SEROLOGY ANSWER SHEET 100 POINT EXAM I.

IDENTIFICATION NO ABBREVIATION PLS 25 POINTS

1. PRIMARY REACTION is the specific recognition and combination of antigen with antibody 2. Tumor marker for pancreatic cancer: CA 19-9 3. Primary hypothyroidism: HASHIMOTOS THYROIDITIS 4. Unit used for ASO rapis slide latex: IU/mL 5. The common substrate used for the enzyme peroxidise? TETRAMETHYLBENZIDINE O DIANISIDINE 6. In radioimmunoassay, the sold crystal gamma counter is used to quantify GAMMA RAY emissions 7. A heterophile antibody test for rickettsia: WEIL FELIX TEST 8. Autoimmune disease due to impaired T cell production: DIGEORGE SYNDROME 9. Also known as progressive systemic sclerosis: SCLERODERMA 10. What is the source of the enzyme alkaline phosphatise? BOVINE INTESTINES 11. It is the pH at which proteins exist in an ampholyte state? ISOELECTRIC POINT 12. During paratyphoid fever antibody titer reaches its peak within how many weeks? 3-4 WEEKS 13. SECONDARY REACTION is the conformation of amino acid chain resulting from inter chain hydrogen bonding 14. In dean webb or alpha titration technique, there is an excess of ANTIGEN during the prozone phase 15. During agglutination reaction, the involved particulate antigen is called AGGLUTINOGEN 16. What is the enzyme produced from E. coli? B-GALACTOSIDASE 17. What is the ANTIBODY class used for the neutralization of endotoxin? IgM 18. Significant titer for vaccinated persons for widal? 160 19. Flagellar antigen: H antigen 20. ANA pattern that is seen in progressive systemic sclerosis and sjogrens syndrome? NUCLEOLAR PATTERNS 21. Also known as heavy chain disease? FRANKLINS DISEASE/MALIGNANT LYMPHOMA 22. Causes hyperthyroidism due to thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin: GRAVES DISEASE 23. Autoimmune disease caused by a defect in the maturation of B cells: BRUTONS DISEASE 24. Highly associated to the presence of immunoglobulin light chains in the urine: MULTIPLE MYELOMA 25. Breast cancer associated antigen: CA 15-3

II.

ENUMERATION 13 POINTS

1. 5 points. For heterogenous RIA give 5 methods that may result to the precipitation of proteins/separation step Salting out technique/farr technique Use organic solvents Double antibody technique Use absorption media Use of capture/immobilizing media/solid phase 2. 4 points: Give 4 methods used to determine Rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis Rose-waaler Ziff Modification by heller Euglobin hemagglutination 3. 4 POINTS: Give 4 types of hypersensitivity Basophil mediated hypersensitivity Antibody mediated cytotoxicity hypersensitivity Immune complex hypersensitivity Delayed type hypersensitivity III. MORSE TYPE OF EXAM (2 points each) 32 points Select if: A. If one is correct B. If two are correct C. If three are correct D. If four are correct E. If NONE is correct

1. For serologic application of the principle of precipitation are: C a) CRP DETERMINATION b) ASCOLI RING TEST c) CRP d) TESTING FOR ADULTERATED FOOD 2. In heterophile antibody test for IM: B a) In Forsman Ab: with GPK, antibodies are absorbed. Hence no agglutination with sRBC b) In serum sickness: with GPK, antibodies are not absorbed. Hence agglutination with sRBC. c) In IM: with GPK, antibodies are not absorbed. Hence agglutination with sRBC. d) In serum sickness: with BE, antibodies are not absorbed. Hence agglutination with sRBC.

