1

Last Papers Questions & New Model Questions

for Entry Test
Total Questions: 387
GIK Institute,
NUST ,
Agha Khan Medical College,
FAST University,
AIR University
UET and All Medical Colleges
Composed by Shah Sab
MS from GIK Institute
2
1. From the top of a cliff
overlooking a lake a person
throws two stones. The stones
have identical initial speed v
o
but stone1 is thrown downward
at an angle below the horizontal
while stone 2 is thrown upward
at the same angle above the
horizontal .Neglect air
resistance and decide which
stone if either strikes the water
with the greater velocity
a. both stones strike the
water with same velocity
b. stone1 will strike first and
stone 2 later
c. stone2 will strike first and
stone 1 later
d. both will not reach the
water surface.
2. A projectile is launched from
and returns to ground level. Air
resistance is absent .The
horizontal range of the
projectile R = 175 m. and the
horizontal component of the
launch velocity is v
ox
= 25m/s.
Find the vertical component
velocity v
oy
of the launch
velocity
a. Not enough data is given
b. 34 m/s
c. 34cm/s
d. -34 m/s
3. what is the final value of the
horizontal component v
x
of the
projectiles velocity ?(Consider
question 2)
a. Not enough data is given
b. 34 m/s
c. 25m/s
d. -34 m/s
4. Suppose you are driving in a
convertible with the top down.
The car is moving to the right
at a constant velocity. As
shown in figure you point a
riffle straight upward and fire it.
In the absence of air
resistance, where would the
bullet land?
a. behind you ,
b. ahead of you or
c. in the barrel of the riffle.
d. Not enough information
given.
5. Suppose you are driving in a
convertible with the top down.
The car is moving to the right
at a constant velocity. As
shown in figure you point a
riffle straight upward and fire it.
In the presence of air
resistance, where would the
bullet land?
a. behind you , toward the
rear of the car.
b. ahead of you or
c. in the barrel of the riffle.
d. Not enough information
given.
6. When a coin is tossed up in
the air, then there are three
parts to the motion of the coin ,
on the way up , the coin has a
velocity vector that is directed
upward and has a decreasing
3
magnitude. At the top of its path
coin immediately has a zero
velocity. On the way down the
coin has a downward pointing
velocity vector with an
increasing magnitude, in the
absence of air ,
a. acceleration of the coil also
change as velocity
b. acceleration changes
during upward part
c. acceleration changes
during downward part
d. acceleration does not
change throughout the
motion.
7. As a projectile movies in its
parabola path , the velocity and
acceleration vectors are
perpendicular to each other.
a. everywhere along its path
b. at the peak of its path
c. nowhere along its path
d. not enough information is
given.
8. An Alaskan rescue plane drops
a package of emergency
rations to stranded hikers .The
plane is traveling horizontally at
40.0 m/s at a height of 100 m
above the ground. Where does
the package strike the ground
relative to the point at which it
was released.?
a. 181 m
b. 181 cm
c. 150m
d. zero m
9. A long jumper leaves the
ground at an angle of 20
degrees to the horizontal and at
a speed of 11 m/s.How far
does he jump.
a. 384 m
b. 7.94m
c. 0.722 m
d. Not enough information
given
10. A passenger at the rear of a
train traveling at 15m/s relative
Earth throws a baseball with a
speed of 15m/s in the direction
opposite the motion of the
train. What is the velocity of
the baseball relative to Earth?
a. zero
b. 15 m/s
c. 15 m/s
d. 30 m/s.
11. Suggest, how can you throw a
projectile so that it has zero
speed at the top of its
trajectory?
a. throw it at angle less than
90
b. throw it an angle greater
than 90
c. throw it an angle of exact
90 with horizontal
d. throw it an angle of exact
12. You are talking by
interplanetary telephone to a
friend who lives on the Moon
.She tells you she has just won
1 Newton of gold in a contest.
Excitedly, you tell her that you
entered Earths version of the
same contest and also won 1
Newton of gold who is richer?
a. your friend
b. you
c. its a draw
4
13. A clever monkey escapes from
the zoo. The zoo keeper fins
him in a tree. After failing to
entice the monkey down , the
zoo keeper point her
tranquilizer gun directly at the
monkey and shoots .The clever
monkey lets go at the same
instant the dart leaves the gun
barrel , intending to land on the
ground and escape. Then
a. dart always hits the
monkey regardless of the
darts muzzle velocity
b. dart always hits the
monkey depends on the
darts muzzle velocity
c. dart will not hit monkey
d. not enough information
given.
14. Two trains each having a speed
of 30 km/h are headed at each
other on the same straight
track. A bird that can fly 60
km/h , flies off the front of one
train when they are 60 km apart
and heads directly for the other
train. On reaching the other
train it flies directly back to the
first train and so forth. What is
total distance?
a. 90 km
b. 30 km
c. 120 km
d. 60 km/h
15. On two different tracks the
winner of one kilometer race
ran their races in 2
a. min,27.95s and 2
min,28.15s.In order to
conclude that the runner
with the shorter time was
indeed faster how much
longer can the other track
be in actual length.
b. 3m
c. 1m
d. 1.4 m
e. 2m
16. An automobile travels on a
straight road for 40 km at 30
km/h. it then continues in the
same direction for another 40
km/h at 60 km/h what is the
average velocity.
a. zero
b. 40 cm/s
c. 40 m/s
d. 40 km/h
17. The magnitude of the
acceleration of a moving object
is equal to the
a. gradient of a displacement
time graph
b. gradient of a velocity-time
graph
c. area below a force-time
graph
d. area below a
displacement-time graph
e. area below a velocity-time
graph
18. A stone is thrown from P and
follows a parabolic path .The
highest point reached is T. The
vertical component of
acceleration of the stone
a. is zero at T
b. is greatest at T
c. is greatest at P
d. is the same at P and T
e. decreases at a constant
rate.
5
19. A truck is moving forward.
Inside its trailer, a pendulum
hangs from the ceiling at rest
with respect to the truck. It
makes an angle of 12 with
vertical .Then the speed of the
truck is
a. 12 m/s
b. 20m/s
c. 30 m/s
d. We can not calculate the
speed of truck from the
given information.
20. Which of the following is
possible for a kinetic energy
and momentum?
a. A system have zero kinetic
energy but non-zero
momentum
b. A system have zero
momentum but non-zero
kinetic energy
c. A system can have
negative Kinetic energy
d. None of above is correct
21. A 2-kg particle is located at the
origin and a 1-kg particle is
located on the x-axis at x = 3m
.Determine the location of the
center of mass of this two
particle system.
a. 3m
b. 0m
c. 1m
d. None
22. If you are carrying a ball
running at constant speed and
wish to throw the ball so that
you can catch it as it comes
back down should you
a. throw the bal at angle of
about 45
b. throw the ball straight in air
and you get slowdown to
catch it
c. throw the ball straight and
remains standing at that
point
d. throws the ball straight in
the air and continue with
same pace.
23. If a the surface of a frozen
pond were perfectly smooth so
that it would be impossible to
walk across it could you get
from one part to another by
____________ suggest your
answer scientifically
a. lying down
b. rolling
c. jumping
d. crawling
e. None
24. A projectile is fired on Earth
with some initial velocity.
Another projectile is fired one
the Moon with the same initial
velocity then
a. R
M
= R
E
b. R
M
> R
E
c. R
m
< R
E
d. None
25. Which of the following is wrong
statement
a. sound waves transport
energy
b. sound travels in straight
line
c. sound waves travel
adiabatically
d. sound waves travel faster
in vacuum than in air
26. When a wave is reflected at a
rarer surface , the change in
phase is
6
a. 0
b. /2
c.
d. 3 /2
27. Which of the following emits
sound of higher pitch
a. Mosquito
b. Lion
c. Donkey
d. Man
28. A man sets his watch by a
whistle that is 2 km away. How
much will his watch be in error
.Given the speed of sound =
330 m/s.
a. 3sec fast
b. 3 sec slow
c. 6 sec fast
d. 6 sec slow
29. The number of beats heard
per second resulting from two
vibrations
a. Y
1
= Acos 388 t , Y
2
=
Acos384 t ,
b. 4
c. 2
d. 8
e. 4
30. If a distant star is coming
toward the earth , then the
wavelength of its spectral lines
are
a. shifted towards higher
wavelengths
b. shifted toward lower
wavelengths
c. not shifted at all
d. may shift or may not shift
depending on other
factors.
31. A source of sound moves
towards a stationary listener
with 1/15
th
the speed of sound.
