G.

Lucarelli

AERONAUTICAL QUIZ

IBN editore

118 ICARO MODERNO

Copyright IBN Istituto Bibliografico Napoleone 2002 Via dei Marsi, 57 - 00185 Roma (Italy) tel. 06 4469828 - Fax 06 4452275 e-mail: info@ibneditore.it www.ibneditore.it

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Ristampa: 4

2012

2013

2014

2015

CONTENTS
Symbols and abbreviations Fluid mechanics The aircraft Flying controls Aerodynamics Propeller Instruments Navigation Pag. 5 10 12 14 18 21 25 28 31 33 35 38 41 46

Mechanics of flight The petrol engine The jet engine Weather Structures

The turboprop engine

Answer key

For aeronautical terms translation: P. Pernazza-G. Lucarelli, Linglese Aeronautico (Part II) Publisher: IBN Roma-Italy (Via dei Marsi, 53 - Tel. 06/4452275)

SYMBOLS AND ABBREVIATIONS

a/c ADF ADI AGL AMSL AOA AS ASI ASL cD CFM CG cL c.s.a. cu in DA dia. DME DR EGT FCU FD ft fps gal/nm GP GPS GS GSo GSr HP in aircraft automatic direction finder attitude director indicator above ground level above mean sea level angle of attack airspeed airspeed indicator above sea level coefficient of drag cubic feet per minute centre of gravity coefficient of lift cross section area cubic inches density altitude diameter distance measuring equipment dead reckoning exhaust gas temperature fuel control unit flight director feet feet per second gallons per nautical mile glide path global positioning system ground speed ground speed out ground speed return high pressure inches inches lb/HP lb/hr lb/sq ft L/D LG LE LF LOP LORAN LP LR M MF MNI MH Ni-Cr OAT PA psi qty RA RAT RCI R-engine RPM SL sq ft TA TAS t/c TC TE TH pounds per horsepower pounds per hour pounds per square foot lift/drag landing gear leading edge low frequency line of position long range navigation low pressure long range Mach number medium frequency Mach number indicator magnetic heading nickel cromium outside air temperature pressure altitude pounds per square inch quantity range of action ram air temperature radio compass indicator radial engine revolutions per minute sea level square feet true altitude true airspeed thickness/chord true course trailing edge true heading

in Hg IAS INS ILS IC ISA lbf lb ft

inches of mercury indicated airspeed inertial navigation system instrument landing system internal combustion international standard atmosphere pound force pounds x feet

TO TTG UHF VHF VNE

take off time to go ultra high frequency very high frequency velocity never to exceed very high frequency omnirange variable pitch vertical speed indicator wind correction angle water gauge

VOR v.p. VSI WCA w.g.

1. An open container is partially filled with a liquid and h is the head at the level of the container bottom. The pressure on the bottom depends A. on h only B. on the volume of the liquid C. solely on the pressure on top of the liquid D. none of the above 2. In a Venturi tube A. the pressure in the throat is maximum B. the flow increases in the enlargement C. the velocity decreases in the entrance cone D. none of the above 3. psi is a unit of A. pressure B. temperature C. force D. energy

FLUID MECHANICS

4. In fig. 1 all cross sections are square; 4 side in A, 10 in C and 6 in E. Entering velocity of the airflow 10 fps. A. the pressure is minimum in C because the duct cross section is maximum B. the weight flow increases from B to C, because the duct expands C. from B to C the volume flow increases but the weight flow remains constant D. the pressure is minimum where the cross section is minimum

Fig. 1

5. Water is flowing in the pipe depicted in fig. 2. Cross sections A and F have the same diameter

A. turbulence is maximum when the water flows from A to F B. turbulence is maximum when the water flows from F to A, because the water hits the cone CB C. there is no turbulence in any direction of flow, because the fluid is a liquid D. with water flowing from A to F there is turbulence only in DE

Fig. 2

6. In the pipe reducer B and in the pipe enlargements A, C and D (fig. 3) the water flow and the pipe roughness are the same. Small pipes 6 dia., large pipes 12 dia. The sequence of increasing pressure drop is

