Final ME Paper I IES 2010

Indias No 1
IES-2010 ME (Paper-I)
Maximum Marks: 200
IES Academy
Time Allowed: Two Hours
Mechanical Engineering (Paper-I)

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRNTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE TN THE ANSWER SHEET. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. This is Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. All items carry equal marks. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. Penalty for wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there, will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO
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Indias No 1
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Q1.
If a Mohr circle is drawn for a fluid element inside a fluid body at rest, it would be (a) A circle not touching the origin (b) A circle touching the origin (c) A point on the normal stress axis (d) A point on the shear stress axis In a Francis turbine, the runner blades are radial at the entrance and the discharge is radial at the outlet. For this turbine (a) The relative velocity is radial at the outlet (b) The absolute velocity is radial at the outlet (c) The guide vane angle is 900 (d) The velocity of flow is constant A gas is being discharged isentropically from a tank of pressure p1 (abs) through a converging nozzle in a receiving chamber of pressure p2 (abs) with critical flow condition in the nozzle exit. If p2 is kept constant and p1 is doubled, the mass rate of flow through the nozzle will (a) Not change (b) Be doubled (c) Be halved (d) Increase by
Q2.
Q3.
2 times
Q4.
Uniform flow in a channel is characterised by the following statement: (a) Total energy remains constant along the channel (b) Gradient of the total energy is parallel to the channel bed (c) Specific energy decreases along the channel (d) Total energy line either rises or falls depending upon the Froude number For a given discharge in a channel at critical depth (a) The total energy is minimum (b) The total energy is maximum (c) The specific energy is maximum (d) The specific energy is minimum For an inclined plane submerged in a liquid the centre of fluid pressure on one side of the plane will be: (a) Above the top edge of the area (b) Vertically below the centre of gravity (c) Below the centre of gravity (d) In the same horizontal plane as the centre of gravity A metal block is thrown into a deep lake. As it sinks deeper in water, the buoyant force acting on it (a) Increases (b) Remains the same (c) Decreases (d) First increases and then decreases
Q5.
Q6.
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Q8.
A tank, open at top, contains a liquid with a relative density of 0.85 to a depth of 1.2 m. The acceleration which should be given to the tank to make the pressure at the bottom atmospheric is (a) 9.8 m/s2 vertically upward (b) 9.8 m/s2 vertically downward (c) 8.33 m/s2 vertically upward (d) 8.33 m/s2 vertically downward In a circular pipe of certain length carrying oil at a Reynolds number 100, it is proposed to triple the discharge. If the viscosity remains unchanged, the power input will have to be (a) Decreased to 1/3 its original value (b) Increased by 100% (c) Increased to 3 times the original value (d) Increased to 9 times its original value Bernoulli equation is applicable between any two points (a) In any rotational flow of an incompressible fluid (b) In any type of irrotational flow of a fluid (c) In steady rotational flow of an incompressible fluid (d) In steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid The speed of sound in air varies as
1
Q9.
Q10.
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(d) p P where T = absolute temperature, = density and p = absolute pressure