The ratio of apparent
frequency to real frequency is
a. 14: 15
b. 15: 14
c. 15: 16
d. 16: 15
32. At normal temperature and
pressure speed of sound in air
is 330 m/s .If pressure is
doubled , speed will be
a. 165 m/s
b. 220 m/s
c. 330 m/s
d. 465 m/s
33. A tuning fork A of frequency
280 Hz gives 5 beats per
second when sounded with
another tuning fork B. On
loading B with a little wax , the
number of beats per second
becomes 3 .The frequency of
B
a. 275 Hz
b. 277 Hz
c. 283 Hz
d. 285Hz
34. Ultrasonic waves exhibit the
properties of
a. electromagnetic waves
b. transverse waves
c. non-mechanical wave
d. longitudinal wave
35. If ultrasonic waves and radio
waves have the same
wavelength of 1.6 cm , then
a. their frequencies are equal
b. their velocities are equal
c. radio waves have higher
frequency
7
d. ultrasonic waves have
higher frequency
36. The range of wavelengths of
the sound that can be heard by
the human ear is
a. 17m to 1.7cm
b. 1.7m to 17 cm
c. 1.7 m to 1.7 cm
d. 1.7 m to 1.7 cm
37. Ultrasonic can be heard by
__________ but cannot be
heard by _____________
a. bats , man
b. bats , dog
c. man , dog
d. man, bats
38. A beam of light coming parallel
to itself from infinity has a
wave-front which is
a. spherical
b. cylindrical
c. plane
d. any other shape
39. Newton postulated his
corpuscular theory on the basis
of
a. colors of thin films
b. Newton rings
c. Dispersion of white light
d. Rectilinear propagation of
light
40. Velocity of light according to
which theory is greater than in
denser medium than in rarer
medium
a. corpuscular theory
b. wave theory
c. Electromagnetic theory
d. Quantum Theory
41. Quantum Theory of light was
proposed by
a. Newton
b. Young
c. Maxwell
d. Planck
42. Original Huygenss wave
theory of light could not
satisfactorily explain
a. diffraction
b. reflection of light
c. interference
d. polarization
43. Wave nature of light does not
support
a. diffraction effect
b. photoelectric effect
c. interference of light
d. emission or absorption
effect
44. The light waves are
a. elastic transverse waves
b. longitudinal elastic
c. mechanical
d. electromagnetic
transverse
45. The range of visible light is
a. 4000A---8000A
b. 80000A----0.40 m
c. 2000A3000A
d. 10
-14
m 10
-12
m
46. The rest mass of photon
a. infinity
b. zero
c. m
o
/1-v
2
/c
2
d. 4m
o
47. The dual nature of light was
enunciated by
a. Huygens
b. Planck
c. Maxwell
8
d. De-broglie
48. The phase difference between
E and B in electromagnetic
waves is
a. zero
b. 90
c. 180
d. 360
49. All particles of wave-front
vibrate
a. in same phase
b. in opposite phase
c. up and down
d. left and right
50. The ratio of E to B in
electromagnetic waves is equal
to
a. c
b. 1/c
c. 4c
d. 1/z
51. When a ray of light enter from
air into water then its
wavelength
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains unchanged
d. becomes infinity
52. The transverse nature of light
wave is verified by
a. reflection of light
b. polarization
c. refraction
d. interference of light
53. If amplitude of waves at
distance d from a point source
is A , then amplitude at a
distance 3d is
a. 3A
b. 9A
c. A/9
d. A/3
54. A transverse wave is given by
the equation
) 100 5 . 0 cos( 9 t x y = m for this
wave
a. amplitude is 8m and
frequency is 100Hz
b. amplitude is 8m and
frequency is 50Hz
c. amplitude 8cm and
frequency is 100 Hz
d. amplitude is 8 cm and
frequency is 50 Hz
55. The amplitude of a wave is
doubled. Then intensity
a. Is doubled
b. Is quadrupled
c. Remains same
d. Is halved
56. If oil of density higher than that
of water is used( in place of
water) in a resonance tube
then its frequency will
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain the same
d. depend upon the density
of the material of tube
57. The frequency of the third
harmonic of a stretched string
is 294 Hz. Then the
fundamental frequency is
a. 47 Hz
b. 98 hz
c. 73.5 Hz
d. 54 Hz
58. As an empty vessel is filled
with water, its frequency
9
a. increase
b. decrease
c. reamisn the same
d. non of above
59. Fundamental frequency of an
open pipe of length 1m is equal
to the frequency of the first
overtone of a closed pipe of
length
a. 1m
b. 1.5m
c. 2m
d. 2.5m
60. A ray of light strikes a glass
plate at an angle of 60 .If the
reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular to each other
than index of refraction of glass
is
a.
b. 2 / 3
c. 3/2
d. 1.732
61. Which of the following
represents Brewsters Law
a. 1 cot =
p

b. 1 cos =
p

c. 1 cos =
p
ec
d. =1 cot
p
62. If the amplitude of the un-
polarized light incident on a
polarizer is A then amplitude of
the polarized light transmitted
through it is
a. A
b. A/2
c. A/ 2
d. None
63. Light waves can be polarized
as they
a. are of high frequencies
b. can produce interference
c. can be refracted
d. are transverse
e.
64. Plane polarized light can be
produced by
a. mirror
b. a slit
c. nicol- prism
d. bi-prism
65. when light is polarized then
i. its frequency
changes
ii. its wavelength
changes
iii. its velocity changes
iv. its intensity
changes
66. A ray of un-polarized light is
incident on surface of glass
plate of n = 1.54 .If tan 57 =
1.54 , angle of refraction is
a. 57
b. 43
c. 90
d. 33
67. Which of the following waves
can not be polarized
a. Radio waves
b. UV rays
c. X-rays
d. Ultrasonic waves
68. Which of the following
phenomena not common to
sound and light waves
a. interference
b. diffraction
10
c. coherence
d. polarization
69. A body has +4C of charge .It
means that it has
a. an excess of 12*10
9
electrons
b. a deficit of 12 *10
9
electrons
c. an excess of 25*10
18
electrons
d. a deficit of 25 *10
18
electrons
70. Which of the following can
discharge a certain amount of
charge on them in shortest time
a. sphere
b. Cylinder
c. Cone
d. Rectangular pyramid
71. Two point charges one nine
times as strong as the other
repel each other with a force of
81*10
-9
N when placed in air
one meter apart .Two charges
are
a. + 1nC , + 9nC
b. -1nC , - 9nC
c. nC nC 9 , 1
d. + 1 nC , -9 nC
72. The gap in the spark plug is 0.2
cm. The potential difference
needed to produce a spark
given that the break down field
strength of air is 3*10
6
V/m will
be
a. 2000 V
b. 3000V
c. 4000V
d. 6000V
73. A smaller sphere carrying a
charge +q
1
is placed inside a
larger sphere carrying an other
charge + q
2
. If the two spheres
are connected by a copper
wire the charge on the smaller
sphere will be
a. q
2
q
1
b. q
1
q
2
c. (q
1
+q
2
)/2
d. zero
74. A charge placed between two
similar and opposite charges is
slightly displaced from its
equilibrium position .Then it will
a. oscillate with respect to
equilibrium
b. remain stable in the new
position
c. return back to its initial
position
d. move with uniform velocity
of acceleration
75. A small oil drop of mass 10
-6
kg
is hanging in at rest between
two plates separated by 1 mm
having a p.d of 490V. The
charge on the drop is
a. 210
-11
C
b. 210
-8
C
c. 210
-6
C
d. 210
-9
C
76. A charge Q is placed at the
mid point of the line joining two
similar positive equal charges
q and q. The charges q wii be
in equilibrium if Q is equal to
a. - q
b. q/4
c. -q/4
d. q
77. A proton is moved between
two points whose potential
11
difference is 20V. The energy
acquired by the proton is
a. 3210
-19
J
b. 3210
-16
J
c. 3210
-14
J
d. 3210
-13
J
78. A cube of side a has charges 4
C at each of the corners. The
potential at the center of this
cube whose distance from each
corner is 32 cm will be
a. 9 10
5
V
b. 9 10
9
V
c. 9 10
11
V
d. 7210
10
V
79. A person standing barefoot on
the ground comes into contact
with a high power line. He is
likely to
a. experience a mild shock
b. experience a moderate
hock
c. experience a fatal shock
d. remain unaffected.
80. Total electric flux emanating
from a unit positive charge
placed in air is
i.
ii.
1

iii. d
o
4
iv. ( )
1
4

o

81. When 10
19
electrons are
removed from a neutral metal
plate, the electric charge on its
is (coulomb)
a. + 1.6
b. 1.6
c. 10
-19
d. 10
19
82. When a positively charged
conductor is earth connected :
a. electrons flow from the
conductor of the earth
b. No charge flow occurs
c. Protons flow from the
conductor to the earth
d. Electrons flow from the
earth to the conductor
83. The minimum charge on an
object can be
a. once coulomb
b. one stat- coulomb
c. 1.610
-19
C
d. 3.210
-19
C
84. Capacity of a conductor
depends on
a. the size and shape of the
conductor only
b. the dielectric medium
surrounding it only
c. nature of nearby
conductors only
d. all the above
85. A sheet of plastic is introduced
in the space between the
plates of a capacitor then
a. electric field increases and
capacity decreases
b. electric field decreases
and capacity increases
c. both electric field and
capacity increase
d. both electric field and
capacity decrease.
