1. You are a project manager working on a project to market a new product.

The deliverables of the project have been established, and the project work has begun. A contract to deliver the deliverables has been signed. The customer who has signed the contract has telephoned you to request additional work to be done on the project. This work will affect the budget but not the schedule of the project. This project has a high priority with your company. What should you so next? a. Do what the customer asks you to do and add the additional requirements to the original contract b. Refuse the request and send a memo to your management explaining the situation c. Respond to the customers request by explaining the change procedure and askingthat he or she submit a request for change d. Arrange to meet with the project team to discuss this change

2. You are the project manager for a high visibility project. The margin on this project is low,and it is extremely important that the cost estimates for the work on the project be accurate. While reviewing the cost estimates for this project you notice that one of the cost estimates for an element in the WBS is 10% higher than two previous projects for very similar work. What should you do? a. Accept the estimate because you trust all of the people on your project team, and they are responsible for estimates b. Reduce the estimate and add the additional budget to the management reserve c. Ask the person responsible for the estimate to explain the difference and bring supporting information to you d. Reduce the estimate and add the additional budget to the contingency reserve 3. You are managing a project in a foreign country. In this country there is a normalpractice for business people to exchange gifts when very large contracts, such as the one you are working on, are signed. The gift is of a greater value than your companys policy for gift exchange will allow. You have given a gift of similar value to the customersrepresentative already. What should you do? a. Take the gift b. Contact your companys management and seek for assistance c. Refuse the gift graciously, explaining your companys policy

d. Ask the customers representative to give the gift to your manager.

4. You are the manager of a research group that is developing a new chemical material.You hire a person from a competing company who has a great deal of expertise in thisarea. The person contributes greatly to the progress of your project. Duringconversation with the person you determine that many of this persons ideas weredeveloped by the competing company. What do you do? a. Tell the person that he or she should not mention that the ideas came from anothercompany b. Sign a nondisclosure agreement with this person before he or she leaves yourcompany c. Accept the new ideas d. Investigate the employee for security reasons 5. You are managing a project that is in process. A large and unexpected problem occurs that will cause a delay in the schedule in excess of the contingency schedule for the project. What should you do? a. Look at other tasks in the schedule and see which ones should be reduced to allow time for this problem to be worked b. Reduce testing on the completed tasks c. Require mandatory overtime for the project team d. Speak to the stakeholders about getting additional time and budget for the project 6. You are the project manager for a large project. Some members of the project team have come to you and asked that they be permitted to work on a flexible schedule. Some of the other team members feel that it is important that all team members be on site at all times unless they are absent for business reasons. What should you do? a. Turn down the request for flexible time schedules b. Accept the request for flexible time schedules c. Arrange a meeting of the project team members and allow them to decide d. Discuss this problem with your manager and act on the results of the meeting

7. You are the project manager for a project that has high visibility. Your manager wants you to prepare a presentation for him to present at a conference. Most of the material in the presentation will be facts that are the results of your project. Your manager intends to present the material under his own name. Your name will not appear. What should you do? a. Refuse to work on the presentation unless you are listed as a coauthor b. Do the work as you were told by your manager c. Present your own presentation d. Meet with your managers manager and discuss the problem 8. You are managing a project and the customers engineer visits your facility on an inspection and general getting acquainted tour. During the tour they make the comment that the parts that are being designed should be in stainless steel instead of plain steel with enamel. What should you do? a. Authorize the change in design to your engineers b. Continue with the present design c. Speak to the visiting engineers and discuss having an informal meeting between your engineers and the visiting engineers d. Ask the visiting engineers to submit a change proposal to the change system 9. Which of the following is the example of a conflict of interest? a. You are the fourth cousin of a vendor supplying parts to a project in your company b. You are the owner of a company that is supplying parts to a project that you are managing c. You receive a gift from a supplier of parts for your project d. A supplier tells you sensitive information, in confidence, that allows you to select another supplier for your project 10. You are the project manager for a large project that is completed on time and on budget. The customer and all of the stakeholders are pleased with the results. As a direct result of the successful completion of the project, your manager approves a bonus of $25,000 for you. There are fifteen members of the project team. One of the people in the project

team has been a very low contributor to the project; the other fourteen have all been above standard. What should you do with the money? a. Keep the money yourself; you deserve it. And the manager gave it to you b. Divide the money equally among all the team members c. Ask the team members how they would divide the money d. Divide the money equally among the team members except for the substandard team member 11. One of the members of your project team comes to you and says that he heard that one of the suppliers to the project had given a substantial gift to one of the project team members in hopes that the team member would favor his company with a purchase order. The company was favored with a purchase order for the parts. What should you do? a. Talk to the person and get him or her to give back the gift b. Investigate the matter completely c. Cancel the purchase order with the supplier d. Meet with your manager and discuss the problem 12. Decomposing the major deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to provide better control is called: a. Scope planning b. Scope definition c. Scope baselining d. Scope verification 13. Any numbering system that is used to monitor project costs by category such as labor, supplies, or materials, for example, is called a. Chart of accounts b. Work breakdown structure c. Universal accounting standard d. Standard accounting practices

14. A person who is involved in or may be affected by the activities or anyone who has something to gain or lose by the activity of the project is called a: a. Team member b. Customer c. Stakeholder d. Supporter The following should be used for questions 15 through 17. A project manager is assigned to a project early in the project lifecycle. One of the things that must be done is to do a justification for the project. Since very little information is known about the project, the estimates are considered to be rough estimates. The following table is the project managers estimate of the cash flow that will take place over the next five years. End of Year Cash Flow In Cash Flow Out 1 2 3 4 5 0 300,000 400,000 100,000 50,000 500,000 90,000 100,000 175,000 35,000

