1

Which one of the following is a short acting glucocorticoid Long-term use of combined oral contraceptive may lead to the following EXCEPT Adverse effects of corticosteroid therapy are following EXCEPT Long term use of oral contraceptives produces following adverse reactions EXCEPT Glibenclamide is used in treatment of diabetes mellitus because Which of the following drugs is used for treatment of thyroid crisis Uses of mifepristone are following EXCEPT Mode of action of acarbose in treatment of diabetes mellitus is Which of the following drugs is an antiprogestin Following are side effects of combined oral contraceptive agents EXCEPT Tamoxifen is used for treatment of carcinoma of breast because it is Which of the following is used in treatment of endometriosis Which of the following corticosteroids is given by inhalation Which of the

Prednisolone

Hydrocortisone

Dexamethasone

Betamethasone

Hyperuricaemia

Hyperglycaemia

Hypertension

Venous thrombosis

Hypotension

Hyperglycaemia

Peptic ulcer

Muscle weakness

Hypertension

Osteoporosis

Hyperglycaemia

Venous thrombosis

It stimulates insulin release from beta cells Methimazole

It is safe in the presence of liver damage I131

It has a very short duration of action

It is useful for juvenile diabetes

Propylthiouracil

Thiocyanates

Antiprogestin

Contragestationa l agent Increases insulin action in tissues

Gluocorticoid antagonist It inhibits intestinal alpha glucosidase

It stimulates insulin secretion

Misoprostol

Mifepristone

Gestodene

Termination of pregnancy in 3rd trimester Increases peripheral utilization of glucose Norgestrel

Hypotension

Weight gain

Breast tenderness

An alkylating agent

An antimetabolite

A hormone antagonist

Increased incidence of venous thrombosis A radio active isotope

Diethylstilbestro l

Danazol

Clomiphene

Mestranol

Hydrocortisone Hemisuccinate

Fludrocortisones

Betamethasone Dipropionate

Triamcinolone

Lente insulin

Regular insulin

Ultralente insulin

Protamine Zinc

following insulin preparations is given intravenously Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding betamethasone Indications for the use of glucocorticoids include all the following except Which of the following is an action of sulphonylurea Following are the effects of hormone replacement therapy EXCEPT With which of the insulin preparations soluble insulin can bind and SHOULD be mixed only with regular insulin Antabuse like reaction can occur with which of the following antidiabetic drugs Mode of action of sulphonyl ureas includes all the following except Drugs causing hyperglycemia Which of the following drugs is not hypoglycemic The various insulin preparations useful in the treatment of diabetes mellitus differ primarily in Steroids

insulin

It is effective in small doses

It is a potent mineralocorticoi d Rheumatic carditis

Its ester can be used by inhalation

Anaphylactic shock

Addisons disease

Its adverse effects are similar to those produced by hydrocortisone Glaucoma

Increases formation of insulin Reduced risk of coronary artery disease Semilente insulin

Produces release of insulin Prevention of osteoporosis

Effective in complete insulin deficiency Reduction of breast cancer incidence

Blood sugar reduction occurs only in diabetics Suppression of symptoms of menopause Lente insulin

Protamine zinc insulin

Ultra lente insulin

Metformin

Chlorpropamide

Insulin zinc suspension

Acarbose

Activating receptors on beta cells of pancreas to release insulin - blocker Ethosuxinide

Inhibiting gluconeogenesis in liver

Enhancing insulin mediated post receptors enzyme reaction Acetylcholine Glibenclamide

Decreasing Glucose absorption from the gut - blockers Chlorpropamide

Glucocorticoids Tolbutamide

Focus of action

Onset and duration of action

Mode of biotransformation

None of the above

Penicillin is effective against

Steroids reduce the rate of repair of tissues thus delays the healing Neisseria meningitis