T
(a)
(b)
(c)
Q12.
The water level in a cylindrical tank with its axis vertical was lowered from an elevation of 4 m to 2.0 m in 200 s by discharging the contents through an orifice at the bottom of the tank. If the diameter of the orifice is doubled, the time required for the above lowering of the water surface would be: (a) 50 s (b) 100 s (c) 12.5 s (d) 200 s A two-dimensional flow in xy plane is rotational, if u v u u v u (a) (b) (c) = = = x y x y x y
v v = x y
Q13.
(d)
Q14.
A battery is used to light a bulb, run a fan and heat an electric iron in case of a power failure. If each of the above systems has 100 W rating and is run for 15 minutes, what are the work done (W) and heat transferred (Q) by the battery? (a) W = 90 kJ and Q = 90 kJ (b) W = 180 kJ and Q = 0 (c) W = 270 kJ and Q = 0 (d) W = 90 kJ and Q = 180 kJ A reversible engine exchanges heat from three thermal reservoirs A, B and C at 1000 K, 800 K and 200 K respectively. If the engine receives 500 kJ from A and 400 kJ from B then what is the heat exchanged from thermal reservoir C? (a) 450 kJ rejected to thermal reservoir C Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com
Q15.
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(b) 350 kJ rejected to thermal reservoir C (c) 250 kJ rejected to thermal reservoir C (d) 200 kJ rejected to thermal reservoir C
Q16.
A 100 resistor carrying a constant current of 0.5 A is kept at a constant temperature of 300 K by a stream of cooling water. In a time interval of 30 minutes, what are the changes in entropy for the resistor and that of the universe, respectively? (a) 0 and 150 J/K (b) 150 J/K and 0 (c) 300 J/K and 0 (d) 0 and 300 J/K A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.30 kJ/kg K to 0.35 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. What is the type of this process? (a) Reversible (b) Irreversible (c) Impossible (d) Not identifiable with the date given Two reversible engines are working in series between a high temperature reservoir at 1000 K and a low temperature reservoir at 300 K is such a way that the heat rejected by the preceding engine is completely absorbed by the succeeding engine and both the engines develop the same amount of work per cycle. What is the intermediate temperature between first and second engines? (a) 700 K (b) 650 K (c) 350 K (d) Not possible to be estimated with the given date An Electrolux system of refrigeration has (a) No liquid pump (b) One liquid pump (c) Two liquid pumps (d) Three liquid pumps When the lower temperature is fixed, how can the COP of a refrigerating machine be improved? (a) By raising the higher temperature (b) By lowering the higher temperature (c) By operating the machine at higher speeds (d) By operating the machine at lower speeds What is/are the effect(s) of super saturation in nozzle flow? (1) It increases the mass flow (2) It increases friction in the nozzle (3) It increases exit velocity (4) It reduces dryness fraction of steam Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4
Q17.
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(d) 3 only
Q22.
Consider the following statements A tube section diverging in the direction of fluid flow can be used as (1) Supersonic nozzle (2) Subsonic nozzle (3) Supersonic diffuser (4) Subsonic diffuser
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(d) 2 and 3
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Q23.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4 (c) 3 only
Consider the following statements: (1) Fusible plug is a device used to put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to an unsafe limit. (2) Super heater is a device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure. (3) An economizer decreases the steam raising capacity of boiler. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 What is the cause of reheat factor in a steam turbine? (a) Reheating (b) Superheating (c) Super saturation (d) Blade friction If u = ax and v = -ay give the velocity distribution for a two dimensional flow, what is the equation of a stream line passing through the point (3, 1)? (a) xy = 3 (b) x + y = 4 (c) x + 3y = 6 (d) x2y = 9 Consider the following statements pertaining to Room Sensible Heat Ratio (RSHR) line (1) It is the line drawn on psychometric chart through the room conditions. (2) Its slope is the ratio of sensible cooling load to room latent heat load. (3) The supply air condition must lie on this line for satisfactory performance. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 When 40C and 25C are the dry bulb temperatures of air entering and leaving a cooling coil, then the cooling coil temperature is 25C. What is the bypass factor for the case of sensible cooling? (a) 0.20 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.60 A water chiller with a capacity of 30 tons of refrigeration cools 20 m3/hr of water entering at 12C. What is the temperature of water leaving the chiller? (a) 5C (b) 6C (c) 7C (d) 7.5C Why is enriched Uranium required as fuel when ordinary water is used as a moderator? (a) Ordinary water has low moderating efficiency (b) Ordinary water has high neutron absorption (c) Ordinary water has high moderating efficiency (d) Ordinary water has low neutron absorption Which one of the following gases is normally not used as a coolant in nuclear reactor? (a) Hydrogen (b) Helium (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Nitrogen
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correct answer using the code given List-II 1. Impulse turbine 2. Reciprocating pump 3. Reaction turbine 4. Centrifugal pump A 3 3 B 4 2 C 2 4 D 1 1 the code given