15. What is the payback period for this project? a. One year b. Two years c. Three years d. Four years 16. What is the net cash flow at the end of five years? a. $50,000 b. - $50,000 c. $850,000

d. $100,000 17. If the net present value for each of the cash flows were calculated at a 10% interest rate, the net present value cash flow at the end of five years would be: a. Greater than the total cash flow without the net present value applied b. Less than the total cash flow without the net present value applied c. The same as the total cash flow without the net present value applied d. Unable to be calculated with the information supplied 18. A group of related projects that are managed in a coordinated way that usually include an element of ongoing activity is called a: a. Major project b. Project office c. Program d. Group of projects 19. During the full life cycle of the project, a plot of the projects expected expenditure will usually follow a characteristic S shape. This indicates that: a. There is a cyclic nature to all projects b. Problems will always occur in the execution phase c. There are high expenditure during closeout d. The bulk of the project budget will be spent in the execution phase 20. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a new product or service is called a: a. New product development b. Project c. Program d. Enterprise 21. A project manager makes a narrative description of the work that must be done for her project. This is called a: a. Project plan

b. Control chart c. Statement of work d. Project objective

22. An example of scope verification is: a. Reviewing the performance of an installed software module b. Managing changes to the project schedule c. Decomposing the WBS to a work package level d. Performing a benefit-cost analysis to determine if we should proceed 23. The process of establishing clear and achievable objectives, measuring their achievement, and adjusting performance in accordance with the results of the measurement is called a. Strategic planning b. Contingency planning c. Detailed planning d. Management by objectives 24. Configuration management is: a. Used to ensure that the description of the project product is correct and complete b. The creation of work breakdown structure c. The set of procedures developed to ensure that project design criteria are met d. A mechanism to track budget and schedule variances 25. A project manager is employed by a construction company and is responsible for the furnishing of the completed building. One of the first things that the project manager for this project should do is to write a: a. Work breakdown structure b. Budget baseline c. Project charter

d. Project plan 26. A project manager is creating a work breakdown structure for her project. In the work break down structure, the lowest level of the breakdown for the project manager is called: a. Activity b. Task c. Work package d. Cost account 27. A project manager is reviewing the scope of the project and the scope baseline of the project. This includes which of the following? a. The original project schedule, budget, and scope b. The original project description and project charter c. The original scope of the project plus or minus any scope changes d. The current budget of the project 28. A project manager has just become the manager of a project. The document that recognizes the existence of the project is called: a. The statement of work b. The project assignment c. The project charter d. The product description 29. A project manager is reviewing the work breakdown structure for her project. The WBS of the project represents: a. All the tangible items that must be delivered to the client b. All the work that must be completed for the project c. The work that must be performed by the project team d. All the activities of the project 30. A manager who manages a group of related projects is called a:

a. Project manager b. Project expediter c. Program coordinator d. Program manager 31. A new project has begun. The project charter has been written and the project manager has been assigned. The project manager is preparing the work breakdown structure for the project. The WBS is typically used for: a. Explaining the scope of the project relevant to the client b. The basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project c. Showing the resource conflicts that exist in the project d. The logical relationship between tasks in the project 32. During the life of a project, the project will go through several phases initiating, planning, execution, and closeout. Which phase of the project is likely to have the greatest amount of its funding spent? a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Closeout 33. During the course of the project it is important that the stakeholders be informed of the progress of the project. One of the reports that is frequently used is a progress report. Which of the following is true about progress report? a. They allow stakeholders to judge the performance of the project according to its plan b. They are generally considered to be overkill on very small projects c. They require the use of earned value reports d. They must be produced by the project manager 34. The coordinated undertaking of interrelated activities directed toward a specific goal that has finite period of performance is a: a. Project charter

b. Project c. Set of project objectives d. Program 35. The document that is proof of upper managements commitment to the project and gives the authority to manage the project to the project manager is called: a. The project plan b. The project goals and objectives c. The project charter d. The project definition 36. A project manager works in a company favoring the weakest authority for the projectmanager the type of organization that holds the project manager to be the weakest is: a. Projectized organization b. Strong matrix organization c. Weak matrix organization d. Balanced matrix organization 37. A project manager has been asked by the client to meet the promise date of the project. The project manager analyzes the schedule before promising a date to the customer. The project manager uses the program evaluation and review technique to evaluate the project schedule. She decides that based on the PERT calculations she can promise a delivery date of June 30. The expected value of the project completion date is May 30. If the project manager is willing to accept a 5% probability that the project will be delivered later than June 30, what is the standard deviation of the duration of the activities on the critical path? Assume a five-day workweek. a. Ten days b. Fifteen days c. One-half month d. One month

38. A project is proposed to a customer. Price and schedule for delivery are agreed upon. The work breakdown structure is agreed to as well. The customer requests that one of the milestones of the project be completed by a certain date. The project schedule is reviewed, and it is found that the expected completion date for this milestone is considerably earlier that the date requested by the customer. The date for this milestone is which of the following? a. Consideration b. Summary activity c. Constraint d. Suggestion 39. A project manager is managing a project. The original scope baseline of the project was budgeted at $100,000. Since work on the project started there have been seventeen authorized and approved changes to the project. The changes have a value of $17,000 and the cost of investigating them prior to their approval was $2,500. What is the current budget for the project? a. $100,000 b. $114,500 c. $117,000 d. $119,500 40. In a very large project having a budget of $5 million and a project team of over one hundred persons, the project manager constructs a work breakdown structure. The project manager will do the WBS to the detail level of which of the following? a. Task b. Activity c. WBS element d. Work package 41. A project manager is managing a project that has reached the end of planning phase. The work scope has been agreed to and definitive cost estimates have been completed for the project. The total estimated cost of the project is $100,000. It is reasonable to expect that the project will not cost over which of the following value?

a. $100,000 b. $110,000 c. $125,000 d. $175,000 The following information and questions 42 through 51 refer to Figure 1

A schedule was developed for a project to install windows in an apartment building. The project is a rush job, and the contractor has agreed to schedule the work on a single shift basis but will work seven days per week until the job is done. The project is to begin on May 1.