Fig. 3

A. B. C. D.

7. In the following ducts

D, C, B, A A, D, B, C B, D, C, A D, B, C, A

the same CFM of air are flowing. All ducts have square cross section: C 10 side; A, B, D 6 side. Turning radii: R1 = 12, R2 = R3, R3 = 2R1. The sequence of decreasing pressure drop is A. D, A, B, C B. B, A, D, C C. C, D, A, B D. B, A, C, D

Fig. 4

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8. The yaw axis is A. an axis which is vertical in any attitude of the aircraft B. the axis around which the aircraft swings sideways C. the axis around which the aircraft rotates nose-up and nose-down D. the axis around which the aircraft rolls

THE AIRCRAFT

9. The wheel track is A. the diameter of the main wheels of the LG B. the path of the nose wheel during taxying C. the projection, on the side view of the aircraft, of the distance between the centres of nose wheel and main wheels D. the distance between the planes of symmetry of the main wheels of the LG 10. The fin is A. the movable part of the vertical plane of the tail unit B. the fixed part of the vertical plane of the tail unit C. a high-lift device D. a part of the stall warning device

11. The wheel fairings A. are used in fixed LGs to reduce wheel drag B. are used in retractable LGs to close the wheel wells C. are the tyre treads D. are the friction pads of a disc type brake

12.The torque link is A. a spanner B. an anti-shimmy device for the nose wheel C. a gear drive D. the mechanical transmission of the nose wheel steering

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13. A hydraulic actuator is A. a device to drive mechanical elements B. a safetied bolt C. an andjustable spanner D. a shock absorber

14. Elevators and ailerons are controlled by means of A. a pulley and cable system B. push/pull rods C. an electrical system (fly-by-wire) D. all of the above 15. The fuel is part of the A. payload B. zero fuel weight C. TO weight D. weight empty

16. The emergency equipment is part of the A. ballast B. fuel weight C. payload D. operating weight empty

17. The best CG range is A. 08% of the wing mean chord B. 2228% of the wing mean chord C. 6065% of the wing mean chord D. from the TE of the wing mean chord to the LE of the elevator unit 18. An aerofoil section has: chord 8 ft; t/c ratio 12.5%. Maximum thickness is A. 12.5 cm B. 0.125 ft C. 1.25 ft D. 12 in

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19. The movable part of the elevator unit is called A. stabilizer B. rudder trim tab C. spoiler D. elevator 20. Primary flying controls are: A. elevator, rudder, flaps B. elevator, rudder, ailerons C. throttle, flaps, ailerons D. trim tabs, elevator, mixture control 21. The control wheel controls A. elevator and ailerons B. flaps and trim tabs C. rudder D. nose wheel steering

FLYING CONTROLS

22. The control stick back and to the right causes A. right aileron up and elevator down B. right aileron down and elevator up C. right aileron down and elevator down D. right aileron up and elevator up

23. With the control wheel back and rotated to the right and right pedal, the aircraft A. dives straight ahead B. starts a climbing turn to the right C. starts a right turn at constant altitude D. starts a diving turn to the left 24. In a trimmed climb there are A. stabilizer up, elevator trim down B. elevator up, trim down
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C. elevator down, trim up D. elevator up, trim up

25.The stabilator is A. a pitch control surface B. a bank control surface C. a high lift device D. a device to relocate the CG

26. Tailerons are A. a type of flight control surfaces for aircraft without ailerons B. ballast located in the tail for balancing purposes C. tail position lights D. elevators servo-tabs 27. Spoilers are located A. on the wing undersurface B. on the wing upper surface C. at the sides of the fuselage D. on the upper surface of the stabilizer

28. In the landing run of a jet airliner the spoilers A. remain closed, to avoid wing vibrations B. are extended, to dump lift, increase drag and shorten the landing run C. rotate more than 90 to divert the airstrean forwards and obtain reverse thrust D. operate as follows: the windward spoiler is extended to balance the sidewind thrust, the leeward spoiler remains closed

29. For a light a/c with trim tab on the left aileron, a 180 left turn is controlled by means of A. right aileron up, trim down, left pedal B. left aileron down, trim neutral, right pedal C. left aileron up, trim down, left pedal D. left aileron neutral, trim up
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30. The streamlined bodies depicted in fig. 5 have the same maximum cross section (a circle of diameter d) and different fineness ratio (l/d). Their longitudinal axes are parallel to the airstream direction. The body of lowest drag is