3. Application of RICE test: C a) TREPONEMA PALLIDUM CF b) REITER PROTEIN CF c) WASSERMAN-KOLMER CF d) BLASTOGENESIS CF 4. Rules in the performance of febrile agglutinin test: E a) Tests are preferably done every 6-12 days b) Definite diagnosis is by 2-3 days c) Antibodies are occasionally formed by related infectious groups d) Battery test is not advocated for brucella and rickettsia spp. NON ARE CORRECT 5. Diseases caused by Rickettsiae typhus group: B a) BRILL ZINSER DSE b) BOUTONNEUSE FEVER c) MURINE /ENDEMIC d) SCRUB TYPHUS 6. Using the rantz-randall test for ASO titer determination: D a) The red cell control must not display hemolysis b) The erythrocyte suspension is composed of human O RBC at 5% suspension c) The Streptolysin O ctrl must display complete hemolysis d) The erythrocyte suspension is composed of rabbit erythrocytes 7. In electrophoresis, movement is dependent on: A a) THE TAGGING BY NON-SEPARATION OF BOUND FROM FREE FRACTION b) DEGREE OF IONIZATION OF PROTEIN AT pH OF BUFFER SOLUTION c) THE USE OF ORGANIC SOLVENTS d) THE USE OF ABSORPTION MEDIA 8. Causative agent/s for rickettsia spotted fever group: C a) R. rickettsi b) R. tsutsugamishi c) R. prowazeki d) R. akari 9. In radial immunodiffusion, consider the following: D a) POLYMERIC Ig DIFFUSE SLOWLY AND THUS MAY LEAD TO UNDERESTIMATION b) HIGH MOL. WEIGHT IMMUNE COMPLEXES RESULT TO FALSELY LOW VALUES c) FALSE HIGH VALUES FOR LOW MOLECULAR WEIGHT Ig d) REVERSE PRECIPITATION MAY OCCUR IN CONDITIONS WHERE THE TESTED SERUM CONTAINS ANTI-Ig

10. Application of indirect immunofluorescence: E a) FADF b) FITC c) DANSYL d) BAIF NON ARE CORRECT 11. Serodiagnostic test for Myco. Pneumonia: C a) CFT b) EIA c) PCR d) DIRECT IF 12. Microbial features of B-hemolytic group A streptococci: B a) Erythrogenic toxins b) L-fucosyl transferase c) Hyaluronidase d) Galactosyl transferase 13. In the WIDAL test rapid slide method: B a) Makes use of the kline slide b) Rotates at 180 rpm for 5 minutes c) Gently shake the commercially prepared salmonella antigens to ensure heterozygous suspension d) A serum volume of 0.08 mL is approximately a 1:20 dilution 14. Serologic features of Myco. pneumonia: B a) Cold hemagglutinins b) Heterophile antibody production which cross reacts with capsular polysaccharide of Strep. Pyo group c) Cross reactive antigens d) Allo antibody production 15. For Q fever: A a) The area of occurrence is Europe, Africa b) The etiologic agent is Coxiella burnetti c) Its reservoir hosts are mites and rodents d) Its mode of transmission is via recrudescence 16. For cold hemagglutinins in Prim. Atyp. Pneumonia: A a) It appears during the 1st week of infection b) It reaches its peaks on 1st to 5th week of infection c) Declines to low levels on the 7th week

IV.

MODIFIED TRUE OR FALSE (3 POINTS EACH) 30 POINTS If TRUE, write TRUE. If FALSE, write the word FALSE followed by the wrong word, and followed by the right word to be placed. EXAMPLE: A. Sir Jon Paul Reyes is the chief medical technologist of DMMC laboratory TRUE B. Maam Kate Faminialagao, is the section head of clinical chemistry FALSE WRONG WORD/S= CLINICAL CHEMISTRY RIGHT WORD/S=SEROLOGY AND IMMUNOLOGY

1. During agglutination, the initial sensitization phase occurs followed by lattice formation TRUE 2. During precipitation sensitization occurs in the area of optimal ratio between antigen and antibody FALSE, WRONG WORD= SENSITIZATION, RIGHT WORD = LATTICE FORMATION 3. In CFT the antigen control contains the antibody and its end result is lysis FALSE, WRONG WORDS= CONTAINS THE ANTIBODY, RIGHT WORD=HAS NO ANTIBODY 4. In CFT, the haemolytic system control is positive for the antigen and the antibody hence lysis is the end result FALSE, WRONG WORD=IS POSITIVE, RIGHT WORD=IS NEGATIVE 5. Double diffusion-single dimension gel precipitation test by Oakley and fulthrope determines the number of antigen and antibody in the specimen TRUE 6. For cold hemagglutinin test for PAP, the highest dilution that shows a 2+ result is considered a positive result. FALSE, WRONG WORD=2+, RIGHT WORD=1+ 7. In Ehrlichioses, the mode of transmission for E. canis is the lone star tick bite. TRUE 8. In tularaemia infection, antibodies usually appear within 3-5 weeks. FALSE, WRONG WORD=3-5, RIGHT WORD=2 9. AFP is a major fetal protein that resembles globulin. FALSE, WRONG WORD=GLOBULIN, RIGHT WORD=ALBUMIN 10. CA 125 is a high molecular weight purine- like glycoprotein useful for non mucinous epithelial ovarian cancer FALSE, WRONG WORD=PURINE, RIGHT WORD=MUCIN

PREPARED BY: KATE FAMINIALAGAO