42. What day in May will activity D have for its early finish date? a. May 13 b. May 6 c. May 7 d. May 5 43. What is the free float for activity F? a. 6 b. 7 c. 0 d. 8

44. What is the free float for activity D? a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 0 45. What is the critical path of the project? a. A B E G H b. A B D F H c. A C G H d. A B E D F H 46. What is the late start for activity F? a. May 10 b. May 11 c. May 12 d. May 14 47. How long is the project in days? a. Nineteen b. Twenty c. Twenty-one d. Eighteen 48. What is the early start for activity F? a. May 7 b. May 6 c. May 5 d. May 4 49. If there is a delay in activity F of six days, what is the effect on the project completion date? a. Increases one day b. No change to project completion date c. Increases two days d. Increases three days 50. What is the early finish date for activity A? a. May 1 b. May 2 c. May 3 d. May 4

51. The above diagram is called: a. Activity on arrow network diagram b. Network diagram c. Precedence diagram d. Gantt chart 52. If a project manager were to make Thanksgiving dinner, two of the activities that might be of concern would be roasting the turkey and baking the sweet potatoes. In order to ensure that these two items will be finished cooking and will come out of the oven at the same time, what type of relationship should he or she use in the schedule between these two activities? a. Finish finish b. Start start c. Finish start d. Start finish Questions 53 through 56 refer to the diagram in Figure 2 and the table that follows.

In a project to install concrete sewer lines there is a lot of uncertainty as to how long the durations should be for the tasks involved. The project manager has determined that the team will use the PERT technique to evaluate the projects completion date. The diagram shows nine activities and the table shows the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates that the team has already made. 53. What is the expected value of the number of days to complete the project? a. 47.3 b. 22.0 c. 32.3 d. 48 54. It is desirable to make an estimate that has a greater than 95% chance of being correct. Which of the following ranges of time for the impletion of the project best describes this probability of being correct? a. 33.31 to 31.36 b. 34.28 to 30.39 c. 14.39 to 33.48 d. 35.25 to 29.42 55. What is the expected value of the duration for activity B? a. 5.6 b. 2.8 c. 3.0 d. 2.6

56. What is the standard deviation for the duration of activity B? a. 1.000 b. .133 c. .166 d. 1.413

57. The project manager decided to improve the predicted completion date for the project by doing in parallel several of the activities that were scheduled to be done in sequence. This is called: a. Crashing b. Increasing priorities c. Hurry up defense d. Fast tracking 58. Crashing the schedule means: a. Making the project shorter by any economic means b. Running the project team on overtime c. Doing activities that were in sequence in parallel d. Getting out of town before the project is in trouble 59. The original schedule (for a project, a work package, or an activity). Plus or minus approved changes, is called: a. The working schedule b. The target schedule c. The performance schedule d. The baseline schedule 60. Schedules are used in many ways. In a project to build a bridge the project manager wants to use a tool that will show the scheduled activities in such a way that it is easy to see when each activity starts and finishes and which activities are taking place at the same time. Which tool should be used? a. PERT chart b. Gantt chart c. Precedence diagram d. GERT chart 61. Which of the following is true about pure risk?

A. The risk can be deflected or transferred to another party through a contract or insurance policy. B. C. D. Pure risks involve the chance of both a profit and a loss. No opportunities are associated with pure risk, only losses. a and c

62. A contingency plan is: A. A planned response that defines the steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur. B. A workaround

C. A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part. D. a and c

63. Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is part of which of the following risk response categories? A. B. C. D. Mitigation Acceptance Avoidance Analysis

64. Management reserves are used to handle which type of risk? A. B. Unknown unknowns Known unknowns

C. D.

business risks pure risks

65. Which of the following is considered during the Procurement Planning Process? A. B. C. D. Whether to procure How to procure and how much to procure What and when to procure all of the above

66. From a buyer's standpoint, which of the following is true? A. Procurement planning should include consideration of potential subcontracts

B. Procurement planning does not include consideration of potential subcontracts since this is the duty of the contractor. C. D. Subcontractors are first considered during the Solicitation Process none of the above

67. Which of the following is true about procurement documents? A. Procurement documents are used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers. B. Invitation for Bid and Request for Proposal are two examples of procurement documents. C. Procurement documents should be structured to facilitate accurate and complete responses from prospective sellers. D. all of the above

68. Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in order to minimize the effect of personal prejudice on source selection? A. B. C. D. Weighting system Screening system Selecting system none of the above

69. Which of the following are examples of indirect costs? A. B. C. D. Salaries of corporate executives Salaries of full-time project staff Overhead costs a and c

70. Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller? A. B. C. D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract Cost plus-incentive-fee contract Fixed-price-incentive contract Firm-fixed-price contract

71. In which of the following contract types is the seller's profit limited? A. B. C. Cost-plus-percentage-cost contract Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract Fixed-price-plus-incentive

D.

b and c

72. A cost-plus-percentage-cost (CPPC. contract has an estimated cost of $120,000 with an agreed profit of 10% of the costs. The actual cost of the project is $130,000. What is the total reimbursement to the seller? A. B. C. D. $143,000 $142,000 $140,000 $132,000

73. A fixed-price-plus-incentive-fee (FPI. contract has a target cost of $130,000, a target profit of $15,000, a target price of $145,000, a ceiling price of $160,000, and a share ratio of 80/20. The actual cost of the project was $150,000. How much profit does the seller make? A. B. C. D. $10,000 $15,000 $0 $5,000

74 Under what circumstances is it better for a contractor to subcontract? A. The subcontractor possesses special technical and engineering skills that the contractor does not have. B. C. D. The work to be subcontracted represents almost all of the overall work effort. The subcontractor can perform the work at a lower cost than the contractor. a and c

75 Which type of bilateral contract is used for high dollar, standard items? A. B. C. D. Purchase order Request for proposal (RFP). Invitation for bid (IFB). Request for quotation (RFQ).