AERODYNAMICS

Fig. 5

A. B. C. D.

31. The AOA is the angle between A. the wing chord and the roll axis of the a/c B. the x axis of the a/c and the horizon C. the direction of the airstream and the wing chord D. the flight path and the horizon
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D (l/d = 10) A (l/d = 2) C (l/d = 6) B (l/d = 4)

32. In the throat of a Venturi tube with subsonic airflow A. the pressure increases, the velocity decreases B. the pressure decreases because the velocity increases C. the pressure decreases because the air density decreases D. the pressure decreases because the air density increases E. the pressure decreases because the airflow increases

33. A low-drag subsonic aerofoil section has a thickness/chord ratio around A. 6% B. 12% C. 0.1% D. 18%

34. A high-lift subsonic aerofoil section has a thickness/chord ratio approximately A. 12% B. 6% C. 18% D. 25% 35. Lift depends on A. PA B. TA C. DA D. none of the above

36. Lift increase with A. AS B. air density C. AOA, withing the stalling limit D. all of the above

37. A rectangular wing with unsymmetrical aerofoil section stalls in clean configuration when the AOA is A. between 4 and 8
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B. between 12 and 16 C. between 30 and 35 D. between 45 and 60

38. The direction of lift is A. vertical B. 90 to the roll axis C. 90 to the wing mean chord D. 90 to the flight path

39. In straight and level flight with sidewind, the aircraft drag is pointed as A. the relative wind B. the atmospheric wind C. the x axis of the aircraft D. the TAS 40. The induced drag depends on A. wing skin roughness only B. maximum c.s.a. of the fuselage, wing setting angle C. wing area, dynamic pressure, induced drag coefficient D. dihedral angle, aircraft weight 41. The extension of the flaps A. decreases the wing load B. increases the wing aspect ratio C. increases the wing sweep D. increases the aerofoil camber

42. The extension of a TE flap A. increases maximum cL B. causes a positive no-lift AOA C. decreases pressure on the lower surface of the aerofoil D. decreases cD at all AOA
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43. Slats are located A. on the LE of the stabilizer B. on the TE of the elevator C. on the wing LE D. on the wing TE

44. Slats extension A. decreases the stalling angle B. increases the stalling angle C. has no effect on the stalling angle D. increases both stalling angle and wing setting angle 45. Slats extension A. has no effect on maximum cL B. decreases maximum cL C. increases maximum cL D. decreases cD at all AOA

46. Flaps are used A. to increase service ceiling B. to climb faster C. to decrease fuel consumpion in LR cruise D. to decrease minimum flying AS and TO and landing runs E. not to exceed VNE in a dive

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47. The propeller thrust has A. the same direction and way as the aircraft drag B. the same direction and way as the wing lift C. the same direction as the wing lift but opposite way D. none of the above

PROPELLER

48. For a propeller blade cross-section, the geometric blade angle is A. the angle between the chord and the disc plane B. the angle between the velocity vector of the blade section and the disc plane C. the angle between the chord and the velocity vector D. the angle between the chord and the rotation axis of the propeller 49. In cruising flight the aerodynamic blade angle of a blade cross-section is A. equal to the helix angle B. greater than the helix angle C. smaller than the helix angle D. equal to the AOA of the section 50. The advance per revolution is measured in A. psi B. lb ft C. slug D. ft per revolution

51. For a propeller blade cross-section, geometric slip is A. geometric pitch + advance per revolution B. advance per revolution - geometric pitch C. geometric pitch - advance per revolution D. aerodynamic pitch - advance per revolution

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52. As far as propeller thrust is concerned, the most important part of a propeller is A. from the boss to 35% of the blade radius B. from 65% of the blade radius to the tip C. from 35% to 65% of the blade radius D. all parts listed above have the same importance

53. For a two-bladed v.p. propeller, when the pitch increases, the moment of inertia of the propeller A. increases B. decreases C. does not change D. there is no moment of inertia because the propeller is symmetrical 54. The static thrust of a propeller depends on A. number and surface of blades B. RPM C. pitch D. all of the above