Exacerbate the inflammatory response

Can be safely given to immunocompromis ed patients Treponema pallidum

Indicated in oral thrush

Neisseria gonorrhea

All of the above

Which drug causes photosensitivity Fluconazole is used for the treatment of A patients suffering from syphilis is given pencillin. He may develop When broad spectrum antibiotics are administered with coumarin anticoagulants, the anticoagulant action may be The mechanism of action of chloramphenicol is inhibition of symthesis of Prolonged administration of streptomycin may result in damage to the A distinct advantage that tetracyclines have over penicillins is that tetracyclines Antibiotic that interferes with DNA function is The drug for choice for treatment of infection involving non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus is Stepwise mutation for drug resistance is seen with Optic neuritis is a side effect of Tetracycline is more preferred in periodontics because First line of antitubercular drug is All of the following are included in antitubercular therapy except

Tetracycline Pemphigus Cholestatic Jaundice

Amino glycoside Herpes simplex Grey syndrome

Penicillin Candidiasis Fanconi Syndrome

Cephalosporin Syphilis Jarish Herxheimer reaction Increased because of decreased renal excretion of the anticoagulant

Reduced because of enhanced hepatic drug metabolism

Reduced because of increased protein binding

Increased because of reduction of vitamin K source

Cell wall

Cell membrane

Protein

DNA

Optic nerve

Facial nerve

Auditory nerve

Trigeminal nerve

Have not side effects

Do not cause superinfections

Are safer to use during pregnancy

Metronidazole

Nystain

Tetracycline

Have a wider range of antibacterial activity Sulphonamides

Ampicillin

Erythromycin

Penicillin G

Methicillin sodium

Penicillin

Streptomycin

Garamycin

Kanamycin

Rifampicin It is broad spectrum antibiotic Streptomycin Isoniazid

INH It has anticollagenolyti c effect INH Rifampicin

Pyrazinamide All of the above

Ethambutol None of the above

Ethambutol Pyridoxine

Cephalosporins Metoclopramide

Penicillinase resistant penicillin is All of the following drugs are components of the MOPP cancer Chemotherpay regimen EXCEPT All of the following are bactericidal drugs against Mycobacterium tuberculosis EXCEPT One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible Nevirapine is a

Methicillin Procarbazine

Amoxycilin Vincristine

Carbenicillin Mechlorethamine

Benzyl penicillin Methotrexate

Rifampicin

Isoniazid

Pyrazinamide

Tetracycline

Amoxicillin

Penicillin G

Piperacillin

Cloxacillin

Protease inhibitor

Which of the following drug does not show renal toxicity AIDS is a disease if the immune system primarily affecting All are macrolides antibiotics except The most preffered acute emetic for emesis induced by anticancer drug is True about aminoglycoside is all except Cotrimoxazole is a combination of Trimethoprim with following sulphonamide In infections caused by staphylococci which produce betalactamase, which Penicillin is not effective Which of the following amino glycosides is used only as topical preparation

Gentamycin

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor Streptomycin

Non nucleoside reverse transciptase inhibitor Methoxyprenaline

Fusion inhibitor

Isoflurane

Granulocytes

Immunoglobulins

Opsonins

T lymphocytes

Erythromycin Ondensetron

Roxithromycin Metaclopromide

Neomycin Clofazimine

Calithromycin Ehthmabutol

Are bacterostatic Sulfamethoxazol e

Distributed only extracellular Sulfacetamide

Excreted unchanged Teratogenic in urine Sulfadiazine Sulfisoxazole

Oxacillin

Cloxacillin

Phenoxy methyl Penicillin

Methicillin

Amikacin

Framycetin

Tobramycin

Gentamicin

Which of the following drugs is effective only in tuberculosis and is not effective against any other organism Which antibiotic group should be avoided to be used in children because of potential risk of arthropathy Which of the following antimalarial drugs acid as an inhibitor of enzyme dihydrofolate reducatse In which of the following conditionsMetronidazole given alone is NOT effective Which of the following is applicable to Amoxycillin Which of the following statements is NOT APPLICABLE to penicillin G Which one of the following extended spectrum penicillins is effective against pseudomonas Which of the following drugs is a betalactamase inhibitor Which of the following antibacterial drug inhibits heptic cytochrome P450 drug metabolizing enzyme system and leads to clinically significant drug interaction Which one of the