86. A current of 16 mA flows
through a conductor. The
12
number of electrons flowing per
second is
a. 10
14
b. 10
15
c. 10
-17
d. 10
17
87. The resistance of a wire is R.It
is stretched uniformly so that its
length is tripled. The new
resistance of the wire is
a. 3R
b. R
c. R/3
d. 9R
88. A wire of resistance 1ohm is
divided into two halves and
both halves are connected in
parallel. The new resistance will
be
a. 1ohm
b. 2 ohm
c. 0.5 ohm
d. 0.25 ohm
89. Which of the following show
non-ohmic behavior?
a. Diode
b. Tungsten wire
c. Copper wire
d. Carbon
90. A piece of copper wire of
resistance R is cut into three
equal parts. They are then
connected in parallel. The
effective resistance of the
combination is
a. 0.1R
b. 10R
c. 0.01R
d. 100R
91. A number of resistors are
connected in parallel. The
equivalent resistance is
a. higher than the highest of
component resistors
b. smaller than the smallest
of component resistors
c. in between the smallest
and highest component
resistors
d. equal to the sum of
component resistors
92. Post office-box works on the
principal of
a. Galvanometer
b. Wheatstone bridge
c. Potenio-meter
d. Avo-meter
93. P,Q,R and S are the
resistances in the four arms of
the Wheatstone bridge .The
bridge is most sensitive when
a. P =Q , and R=S
b. P+Q = R+S
c. P-Q = R-S
d. None
94. Meter bridge is used to
measure
a. charge
b. current
c. resistance
d. potential difference
95. In the Wheatstone bridge, Q =
10 ohm ; R = 3 ohm ; S =2
ohm. Find the P for the full
deflection of the
galvanometer?
a. 5 ohm
b. 10 ohm
c. 15 ohm
d. 20 ohm
13
96. Diamond is extremely hard
because
a. it has hight melting point
b. it is insoluble in all solvents
c. it is a covalent solid
d. it has largest cohesive
energy
97. In good conductors electricity ,
the type of bonding is
a. metallic
b. ionic
c. covalent
d. Van-der Wall
98. A hydrogen atom is a
paramagnetic. A hydrogen
molecule is a
a. diamagnetic
b. paramagnetic
c. ferromagnetic
d. anti-ferromagnetic
99. When the number of turns in a
coil is doubled without any
change in the length of the coil ,
its self inductance becomes
a. 4 times
b. 2 times
c. halved
d. remains unchanged
100. A bulb is connected first with
DC and the with AC of same
voltage , then it will shine more
brightly with
a. AC
b. DC
c. brightness will be in ratio
1/1.4
d. equally with both
101. The voltage of an AC source
varies with time according to
the equation V = 100 Sin t ,
where t is in seconds and V is
in Volts. Then
a. the peak voltage of the
source is 100 volts
b. the peak voltage of the
source is 50 volts
c. the peak voltage of the
source is 1002
d. the frequency of the
source is 50 Hz
102. The rms value of an ac of 50
Hz is 10 amp , The time taken
by alternating current in
reaching from zero to
maximum value and the peak
value will be
a. 3210
-19
V
b. 3210
-19
V
c. 3210
-19
V
d. 3210
-19
J
103. Impurity atoms with which pure
silicon should be doped to
make p-type semiconductor
are those of
a. phosphorous
b. arsenic
c. antimony
d. aluminum
104. Semiconductor device is
connected in series with a
battery and a resistance. A
current is found to pass
through the circuit. If polarity of
the battery is reversed the
current reduces almost to zero.
The device may be
a. a p-n junction
b. a p-type semiconductor
14
c. a n-type semiconductor
d. an intrinsic semiconductor
105. Width of the depletion line in a
p-n junction diode
i. increases when
forward bias is
applied
ii. increases when
reverse bias is
applied
iii. decreases when
reverse bias is
applied
iv. Does not depend
on biasing
106. In p-n junction diode
i. current is the
reverse bias
condition is
generally small
ii. Forward bias
current is small as
compare to reverse
bias
iii. Forward current is
independent of the
bias voltage
iv. Reverse bias
current is
independent of the
bias voltage
107. Width of depletion region is of
an unbiased p-n junction is of
the order of
i. m
ii. mm
iii. cm
iv. nm
108. The charge depletion region in
a junction diode is due to
i. Minority carriers
ii. Mobile acceptor
and donor ions
iii. Fixed acceptor and
donor ions
iv. Majority carriers
109. Forward biasing of a p-n
junction offers
i. Zero resistance
ii. Low resistance
iii. High resistance
iv. Infinite resistance
110. In forward bias with of
depletion in a p-n junction
diode
i. Decreases
ii. Increases
iii. remains constant
iv. First increases and
then decreases
111. The typical ionization energy
of a donor in silicon is
i. 10eV
ii. 1eV
iii. 0.1eV
iv. 0.001eV
112. Which of the following
represents the symbol of n-p-n
transistor?
i. (1)
ii. (2)
iii. (3)
iv. (4)
113. When the p-n junction diode is
reverse biased, then
i. Potential barrier
increases
ii. Potential barrier
decreases
iii. Current due to bias
increases
iv. None of these
15
114. Which of the following
statement is not true?
i. the resistance of
intrinsic
semiconductor
decreases with
increase of
temperature
ii. Doping pure Si with
trivalent impurities
give p-type
semiconductors
iii. Majority carriers in
n-type
semiconductors are
holes
iv. A p-n junction can
act as a
semiconductor
diode
115. On increase the reverse bias to
a large value in a p-n junction
diode current
i. Increases slowly
ii. Remains fixed
iii. Suddenly increases
iv. Decreases slowly
116. Region of the transistor which
is heavily doped to produce
large number of majority
carriers is
i. Base
ii. Collector
iii. All are equally
doped
iv. Emitter
117. In transistor when electrons
flow into the emitter
a. Holes flow out of collector
b. Holes flow out of emitter
c. Some electrons flow into
collector
d. Some electrons flow out of
collector
118. N-type semiconductor is
a. Neutral
b. Negatively charged
c. Positively charged
d. None of these
119. Minority carriers present in a p-
type semiconductor are due to
a. Addition of impurities
b. Ionization of impurities
c. Bias voltage
d. Thermal agitation
120. A charge q is moving with a
velocity parallel to a magnetic
field. Force on the charge due
to magnetic field is
a. q v B
b. q B/v
c. 0
d. B v/q
121. An electron of mass m is
accelerated through a potential
difference of V and then it
enters a magnetic field of
induction B normal to the lines.
Then the radius of the circular
path is
a.
m
eV 2
b.
2
2
eB
Vm
c.
eB
Vm 2
d.
B e
Vm
2
2
16
122. Two particles X and Y having
equal charges, after being
accelerated through the same
potential differences enter a
region of uniform magnetic
fields and describe circular
paths of radii R
1
and R
2
respectively. The ratio of the
mass of X to that of Y is
a. .
2
1
2
1

R
R
b.

1
2
R
R
c.
2
2
1

R
R
d.

2
1
R
R
123. A proton and a deuteron
having the same kinetic energy
enter a uniform magnetic field
normally. If R
p
and R
d
be the
radii of their trajectories, then
a. R
p
= R
d
b. R
D
= 2R
P
c. R
D
= 2 R
P
d. R
P
= 2 R
D
124. An electron moves along a
circle of radius R in a uniform
magnetic field B. If the field is
suddenly reduced to B/3, the
radius of the circle becomes
a. R/3
b. R/9
c. 3R
d. R
125. A charge q moves with a
velocity v in a magnetic field of
induction B. If theta is the angle
between v and B , then Lorentz
force is minimum when
a. = 0
b. = 30
c. = 90
d. = 120
126. . Of the following particles
which will describe the
smallest circle when projected
with the same velocity normal
to the lines of induction of a
uniform field
a. Electron
b. Proton
c. Deuteron
d. alpha particle
127. .Two ions of different masses
m
1
and m
2
but having same
charge and kinetic energy are
shot normally into a magnetic
field. If R1 and R2 be the radii
of circular paths of ions, then
R1/R2 is equal to
a.
2
1
m
m
b.
1
2
m
m
c.
2
1
m
m
d.