55. The air mass passing through the propeller disc has its minimum cross-section A. in the disc plane B. downstream of the disc plane C. upstream of the disc plane D. there is no minimum section, because the cross section area is constant 56. An unbalanced propeller will A. stop the engine B. vibrate C. increase the preset RPM D. increase the advance per revolution

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57. With T = propeller thrust, N V = TAS of the a/c, m/s C = torque given by the propshaft, Nm = propeller rate of turn, rad/s The propeller efficiency is A. C/TV B. T/CV C. TV/C D. CV/T

58. In an epicyclic reduction gear the planet carrier RPM is A. the same as the propeller RPM B. double of the propeller RPM C. the same as the sun wheel RPM D. half of the fixed gear RPM

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59. Dynamic pressure is A. total pressure - static pressure B. static pressure + total pressure C. static pressure - total pressure D. none of the above

INSTRUMENTS

60. The priciple of operation of the VSI is based on A. dynamic pressure B. gyroscopic inertia C. gyroscopic precession D. static pressure difference

61. The principle of operation of the slip and skid indicator is based on A. pendulum B. static pressure C. dynamic pressure D. Doppler effect 62. Instruments using static pressure are A. baro altimeter, radioaltimeter, VSI B. VSI, baro altimeter, turn and slip indicator C. baro altimeter, ASI, gyrocompass D. baro altimeter, ASI, VSI

63. An instrument based on the gyroscopic precession is A. the turn indicator B. the gyrocompass C. the g-meter D. the tachometer 64. The Doppler radar provides A. AS and drift angle B. GS and drift angle C. GS and TTG D. GS and TH

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65. The GPS is based on A. satellites B. earth magnetic field C. vertical temperature gradient D. master and slave ground stations emitting radio pulses at predetermined intervals 66. The ILS provides A. continuous indication of distance from touchdown B. latitude and longitude of the aircraft C. MH and AS D. indication of position in azimuth and elevation with reference to the GP 67. The INS is A. a mechanized DR system B. a radio navigation system C. a celestial navigation system D. a satellite navigation system

68. Total pressure is used by the A. baro altimeter B. VSI C. ASI D. attitude indicator

69. Instruments based on gyroscopic inertia A. gyrocompass, attitude indicator B. turn indicator, attitude indicator C. attitude indicator, doppler radar D. magnetic compass, fuel qty indicator

70. The following are all gyro instruments A. ASI, gyrocompass, radioaltimeter, g-meter B. VSI, turn and slip indicator, ammeter C. MNI, RCI, voltmeter D. attitude indicator, turn indicator, gyrocompass
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71. The following are all air instruments A. flowmeter, VSI, ADF B. ASI, VSI, baro altimeter C. ASI, VSI, radar altimeter D. ILS cross pointer indicator, baro altimeter, magnetic compass 72. The Pitot tube is a part of the A. VSI B. FCU C. baro altimeter D. ASI

73. All the following instruments give direct or indirect indication of climb A. gyrocompass, altimeter, VSI, ASI B. altimeter, VSI, ASI, attitude indicator C. ADF, altimeter, VOR, turn and slip indicator D. altimeter, VSI, magnetic compass, oil temperature gauge

74. The g-meter (absolute scale dial) of an airliner in straight and level flight indicates A. zero B. 1 C. -1 D. 2

75. The g-meter (relative scale dial) of an airliner in straight and level flight indicates A. zero B. 1 C. -1 D. 3

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76. A FD is A. a fuel emergency discharge system B. an automatic system with an indicating dial for the required flight control action C. a fire-defence system D. a fuel damping type of tank, with internal partitions to avoid fuel sloshing 77. ADI is the acronym of A. automatic distance indicator B. attitude director indicator C. auxiliary data inlet D. altitude digital indicator

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78. For a light aircraft gliding with engine out, maximum gliding range depends on A. wind B. aircraft aerodynamics C. configuration D. TAS E. all of the above 79. For maximum gliding range in still air the pilot must fly the aircraft at A. maximum cL B. minimum cD C. minimum sinking speed D. TAS of (L/D)max