76. In which stage of the negotiation meeting are points of concession identified? A. B. C. D. Probing Closure Agreement Scratch bargaining

77. Which of the following is NOT a method of government procurement? A. B. C. D. Assistance Sealed Bidding Competitive proposals Acquisition

78. The "rule of seven" as applied to process control charts means that : A. If there are seven points on one side of mean, then an assignable cause must be found. B. C. Seven consecutive points are ascending, descending, or the same. At least seven inspectors should be in place for every thousand employees.

D. A process is not out of control even though seven measurements fall outside the lower and upper control limits.

79. There is project with CPI of 0.81 and TCPI=1.00001 this project is: A. B. C. D. Overbudget and cannot recover Underbudget Overbudget and early in its evolution No interference cam be made

80. A collection of generally sequential project phases whose name and number are determined by the control needs of the organization or organizations involved in the project, is called: A. B. C. D. Project life cycle Product life cycle Project life event All of the above

81. Using the formula: Present value = S/(1+i)n where i is the interest rate in percentage, n isthe number of periods, and S is the starting amount, the following table is produced: Periods 10% 12% 14% 1 0.909 0.893 0.877 2 0.826 0.797 0.769 3 0.751 0.712 0.675 4 0.683 0.636 0.592 5 0.621 0.597 0.519 Based on the table, what is the value of an annual income flow of $1,300 each year overthe next three years at 12%? a. $3122.60 b. $3900.00 c. $3497.00 d. 36%

82. Lifecycle costing: a. Is a method of including all of the cost associated with the project over its entire life b. Is a federal government accounting method c. Is a method of predicting the life of a project d. Is a method of evaluating projects when they are complete

The following table and description refer to questions 83 through 89. A project manager is using the earned value reporting method to manage his project. Thefollowing table shows the data collected to date. The plan is for the project to be complete aftereight weeks. The earned value report shows data collected for the first four weeks of the project. The figure shown in the table are cumulative. Week PV AC EV 1 1,000 1,000 1,000 2 3,000 2,000 2,500 3 5,000 5,000 6,000 4 7,000 9,000 7,000 5 13,000 6 17,000 7 19,000 8 20,000

83. What is the cost performance index for week 4? a. 1.000 b. 0.777 c. 1.286 d. 1.250

84. What is the schedule performance index for week 3? a. 1.200 b. 0.833 c. 1.000 d. 1.500 85. What is the BAC for the project during week 4? a. 7,000 b. 9,000 c. 5,000 d. 20,000

86. During week 5 it is found that some of the work that was reported complete in week 2was considered unacceptable. It will require $500 to fix the problem and make this workacceptable. The work is scheduled to be done in week 6. No other work is reported to becomplete during week 5. What is the EV for week 5? a. 7,000 b. 6,500 c. 9,000 d. 5,000

87. What is the cost variance for week 4? a. 0 b. -2,000 c. 2,000 d.7,000

88. What is the schedule variance in week 2? a. 500 b. 1,000 c. -500 d. -1,000

89. What is the EAC at week 4? a. 20,000 b. 15,555 c. 25,740 d. 17,717

90. The calculation of the EAC assumes that: a. The schedule performance index will remain the same for the remaining part of theproject b. The cost performance index will remain the same for the remaining part of the project c. The BAC will be different by the end of the project d. The EAC will continuously increase for the remaining portion of the project

91. What factors need to be known in order to be able to calculate the ETC? a. Budget at completion, actual cost, and planned value b. Budget at completion, earned value, and actual cost c. Estimate at completion and planned value d. Estimate at completion and actual cost

92. A construction company is being measured by the earned value reporting method.During the project one of the tasks, installing ten elm trees, was completed. The plannedvalue for this task was $4,000, and it was completed two weeks ago. Unfortunately forthe contractor, maple trees should have been planted. The customer insists that maple trees be planted and that the elm trees be removed. As of this time the elm trees are stillin the ground, but the contractor has agreed to do the work of replacing them. Whataction should be taken on the earned value report? a. Reduce PV by $4,000 b. Reduce AV by $4,000 c. Reduce EV by $4,000 d. Make no changes since the vendor has agreed to fix the problem

93. Learning curve theory emphasize that in producing many goods: a. Cost decreases as production rates increase b. Average unit cost decreases as more units are produces c. Materials become cheaper when they are purchased in bulk d. Laborers become more productive because of technological advances

94. A project manager is considering applying learning curve theory to his project. Theproject involves designing a number of software modules that are very similar. Accordingto the cost figures that have been collected the first unit required 100 person-hours todesign and test. The second unit required 90 person-hours to design and test. Howmany person-hours will the eighth module take to design and test? a. 90 b. 100 c. 73 d. 172

95. The process required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it wasundertaken include all activities of the overall management function that determines thequality policy, objectives, and responsibilities and implements them by means such asquality planning, quality control, quality assurance, and

quality improvement, within thequality system. This is called: a. Quality assurance b. Quality control c. Quality planning d. Quality management

96. Decisions as to the types of projects that should be accomplished and strategic plans asto the quality of the projects that are required should be the decision of which of thefollowing? a. Project manager b. Procurement manager c. Upper management d. Stakeholders

97. According to Deming and Juran most of the quality problems that exist are due to adefect or failure in processes that are controlled by: a. The project manager b. The procurement manager c. Upper management d. Stakeholders