Rifampicin

Isoniazid

Amikacin

Ciprofloxacin

Fluoroquinolone s

Marcrolides

Aminoglycosides

Semisynthetic penicillins

Chloroquine

Quinine

Pyrimethamine

Mefloquine

Amoebic dysentery

Asymptomatic cyst passers

Amoebic liver abscess

Amoeboma

It has broad spectrum of activity Highly toxic antibiotic

It is acid labile

Does not produce hypersensitivity reaction Super infections are rare

Has a very long half life

Produce hypersensitivity reaction Amoxicillin

Poor oral efficacy

Ampicillin

Ticarcillin

Cloxacillin

Imipenem

Mecillinam

Clavulanic acid

Aztreonam

Erythromycin

Roxithromycin

Clarithromycin

Ampicillin

Zidovudine

Stavudine

Amantadine

Didanosine

following antiviral agents does not act as anti retroviral Bacterial cell wall synthesis is inhibited by all the following antibiotics EXCEPT Which of the following statement is APPLICABLE to trimethoprim Which of the following drugs can be used for treatment of urinary tract infection during pregnancy Which of the following antitubercular drugs has poor penetration into macrophages Metronidozole is NOT effective for treatment of Which of the following drugs is NOT effective in Leishmaniasis For which of the following drugs peripheral neuritis is associated as adverse effect Which of the following quinolones has broader spectrum of activity against gram positive and gram negative organisms Which of the following antiamoebic drugs is also effective in anaerobic infection Artemether is administered in adults by following route and duration schedule Which of the

Penicillin

Cephalosporins

Vancomycin

Doxycycline

It is bactericidal when used alone Co trimoxazole

It is bactericidal when combined with sulphonamides Tetracyclines

Not effective for treatment of Prostatitis Nitrofurantoin

Has a very short half life

Cephalosporins

Isoniazid

Pyrazinamide

Thiacetazone

Rifampicin

Intestinal amoebiasis Urea stibamine

Extra intestinal amoebiasis Allopurinol

Aerobic infections

Trichomoniasis

Pentamidine

Suramine

Rifampicin

Isoniazid

Ethionamide

Rifabutin

Ciprofloxacin

Sparfloxacin

Nalidixic acid

Pefloxacin

Paromomycin

Metronidazole

Emetine

Chloroquine

Intramuscular for three to five days

Oral for seven days

Subcutaneous for seven days

Intravenous for two days

Agranuloytosis

Thrombocytopen

Hepatotoxicity

Nephrotoxicity

following is a serious toxicity of cyclosporine Which of the following drugs can cause hyperuricaemia as adverse effect Interference with cell wall synthesis of bacteria is the mode of action of all the following antimicrobial drugs EXCEPT Which of the following antifungal agents is also effective in leishmaniasis Antibiotic combinations are indicated except Following antitubercular drugs are administered by oral route EXCEPT Mefloquine is indicated in Which of the following Cephalosporins can be given orally Which of the following Penicillins can cause bleeding as an adverse effect Zidovudine is used for treatment of HIV infection because All of the following drugs are effective for hookworm infection EXCEPT The mechanism of action of sulfonamide is Which of the following is NOT TRUE of gentamicin

ia

Rifampicin

Amikacin

Isoniazid

Ethambutol

Bacitracin

Vancomycin

Cephalosporins

Chloramphenicol

Nystatin

Amphotericin B

Hamycin

Clotrimazole

To produce To decrease synergistic effect adverse reactions Isoniazid Pyrazinamide

To treat mixed infections Rifampicin

To reduce cost to the patient Streptomycin

Cerebral malaria

Cefoxitin

Chloroquine resistant P. falciparum Cefotaxime

As a radical cure for P. vivax Ceftazidime

Routine use for treatment of malaria Cefuroxime axetil

Cloxacillin

Carbenicillin

Amoxicillin

Methicillin

It can cure the infection Bephenium carbamazine

It inhibits viral reverse transcriptase Diethyl carbamazine

Resistance to the drug does not develop Albendazole

It eradicates the infection when used singly Pyrantel Pamoate

Inhibition of synthesis of PABA It is given orally

Inhibition of synthesis of cell membranes It has synergistic action with Penicillin but should not be