MECHANICS OF FLIGHT

80. From stalling speed to maximum airspeed in straight and level flight, aircraft drag A. decreases down to a minimum, then increases B. increases up to a maximum, then decreases C. remains constant D. increases in direct proportion to the airspeed 81. For a single engined aircraft with fixed pitch propeller in straight and level flight, the necessary power vs TAS A. increases up to a maximum, then decreases B. decreases down to a minimum, then increases C. decreases steadily in the whole speed range D. increases steadily 82. Increasing the a/c weight, the stalling speed A. does not change B. increases C. decreases D. becomes higher than LR speed

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83. At constant weight if the aircraft flies at higher altitude, the stalling IAS A. does not change B. increases C. decreases D. becomes zero at service ceiling

84. In a coordinated turn at constant altitude, increasing the bank angle the stalling speed A. increases B. decreases C. does not change D. a turning stall is impossible, due to the centrifugal force 85. In a TO at full load with 15 plain flaps, the ground run A. is shorter than in clean configuration B. is longer than in clean configuration, due to flap drag C. is not dependent on flap setting D. is shorter than in clean configuration only if the a/c is strongly tailheavy, to make a nose-up attitude easier

86. To take off from a rather short runway the pilot has to A. wait for low OAT and use proper flap setting B. decrease load, line up the a/c at the beginning of the runway, apply brakes, give full throttle and then release brakes C. select rich mixture and low propeller pitch D. all of the above E. wait for tailwind, so the a/c is pushed forward 87. In cruising flight with headwind, petrol saving per mile flown is achieved by means of an AS A. lower than in a no-wind condition B. higher than in a no-wind condition C. same as in a no-wind condition D. fuel consumption does not depend on wind and AS
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88. Landing with wind component from the right, the pilot has to A. follow a track lined up with the runway centre line maintaining the proper WCA until touchdown B. kick off the WCA in the last part of the final leg and fly a right-winglow short final (cross controls: right stick and left foot) touching down right wheel first C. fly a wings-level final with the same heading as the runway, touching down with all three wheels simultaneously D. fly a right-wing-high final leg (left stick and right foot) with the same heading as the runway 89. For a two seater jet trainer, tip tanks fuel A. decreases range, due to tip tanks weight and drag B. increases range C. increases endurance but does not affect range D. increases engine thrust

90. In a loop of a subsonic jet trainer, maximum normal acceleration is approximately A. 4g absolute B. 0,4g absolute C. - 4g absolute D. 20g relative

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91. The drift angle is the angle between A. wind and TH B. wind and TC C. AS and GS vectors D. wind and AS

NAVIGATION

92. The altitude is A. the vertical distance AGL B. the minimum vertical distance from the lowest cloud base C. the vertical distance above the level where pressure is 1013.2 mb D. the vertical distance AMSL

93. An a/c lands on an airport located 1000 m ASL. If the altimeter is set on QFE it reads A. zero B. 3280 ft C. 29.92 in Hg D. 1013.2 mb 94. In ISA a. TAS = IAS at all altitudes B. IAS > TAS at all altitudes C. TAS > IAS except at SL D. IAS > GS except at SL

95. Minimum instrumentation for DR A. VOR, DME, ILS B. magnetic compass, VSI, clock C. magnetic compass, ASI, clock D. artificial horizon, magnetic compass, clock

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96. A straight line on a Mercator chart represents A. a great circle B. an arc of parallel C. an isogonic line D. a rhumb line 97. A straight line on a Lambert chart represents A. a great circle B. an arc of parallel C. an isogonic line D. a rhumb line 98. VOR frequency is A. LF B. MF C. VHF D. UHF 99. A VOR LOP is A. a parabola B. an ellipse C. a circle D. a straight line

100. With a DME a LOP is A. a hyperbola B. a parabola C. a straight line D. a circle

101. With a LORAN a LOP is A. a parabola B. a hyperbola C. a straight line D. a cardioid

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102. The ILS is A. a radar ground mapping system B. an inertial navigation system C. an area navigation system D. an instrument landing system