98. A project manager is managing a large project and must consider the application of aquality management plan. One of the critical factors in such a plan is the cost ofimplementing the plan. The project manager should: a. Invoice the client for all quality improvements b. Implement the highest quality possible regardless of cost c. Implement quality improvements as long as the benefits outweigh the costs d. Rely on upper management to determine the quality budget

99. A project manager has discovered a problem and is trying to determine the cause. Theprocess whereby he identifies the variables that have the most influence on the projectby holding all the variables constant and changing one at a time is called: a. Product correlation b. Design of an experiment c. System integration d. Output processing

100. A control chart is being used to control a manufacturing process. As part of the control asample of five parts is taken from the manufacturing process each hour of operation.Each of the five parts is measured and the dimension is recorded on the work sheet. Thedifference between the highest and lowest measured dimension of the five parts isplotted on the control chart. This is called which of the following values? a. R b. R bar c. X d. X bar 101. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs is the definition for: a. Modern quality management b. Quality assurance c. Quality d. Quality control

102. A large project is being worked on by a large company. The client is interested in knowing how the company will be able to meet the quality needs of the project. In order to satisfy this request of the client the project manager arranges a meeting between the client and the: a. General manager b. Quality control manager c. Quality assurance manager d. Chief designer

103. One of the fundamental tenets of quality management is that quality: a. Must exceed customer expectation b. Is planned in and not inspected in c. Will increase cost d. Costs must all be passed onto the customer

104. A category or rank given to products that have the same functional use but different technical characteristics is called the products: a. Quality b. Functional characteristics c. Grade d. Technical characteristics

105. The quality manager of a company wishes to analyze the data that is coming to him in the form of a list of defects that have occurred in the shipping department. The report comes with defects listed chronologically as they occurred, the cost of the repair necessary to correct each defect, the person involved, and a description of the defect. The manager would like to determine which of the defects should be corrected first according to the frequency of the defect occurring. He should use which of the following quality tools? a. Cause and effect diagram b. Sampling inspection c. Pareto diagram d. Quality critical path

106. A project manager from the quality control area is trying to categorize the number of mistakes that are made in the area that paints the right front fender of the Mercedes 560 SL. She list all the possible defects on a sheet of paper and asks the inspector to make a mark each time one of the listed defects is found. This is an example of using which of the following quality tools? a. Scatter diagram b. Statistical measurements c. Check sheet d. Random sampling

107. The project management team should be aware that modern quality management complements modern project management. For example, both disciplines recognize the importance of: a. Completion in the shortest possible time frame b. Making a maximum profit c. Having lower cost than competitor d. Customer satisfaction

108. In a manufacturing process that is being controlled by control charts there are variables occurring that will affect the process output. Variations in the process that are considered to be normal process variables are called: a. Common causes b. Uncommon causes c. Special causes d. Random causes

109. Work results, quality checklists, operational definitions, and the management plan are: a. Inputs to quality control b. Outputs from quality control c. Inputs to quality assurance d. Outputs from quality assurance

110. A control chart is being used to control a manufacturing process. As part of the control a sample of five years is taken from the manufacturing process each hour of operation. Each of the five parts is measured, and the dimension is recorded on the work sheet. The average of the five parts is plotted on the control chart. This is called which of the following values? a. X b. X bar c. Sample average d. Control average

111. A project manager for the quality department is trying to solve a problem with a machine that makes die cast aluminum parts that are used in automobiles. These parts are frequently made with defects. The project manager has decided to hold a meeting to discuss the process of making the parts. He creates a diagram that has branches that show the possible causes of the problems. Each of the branches breaks the cause down into more and more detail. This diagram is called a: a. Pareto diagram b. Fishtank diagram c. Cause and effect diagram d. Scatter diagram

112. As the manager of the production department where electrical circuits are being made you observe the inspection station where the completed printed circuit assemblies are being inspected. In this operation the inspector takes the printed circuit assembly and puts it into a fixture. The fixture is part of the testing machine that has three digital readouts. The inspector records the readings on the three digital readouts on his inspection report. This is an example of: a. Attribute inspection b. Variable inspection

c. Sampling inspection d. Process control

113. One of the important advantages of using control charts in managing a production operation is that the control chart tells you when to take corrective action on the process being controlled. Another important result of using control charts is: a. The control chart identifies the special causes b. The control chart tells you when you should not take corrective action c. The control chart shows how much the defects are costing d. The control chart shows who is responsible for the defects

114. According to the ideas behind modern quality management, quality improvements should be made: a. In large steps through detailed study of problems and then implemented as comprehensive solutions when they are funded b. In small incremental steps c. By assignment of permanent quality improvement teams d. By hiring ISO certification consultants to point out quality deficient areas

115. The Japanese developed a method of modern quality management that relies on continuing small improvements involving everyone from the top management to the lowest level worker in the organization. This is called: a. Kamban b. Kaizen c. PDCA d. Deming cycle

116. The primary benefits of meeting quality requirements are: a. Cost and delays are reduced, production improves, cost to customers goes up, and profits go up b. Cost and delays are reduced, production improves, market share increases, and profits go up c. Cost and delays are reduced, capital expenditures go down, market share increases, and profits go up d. Cost and delays are reduced, production improves, market share increases, and profits are maintained

117. When the quality management discipline is implemented, the benefits to costs ratio should at least be: a. Unable to be evaluated b. Less than one c. Of little importance d. Greater than one

118. The quality management plan provides input to __________________ and addresses quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvement. a. The overall project plan b. The WBS c. The project scope d. External stakeholders

119. Project quality assurance: a. Includes policing the conformance of the project team to specs b. Provides the project team and stakeholders with standards, by which the project performance is measured c. Is a managerial process that defines the organization, design, resources, and objectives of quality management d. Provide confidence that the project will satisfy relevant quality standards