IES Academy
Q31. Match List-I with List-II and select the below the list: List-I A. Draft tube B. Surging C. Air Vessel D. Nozzle Codes: A B C D (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) (c) 1 4 2 3 (d)
Q32.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using below the list: List-I (Name of Boiler) List-II (Type) A. Stirling 1. Bent water tube 2. Once through flow B. Cochran C. Lancashire 3. Vertical fire tube D. Benson 4. Incline water tube 5. Horizontal fire tube Codes: A B C D A B C (a) 2 5 4 1 (b) 1 3 5 (c) 2 3 5 1 (d) 1 5 4
D 2 2
Q33.
In a steam power plant, what is the outcome of regenerative feed heating? 1. Increase in specific output 2. Increase in cycle efficiency 3. Improved quality of exhaust steam 4. Reduced condenser load Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Consider the following statements in the context of high pressure boilers: 1. The tendency of scale formation is eliminated due to high velocity of water through tubes. 2. The heat transfer coefficient is increased by increasing the velocity of water through tubes. 3. The steam can be raised quickly to meet the variable load. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which one of the following is the shock that occurs for an airplane traveling at supersonic speed? (a) Normal shock (b) Oblique shock (c) Bow shock (d) Air shock Which one of the following is the correct statement? In a two-stage gas turbine plant with inter-cooling and reheating (a) Both work ratio and thermal efficiency improve Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com
Q34.
Q35.
Q36.
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(b) Work ratio improves but thermal efficiency decreases (c) Thermal efficiency improves but work ratio decreases (d) Both work ratio and thermal efficiency decrease
Q37. Consider the following statements 1. Boundary-layer thickness in laminar flow is greater than that of turbulent flow. 2. Boundary-layer thickness of turbulent flow is greater than that of laminar flow. 3. Velocity distributes uniformly in a turbulent boundary layer. 4. Velocity has a gradual variation in a laminar boundary layer. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Which one of the following is the correct statement? The velocity profiles for fully developed laminar and turbulent flow, respectively, in a pipe are: (a) Parabolic and parabolic (b) Parabolic and elliptic (c) Linear and 1/7 power law (d) Parabolic and 1/7 power law Which one of the following is the correct statement? For the case of laminar flow between two fixed parallel plates, the shear stress is: (a) Constant across the passage (b) Maximum at the centre and zero at the boundary (c) Zero all through the passage (d) Maximum at the boundary and zero at the centre Consider the following statements: The coefficient of discharge Cd of a venturimeter takes into account 1. The effect of roughness of the surface 2. Non-uniform velocity distributions at inlet and throat section 3. Reynolds number of flow 4. Discharge 5. Length of throat 6. Diameter of throat 7. Diameter ratio Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 7 (c) 1, 4, 5 and 6 (d) 2, 6 and 7 Which of the following is the correct statement? A differential manometer connected to a pitot-static tube used for measuring fluid velocity gives (a) Static pressure (b) Total pressure (c) Dynamic pressure (d) Difference between total pressure and dynamic pressure
Q38.
Q39.
Q40.
Q41.
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Indias No 1
(b)
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Q42.
Which one of the following correctly represents the shear stress distribution across a section of a circular pipe having a viscous flow?
pr 2 (a) = x
Q43.
p(r / 2) x
(c)
p( r / 2) x
(d)
p(r ) x
Match List-I (Forms of Bernoullis Equation) with List-II (Units of these forms) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I List-II A. B. C.
pV 2 p + wz 2 p V2 + gz + 2 p 2 p V +z+ 2g w
A 1 2 B 2 1 C 3 3
1. Total energy per unit volume 2. Total energy per unit mass 3. Total energy per unit weight A 1 2 B 3 3 C 2 1
Codes:
(a) (c)
Q44.
(b) (d)
Which one of the following is the correct statement? A frictionless, incompressible fluid flows steadily through a convergent nozzle, then its (a) Energy must decrease (b) Velocity must decrease (c) Pressure must decrease (d) Momentum must decrease Which one of the following statements is correct? For stability of a floating body, (a) M should lie between G and B (in that order) (b) M should lie above B and G (in that order) (c) M should lie below B and G (in that order) (d) M should coincide with B and G Consider the following statements: A rectangular block of wood of size L B H will float in water in such a way that 1. The longest dimension is vertical 2. The longest dimension is horizontal 3. The mctacentre is above the centre of gravity 4. The centre of buoyancy is above the centre of gravity Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 What are the properties of a thermodynamic system, whose value for the entire system is equal to the sum of their values for individual parts of the system? Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com
Q45.
Q46.
Q47.
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Indias No 1
(b) Extensive properties (d) None of the above
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(a) Thermodynamic properties (c) Intensive properties
Q48.
A new temperature scale in degrees N is to be defined. The boiling and freezing point of water on this scale are
100o N respectively. o What will be the reading on new scale corresponding to 60 C ?