1
2
m
m
128. A charged particle moves in a
straight line through a certain
region of space. The magnetic
field in that region
a. necessarily has a
magnitude of zero
b. has a zero component
perpendicular to the
particls velocity
17
c. has a zero component
parallel to the particles
velocity
d. none of above
129. The north-pole end of a bar
magnetic is held near a
stationary positively charged
piece of plastic .Is the plastic
a. attracted
b. repelled
c. unaffected
d. None
130. As a charged particle moves
freely in a circular path in the
prescence of a constant
magnetic field applied
perpendicular to the particles
velocity , its kinetic energy
a. remains constant
b. increases
c. decreases
d. None
131. A certain solenoid consists of
100 Turns of wire and has a
length of 10.0cm.find the
magnetic field inside the
solenoid when it carries a
current of 0.500 A.
a. 62.8 mT
b. 62.8 T
c. 6.28 mT
d. zero
132. The equation of state of n
moles of gas is PV = nRT ,
where R is a constant .The SI
Unit of R is
a. j kg
-1
K
-1
b. j.g
-1
K
-1
c. J K
-1
mol
-1
d. J K
-1
per molecule
133. Which one of the following
statement is NOT true about
heat?
a. 4.18 J mechanical work
produce one calorie of
heat.
b. Heat is a form of energy
c. Heat can be completely
converted into useful work
under ideal conditions
d. Heat can be reflected from
mirror.
134. Which one of the following
statement is true about a gas
undergoing an isothermal
change?
a. The temperature of the
gas remains constant
b. The pressure of the gas
remains constant
c. The volume of the gas
remains constant
d. The gas is insulated from
the surroundings
135. Which one of the following is
true about a gas undergoing
an adiabatic change?
a. The temperature of the
gas remains constant
b. The pressure of the gas
remains constant
c. The volume of the gas
remains constant
d. The gas is completely
insulated from the
surroundings
136. In a thermodynamic process a
system absorbs 1 Kilo-calorie
of heat and at the same time
does 25o J of work. What is
18
the change in internal energy of
the system?
a. 250 J
b. 3950 J
c. 4200 J
d. 4450 J
137. A Carnot engine working
between 27C and 127C takes
up 800 J of heat from reservoir
in one cycle. What is the work
done by Engine?
a. 100 J
b. 200J
c. 300J
d. 400J
138. A Carnot engine working
between 27C and 127C takes
up 800 J of heat from reservoir
in one cycle. What is the
efficiency by Engine
139. 10 %
140. 15 %
141. 20 %
142. 25 %
143. A carnots engine whose sink is
at a temperature of 300 K and
600 K has an efficiency o f 40%
.By how much should the
temperature of the source be
increased so as to increase the
efficiency of 60 %.
a. 250 K
b. 275 K
c. 300 K
d. 325 K
144. Cooking vegetables and other
food in a pressure cooker
savestime and fuel because
a. under increased pressure ,
water can be made to boil
at a temperature much
higher than 100C
b. under increased pressure ,
water can be made to boil
at a temperature much
lower than 100C
c. heat losses are reduced to
a minimum
d. condensation of steam is
prevented
145. The temperature of liquid does
not increase during boiling.
The heat energy supplied
during this process,
a. increases the K.E of the
Molecules of the liquid
b. increase the Potential
Energy of the molecules
c. increases both the K.E
and Potenital Energy of
the molecules
d. is merely wasted since no
increase occurs in the total
energy of the molecules
146. X-rays and -rays are both
electromagnetic waves .Which
of the following statement is
correct?
a. X-rays in general have
smaller wavelength than
rays
b. X-rays in general have
same wavelength as
rays
c. X-rays have larger
wavelength than rays
d. X-rays in general have
same frequency as rays
147. In Photolectric effect , the
work-function of a metal is
a. the maximum energy that
has to be spent to liberate
electron from it
19
b. the minimum energy that
has to be spent to liberate
electrons from it
c. the energy required to
make it hot
d. the energy required to
make it ionized
148. The change in wavlenght of X-
rays photon when it is scattered
through an angle of 90 is
a. 0.024A
b. 0.012A
c. 0.048A
d. 0.036A
149. The wavelength of visible light
range is about
a. 400nm--------- 700nm
b. 4000nm------- 7000nm
c. 40nm------- 70nm
d. 4nm------ 7nm
150. The electromagnetic radiations
are in descending order of
wavelengths in the following
sequence
a. infrared , radion , X-rays ,
visible light
b. radio waves, infrared
waves, visible light , X-rays
c. radio waves, visible light ,
infrared waves , x-rays
d. x-rays , visible light ,
infrared waves, radio
waves
151. If the energies of red and blue
photons of light are represented
by Er and Eb then
a. Er = Eb
b. Er > Eb
c. Er < Eb
d. Er = Eb/2
152. The speed of an
electromagnetic wave is
a. o o
b. 1/ o o
c. o o
d. 1/ o o
153. If there were no atmosphere ,
the average temperature on
earth surface would be
a. Lower
b. Higher
c. Same
d. 0 C
154. The energy of an X-ray photon
is 2 KeV , then its frequency
given by
a. 210
18
b. 210
17
c. 510
17
d. 3.210
-16
155. The waves related to
telecommunication are
a. infrared
b. visible
c. microwaves
d. ultraviolet
156. X-rays are simply
a. the conversion of kinetic
energy into radiant energy
b. conversion of momentum
into radiant energy
c. conversion of mass into
energy
d. conversion of charge into
radiant energy
157. The fundamental source of an
electromagnetic wave is
a. a steady magnetic field
20
b. a steady electric field
c. a varying magnetic field
d. a continuous oscillations of
electric charges
158. Which of the following has the
shortest wavelength ?
a. X-rasys
b. Gama-rays
c. IR rays
d. UV rays
159. A man can take pictures of
objects even the night using
a. visible light
b. sodium light
c. UV light
d. IR light
160. A photographic plate is
wrapped in black paper. It will
be affected by
a. infrared rays
b. visible light
c. UV
d. X-rays
161. X-rays are
a. stream of fast moving
electrons
b. stream of neutral particles
c. stream of positive ions
d. electromagnetic radiations
162. The X-rays wavelength range
is
a. 40 A---------4000 A
b. 4000 A --------7000A
c. 0.01 A-------100 A
d. 700 A--------- 10000A
163. A line emission spectrum is
also known as
a. molecurlar spectrum
b. an atomic spectrum
c. a pure spectrum
d. an impure spectrum
164. When objects in a room are
exposed to X-rays then they
appear
a. blue
b. red
c. yellow
d. invisible
165. An accelerated electric charge
produces
a. beta rays
b. alpha rays
c. electromagnetic waves
d. none of above.
166. A photo-cell is an apparatus
which converts
a. light into electrical energy
b. electrical energy into light
c. heat into light
d. None
167. The wavelength of the first line
of Balmer series is 6563 A.
The wavelength of first line of
Lymen Series will be
a. 4861 A
b. 25000 A
c. 7500 A
d. 600 A
168. Wavelength of light
on metal A is twice than of
falling on metal B .If maximum
kinetic energy of
photoelectrons emitted intwo
cases isE and E respectively
then
a. E
kA
= E
kB
b. E
kA
= 2 E
kB
/
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 21
c. E
kA
> E
kB
/2
d. E
kA
< E
kB
/2
169. The kinetic energy of the
electron in the first Bohr orbit of
hydrogen atom is
a. - 13. 6 eV
b. 13. 6 eV
c. -27.2 eV
d. 6. 8 eV
170. If R is Rydberg constant for
Hydrogen , the wave-number of
the first line in the Lyman series
is
a. 3R /4
b. R /4
c. 2R
d. R /2
171. A diffraction pattern is obtained
by using red light. If red light is
replaced by blue light then
172. bands become broader and
farther apart
a. bands dispear
b. bands become narrow and
croweded together
173. no change in band will take
place
174. On increasing the slit width ,
the width of central maximum
a. increases
b. remains constant
c. decreases
d. zero
175. In a Fraunhoffer single slit
diffraction pattern , , as the
distance on either side from
the central maximum increase
, the witdth of the bright bands
__________ hile the dwith of
the dark bands_____________
a. remains the same ,
increases
b. increases , remain the
same
c. increases , decreases
d. decreases , increases
176. First diffraction minima due to
asingle slit of width 10 -14 cm
is at = 30 , then wavelength
of the light used I s
a. 4000 A
b. 5000 A
c. 6000 A
d. 6250 A
177. Phenomena of diffraction of
light was discovered by
a. Girmaldi
b. Fresnel
c. Newton
d. Hygens
178. Intereference and diffraction
can be considered as two
effects which
a. are not at all related to one
another
b. are complementary
c. can never take place
simultaneously
d. are always produced but
can never be observed on
account of the small
wavlenght of light
179. A pointer type galvanometer
can be converted into an
ammeter by
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 22
connecting__________in
__________
a. a high resistance , series
b. a high resitance , parallel
c. a low resistance , parallel
d. a low resistance , series
180. The most characteristics
property of a liquid is
a. fluidity
b. formlessness
c. elasticity
d. volume conservation
181. Fluid pressure is
a. a vector quantity
b. a scalar quantity
c. sometimes scalar ,
sometimes a vector
d. none of these
182. A wooden block floats to a
certain level in ordinary water,In
a sea water it
a. floats higher
b. floats lower
c. floats at the same level
d. sinks
183. When a body is immersed in a
liquid completely or partially , it
experiences an apparent loss
of weight which is equal to the
weight of the displaced liquid.