103. The RA of an a/c depends on A. endurance, GSo, GSr B. endurance, AS C. AS, wind D. altitude, OAT

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104. Piston displacement is measured in A. lbf B. psi C. sq ft D. cu in 105. The Otto cycle is completed in A. two turns of the camshaft B. four turns of the crankshaft C. four turns of the camshaft D. two turns of the crankshaft 106. A stoichiometric mixture A. has a fuel/air ratio 15:1 B. has a fuel/air ratio 1:60 C. has a fuel/air ratio 1:15 D. has a fuel/air ratio 60:1 E. has an air/fuel ratio of 1,41

THE PETROL ENGINE

107. In a four-stroke petrol engine A. the exhaust valve opens twice per cycle B. the intake and exhaust valves open once per turn of the crankshaft C. the exhaust valve opens once per stroke D. the intake valve opens once per cycle E. the intake valve opens twice per turn of the crankshaft 108. In an aircraft petrol engine the compression ratio is A. higher than in a car petrol engine to have more power B. lower than in a car to save fuel and increase aircraft range C. lower than in a car to have a lower weight/power ratio D. higher than in a car to increase aircraft AS

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109. Spark advance A. increases volumetric efficiency B. avoids detonation C. leans the mixture and therefore saves fuel D. none of the above

110. Preignition A. is the same as detonation B. is due to hot spots in the cylinder C. is caused by the magnetos operating in tropical climates D. occurs when the mixture is slightly richer than the stoichiometric one 111. Cowl flaps are A. parts of the flight control system B. turning vanes to decrease pressure loss in the bends of the intake manifold C. movable flaps to control R-engine cooling D. blades of the supercharger 112. In an aircraft petrol engine a supercharger is used A. to cool the engine at maximum power B. to increase the compression ratio C. to balance the crankshaft D. to feed the pilots mask with compressed air at high altitude E. none of the above

113. The reduction gear is used A. to change the propeller pitch in flight B. to have a rotational speed of the propeller greater than that of the crankshaft C. to have a rotational speed of the propeller greater than that of the superchargers impeller D. to avoid reaching transonic speed at the propellers tips E. to have reverse thrust after touchdown
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114. The turboprop engine can be classified A. an IC engine B. a machine tool C. a steam engine D. a synchronous motor

THE TURBOPROP ENGINE

115. A turboprop engine is rated by A. weight B. power (propeller power + equivalent power of the exhaust jet) C. torque at maximum propeller RPM D. total thrust (propeller thrust+exhaust jet thrust) 116. The fuel used for a turboprop engine is A. petrol, as for reciprocating aircraft engines B. kerosene C. a mixture of benzol and butanol D. a mixture of methanol and ethyl alcohol

117. The SFC of a turboprop engine is measured in A. lb/HP hr B. lb/hr C. lb/HP D. gal/nm 118. A turboprop engine operates according to A. a Carnot cycle B. a Rankine cycle C. an Otto cycle D. a Brayton cycle

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119. Typical cruising flight conditions of turboprop powered aircraft are A. 20,000 ft, M = 0.6 B. 6,000 ft, M = 0.6 C. 6,000 ft, M = 1.0 D. 40,000 ft, M = 1,5

120. The power output of a turboprop engine is indicated by means of A. fuel pressure and OAT B. fuel pressure and RAT C. compressor RPM and EGT D. propeller RPM and torque 121. The power of a turboprop engine is approximately supplied A. 80% by the propeller and 20% by the exhaust jet B. 50% by the propeller and 50% by the exhaust jet C. 20% by the propeller and 80% by the exhaust jet D. 100% by the propeller, because the contribution of the exhaust jet is negligible

122. In a turboprop engine the lowest rotational speed is the one of A. the compressor B. the propeller C. the power turbine D. the sun wheel of the epicyclic reduction gear

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123. The jet propulsion is based on the A. earth magnetic field B. inclined plane C. third principle of dynamics D. Pascals principle E. Ohms law

THE JET ENGINE

124. The main parts of a twin-spool axial flow turbojet are put in the following sequence (front to rear) A. air intake, HP compressor, LP compressor, combustion chamber, HP turbine, LP turbine, propelling nozzle B. air intake, LP compressor, HP compressor, combustion chamber, LP turbine, HP turbine, propelling nozzle C. air intake, combustion chamber, LP compressor, HP compressor, HP turbine, LP turbine D. air intake, LP compressor, HP compressor, combustion chamber, HP turbine, LP turbine 125. Turbine blading is made of A. Ni-Cr steel B. cast iron C. brass D. a lead-tin alloy E. galvanized iron