and
400o N
(a) 110N
Q49.
(b) 180N
(c) 210N
(d) 280N
Which thermometer is independent of the substance or material used in its construction? (a) Memory thermometer (b) Alcohol thermometer (c) Ideal gas thermometer (d) Resistance thermometer A closed system undergoes a process during which 150 kJ of heat is added to it. The system is then restored in its initial state. If the heat transfer and work transfer for the second process are 50 kJ and + 75 kJ respectively, what is the work transfer for the first process? (a) 25 Kj (b) 50 kJ (c) 75 kJ (d) 100 kJ A heat engine working in a thermodynamic cycle draws 500 kJ of heat energy from a source of 1000 K per cycle and rejects certain amount of heat energy at 300 K per cycle. Then, which one of the following is correct? (a) The amount of heat energy rejected must be 150 kJ (b) The amount of heat energy rejected must be less than 150 kJ (c) The amount of heat energy rejected must be greater than 150 kJ (d) It is not possible to make any statements regarding the amount of heat energy rejected per cycle from the data given The thermal efficiency of the Carnot engine is 0.5. If the engine is operated as refrigerator, what is the C.O.R of the refrigerator? (a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.0 (d) 25 Which one of the following is correct? De Laval turbine is a (a) Simple reaction turbine (b) Simple impulse turbine (c) Velocity compounded impulse turbine (d) Pressure compounded impulse turbine Which one of the following is the correct statement? Reheating of steam under ideal conditions takes place t constant (a) Entropy (b) Enthalpy (c) Pressure (d) Temperature Consider the following statement s about reactors: 1. CANDU reactor is natural uranium fuelled, heavy water cooled and moderated reactor. 2. In a pressurized water reactor the coolant water boils in the core of the reactor. 3. Liquid metal is preferred as a coolant in case of a homogencous reactor. Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com
Q50.
Q51.
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Q53.
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q56.
4. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
What is the material of thick walled canisters in which nuclear waste is buried deep? (a) Zirconium (b) Lead (c) Stainless steel (d) Tin Consider the following refrigerants: 1. Ammonia 2. Carbon dioxide 3. Dichlorodifluoro methane 4. Tetrafluoromethane Which one of the following is the correct order of their boiling points in the descending order? (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 2 4 1 3 Where is an oil separator in vapour compression refrigeration system installed? (a) Between compressor and condenser (b) Between expansion value and receiver tank (c) Inside compressor machinery (d) Outside compressor machinery Which one eco-friendly refrigerant out of the following is used in many domestic and car air-conditioners nowadays? (a) R-22 (b) R-113 (c) R-123 (d) R-134a Which one of the following is the correct statement? Sensible heating of moist air will not affect the (a) Relative humidity (b) Absolute humidity (c) Specific humidity (d) Wet bulb temperature Which one of the following is the correct statement? When moist air passes through a cooling tower the process is. (a) Evaporative cooling (b) Adiabatic saturation (c) Cooling and dehumidification (d) Heating and humidification Which one of the following is the correct