120. What are the major advantages of the functional type of organization? a. Single point of contact for the customer b. Stable organizational structure c. Project orientation d. Multifunctional teams are easy to form 121. The project managers leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental level of the project team and should move through successive steps in the following order: a. Disciplinary, autocratic, participative b. Projectized, matrix, functional c. Team building, team development, responsibility assignment d. Directing, coaching, supporting, delegating

122. A company has signed a contract for new work that is different from work that it has done before. The companys strategic plan calls for much of this kind of work in the future. It is important that it be able to bring the correct shared resources together to work on different parts of the contract. The type of

organization that this suggest is a: a. Functional organization b. Contractor organization c. Matrix organization d. Pure project organization

123. The manager of a large corporation wants to sign a contract to build a nuclear power plant in Botswana several thousand miles away from the home office. The project will take several years to build and test. What type of organization will be best for managing this project? a. Functional organization b. Contractor organization c. Matrix organization d. Pure project organization 124. In matrix management organizations, if the organization maintains many of the characteristic of the functional organization and the project managers are considered more like project coordinators or expediters, it is called a: a. Strong matrix b. Project team c. Weak matrix d. Project office

125. A project manager is selecting team members for her project team. She collects the resumes and past performance reviews for the potential team members and discusses each with their functional manager. Which of the following is not a characteristic that the project manager should use in selecting the team members? a. Previous experience b. Personal characteristics c. Personal interest d. Salary 126. A project manager is responsible for all that goes on in the project. One of the most important duties that the project manage can perform is the function of: a. Risk management b. Quality management c. Cost management d. Integration

127. The organization that is a formalized structure directed toward the support of the project community within the organization is called:

a. Matrix organization b. Project office c. Project team d. Project management office

128. On a project team one of the team members has a problem collecting on a medical insurance claim. The team member comes to the project manager and explains the problem. The problem is the responsibility of the: a. Project team b. Project manager c. Executive manager d. Human resource department

129. The organization that is a formalized structure where the project teams and the project managers reside is called: a. Matrix organization b. Project office c. Project team d. Project management office 130. A conflict arises about the method to solve a difficult design problem. The project manager is seeking a method of resolving the conflict. In order to achieve the most long lasting resolution to project conflicts, which of the following approached should be used? a. Problem solving b. Compromise c. Withdrawal d. Smoothing

131. In a large organization a project expediter is being used to manage a project for an important client. The position of project expediter would be found in what kind of an organization? a. Strong matrix b. Weak matrix c. Functional d. Projectized

132. The project manager of a project is concerned with managing cost and improving morale and is also concerned about notifying other project managers when individuals from his project team will be available to work on other projects.

This is best addressed in the projects: a. Communications plan b. Work breakdown structure c. Staffing plan d. Project schedule

133. The beginning and the end of the project is defined by: a. The project plan b. The project charter c. The team charter d. The project lifecycle

134. Herzberg divided motivation factors into two classes: satisfiers and dissatisfiers. Examples of satisfiers are: a. Vacation time, assignment of a personal staff assistant b. Work satisfaction, fringe benefit c. Plush office space, performance-based salary raise d. Sense of personal achievement, work satisfaction

135. The skill of listening involves more than just hearing the sounds. One of the characteristics of a good listener is that he or she: a. Finishes the speakers sentences b. Take good notes c. Repeats some of the things said d. Agrees with the speaker

136. Primary outputs from team development are: a. Input to performance appraisals b. High project team morale c. Reduced project cost d. Greater customer satisfaction

137. An automotive oil change station was receiving complaints that service took too long. A coffee machine and television were installed in the waiting room and the complaints went down. This is an example of:

a. Smith-Carlisle method b. Creative problem solving c. Analytical problem solving d. Decision analysis

138. A project manager is concerned about team building on her project. One of the mandatory things that she must have in order to have good team building is: a. Commitment from top level management b. Co-location of team members c. Establishment of clear negotiated goals d. Open discussion of poor individual performance

139. The project manager of a new project wants to get things started in a positive way with the project team. The project manager wants the team members to get to know one another, to introduce the project team and the project manager to one another, to discuss the objectives and goals of the project, and to identify some of the potential problem areas. This meeting is called a: a. Project team meeting b. Project kick-off meeting c. Goal setting meeting d. Introduction meeting

140. A project manager is managing a project where there will be a number of persons working together. She wants to enhance the ability of the team to work together and perform as a team. One of the things that she can do to maximize the ability of the team to do this is: a. Cohabitation b. Co-location c. Staffing plan d. Work breakdown structure 141. A project manager is in need of a solution to a problem. He decides that the best thing will be to arrange a meeting to solve the problem rather than solve the problem himself or by having one of the project team members solve it individually. Generally, this will result in: a. The group taking more time than one individual b. The solution to the problem being less accurate c. The group taking less time than one individual d. In depends on the specific problem

142. A project manager will manage a large complicated project that is located in a remote part of Africa. The project will last for five years and will have the product of producing a nuclear reactor that will generate 900 megawatts of power at start-up. The best kind of organization for managing this project is: a. Strong matrix management b. Weak matrix management c. Projectized organization d. Functional organization 143. Project human resources management is divided into which of the following? a. Organization planning, staff acquisition, and team development b. Leadership, team building, and negotiation c. Recruitment, labor relations, and personnel administration d. Team building, communication, and labor relations 144. A project manager wants to do as much as she can to help in developing her project team. A key barrier to project team development is which of the following? a. Strong matrix management structure b. Major problems that delay the project completion date or budget targets c. Team members who are accountable to both functional and project managers d. Formal training plans that cannot be implemented 145. Which of the following media can a communicator use to present information? a. Visual b. Audio and visual c. Tactile d. Visual, audio, and tactile 146. The three principal interests in maintaining good document control are: a. Timely communication, collection of performance appraisal data, and assuring proper disposal of sensitive documents b. Timely communication, maintain proper approvals, and communication cost control c. Effective communication, ability to reconstruct why decisions were made, and historical value d. Security, change management, and procedural documentation 147. A project manager wants to handle communications well in his project. In order to do this he has chosen to write a communication plan. Of the items listed below, which one is not part of the communication plan? a. Collection and filling structure

b. Distribution plan c. Method for accessing information d. Project organization structure 148. Which of the following are filters that the receiver uses to filter messages? a. Language and knowledge b. Distance c. Culture and distance d. Language, distance, culture, and knowledge 149. A project manager has many different ways of communicating. Which of the following is a good communication tools for the project manager to use? a. Sending a videotape of the project progress to the client b. Inputting a task into the project managers personal computer c. Writing notes on a handheld computer d. Putting the project budget into a spreadsheet 150. The use of brainstorming as a communication technique encourages which of the following? a. Team building and convergent thinking b. Divergent thinking c. Analytical results d. Use of the scientific method