This is known as
a. Boyles Law
b. Bernoullis Principle
c. Pascals Law
d. Archemedes law
184. A liquid flowing in a streamlined
motion possesses
a. potential energy
b. kinetic energy
c. pressure energy
d. All of above
185. A gas blows over a hut. The
force due to the gale on the
roof is
a. in the upward direction
b. in the downward direction
c. in the horizontal direction
d. zero
186. Every liquid tends to assume
spherical shape becase of
a. gravitional force
b. elastic force
c. surface tension
d. viscous force
187. Surface tension has units o f
a. N/m2
b. N/m
c. N-m
d. N-m2
188. The tip of the nip of an ink pen
is split because
a. ink may come into contact
with atmosphere
b. ink may raise by capillary
action
c. surface tension of ink is
reduced
d. surface tension of ink is
increased
189. Viscosity is exhibited by
a. solids only
b. solids and liquids
c. liquids and gases
d. solids , liquids and gases
190. Which of the following has the
greatest viscosity?
a. water
b. castor oil
c. mecury
d. glycerine
191. A steel ball A and an aluminum
ball B of same dimensions are
dropped in a pond from the
same height at the same
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 23
height at the same time . Then
which ball reaches the bottom
first?
a. A reaches the bottom first
b. B reaches the bottom first
c. both A and B reach the
bottom simultaneously
d. can not be predicted
192. At what common temperatures
would a piece of wood and a
piece of metal appear equally
hot or equally cold?
a. 0 C
193. 100 C
194. 37 C
195. none of above
196. Bernoullis theorem is
applicable to
197. stream line flow of a practical
liquid
198. streamline flow of a ideal liquid
199. turbulent flow of an ideal liquid
200. flow of any kind
201. The equation of continuity of
Fluids is: (a is area , V is
volume)
202. aV-1 = constant
203. a
2
/V = constant
204. V/a = constant
205. a V = constant
206. Very high temperatures can be
measured by using
207. gas thermometers
208. liquid thermometers
209. bimetallic thermometers
210. radiation pyrometers
211. Solids expand on heating. This
is because
212. potential energy of atoms
increases
213. kinetic energy of atoms
increases
214. total energy of atoms
increases
215. none of above
216. A constant volume
thermometer operates on the
principal of
a. Boyles Law
b. Charles]s Law
c. Archimedes Principal
d. Gay-Lussacs Law
217. The coefficient of linear
expansion alpha , coefficient
of area expansion beta ,
coefficient of volume
expansion gamma , are
related as
a. = 2 = 3
b. = =
c. = /2 = /3
d. None
218. Which of the following
statements are true?
a. good emitters of heat are
good absorber of heat
b. good emitters of heat are
bad absorbers of heat
c. bad emitters are god
absorbers of heat
d. bad emitters are moderate
emitters of heat
219. An ideal black body is that
which
a. absorbs no radiations
b. absorbs radiations of only
infrared region
c. absorbs radiations of only
one ultraviolet region
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 24
d. absorbs all wavelengths
ranging from zero to infinity
220. A black skin person ,
experiences in comparison to
white skin person
a. more hot and more cold
b. less hot and less cold
c. more hot and less cold
d. less hot and more cold
221. A piece of red glass when
heated to red hot state in dark
will appear to be
a. red
b. green
c. white
d. invisible
222. The temperature of a gas
increases by 10 C .What is the
equivalent increase on the
kelvins scale?
a. 10 K
b. 0 K
c. 100 K
d. 273. 90 K
223. If the volume of the gas is to be
increased by 4 times ,
a. temperature must be
doubled
b. increased by four times
c. at constant temperature ,
the pressure must be
increased four times
d. it can not be increased
224. A bird flying high up in air does
not cast shadow on the ground
because
a. light rays coming from the
sun are almost parallel
b. the ground lies beyoung
the umbral zone of the
shadow
c. the size of the bird is
smaller than that of earth
d. the shadow is too faint for
detection
225. For a spherical mirror
a. R < 2 f
b. R > 2f
c. R = 2f
d. R= and f are not related
226. Which of the following can
produce virtual image
a. concave mirror
b. convex mirror
c. convex lens
d. all of these
227. The speed of light was
determined for the first time by
a. Newton
b. Fizeau
c. Galileo
d. Romer
228. During reflection and refraction
at a plane surface , light travels
in the minimum path . This is
known as
a. Huygens Principle
b. Fermats Principle
c. Snells Law
d. Principal of reversibility
229. A fish at the bottom of a lake
6m deep. To an observer
directly above , it appears to
be at 4.5 m .The refractive
index of water is
a.
b. 3/5
c. 5/3
d. 4/3
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 25
230. The critical angle for the
medium of a prism is C and the
angle of prism is A. Then there
will be no emergent ray when
a. A < 2 C
b. A > 2 C
c. A = 2 C
d. A >= 2 C
e.
231. A ray of white light passes
thorugh a prism. The ray which
deviates least is
a. violet
b. blue
c. yellow
d. red
232. The brilliance of diamond is due
to
a. refraction only
b. dispersion only
c. total internal reflection
d. dispersion and total
internal reflection
233. A curved mirror has one focus
while a lens has one focus
while a lens has
a. one focus
b. two foci
c. more than two foci
d. no focus
234. A convex lens of focal length f
produces a real image
magnified x times the size of
the object. Then the object
distance is
a. (x + 1 ) f
b. (x -1 ) f
c. (x 1 ) f/ x
d. (x + 1) f /x
235. Spherical aberration can be
minimized using
a. mechanical stops
b. lenses of large focal length
c. plano-convex lenses
d. any of these
236. Chromatic aberrations in a lens
is due to
a. intereference
b. refraction
c. dispersion
d. diffraction
237. The final image in an
astronomical telescope is
a. real and erect
b. virtual and inverted
c. real and inverted
d. virtual and erect
238. If height of man is 6m then
minimum height of a plane
mirror in which he can see his
full image is
a. 4.5 m
b. 6 m
c. 7.5 m
d. 3 m
239. When a ray of light enters a
glass slab , then
a. its frequency change
b. its frequency and velocity
change
c. its frequency and
wavelength change
d. its frequency does not
change
240. Optical fibers are based on
a. total internal reflection
b. less scattering
c. refraction
d. less absorption coefficient
241. For shaving and make up
concave mirrors are preferred
because
a. they produce real image
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 26
b. they produce virtual
magnified image when the
object is placed between f
and R
c. they produce a virtual
magnified image when the
object is place between
pole and F
d. they produce a magnified
image for all positions of
object
242. The speed of light in vacuum is
3 * 10
8
m/s. The speed of light
in a medium of refractive index
2 will be
a. 3 * 10
8
m/s
b. 1.5 * 10 8 m/s
c. 2 * 10 8 m/s
d. 6 * 10 8 m/s
243. The image of an object
positioned at twice the focal
length of diverging lens wil be
a. of the same size as the
object
b. inverted
c. enlarged
d. virtual
244. The graph between the object
distance along X-axis and the
image distance along y-axis for
a convex lens is
a. a straight line
b. a parabola
c. a circle
d. a rectangular hyperbola
245. The focal length of a convex
lens is 2.5 cm. Its magnifying
power will be
a. 25
b. 52
c. 11
d. 1.1
246. The power of convex lens is
a. negative
b. positive
c. zero
d. imaginary
247. The radius of curvature of a
concave mirror is 80 cm .if
focal length in meter will be
a. 0 .40 m
b. 0.20 m
c. 0.80 m
d. 0.10 m
248. The radius of curvature of
convex mirror is 40 cm. then its
total length is
a. 1.20 cm
b. 40 cm
c. -20 cm
d. 40 cm
249. Mirage is due to
a. reflection
b. refraction
c. total internal reflection
d. None
250. Total internal reflection can
occur when light passes
a. from denser to rarer
medium
b. from rarer to denser
medium
c. from one medium to
another medium of equal
refractive index.
d. None
251. The power of a lens is
measured in
a. Candela
b. Lux
c. Diopter
d. Weber
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 27
252. A person who can read a print
at 80 cm wants to read the
same at 25 cm . The power of
the lens he should use
a. - 2.75 D
b. + 2. 75 D
c. 5. 25 D
d. 5. 25 D
253. A small object is placed 10 cm
in front of a plane mirror.If you
stand behind the object 30 cm
from the mirror and look at its
image , for what distance must
you focus your eyes?
a. 80 cm
b. 40 cm
c. 20 cm
d. 60 cm
254. Which of the following is not a
fundamental quantity?