statement? During sensible cooling process for a moist air, (a) Specific humidity will decrease (b) Specific humidity will increase (c) Relative humidity will decrease (d) Relative humidity will increase During a comfort air conditioning process, the moisture content of the air may start decreasing. Which one of the following is correct statement? In order to maintain the same level of comfort, (a) WBT should be decreased (b) DBT should be increased (c) Air velocity should be decreased (d) Moisture content should be increased
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Q64.
The comfort air conditioning can be obtained by innumerable combinations of DBT and relative humidity. Which one the following combinations within the comfort zone recommended to save the energy? (a) Higher DBT and lower relative humidity (b) Lower DBT and lower relative humidity (c) Lower DBT and higher relative humidity (d) Higher DBT and higher relative humidity Bernoullis equation is derived by making which one of the following assumptions? (a) The flow is steady only (b) The flow is uniform and incompressible (c) The flow is non-viscous, uniform and steady (d) The flow is steady, non-viscous incompressible and irrigational What is the rate of heat interchange per unit change of volume for a polytropic process?
Q65.
Q66.
(a)
n 1 p 1
(b)
C pV n = C ? = p Cv n n (c) p p n 1 1
(d)
n 1 p n
Q67.
What is the value of n in an adiabatic expansion is supplied or rejected to the surroundings)
pV n
= constant? (no heat
(a)
Q68.
(b)
/2
Cp Cv
(c)
/6
(d)
/3
For an ideal gas, R = 0264 kJ/kg K, What is the value of C p ?
= 118 and heat transfer is 160 kJ.
(a) 1.53
Q69.
(b) 1.62
(c) 1.73
(d) Cannot be determined with the given data
While deriving an expression for efficiency of a Carnot cycle, which one of the following is not a correct assumption? (a) The cylinder head is a perfect insulator (b) Both piston and cylinder are perfect insulators (c) The hot body has infinite capacity (d) The cold body has infinite capacity What is the value of triple point of water? (a) 27316 K (b) 37316 K (c) 290.45 K Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com
Q70.
(d) 312.45 K
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dQ + I 0, T
where I is the measure of
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Q71. 2. For a thermodynamic process,
Consider the following statements: 1. Two reversible adiabatics can never intersect each other.
irreversibility. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 Q72.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A reversible engine receives heat from a reservoir at 700C and rejects heat at a temperature T2 . A second reversible engine operating on Carnot cycle receives heat rejected by the first engine and rejects heat to a sink at 37C. If work output from each of the engines is equal, what is the value of temperature T2 ?
(a) 6415 K
Q73.
(b) 537 K
(c) 516 K
(d) 4985 K
Consider the following statements: 1. The Second Law analysis can be applied to thermodynamic cycles only and not to individual processes. 2. The Second Law analysis clearly gives an idea about the irreversibilities in the heat exchangers where as no idea is obtained from the First Law analysis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 For a compression or heating process, what is the expression for effectiveness ? Increase of availability of the surroundings
Q74.
(a) = (b) = (c) = (d) =