Inhibition of protein synthesis Used for topical application to skin

Interfering with ergosterol synthesis It is nephrotoxic

Jarisch Herxheimer reaction is produced by Quinine is used for P. falciparum treatment because Which drug is effective for treatment of anaerobic infectious Half life of mefloquine is Enzyme dihydrofolate reducatse is inhibited by Which of the following penicillin derivatives is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa Which of the following cephalosporins is active against Pseudomonas Which of the following adverse effects is NOT observed with aminoglycoside antibiotics Which of the following antibiotics has a chelating property Pyridoxine is used for treatment of isoniazid induced The phenomenon of antibiosis was demonstrated by Which of the following drug(s) is/are bacteriostatic Drug (s) to be avoided in liver disease is/are

Tetracycline

combined in the same syringe Erythromycin

Penicillin

Fluoroquinolones

It has no adverse cardiovascular effects Furazolidone

Effective in multidrug resistant strains Secnidazole

Toxicity is much less than chloroquine

Resistance to quinine is not known to occur Econazole

Clotrmazole

2 4 hours Sulfonamide

12 24 hours Rifampicin

3 6 days Trimethoprim

2 3 weeks Para aminosalicylic acid

Methicilin

Ampicillin

Oxacillin

Ticarcillin

Cefuroxime

Cefaclor

Ceftazidime

Cefixime

Anaphylactic reaction

Renal toxicity

Ototoxicity

Curare like action

Chloramphenico l

Penicillin

Erythromycin

Tetracycline

Neurotoxicity

Hepatotoxicity

Arthralgia

Drug resistance

Chain and Florey

Waksman

L Pasteur

Fleming

Nalidixic acid

Cotrimoxazole

Ethambutol

Penicillin

Erythromycin estolate

Nalidixic acid

Tetracyclines

All of the above

Which of the following drug combinations is most appropriate Isoproteronol is

Penicillin + streptomycin

Penicillin + tetracycline

Penicillin + sulfonamide

Streptomycin + chloramphenicol

Threshold value for fast channel action potential (AP) is Which of the following 5HT receptor antagonists increases appetite and causes weight gain Which of the following drugs is used in treatment of acute migraine CNS depressant drug which produces sleep but patient may be awakened by inducing pain. This type of drug is called Common side effect associated with all NSAID drugs is Which of the following antihistaminies are effective in preventing motion sickness Mechanism of action of digitalis is/are

Most potent sympathomimet ic bronchodilator Lower than slow channel AP Ketanserin

Least potent sympathomimeti c bronchodilator Greater than level than slow channel AP Cyproheptadine

Most potent sympathomimetic bronchoconstrictor Less negative level than slow channel AP Methysergide

None of the above

Both B and C

Clozapine

Buspirone

Propranolol

Sumatriptan

Mianserin

Antileptic

Antisympathetic

Sedative

Hypnotic

Drowsiness

Gastric irritation

Xerostomia

Constipation

Cetirizine

Cyclizine

Chlorpheniramine

Astemizole

Torsades De pontes is produced as adverse effect by Drug of choice for congestive heart failure in emergency is Most of the drugs used for treatment of migraine act through Antiseptic action of

Inhibition of voltage gated calcium ion (Ca++) channel Cyclizine

Inhibition of Na+ K+ ATPase enzyme Terfenadine

Inhibition of Na+ K+ voltage gated channel Pheniramine

All of the above

Promethazine

Digitoxin

Digoxin

Lanatoside C

Ouabain

Adrenergic receptors

Dopaminergic receptors

5HT receptors

GABA receptors

20 to 70%

70 to 90%

90 to 100%

100%

10

ethyl alcohol is maximum at which of the following concentration Which of the following is only a venodilator Which of the following is short acting Which of the following drugs has highest polarity All are true of Benzodiazepines except