a. length
b. temperature
c. electric charge
d. ampere
255. The system of units followed
(now a days) in science is
a. cgs system
b. mks system
c. fps system
d .S.I system
256. Which of the following is not a
unit of distance
a. angstrom
b. Fermi
c. Joule
d. Parsec
257. How many wavelengths of Kr
86
are there in I meter?
a. 1553164.13
b. 1650763.73
c. 2348123.73
d. 652169.13
258. A micron is related to
centimeters as
a. 1 micron = 10
-4
cm
b. 1 micron = 10
-6
cm
c. 1 micron = 10
-8
cm
d. 1 micron = 10
-10
cm
259. Dimensions of angular velocity
is
a. M
0
L
0
T
-1
b. MLT
-1
c. M L T
2
d. ML
2
T
260. The dimensions of light year
are
a. T
b. L
c. LT
-1
d. T
-1
261. The dimensions of which of the
quantities of the following pairs
are same ?
a. light year and wavelength
b. power and work
c. energy and power
d. frequency and time
262. One Fermi equals
a. 10
-6
m
b. 10
-8
m
c. 10
-15
m
d. 10
-10
m
263. Which of the following is not a
unit of time ?
a. Lunar Month
b. Leap Year
c. Second Pendulum
d. Solar day
264. The expression ML
-1
T
-1
represents
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 28
a. force
b. momentum
c. pressure
d. coefficient of viscosity
265. A force of 6 kg wt and another
8 kg wt can be applied to
produce the effect ofa single
force equal to
a. 1 kg wt
b. 10 kg wt
c. 16 kg wt
d. 0 kg wt
266. A particle is moving on a
circular path with constant
speed v. What is the change in
its velocity after it has
described an angle of 60 ?
a. v 2
b. v 3
c. v
d. 2v
267. A pendulum is suspended from
the roof of a car. The car is
moving with an acceleration of
49 cm /s -2. By what angle to
the vertical its strings will be
inclined?
a. 0.
b. 3
c. 1 0 nearly
d. 30 nearly
268. Two vectors A and B are such
that A
2
+ B
2
= C
2
and A + B = C
.Which of the following
statements is correct?
a. A is parallel to B
b. A is anti-parallel to B
c. A is perpendicular to B
d. A and B are equal in
magnitude
269. If the magnitudes of vectors A
,B and C are 12 , 5 and 13
units respectively and A + B =
C , the angle between vectors
and A and B is
a. 0
b.
c. /2
d. /4
270. Two persons are holding a
rope of negligible weight tightly
at its ends so that it is
horizontal .A 15 kg weight is
attached to the rope at the mid
point , which is now no longer
horizontal .The minimum
tension is required to
straighten completely the rope
is
a. 15 kg.
b. 7. 5 kg
c. 30 kg
d. infinite large
e. Not enough information is
given
271. Two forces each of magnitude
H have a resultant of the same
magnitude F. The angle
between the two forces is
a. 45
b. 120
c. 150
d. 60
272. For the resultant of the two
vectors to be maximum what
must be the angle between
them ?
a. 0
b. 60
c. 90
d. 180
273. A car X is going to towards
west at a speed of 12 m/s
.Another car Y is going
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 29
towards northa at a speed of 5
m/s. What is the velocity of the
Car X with respect to the car Y?
a. 7 m/s
b. 17 m/s
c. 13 m/s
d. 7/5 m/s.
274. Which of the following pairs of
displacements can not be
added to give a resultant
displacement of 2 m ?
a. 1 m and 2 m
b. 1 m and 1 m
c. 1 m and 3 m
d. 1 m and 4 m
275. How many minimum number of
coplanar vectors having
different magnitudes can be
added to give zero resultant?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
276. The length of a seconds hand
in a watch is 1 cm .The change
in its velocity is 15sec is
a. zero
b. /30 2 cm/s
c. /30 cm/s
d. /30 * 2
277. A bird flying towards north with
a velocity 40 km/hr and a train
is moving with velocity 40 km
/hr towards north. What is the
velocity of the bird noted by a
man in the train?
a. 40 2 km /hr north-East
b. 40 2 km/hr south -East
c. zero
d. 40 2 km/hr south East.
278. If A and B are two vectors ,
then tick the correct statement:
a. A + B = B+ A
b. A B = B- A
c. A B = B A
d. None of above
279. If A and B are two vectors ,
then tick the wrong statement:
a. A + B = B+ A
b. A B = B- A
c. A B = - B A
d. A. B = B. A
280. If is the angle between the
vectors a = I + j and b= j + k
then sin is
a.
b. 1/ 2
c. 3 /2
d. 0
281. A particle is simultatneously
acted upon by two forces equal
to 4N and 3N. The net force on
the particle is
a. 7 N
b. 5 N
c. 1 N
d. between 1 N and 7 N
282. Identify the vector quantity
a. time
b. work
c. heat
d. angular momentum
283. Identify the scalar quantity
a. force
b. acceleration
c. displacement
d. work
284. The vector sum of N coplanar
forces , each of magnitude F ,
when each forces is making an
angle of 2. /N , what that
preceding it , is
a. F
b. NF
c. NF /2
d. Zero
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 30
285. Any vector in an arbitrary
direction always be replaced by
two (or three)
a. parallel vectors which have
the original vector as their
resultant
b. mutually perpendicular
vectors which have the
original vector as their
resultant
c. arbitrary vectors which
have the original vectors as
their resultant.
d. It is not possible to resolve
a vector
286. A dimensless vector of
magnitude
a. a single vector
b. isolated vector
c. unit vector
d. neutral vector
287. The vector A and B are such
that A + B = B A then
a. A + B = 0
b. A B = 0
c. A = 0
d. B = 0
288. A hall has the dimensions 10 m
12 m 14 m. A fly starting at
one conrner ends up at a
diametrically opposite
corner.What is the magnitude
of its displacement?
a. 17 m
b. 26 m
c. 36 m
d. 21 m
289. A body is at rest under the
action of three forces . Two of
the forces are F1 = 3i and F= 5
j .The third force is
a. 3i + 5 j
b. 5 i _ 3j
c. ( 3i + 5j )
d. 3 i -5 j
290. The sum of the magnitudes of
two forces acting at a point is 8
N and the magnitude of their
resultant is 4N. If resultant
makes an angle of 90 with the
smaller force , the two forces
are
a. 1 N
b. 2N , 6N
c. 3 N , 5 N
d. 4N , 4 N.
291. The scalar and vector product
of two vectors are 5 3 and 5
respectively. The angle
between them is
a. 30
b. 45
c. 60
d. 90
292. If y = a +bt + ct
2
, where y is in
meter , and t is in seconds
then the unit of C is
a. m
b. s
-2
c. m/s
d. m/s
2
293. A ball of mass 2 kg is moving
on a horizontal frictionless
surface with constant velocity 8
m/s , , then the force exerted
on the ball is
a. 10 N
b. 20 N
c. 40 N
d. None of above.
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 31
294. Which of the following
statement is false.
a. If an object A exerts a force
F on object B, then B
exerts a force of F on A.
b. The net external force
acting on an object is equal
to the rate of change of its
linear momentum.
c. The increase in potential
energy of an object is
equal to the work done on
it by a conservative force.
d. When an object loses
kinetic energy, its potential
energy always increases
by the same amount.
e. Kinetic energy is
conserved in an elastic
collision.
295.Complete the following
statement: The term net force
most accurately describes
a. the mass of an object
b. the inertia of an object.
c. the quantity that causes
displacement.
d. the quantity that keeps an
object moving.
e. the quantity that changes
the velocity of an object.
296. A horse pulls a cart along a flat
road. Consider the following
four forces that arise in this
situation.
a. the force of the horse pulling
on the cart
b. the force of the cart pulling
on the horse
c. the force of the horse
pushing on the road
d. the force of the road
pushing on the horse
297.. Which two forces form an
"action-reaction" pair that
obeys Newton's third law?
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
e. 2 and 3
298.Consider the following diagram,
which consists of a block being
pulled by a force P.
Which one of the following actions
will increase the frictional force on
the block?
a. increasing the contact
surface area
b. decreasing the contact
surface area
c. increasing the weight of
the block
d. decreasing the speed of
the block
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 32
e. increasing the angle made
by the rope
299. At a playground, a child slides
down a slide that makes a 42
angle with the horizontal
direction. The coefficient of
kinetic friction for the child
sliding on the slide is 0.20.
What is the magnitude of her
acceleration during her sliding?
a.
4.6 m/s
2
b.
5.1 m/s
2
c.
5.4 m/s
2
d.
6.3 m/s
2
e. 9.8 m/s
2
300. Sara puts a box into the trunk
of her car. Later, she drives
around an unbanked curve that
has a radius of 48 m. The
speed of the car on the curve is
16 m/s, but the box remains
stationary relative to the floor of
the trunk. Determine the
coefficient of static friction for
the box on the floor of the trunk.
a. 0.42
b. 0.54
c. 0.17
d. 0.33
e. This cannot be determined
without knowing the mass
of the box.