151. Which of the following techniques allows for the participants to be anonymous? a. Brainstorming b. Nominal group c. Delphi technique d. Crawford slip 152. Which of the following is not a standard type of communication? a. Written b. Verbal c. Nonverbal d. Clairvoyant 153. During a project meeting a disagreement between two members of the project team began. The disagreement was over a technical detail of the project.

The project manager was in attendance in the meeting. It is important that the conflicting opinion of the two team members be resolved as quickly as possible. It is even more important that the difference of opinion be resolve correctly. What should the project manager do? a. The project manager should make the decision right away to save time and not let the two disagreeing parties stay in disagreement very long b. End the meeting and give everyone a few days to cool off c. Assign someone to find out more factual information about the problem d. The project manager should suggest a compromise between the two disagreeing team members 154. In the communication model, communications between the sender and the receiver often are affected by communications barriers. These include all of the following except: a. Cultural differences b. Differences in motivation c. Educational differences d. Lack of a communications device 155. A project manager has one member of the project team working on a critical problem. The person working on the problem verbally communicates to the manager that this correction to the problem will probably cost $1,000. Which form of communication should the project manager use to respond to the team member? a. Written b. Oral c. Form letter d. Formal 156. Who is responsible for communications for the project team? a. The human resources representative b. The representative from the management information systems department c. The project manager d. The communications department 157. Statements such as Its never been done before: or It will cost a fortune are examples of: a. Feedback b. Communication blockers c. Conflict generators d. Forcing

158. The project manager has a very complex communication to prepare for the program manager. In order to ensure that the communication will be understood as completely as possible, what method of communication should be used? a. Oral b. Written c. Nonverbal d. Oral, written, and nonverbal 159. There are many ways to organize projects. The persons involved with these projects have several titles that describe their management responsibilities. Which of the following titles describes a person who has a primary responsibility for communications? a. Project manager b. Project manager in a strong matrix environment c. Project manager in a weak matrix environment d. Project expediter 160. A project manager is responsible for performance reporting. Which of the following is not one of the tools and techniques that the project manager can use for performance reporting? a. Variance analysis b. Earned value reports c. Performance reviews d. Past project review 161. Which of the following is true? a. The critical path is the path through the network that has the highest total duration b. The critical path is the path with the least amount of free float c. The critical path is the list of activities that have zero float d. The critical path is the list of activities that have critical risks associated with them

162. Resource leveling will generally: a. Reduce the time needed to do the project b. Increase the total time necessary to do all the tasks c. Reduce the over utilization of resources d. Reduce resources to the lowest skill that is possible

163. A task was scheduled to use two persons, full time, and take two weeks to complete.Instead, the project manager was only able to assign one person to this task. At the endof two weeks, the person assigned to the task was 75% complete. What is the costperformance index?

a. 0.75 b. 1.5 c. 1.33 d. .5

164. Five tasks are scheduled to be completed in sequence. Each task has a finish-startrelationship with the next task. Each has one day of total float. As of today, task one andtwo have been completed on schedule. How many days of float remain in the scheduleof these tasks? a. Two b. One c. Zero d. Four

165. Which of the following is considered to be a simulation technique? a. PERT analysis b. GERT analysis c. Monte Carlo analysis d. Critical path method

166. The main difference between the two types (ADM, arrow diagramming method, and PDM, precedence diagramming method) of the critical path method (CPM) of scheduling is: a. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line b. Arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a deterministic method, whereas the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a probabilistic method c. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a deterministic method, whereas the arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a probabilistic method d. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a more accurate method

167. The project schedule is not used to determine: a. The start and finish dates of the activities b. Occasional changes to the activity listing c. The total float of the activities d. The projects budget

168. A project manager wants to make a trip to California by car. The project manager knows how many miles it will be to drive to California, the current price of gasoline, and how many miles the car will go on a gallon of gasoline. From this information he or she can calculate the estimated cost of the gasoline for the trip. This is a form of what kind of estimating technique? a. Definitive b. Analogous c. Parametric d. Quantitative

169. A project manager wants to make a trip to California by car. The project manager knows someone who has made this trip before. This person has a similar car to the one that the project manager has, and the person has kept good records on the money spent for fuel on the trip. The distance that the project manager will travel is 10% farther than the other persons trip. By multiplying the cost of fuel reported by the other person by 1.1, the project manager is performing what kind of estimate? a. Definitive b. Analogous c. Parametric d. Quantitative

170. To distinguish top-down estimates from bottom-up estimates, it would be correct to say that the bottom-up estimate would be: a. Less accurate b. About equal in accuracy to the top-down estimate c. More accurate d. No different to perform than the top-down estimate

171. A project manager and the project team identify several specific risks in a project. The expected value of these risks is estimated at $10,000. The impact on the project brought about by these risks is estimated at $40,000. What value should be entered into the management reserve for these risks? a. $10,000 b. $40,000 c. $0 d. $25,000