Q75.
Increase of availability of the surroundings Loss of availability of the system
Increase of availability of the system Lossof availability of the surroundings

Loss of availability of the surroundings Increase of availability of the system
Loss of availability of the system Increase of availability of the surroundings
Consider the following statements: 1. Induced draught fans require water cooled bearings. 2. For an induced draught fan installation, the fan size and power requirements are less than those of a forced draught fan installation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q76.
Consider the following statements: 1. In a steam power plant, the volume flow at the low pressure end is considerably reduced by bleeding. 2. Theoretically, the efficiency of a steam power plant increases with the increasing number of feed heaters but the gain is in diminishing return. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Consider the following statements: 1. Reheating in a steam power plant leads to increased condenser requirement. 2. The efficiency of regenerative cycle in a steam power plant is maximum when the temperature of bled steam is equal to the geometric mean of the extreme temperatures of the primary flow cycle. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the following are the advantages of a surface condenser? 1. Less quantity of make up water is required. 2. It is suitable for higher capacity plants. 3. Power requirements of circulating pump and air pump are much less. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and3 Consider the following statements: For a single-stage water cooled air compressor, 1. The volumetric efficiency decreases as the pressure ratio is increased. 2. Shaft power / m 3 / min of free air increases as the pressure ratio is increased. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Consider the following statements in respect of an S.I. engine: 1. The maximum speed occurs when the fuel mixture is about 10% richer than the stoichiometric value. 2. An increase in compression ratio decreases the flame speed. 3. An increase in intake temperature increases the flame speed. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which one of the following is not correctly matched as a measure to be taken to reduce detonation in an S.I. engine? Measure Variable (a) Spark timing Retard (b) Engine speed Increase (c) Intake pressure Increase (d) Combustion chamber shape Make compact Consider the following statements in respect of a C.I. engine: 1. An increase in compression ratio reduces the delay period. Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com
Q77.
Q78.
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2. An increase in injection advance angle increases the delay period. 3. An increase in jacket water temperature reduces delay period. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q83. Consider the following statements: 1. The fuel of cetane number 40 has the same ignition quality as that of a mixture having 40% -methylnaphthalene. 2. In the cetane number testing of an unknown fuel, the engine is first run on the test fuel with injection timing set at 3 before the TDC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q84. Consider the following statements: 1. In a nozzle, if the fluid velocity is greater than the local sound velocity, the duct must converge. 2. In a diffuser, if the fluid velocity is greater than the local sound velocity, then the duct must diverge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 For a convergent nozzle, what is the correct expression for the critical pressure, if the inlet pressure is p1 ?
Q85.
2 (a) p1 +1
Q86.
/ 1
+1 (b) p1 2
/ 1
2 (c) p1 +1
1/
(d) p1
+1 2
2 / 1
The COP of a refrigerator working on a reversed Carnot cycle is 5. What is the ratio of the absolute condenser and evaporator temperatures? (a) 1.2 (b) 1.25 (c) 130 (d) 135 The enthalpy of steam entering a turbine in a Rankine cycle is 3200 kJ/kg. The enthalpy after isentropic expansion is 2400 kJ/kg and the enthalpy at the end of actual expansion is 2560 kJ/kg. What is the turbine efficiency? (a) 75% (b) 80% (c) 85% (d) 90% What is the ratio of the slopes for p-v curves for an adiabatic process and an isothermal process?
