimum of 75% of good answers is required to pass the test.

YOUR RESULT IS 20.5%. YOU FAILED THE TEST!

1. What is the purpose of the Proximity Switch Electronic Unit? o Monitors the takeoff configuration warning. o Monitors the landing configuration warning. o Monitors the landing gear. o All of the above. 2. The PSEU system on the ground monitors which of the following? o Takeoff/landing configuration warnings o Landing gear o Air/ground sensing o All of the above. 3. A steady warning horn alerts the crew when the landing gear is not down and locked and a landing is attempted. o True o False 4. When is the Proximity Switch Electronic Unit light inhibited? o In flight. o For 1 minute after landing. o All of the above. 5. The takeoff configuration warning horn sounds when the stabilizer trim is not in the takeoff range. o True o False 6. Which of the following is an input into the Stall Management Yaw Damper computers? o ADIRU data. o Anti-ice controls. o Anti-ice controls. o All of the above. 7. Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning system? o Leading edge flaps in the extend position and trailing edge flaps at flaps 5. o Leading edge flpas in the full extend position and trailing edge flaps at 15.

Spoilers partially extended. SPEED BRAKE lever in the DOWN position. 8. While performing the LANDING checklist the PSEU light illuminates on recall. This indicates: o A normal condition o A fault is detected in the landing gear locking system or the air/ground sensing systems o The landing gear configuration warning horn will sound upon landing. o A problem exists in the PSEU system because the light should be inhibited in flight 9. Illumination of the PSEU light on the aft overhead panel will activate the MASTER CAUTION system. o True o False. 10. The landing gear configuration warning horn will activate anytime a gear is not down and locked with the flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at a high power setting (above 34 degrees): o True o False. 11. The GPWS will provide a warning/alert of slow descents into unprepared terrain while in the landing configuration. o True o False. 12. The SMYD computers receive inputs from: o Anti ice controls. o ADIRU's o FMC o All of the above. 13. The Ground Proximity Warning System Test: o Can be performed only on the ground. o Is inhibited from liftoff to 1,000 feet Radio Altitude. o Can be performed only above 1,000 feet Radio Altitude. o Can be performed anytime. 14. When are the GPWS windshear warnings available? o Below 1500 feet AGL. o Below 2500 feet AGL. o Below 3000 feet AGL. o Below 5000 feet AGL. 15. The windshear warning mode of the GPWS has priority over all other GPWS modes. o True o False. 16. When is a traffic advisory issued? o When the other aircraft is within 40 NM. o When the other aircraft is within 20 NM. o When the aircraft is within 40 seconds of the closest approach. o When the aircraft is within 20 seconds of the closest approach. 17. When is TCAS inhibited? o By windshear alerts.

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By GPWS. At low altitudes where traffic avoidance maneuvers are inappropriate. All of the above. 18. The Takeoff Configuration Warning horn sounds if: o Stabilizer trim is not in the green band. o Leading edge flaps and trailing edge flaps are not in the correct position for takeoff. o Speedbrake lever is not in the down position. o All of the above is correct. 19. When does the ALT ALERT light extinguish? o When you level off at the selected altitude. o 300 feet before the selected altitude. o 200 feet before the selected altitude. o 600 feet before the selected altitude. 20. How can you silence the Mach/Airspeed warning inflight? o Slow the airplane speed to below Vmo/Mmo o Press the Mach/airspeed warning test switch o Descent to a lower altitude. o Climb to a higher altitude. 21. The mach/airspeed warning system can only be checked on the ground: o True o False. 22. While flying an ILS approach below 1,000 feet Radio Altitude, a BELOW G/S alert occurs. To cancel the alert: o Correct the flight path back to the glide slope. o Press either pilot's BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT light o The alert cannot be cancelled o The first two statements are correct. 23. Which of the following will illuminate a landing gear configuration warning? o Landing gear disagrees with the position of the landing gear lever. o Landing gear is not down and locked. o Either or both thrust levers are at idle and the aircraft is below 800 feet AGL. o All of the above. 24. The GPWS provides a 'BANK ANGLE' warning when the roll rate exceeds 25 degrees, 30 degrees, and 35 degrees. o True o False. 25. Which of the following is NOT a GPWS mode? o Excessive descent rate. o Excessive terrain closure. o Unsafe terrain clearance when in the landing configuration. o Windshear. 26. While flying an ILS approach below 1, 000 feet Radio Altitude, a BELOW G/S alert occurs. To cancel the alert: o Press RECALL. o Press either pilot's BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT light, or correct the flight path back to the glide slope. o The alert cannot be cancelled. o Select another mode on MCP.

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The volume of the aural alert and the repetition rate increase as deviation increases. 27. The Ground Proximity Warning System Test: o Can be performed only on the ground. o Is inhibited from lift-off to 1, 000 feet RA o Can be performed only above 1, 000 feet radio altitude. o Can be performed any time. 28. The Predictive Windshear alerts are issued: o When TERR switch on EFIS control panel is pressed. o When WPT switch on EFIS control panel is pressed. o Automatically below 1, 200 feet RA. o Automatically below 2, 500 feet RA. 29. Predictive windshear alerts are triggered from: o EGPWS. o Weather Radar System. o Aural Warning Module. 30. Serviceability of the tailskid cartridge isshown by: o A green decal. o A green indicator light o Wear dimples. o A green and red decal. 31. In the event of an over rotation, which part of the tailskid structure contacts the runway? o The skirt. o The fairing. o The shoe. o The cartridge. 32. The terrain displayed in the Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting system is generated from: o Weather Radar correlated with IRS position. o GPWS nav data base correlated with IRS position. o GPWS nav data base correlated with GPS position. o FMC nav data base correlated with GPS position. 33. When is a traffic advisory issued? o When the other aircraft is within 20 NM o When the aircraft is within 20 seconds of the closest approach. o When the other aircraft is within 40 NM. o When the aircraft is within 40 seconds of the closest approach. 34. The Look-Ahead Terrain alerting system will show for terrain: o Within 2,000 feet RA. o Below 1,000 feet barometric altitude. o Above 1,000 feet RA. o Within 2,000 feet barometric altitude. 35. In what mode will the TCAS automatically show if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC switches are selected OFF. o In PLAN, MAP, VOR or APP modes o In MAP, center MAP, PLAN or APP modes o In center MAP, VOR or APP modes. o In MAP, center MAP, VOR, or APP modes.

36. What is correct about the color on the terrain display? o Dotted green terrain 2500 below up to 500 below o Dotted amber - terrain 2000 below up to 500 below o Dotted red terrain more than 5000above the aircraft o Solid red look ahead terrain warning is active 37. Which statement is correct? o When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the minima correctly, there will be no GPWS minimums callouts. o When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the minima correctly, there will be a GPWS minimums callouts, since the callouts are based on the captains minimums selector. o It is impossible to omit to set the minima before any approach, because the aircraft GPWS will remind you in time. o None of the statements above are correct 38. On takeoff the config warning sounds. What can be the cause? o Trailing edge flaps set to 2 o Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition o Stabilizer set in the takeoff range o Takeoff power not set on both engines 39. When can you expect the EGPWS Five Hundred call? o When descending through the 500 feet amber band on the ALT tape on a stable ILS approach. o When descending through 500 feet RA outside 2 dots of the LLZ o If descending through 500 feet RA on a CAT III approach for the FLARE ARM check. o On an ILS approach descending through the amber band and the GS is 1 dot from the glideslope beam.