301.A 1500-kg car travels at a
constant speed of 22 m/s
around a circular track that has
a radius of 85 m. Which
statement is true concerning
this car?
a. 0.42
b. 0.54
c. 0.17
d. 0.33
e. This cannot be determined
without knowing the mass
of the box.
302. 1500-kg car travels at a
constant speed of 22 m/s
around a circular track that has
a radius of 85 m. Which
statement is true concerning
this car?
a. The velocity of the car is
changing.
b. The car is characterized
by constant velocity.
c. The car is characterized
by constant acceleration.
d. The car has a velocity
vector that points along
the radius of the circle.
e. The car has an
acceleration vector that is
tangent to the circle at all
times.
303. A spring has a length of 10 cm
with a spring constant k = 500
N/m. A force is applied which
causes the string length to
change to a final length of 20
cm. What is the magnitude of
the work done by the force?
a. 1 J
b. 2.5 J
c. 10 J
d. 25 kJ
e. 100 kJ
304. Which one of the following
choices is an example of a
conservative force?
a. tension
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 33
b. motor propulsion force
c. normal force
d. elastic spring force
e. static frictional force
305. In the figure, if the tension in
string 1 is 34 N and the tension
in string 2 is 24 N, what is the
mass of the object shown?
(Note the angle marked is 40)
a. 7.3 kg
b. 5.5 kg
c. 1.8 kg
d. 3.7 kg
e. 4.5 kg
306. A 2.0-kg projectile moves from
its initial position to a point that
is displaced 20 m horizontally
and 15 m above its initial
position. How much work is
done by the gravitational force
on the projectile?
a. +0.29 kJ
b. 0.29 kJ
c. +30 J
d. 30 J
e. 50 J
307. Two satellites are placed in
geosynchronous orbits, orbits
with a period of 24 hours,
where each satellite hovers
over a spot on the Earths
equator. Satellite B has three
times the mass of satellite A.
What is the relationship
between the magnitudes of the
gravitational forces of the Earth
on the two satellites?
a. F
B
=
9
1
F
A
.
b. F
B
=
3
1
F
A
.
c. F
B
= F
A
.
d. F
B
= 3F
A
.
e. F
B
= 9F
A
.
308. 20 J of work is done in
accelerating a 4 kg mass from
rest across a horizontal
frictionless table. The total
kinetic energy gained by the
mass is
a. 4 J
b. 5 J
c. 10 j
d. 20 J
e. 80 J
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 34
309. A motor rated at 50 W
accelerates an object along a
horizontal frictionless surface
with an average speed of 2
m/s. What force is supplied by
the motor in the direction of
motion? (assume 100 %
efficiency)
a. 200 N
b. 100 N
c. 50 N
d. 25 N
e. 0.04 N
310. A crane raises a 100 N weight
to a height of 50 m in 5
seconds. The crane does work
at the rate of
a. 8 * 10
-1
W
b. 2 * 10 1 W
c. 1 * 10 3 W
d. 5 * 10 4 W
e. 100 W
311. As the power of a machine is
increased , the time required to
move a body by a fixed
distance
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains the same
d. decreases to zero
e. is negligible
312. When a body moves at a
constant speed against friction
on a horizontal tabletop , there
is an increase in the objects
a. A temperature
b. kinetic energy
c. potential energy
d. acceleration
e. weight
313. A ball is thrown upwards from
the earth surface. While the
ball is rising , its gravitational
potential energy will
a. decrease
b. increase
c. remain the same
d. decrease to zero
e. be negligible
314. As a body slides across a
horizontal surface, the
gravitational potential energy
of the object will
a. decrease
b. increase
c. remain the same
d. increase from zero value
e. decrease to zero value
315. A 4 kg mass falls freely for 5 m
near the surface of the Earth .
The total kinetic energy gained
by the object during its free fall
is approximately
a. 400 J
b. 200 J
c. 100 J
d. 50 J
e. 20 J
316. When the speed of an object is
halved, its kinetic energy is
a. quartered
b. halved
c. the same
d. doubled
e. quadrupled
317. A 4 N book falls from a table
0.5m high. After falling 0.25 m ,
the books kinetic energy
a. 1.0 J
b. 10 J
c. 2 J
d. 9.8 J
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 35
e. 20 J
318. A force of 40 N pushes a 25 kg
object across a level floor for
4m. The work done in J is
a. 10
b. 100
c. 160
d. 4000 J
e. 1000 J
319. A 10 N block falls freely from
rest a point 3.0 m above the
surface of the Earth .With
respect to the surface of the
Earth, what is the gravitational
potential energy of the block-
Earth system, \m after the block
has fallen 1.5 m.
a. 10 J
b. 15 J
c. 30 J
d. 30 J
e. 60 J
320. Which mass has the greatest
gravitational potential energy
with respect to the floor?
a. 50-kg mass resting on the
floor
b. 3-kg mass 10 m above the
floor
c. 10 kg mass 2m above the
floor
d. 6 kg mass 5m above the
floor
e. 1000 kg mass resting on
the floor.
321. A body is lifted at constant
speed a distance H above the
surface of the Earth in a time t .
the total potential energy
gained by the body is equal to
a. average force applied to
the object
b. total weight of the object
c. total work done on the
object
d. total momentum gained by
the object
e. total work done per unit
time
322. If the radius becomes half of its
initial value and velocity
increases by a factor of 3
factor then the magnitude of
centripetal acceleration
a. increases by a factor 6
b. decreases by a factor 9
c. increases by a factor 18
d. increases by a factor 24
323. A motor cyclist in death well
revolving with speed of 5 m/s
uniformly in circular motion , he
doest fall down to earth
because
a. his weight is balanced by
weight of the motor-cycle
b. his weight and motorcycle
weight both are zero
c. his weight and motor-cycle
weight both balanced by
frictional force between
tires and surface of the
well
d. none
324. Earth revolves around the Sun
with uniform angular speed the
net force acting on the Earth is
a. zero
b. frictional force
c. Normal force
d. None
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 36
325. An electron revolves around the
Nucleus , its circular motion
due to
a. gravitational force of
Nucleus
b. gravitational force of
electron
c. coulomb attractive force
d. coulomb force and
gravitational both
326. In vertical circular motion of a
stone attached to a string , the
tension in the string at the
middle is
a. equals to weight of the
stone
b. centripetal force
c. centripetal and weight
d. zero
327. In Hooks law the restoring force
is equal to
a. F = kx
b. F = -kx
c. F = ma
d. F = mg
328. Rotational inertia depends upon
the mass and
a. distance of mass from
certain reference point
b. square of the distance of
mass from certain
reference point
c. does not depend on
distance
d. only depends on angular
velocity
329. The angular momentum of an
isolated system remains
constant if the net torque is
equal to
a. applied force
b. angular speed
c. angular momentum
d. zero
330. Direction of torque is
a. parallel to the axis along
which force acts
b. perpendicular to axis of
rotation
c. does not depend on
direction because torque is
scalar
d. none
331. Rainbow appears in the sky
due to
a. reflection of light
b. refraction of light
c. dispersion of light
d. all of above
332. The ratio of velocity of light in
the medium to the velocity of
light in the vacuum is equal to
a. n
b. 1/n
c. n
2
d. 2n
e. frequency
333. The index of refraction n is
a. always greater than one
b. always less than one
c. may be greater than or
less than one
d. index of refraction is only
integer number
334. The index of refraction is
a. inversely proportional to
speed of wave
b. directly proportional to
speed of wave
c. equal to speed of light
d. none
335. The greater the index of
refraction in a material the
a. greater the wave speed
b. slower the wave speed
c. doest have any relation
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 37
d. first increase then
decrease
336. when a wave passes from one
material into a second material
with larger index of refraction
then the wave speed
a. increases
b. constant
c. decreases
d. not enough information
given we should know the
frequency also
337. the wavelength of a wave in a
medium is given by 474 nm
with index of refraction of 1.34
then the wavelength of the
same wave in vacuum will be
a. 633 nm
b. 474 nm
c. we can not calculate from
the given information
d. 474 A
338. Polarization is a characteristic
of all
a. waves
b. transverse waves
c. longitudinal waves
d. both longitudinal and
transverse
339. If the earth had no atmosphere
the sky will look like in day time
a. Red
b. Blue
c. Black
d. white
340. The sky is blue in day time and
sun-set is red , these process
due to the
a. scattering of light
b. refraction of light
c. diffraction of light
d. all of above
341. plane mirror produces an image
that is the
a. double size of the object
b. same size of the object
c. depends upon the position
d. none
342. Which of the following is not
true about plane mirrors a
plane mirror can
a. not give us larger image
b. give us an image of the
same size
c. give us real image
d. all of the above
343. When the object point P is very
far from the spherical mirrors
i.e. p = the incoming rays are
a. parallel
b. mixture of parallel and
normal
c. non-converging
d. none
344. Any lens that is thicker at its
center than its at its edges is
a
345. converging lens
a. will have positive F
b. will have negative f
c. both a and b
d. all a , b and c
346. Any lens that is thicker at its
edges than at its center is
diverging lens then
a. f is positive
b. f is negative
c. some positive and
negative
d. depends upon the position
of object
347. A projector for viewing slides ,
digital images or motion
pictures operates very much
like a
a. camera
b. camera in a reverse
c. eye
d. plane mirror
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 38
348. Cameras , eyeglasses and
magnifiers use
a. a single lens
b. two lenses
c. three lenses
d. depends upon the person
who use it
349. Microscope and Telescope
a. need two lenses
necessarily
b. need one lens only
c. it may be one , two or three
d. Telescope does not need
any lens
350. When two or more waves
overlap, the resultant
displacement at any point is
found by
a. adding the instantaneous
displacements
b. multiplying the
instantaneous amplitudes
c. dividing the displacements
d. none
351. Interference effects of light are
seen when
a. waves are monochromatic
b. coherent
c. the two slits are closed
nearby
d. all of above
352. Two sources of waves are said
to be coherent when the two
sources are
a. of same frequency
b. same amplitude
c. have a constant phase
d. all of above
353. In a two slit interference
experiment, the slits are 0.20
mm apart, and the screen is at
a distance of 1.0 m. The third
fringe is found to be displaced
7.5 mm from the central fringe.