Q87.
Q88.
(a) 1/
Q89.
(b) + 1
(c)
(d)
1 +1
What is the molecular weight (approximate) for the gas whose specific heats are as follows? Cp = 1967 kJ/kg K
C v = 1507 kJ/kg K (a) 17
(b) 18
(c) 19
(d) 20
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Q90.
For a Carnot engine T1 > T2 . When T2 is decreased by T with T1 remaining remaining same, efficiency is 2 . Which one of the following is the correct expression for ( 1 - 2 )? same then efficiency is 1 , and when T1 is increased by T with T2
(a) (c)
Q91.
(T2 T1 )T + (T ) 2 T2 (T2 + T ) (T1 T2 )T + (T ) 2 T1 (T1 + T )
(b) (d)
(T2 T1 )T + (T ) 2 T1 (T1 + T ) (T1 + T2 )T + (T ) 2 T1 (T1 + T )
What is the value of slope for an isothermal process on p-v diagram for an ideal gas? (a) - p/v (b) - v / p (c) - 1 / (pv) (d) pv A gas turbine cycle with infinitely large number of stages during compression and expansion leads to which one of the following? (a) Stirling cycle (b) Atkinson cycle (c) Ericsson cycle (d) Brayton cycle A section diverging in the direction of flow can be used as which of the following? 1. Subsonic nozzle 2. Supersonic nozzle 3. Subsonic diffuser 4. Supersonic diffuser Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 only A Pelton wheel operates with a speed of 600 rpm, speed ratio of 044 and a net head of 300 m. What is the diameter of the wheel? (a) 0.32 m (b) 1.07 m (c) 1.51 m (d) 2.14 m For a steam jet angle of 30 (from the tangential direction) at the entrance, what is the maximum blade efficiency (approximate) of a Parson's turbine? (a) 085 (b) 049 (c) 04 (d) 0'3 Which is the most susceptible place for cavitation in a hydraulic turbine? (a) Penstock (b) Blade inlet (c) Guide blade (d) Inlet to draft tube How is specific speed N s of a hydraulic turbine defined as? (N = speed, P = power, Q = discharge, H = head) (a) N s = NP1/2 / H 3/ 4 (b) N s = NQ1/ 2 / H 3/ 4
Q92.
Q93.
Q94.
Q95.
Q96.
Q97.
(c) N s = NP1/2 / H 5/ 4
Q98.
(d) N s = NQ1/ 2 / H 5
In a reaction turbine enthalpy drop per stage is 60 units while the enthalpy drop in the moving blade is 32 units. What is the degree of reaction? (a) 028 (b) 0.46 (c) 053 (d) 187
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(b) Entrance (d) Throat
IES Academy
Q99. Where is shock effect felt in a nozzle? (a) Divergent portion (c) Convergent portion
Q100. What is the value of the Mach number in the convergent portion of a steam nozzle. (a) One (b) Zero (c) > 1 (d) < 1 ( 0) Q101. The inlet and outlet temperatures of at flowing over a heating coil having temperature of 41C are 15C and 28C, respectively. What is the coil efficiency? (a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 90% Q102. The cooling loads for a building are: RSH = 100 kW (Room sensible heat) RLH = 25 kW (Room latent heat) OASH = 10 kW (Outside air sensible heat) OALH = 10 kW (Outside air latent heat) The bypass factor of the cooling coil is 0.15. What are the values of the room sensible heat factor and external sensible heat factor, respectively? (a) 0.72 and 0.8 (b) 0.8 arid 0.79 (c) 0.79 and 0.8 (d) 0.79 and 0.72 Q103. Which one of the following statements is correct? Dew point temperature of a moist air sample remains constant during (a) A sensible heating or cooling process (b) An adiabatic saturation process (c) A dehumidification process (d) A humidification process Q104. Which one of the following statements is correct? For a cooling and dehumidification process, the moist air has to be passed through a coil whose temperature is below the (a) Dry-bulb temperature of the air (b) Wet-bulb temperature of the air (c) Dew-point temperature of the air (d) Critical temperature of the air Q105. Which one of the following is the correct statement? For a specified condenser temperature, the coefficient of performance of a refrigerator, (a) Increases with the increase in the evaporator temperature (b) Decreases with the increase in the evaporator temperature (c) Is independent of the evaporator temperature (d) Is proportional to the square of the evaporator temperature Q106. In a centralized air conditioning system, what is the power of a fan directly proportional to?
(a) Fan speed