126. In a turbojet engine creeping is likely to occur A. in turbine rotor blades B. in turbine stater blades C. in the compressor rotor blades D. in the air intake E. in the fuel pump

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127. In a turbojet engine maximum axial velocity is reached in A. the combustion chamber B. the HP compressor C. the propelling nozzle D. the HP turbine

128. In a turbojet engine the maximum total pressure is reached in A. the HP turbine B. the LP compressor C. the combustion chamber D. the first stage of the HP compressor E. the last stage of the HP compressor

129. In a turbojet engine the specific consumption is measured in A. lb ft B. psia C. lbf/lbf hr D. slugs/cu ft 130. In a turbojet aircraft maximum continuous thrust is A. greater than TO thrust B. less than LR thrust C. used in holding D. the rated thrust 131. The fuel used in a turbofan engine is A. a mixture of methyl and ethyl alcohol B. petrol C. kerosene D. crude oil E. a propane-butane mixture

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132. In a turbofan the maximum temperature is reached A. in the HP compressor B. in the combustion chamber C. in the air intake, due to the impact pressure D. in the propelling nozzle

133. In a turbojet engine minimum volumetric flow is found A. in the first stage of the LP compressor B. in the last stage of the LP turbine C. at the outlet of the HP compressor D. at the outlet of the propelling nozzle

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134. The air layer up to the tropopause is called A. mesosphere B. stratosphere C. ionosphere D. troposphere

WEATHER

135. The air composition (% in volume) is A. nitrogen 21, oxygen 78, carbon dioxide and nobel gases(1) 1 B. oxygen 21, hydrogen 78, carbon dioxide and noble gases 1 C. nitrogen 78, oxygen 21, carbon dioxide and noble gases 1 D. oxygen 21, helium 68, carbon monoxide 2, sulphur dioxide 6, methane 3 136. The Kelvin temperature of the freezing water is A. zero B. 32 C. 273 D. 288

137. The Farenheit temperature of the boiling water (at SL standard pressure) is A. 32 B. 100 C. 132 D. 212 138. The standard atmospheric pressure at SL is A. 1013 mm Hg B. 760 mb C. 101325 Pa D. 1013 bar E. 29.92 in w.g.
1 Helium, neon, argon, krypton, xenon, radon.

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139. The vertical temperature gradient in the ISA is A. 6,5C per thousand feet B. 65C per thousand meters C. 6,5 K per hundred meters D. 6,5C per thousand meters

140. Flying towards a low pressure area with constant baro altimeter reading A. the a/c will follow a descending flight path with reference to SL B. the a/c will follow an ascending flight path C. the a/c will follow a horizontal flight path D. the altimeter capsule will expand excessively and a failure of the instrument will ensue 141. Hail is A. the american term to indicate slush B. a precipitation of ice pellets C. advection fog on a water surface D. turbulence caused by wind on ground obstacles

142. STAU and FOEHN are terms used with reference to A. wind B. tropical showers C. clouds D. ice formation on the a/c

143. In the Beaufort scale the following sequence indicates increasing wind velocity A. hurricane, strong gale, storm B. near gale, storm, hurricane C. strong breeze, fresh breeze, gale D. gentle breeze, light air, moderate breeze

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144. The following clouds are listed in decreasing altitude A. cirrus, altostratus, stratus B. cirrostratus, stratocumulus, altostratus C. altostratus, cirrus, nimbostratus D. stratocumulus, altocumulus, cirrocumulus 145. The altitude of low clouds formation is in the range A. 02 km B. 012.000 ft C. 5.00015.000 ft D. 24 km

146. Isobars are lines, on a weather map, connecting points A. of equal temperature B. of equal magnetic declination C. of equal magnetic inclination D. of equal atmospheric pressure at a certain altitude

147. A psycrometer is A. an a/c for crop spraying B. a psychological test to select personnel suitable for pilot training C. an instrument for air humidity measurements D. an apparatus for the control of the fuel/air ratio in petrol engines