Find the wavelength of the light
used
a. 300 nm
b. 500 A
c. 500 nm
d. 50 cm
354. You shine a tunable laser on a
pair of closely spaced slits.
The light emerging from the
two slits producing an
interference pattern on a
screen. If you adjust the
wavelength so that the laser
light changes from red to blue
,how will the spacing between
bright fringes change?
a. remains same
b. increase
c. decrease
d. first increase then
decrease
355. Suppose two glass plates are
two microscope slides 10. 0
cm long. At one end they are in
contact; at the other end they
are separated by a piece of
paper 0.0200 mm thick. What
is the spacing of the
interference fringes seen by
refection? Assume
monochromatic light of
wavelength in air = 500 nm
a. m(1.25 nm)
b. m(1.25 cm
c. m(1.25 nm)
d. zero
356. An important experimental
device that uses interference
to calculate very small distance
very precise is
a. Newton Rings
b. Youngs Slit diffraction
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 39
c. Telescope
d. none
357. A Michelson interferometer is
used with light of wavelength
605.78 nm.If the observer
views the interference pattern
through a telescope with a
crosshair eye-piece, how many
fringes pass the crosshairs
when mirror M2 moves exactly
one centimeter?
a. 1500
b. 3000
c. 1600
d. 33,015
358. How far must the Mirror M2 of
the Michelson interferometer be
moved so that 1800 fringes of
He-Ne laser light of wavelength
= 633 nm move across a line in
the field of view?
a. aaa
b. aaa
c. aaa
d. aaa
359. When a light from a point
source falls on a straight edge
and casts a shadow , then the
shadow never perfectly sharp ,
the reason for this effect is
a. diffraction
b. interference
c. polarization
d. all of above
360. The phenomena in which
interference phenomena of
laser produces a three
dimensional image is called
a. reflection
b. double-reflection
c. holography
d. none
361. Which of the following is not
true about diffraction
a. sound waves can not
produce diffraction around
an edge
b. sound waves can produce
diffraction around edges
c. light waves can not
produce diffraction around
edges of buildings
d. Light waves can produce
diffraction around edges of
thickness smaller than the
wavelength of light.
362. In diffraction grating equation
dsin = m , if m = +2 the
diffraction obtained is called
a. first order
b. zero order
c. third order
d. none
363. If the number of slits per mm is
600 then the grating space or
element is equal to
a. 1.67 nm
b. 1670 nm
c. 1670 A
d. 1.67 mm
364. The Braggs condition for
diffraction of X-rays through a
crystal is
a. dsin = 2m
b. dsin = m
c. dsin = m /2
d. dsin2 = m
365. After an airplane takes off, it
travels 6 km West, 3km north,
and 2 km up, how far is it from
the takeoff point?
a. 12 km
b. 7km
c. 13 km
d. 11 km
366. How far are you from your
starting point if you first
traveled 4.0 km due west, then
4.00 km due south?
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 40
a. 5.66 km
b. zero
c. 16 km
d. none
367. In acceleration-time graph , if a
straight line is parallel to x-axis
then
a. motion is a constant
velocity
b. motion is increasing
acceleration
c. motion is constant speed
d. motions is acceleration
decreasing
e. none
368. If you toss a ball upward with a
certain velocity, it falls freely
and reaches a maximum height
h .What maximum height does
the ball reaches if you throw it
upward with double the initial
velocity?
a. h
b. 2h
c. 3h
d. none
369. If the acceleration a is
increasing with time , will the v-
time graph be a
a. straight line
b. concave up
c. concave down
d. none
370. Projectile Motion is a
combination of
a. motion with constant
horizontal velocity and
constant vertical velocity
b. motion with constant
horizontal velocity and
constant vertical
acceleration
c. motion with variable
horizontal velocity and
constant vertical motion
d. None
371. You toss a ball from your
window 8.0m above the
ground .When the ball leaves
you hand , it is moving at 10
m/s at angle of 30 below the
horizontal , how far horizontally
from your window will the ball
hit the ground?(ignore air
resistance)
a. 9.2 m
b. 9.8 m
c. 4m
d. none
372. When a particle moves in a
circle with constant speed the
motion is called
a. angular motion
b. circular motion
c. spiral motion
d. uniform circular motion
373. In a Non-uniform circular
motion there is a also a
component of acceleration that
is
a. parallel to instantaneous
velocity
b. perpendicular to
instantaneous velocity
c. along the radius
d. No component parallel to
instantaneous velocity
374. The compass of an airplane
indicates that is headed due
north, and its airspeed
indicator shows that is moving
through the air at 240 km/h .If
there is a wind of 100 km/h
from west to east , what is the
velocity of the airplane relative
to the Earth?
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 41
a. 260 km/hr , 23 East or
North
b. 260 km/hr , North of East
c. 260 km /hr , West of North
d. 260 km/hr , East of West
375. A gymnast with mass m
G
= 50
kg suspends herself from the
lower end of a hanging rope
.The upper end of the rope is
attached to the gymnasium
ceiling. What is the tension at
the top of the rope
a. zero
b. 490 N
c. T+W
d. None
376. An elevator and its load have a
total mass of 800 kg .The
elevator is originally moving
downward at 10 m/s , it slows
to a stop with constant
acceleration in a distance of
25m.Find the tension T in the
supporting cable with the
elevator is being to rest?
a. 1540 N
b. 9440 N
c. 2 N
d. zero
377. A 50 kg man stand on a
bathroom scale while riding in
the elevator moving with
acceleration 2 m/s
2
. What is
the reading on the scale?
a. 590 N
b. 500 N
c. 490 N
d. zero
378. The BMW Z4 roadster (A brand
name of a Car) is rounding a
flat, unbanked curve with radius
R .If the coefficient of friction
between tires and road is
s
what is the maximum speed
v
max
at which the driver can
take the curve without sliding?
a. mgR
b.
s
gR
c.
s
gR
d. mR/a
379. Coulomb Force and
Gravitational force are
a. short range forces
b. long range forces
c. only gravitational force is
long range
d. range of both forces
depend upon the distance
380. Nuclear Strong force and
Nuclear Weak force are
a. short range
b. long range
c. only weak force is short
range
d. only strong force is short
range
381. Mark with order of decreasing
of strength of four forces
a. Gravitational, nuclear
weak, strong, coulomb.
b. strong, electromagnetic,
weak, gravitational
c. strong, electromagnetic,
gravitational, weak
d. d. all forces are equal
382. The gravitational potential
energy varies as
a. 1/r
b. r
2
c. 1/r
2
d. 1/r
3
383. The SHM of a simple
pendulum vibrates only when
there is
a. applied force
b. periodic force
c. restoring force
d. gravitational force
Shah Sab MS GIK Institute, 6-06-2006 42
384. The maximum magnitude of
displacement of a simple
pendulum is called
a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. one cycle
d. period
385. The maximum speed of a mass
attached to a spring occurs at x
= 0 and given by
a. w A
b. (k/m A
c. 1/2 k A
d. zero
386. The Elastic Potential is
maximum when x= A and given
by
a. w A
b. 1/2 k x
2
c. 1/2 k A
2
d. 1/2 k A
387. If the equilibrium position of a
mass attached to a spring is
2m. then force acting on the
mass of 6 kg stretched through
10m is given by
a. 2k
b. 10k
c. 12k
d. 8k
e. (K is a spring constant.)
End