(b) ( Fanspeed )
(c) ( Fan speed )
(d) ( Fan speed )
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(b) =
IES Academy
(a) =
Q107. What is the correct expression for momentum thickness ( ) in a boundary layer?
(1
0
u )dy u
u
0
(1
u )dy u
u u2 (1 2 )dy (c) = u u 0
u2 u (d) = 2 (1 )dy u u 0
Q108. What causes flow separation in flow past a solid object? (a) Reduction of pressure to vapour pressure (b) A negative pressure gradient (c) A positive pressure gradient (d) The boundary layer thickness reducing to zero Q109. The rate of flow through a V-notch is proportional to which one of the following? (a) H (b) H1/2 (c) H 3/2 (d) H 5/ 2 Q110. Which one of the following statements is correct? Darcy's friction factor and Fanning friction factor for flow in a circular duct (a) Are equal (b) The former is a non-dimensional wall shear stress (c) The latter is a non-dimensional wall shear stress (d) The former is one fourth of latter Q111. Which one of the following statements is correct? In a fully developed flow through a pipe (a) The velocity profile is parabolic (b) The shear stress is constant over the section (c) The pressure changes linearly with distance (d) The momentum correction factor is zero Q112. Which one of the following statements is correct? The Euler's equation for fluid flow refers to motion with (a) Constant velocity (b) Acceleration along the flow (c) Retardation along the flow (d) Constant acceleration Q113. Which one of the following is the continuity equation in differential form?
(a) AdA + AdV + d = 0 (c)
(b)
dA dV d + + =0 A V
dA dV d + + = Constant A V
(d) AdA + VdV + d = Constant
Q114. What is the depth of the centre of pressure in a rectangular lamina immersed vertically in water upto a depth h? (a) h/4 (b) h/2 (c) 2h/3 (d) h/3
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Q115. Which one of the following statements is correct? According to Bernoulli's equation for steady ideal fluid flow, (a) Total energy is constant throughout (b) Principle of conservation of mass holds (c) Velocity and pressure are inversely proportional (d) The energy is constant along a stream line but may vary across stream lines Q116. Assertion (A): In turbulent flow through a commercial concrete pipe, the friction factor is practically independent of Reynolds number .but depends on the surface roughness. Reason (R): In a commercial pipe, pressure drop is primarily governed by flow separation at the roughness length scales of the wall. (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true Q117. Assertion (A): Refrigerants R11 and R12 have a greater impact on ozone depletion than R22. Reason (R): R22 has a larger number of chlorine atoms. (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true Q118. Assertion (A): The coefficient of discharge of a venturimeter is higher than that of an orifice meter. Reason (R): Orifice meter produces eddies and crosscurrents in the fluid floe, which dissipate energy. (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true But R is false (d) A is false but R is true Q119. Assertion (A): A thermo-dynamic cycle that violates the Clausius inequality also violates the second law of thermodynamics. Reason (R): The Clausius inequality is given by
v
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q
T
0.
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A A is true but R is false A is false but R is true
Q120. Assertion (A): The deviation of a gas from ideal gas behaviour is least in the vicinity of the critical point. Reason (R): The compressibility factor for all gases is approximately the same at the same reduced pressure and temperature. (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true
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Indias No 1

Mechanical Engineering (Paper-I)

(d) p P where T = absolute temperature, = density and p = absolute pressure

100o N respectively. o What will be the reading on new scale corresponding to 60 C ?

What is the value of n in an adiabatic expansion is supplied or rejected to the surroundings)

= constant? (no heat

For an ideal gas, R = 0264 kJ/kg K, What is the value of C p ?

= 118 and heat transfer is 160 kJ.

(d) Cannot be determined with the given data

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a) = (b) = (c) = (d) =

Increase of availability of the surroundings Loss of availability of the system

Increase of availability of the system Lossof availability of the surroundings

Loss of availability of the system Increase of availability of the surroundings

C v = 1507 kJ/kg K (a) 17

(T2 T1 )T + (T ) 2 T2 (T2 + T ) (T1 T2 )T + (T ) 2 T1 (T1 + T )

(T2 T1 )T + (T ) 2 T1 (T1 + T ) (T1 + T2 )T + (T ) 2 T1 (T1 + T )

(a) Fan speed

(c) ( Fan speed )

(d) ( Fan speed )

(a) AdA + AdV + d = 0 (c)

(d) AdA + VdV + d = Constant

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