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148. The shape of a wing cross section is determined by A. the spars B. the LE and TE high-lift devices C. the ribs D. the wing tanks

STRUCTURES

149. The structural elements for the bending strength of a wing are called A. rods B. ribs C. stiffeners D. spars E. struts 150. The wing skin is A. riveted B. bolted C. welded D. screwed

151. A bulkhead is A. an element of the fuselage B. an element of the wing C. a type of airbrake D. a part of the tail plane

152. The most used material in the construction of light aircraft airframe is A. stainless steel B. brass C. galvanized sheet iron D. aluminium alloy
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153. Rivets used in aircraft construction are made of A. copper B. titanium C. avional D. tin

154. In straight and level flight an aircraft wing is subjected to A. bending, shear, torsion B. torsion, compression, shear C. tension, shear, bending D. there are no stresses in straight and level flight 155. Fatigue stress is caused by A. repeated load cycles, also if load is below the elastic limit B. repeated load cycles only if load exceeds the yield limit C. impact D. static load at high temperature

156. Creeping in aircraft structures is caused by A. load at very low temperature B. load at high temperature C. impact D. creeping is typical of masonry structures and has never been detected in metal structures 157. An aircraft with structural limits +2.5 g, -1g is allegedly A. a fighter-bomber B. a semiaerobatic aircraft C. an airliner D. a military trainer 158. In a pull-up manoeuvre normal acceleration is A. positive B. negative C. zero D. sinusoidal
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159. In an inverted loop, normal acceleration is A. head-to-feet B. feet-to-head C. front-to-rear D. right-to-left

160. After a pull-up exceeding the g-limit, an aircraft A. shall be immediately grounded for structure inspection B. may be flown, until next scheduled inspection C. may be flown if cleared by the ground crew chief D. does not need any inspection if there is no visible wing skin deformation 161. On touchdown the main gear legs are stressed at A. traction and bending B. torsion and compression C. compression, bending and shear D. traction and shear

162. Compared to straight and level flight, in a 30 bank coordinated turn there is on the wing structure a load increase in A. bending B. torsion C. shear D. all of the above

163. When an airliner flies at cruising altitude the fuselage inside pressure is A. about 9 psi higher than the outside pressure B. about 0.9 psi higher than the outside pressure C. about 0.9 psi lower than the outside pressure D. about 9 lb/sq ft higher than the outside pressure E. the same as the outside pressure

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164. An aircraft at the end of its operating life recommended by the manufacturer A. should be pulled down due to mechanical failure probability B. should continue to fly to provide good profit, having already been amortized C. should continue to fly because it is well known by crews and its operation is less costly than training air and ground personnel on a new type aircraft D. can be maintained in operation until fatigue cracks are spotted

165. In a single-engined propeller aeroplane the structure supporting the engine is called A. engine support truss B. scaffolding C. push-pull rods assembly D. engine mount E. crank case 166. The ribs are A. longitudinal structures of the fuselage B. transversal structures of the fuselage C. structural elements giving the proper shape to wing and tail surfaces D. heat dissipating fins of the cylinder heads 167. The side stay is A. a wing strut B. an aerial C. a thrust bearing for light loads D. an element of a retractable landing gear

168. The stress on a propeller blade is made of A. traction, due to the centrifugal force B. bending and shear, due to the thrust force C. torsion, due to the thrust force D. all of the above
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169. In flight a propeller blade has maximum bending moment A. at the root B. at the tip C. at 50% of its length D. at the maximum chord cross section

170. The stress on the engine mount of a single-engined propeller aeroplane is due to A. its own weight plus the engine weight (bending and shear) B. propeller thrust (traction) C. reaction torque (torsion) D. all of the above

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ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 46 D A A C A C B B D B A B A C C D B D D B A D D B A A B B C D C B A A C 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 D B D A C D A C B C D D A A D C B C D B B C A A D A D A B A D A C A D 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 B D B B A B B E D A B B A A A D B B B A C D A C C D A C D D B D A D D 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 C D C D D C E D A B B A D A D A B C D A A C E C D C B C D C C D C D A 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 B A B A A D C C D A A D C A A B C A B A C D A A D C D D A A