Hydralzine

Glyceryl trinitrate Glyceryl trinitrate Digoxin

Minoxidil

Nifedipine

Isosorbide mononitrate Digitoxin

Erythrityl tetranitrate Lanatoside C

Penta erythritol tetranitrate Ouabain

Diazepam is used in treatment of status epileptius Furosemide

Which of the following diuretics is used in treatment of Glaucoma Quinidine is contraindicated with digoxin because

Benzodiazepam is in the long term treatment of psychic disorders Acetazolamide

Clonazepam is used in the treatment of petitmal epilepsy

None of the above

Spironolactone

Hydrochlorothiazi de

Combination causes hypokalemia

First drug of choice for ventricular tachycardia is Hypolipidemic drug acting by mechanism of bile acid binding is Promethazine is an Unfavourable effect on serum lipid profile is an adverse effect of which of the following drugs Which of the following benzodiazepines do not produce any active metabolite in the body Which one of the following antiarrhythmic drugs in therapeutic doses does not cause ECG

Lidocaine

Quinidine increases plasma concentration of digoxin. Digoxin toxicity may be precipitated Quinidine

Digoxin increases plasma concentration of quinidine. Quinidine toxicity may be precipitated Verapamil

None of the above

Adenosine

Gemfibrozil

Probucol

Nicotinic acid

Cholestyramine

Antihistaminic Propranolol

Pre-anaesthetic medication Nifedipine

Antiemetic drug Enalapril

All of the above Alpha methyl dopa

Diazepam and chlorodiazepoxi de

Flurazepam and alprazolam

Oxazepam and lorazepam

All of the above

Procainamide

Lignocaine

Quindine

Flecainide

11

changes Diuretics are contraindicated with digitalis because of Which of the following is a centrally acting antihypertensive agent Variant Prinzmetals angina is usually provoked by Organic nitrates in low doses cause

Risk of hyperkalemia Hexamethonium

Risk of hypokalemia Alpha-methyl dopa

Risk of hypercalcaemia Diazoxide

Risk of hypocalcaemia Sodium nitroprusside

Emotion

Exercise

Coitus

None of the above

More vasodilatation than arterial dilatation Enflurane

More arterial dilatation than venodilatation

Effect is equal on both types of blood vessels

Which of the following is an inducing agent used in general anaesthesia With which of the following drugs, abrupt withdrawal may result in rebound hypertension Methaemoglobinae mia after prolonged use of high doses can occur with which of the following antianginal drugs Chlorpromazine is a Which of the following antihypertensive drugs has mechanism of action other than inhibition or Renin Angiotensin system Which of the following drugs is used for hypertension during pregnancy Benzodiazepines have Enalapril acts as an

Nitrous oxide

Methohexitone sodium

The vasodilator effect on both types of blood vessels is not dose dependant Ketamine

Guanethidine

Clonidine

Nifedipine

Atenolol

Organic nitrates

Diltiazem

Nifedipine

Propranolol

Barbiturate Enalapril

Tricylic anti depressant Saralasin

MAO inhibitor Hydralazine

Phenothiazine Ramipril

ACE inhibitors

Labetaolol

Hydrochlorothiazide

Alpha methyl dopa

High therapeutic index It is calcium

Low therapeutic index It is ACE inhibitor

Either high or low therapeutic index It is an angiotensin

Unpredictable therapeutic index It is an alpha

12

antihypertensive agent because Mechanism/s of action of GTN (glyceryl trinitrate) in variant angina is/are Which of the following methyl xanthenes is used in CNS stimulation Which one of the following is not an endogenous opioid peptide Which of the following Benzodiazepines has longest elimination half-life Mechanism of action of sodium valproate is

channel blocker Through dilator effect on larger coronary vessels Caffeine Through reduction of cardiac work Theophylline

receptor antagonist Both of the above

blocker Through unmasking of latent pacemakers All of the above

Theobromine

Beta endorphin

Enkephalins

Dynorphins

Interleukins

Flurazepam

Midazolam

Triazolam

Diazepam

Prolongation of sodium ion channel inactivation Mechanism of action Displacing NA of guanethidine as an (noradrenaline) antihypertensive from storage drug is by granules stoichiometricall y Which of the Amantadine following drugs is not useful for treatment of Parkinsonism Which of the Second following drugs are generation currently the tricyclic mainstay of antidepressents treatment of depressive psychosis Sulfinpyrazone is Anti used in treatment of inflammatory Gout because of activity Inverse agonist for Barbiturate benzodiazepine receptor is Histamine receptor H1 associated with acid secretion is Termination of Phenobarbitone action of which barbiturate is brought about by

Facilitation of GABA mediated chloride ion channel opening Inhibiting nerve impulse coupled release of NA

Inhibition of T type calcium ion current

All of the above

Blocking the NA uptake mechanism at the axonal membrane

All of the above

Alpha methyl dopa

Benztropine

Bromocriptine

MAO inhibitors

Barbiturates

Phenothiazenes

Inhibition of uric acid synthesis Beta Carboline

Uricosuric action

Analgesic activity

Picrotoxin

Muscimol

H2

H3

None of the above

Thiopentone

Secobarbitone

Pentobarbitone

13

redistribution Which of the following NSAID should not be used in patients with G-6- PD deficiency Buspirone is an Which of the following effects is not produced by ethyl alcohol The following drugs are avoided with warfarin The antidote for heparin is Agents/Drugs which help in rapid coagulation of Blood Warfarin therapy is prolonged by all except Heparin, apart from releasing lipoprotein lipase in the blood exerts its anti coagulant action by Which of the following statements is not correct regarding warfarin

Aspirin

Flurbiprofen

Diclofenac

Paracetamol

Antianxiety drug Diuresis

Antidepressant drug Cutaneous vasodilation

Antipsychotic drug Euphoria

Antimanic drug Potent analgesia

Antacids

Benzodiazepine

NSAIDs like Aspirin

Penicillinase Astringents

Protamine sulphate Styptics

Pryosulphate Haemostatics

Codeine, dihydrocodeine, paracetmol Potassium sulphate All of the above

Rifampicin

Amoxicillin

Erythromycin

Tetracycline

Binding to calcium

Inhibiting fibrinogen synthesis

Inhibiting prothrombin synthesis

Inhibiting thrombin synthesis

Transient hypercoagulabili ty is seen

Percentage of total body iron distributed to myoglobin is The anticoagulant of choice during pregnancy is Clopidogrel is an

66 %

Better avoided during pregnancy as it may cause skeletal deformity of the foetus 25 %

In a racemic mixture the R from is four times more active than the S form 3%

The anticoagulant effect is seen only after 72 hours of administration

6%

Warfarin sodium

Sodium oxalate

Heparin

Phenindone

A factor which a mucopolysaccaride, present in liver, participating in platelet aggregation is Oral iron formulation is Oral anticoagulant is

Anti hypertensive drug Plasmin

Antidiabetic drug

Antiplatelet drug

Anticoagulant drug Prothrombin

Acetylsalicylic acid

Heparin

Isosorbital citrate Low molecular

Iron dextran Heparan sulfate

Both A and B Lepirudin

Ferrous sulfate Dicumarol

14

Which of the following is produced by recombinant DNA technology for clinical use The dose of aspirin for inhibition of platelet aggregation is Vitamin K2 is specific antagonist for treatment of overdose of all except Parenteral iron therapy is used Which of the following is a specific chelator of iron Following drugs inhibit platelet aggregation except Which of the following agents increases oral iron absorption Iron preparation which can be administered by both I.M or I.V route is Which of the following fibrinolytics is not produced by recombinant DNA technology Menadione is a synthetic form of Drugs which reduce the action of oral anticoagulants are Ticlopidine is an

weight heparin Folic acid

Vitamin B12

Erythropoietin

Vitamin B complex

75mg

600mg

1gm

4gms

Warfarin

Heparin

Dicoumarol

Phenindione

If oral is not tolerated EDTA

Only by I.V. route

Desferrioxamine

Because it is free from adverse drug reactions Penicillamine

Intravenously as a bolus Dimercaprol

Ticlopidine

Dipyridamole

Therapeutic dose of Heparin Phytates

Aspirin

Ascorbic acid

Tetracycline

Aluminium hydroxide

Iron sorbitol citric acid

Iron choline citrate

Ferric ammonium citrate

Iron dextran

Alteplase

Reteplase

Streptokinase

Tenecteplase

Vit A Barbiturates and oral contraceptives Antiinflammatory drug Prothrombin time

Vit D Broad spectrum antibiotics Antibiotic

Vit E Chloramphenicol and erythromycin Anti-arthritic drug

Vit K Phenytoin and phenylbutazone Antiplatelet drug

Which of the following is used in monitoring the dose of oral anticoagulants Which of the following is

Bleeding time

Clotting time

Plasma thromboplastin time

Cryoprecipitate

Platelet concentration

Fresh frozen plasma

Packed red blood cells

15

administered for urgent reversal of warfarin therapy BAL is Chelating agent used in arsenic poisoning is In a patient of megaloblastic anemia, the preferred line of therapy is Facial vein in digastric triangle lies Jugular venous arch is formed by Lymphatics of orbit train into Which of the following is assumed to have similar function as carotid body Epicranius consists of Bony labyrinth of internal ear consists of Submandibular gland is divided into 2 parts by Submandibular duct is wound around by Lateral surface of superficial part of submandibular salivary gland is related to the following except Secretomotor fibres to lacrimal gland pass through ______ nerve The smell of rancid butter is due to Multienzyme complex in humans is The rancidity of oils can be prevented by

Penicillamine Dimercaprol

Disodium edentate Penicillamine

Dimercaprol Calcium disodium edentate Vit B12 + folic acid

Desferroxamine Desferrioxamine

Vit B12 alone

Folic acid alone

Iron supplements

Superficial to mylohyoid Internal jugular veins Sub mandibular lymphnodes Tympanic body

Deep to mylohyoid External jugular veins Post auricular parotid lymphnodes Carotid sinus

Pierces mylohyoid Anterior jugular veins Pre auricular parotid lymphnodes Glomus jugulare

None of the above All of the above Cervical lymphnodes A and C

Occipitofrontalis Cochlea

Parieto temporalis Endolymph

Both of the above Perilymph

None of the above B and C

Hyoglossus

Geniohyoid

Mylohyoid

Stylohyoid

Hypoglossal nerve Lateral pterygoid muscle

Lingual nerve Medial pterygoid muscle

Facial artery Facial artery loop

Lingual artery Submandibular fossa of mandible

Chordatympanic

Nervus intermedius

Auriculo temporal

None of the above

Butyric acid Fatty acid synthetase Tocopherol

Palmitic acid Malonyl CoA carboxylase Copper

Oleic acid Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase Vitamin C

Linoleic acid Adenosine phosphoribosyl transferase All of the above

16

Butter fat is unique in its content of Which ketone body does not possess a keto group The ketosis is due to absence of ________ enzyme in the liver The whole cholesterol molecule is completely synthesized from The rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is Hypercholesterolemi a is not found in Which of the following is not a disease of cholesterol deposition

Saturated fatty acids Acetone

Unsaturated fatty acids Acetoacetic acid

Higher chain fatty acids hydroxybutyric acid Thiophorase

Lower chain fatty acids None of the above

Thiolase

Deacylase

None of the above

Glycerol

Fatty acid

Glucose

Acetyl CoA

HMG CoA Synthase Hyperthyroidism Xanthomatosis

HMG CoA reductase Nephritic syndrome Fatty infiltration of liver

Mevalonate kinase

All of the above

Hypothyroidism Atherosclerosis

Obstructive jaundice Cholelithiasis