172. A project manager and the project team identify several specific risks in a project. The expected value of these risks is estimated at $10,000. The impact on

the project brought about by these risks is estimated at $40,000. What value should be entered into the contingency reserve for these risks? a. $10,000 b. $40,000 c. $0 d. $25,000

173. What characteristic best describes the cost baseline? a. Total budget for the project b. Time-phased budget for the project c. Total budget for the project including the contingency budget d. Total budget for the project including the contingency budget and the management reserve

174. A project is formed to produce a product that will be used for transporting people. Costs that are associated with the project that occur after the delivery of the product to the customer are considered to be what kind of cost? a. Prorated cost b. Expenses c. Life cycle cost d. Expected value

175. A project team receives an approved change request from customer. The team has previously estimated that the cost to implement this change is $10,000. The customer has agreed to pay this amount for the additional work. The customer realizes that there is a 50 percent chance that this change will not work and will later be removed. What change, if any, should be made in the budget? a. The project budget should not be increased b. The project budget should be increased by $15,000 c. The project budget should be increased by $10,000 d. The project budget should be increased by $5,000

176. The act of doing anything that will help to bring future project performance into line with the project plan is called: a. Budget update b. Revised cost estimate c. Corrective action d. Contingency planning

177. Which of the following choices would be an acceptable cause for rebaselining a $10 million project? a. The monthly consumer price index on some of the commodities used on the project has been identified as having gone up by 1.6%, an increase of 46% over the 1.1% that had been budgeted b. The client has authorized a $10,000 addition to the scope of the project c. The contractors company has instituted a quality program on which it has pledged to spend $1 million during the next year d. The productivity in the drafting department has been shown to be lower than anticipated, which has resulted in 1,000 additional hours, a 78% increase over what was budgeted

178. In terms of earned value reporting, a project is considered complete when: a. The BAC is equal to the PV b. The EV is equal to the AC c. The PV is equal to the AC d. The BAC is equal to the EV

179. The time-phased cost of the project that reflects the expenditures rather than the consumption of a resource that will be used to measure and monitor cost performance on a project is the: a. Spending plan b. Cost baseline c. WBS d. Schedule

180. A large piece of equipment is needed for the project. It will be retained and used after the project is completed. The equipment has a value of $500,000, and it has a scrap value of $50,000 at the end of its useful life of ten years. If the sum of the years digits method of depreciation is used, what is the depreciation that is taken at the end of the third year? a. $81,818 b. $90,900 c. $65,250 d. $72,500 181. The project team has put together a project plan for a project, and the plan has been approved by the stakeholders. The customer asks the project manager if the project can be delivered seven weeks sooner. The customer offers sufficient monetary incentive for the project manager. The project manager decides to fast track the project. This decision

will: a. Increase risk b. Decrease risk c. Not affect risk d. Risk change cannot be determined

182. A project team evaluates risk in the project. As an outcome there are some positive and negative risks that are identified and evaluated. To evaluate the worst case for the project the project team should evaluate and summarize: a. All of the risks affecting the project b. Only the negative risks c. The negative risks minus the positive risks d. The positive risks minus the negative risks

183. The Project Management Institute decided to hold its annual meeting in New Orleans, Louisiana. The conference represents a substantial amount of PMIs operating budget for the year. PMI identified a risk of hurricanes during the month of September, when the conference was to be held. PMI decided to purchase convention insurance to offset the loss of convention revenue if a hurricane caused cancellation of the conference. This is a risk management strategy called: a. Avoidance b. Deflection or transference c. Acceptance d. Mitigation

184. During the project lifecycle, in which part of the lifecycle will risk be the lowest? a. Initiation b. Planning c. Execution d. Closeout

185. The Monte Carlo technique can be used to: a. Determine the amount of contingency budget needed for the project b. Determine the amount of the management reserve

c. Determine the critically index for an activity in the schedule d. Determine the risk index for a risk in the project

186. A project manager must make a narrative description of the project. This narrative description covers the items that will be supplied under the contract with the client. It is called: a. The project plan b. The statement of work c. The exception report d. The progress report

187. A project manager discovers that there is a part of the project that contains some risk. His or her strategy with this risk is to subcontract the work to an outside supplier by using a firm fixed-price contract. Which of the following is true? a. The supplier will include an allowance for the risk in the contracted price b. The supplier will lose money on the contract c. The project manager will have to compensate the supplier if the risk occurs d. The project manager will assist the supplier with the project team if the risk occurs

188. A project manager discovers that there is a part of the project that contains some risk. His or her strategy with this risk is to subcontract the work to an outside supplier by using a firm fixed-price contract. The project manager should: a. Make certain that the project team does not reveal the risk to the supplier until the contract is signed b. Make every effort to make sure that the supplier is made aware of the risk after the contract is signed c. Make sure that the supplier understands the risk before the contract is signed d. Assign a member of the project team to monitor the activity of the supplier to make sure that the supplier deals with the risk properly is it occurs

189. The project manager is considering contracting some of the work of the project to a service bureau. The service bureau has been used in the past by this project manager. The manager has several choices of contracts that can be used to subcontract this work. Which of the following is not a type of contract that the

project manager might choose? a. Firm fixed price b. Make or buy c. Cost plus incentive fee d. Unit price

190. A project manager is employed by a construction company and is responsible for the furnishing of the completed building. One of the first things that the project manager for this project should do is to write a: a. Work breakdown structure b. Budget baseline c. Project charter d. Project plan

191. A contractor is working on a fixed price contract that calls for a single, lump sum payment upon satisfactory completion of the contract. About halfway through the contract, the contractors project manager informs the contract administrator that financial problems are making it difficult for the contractor to pay employees and subcontractors. The contractor asks for partial payment for work accomplished. Which of the following actions by the buyer is most likely to cause problems for the projects? a. Starting to make partial payments to the contractor b. Making no payments to the contractor c. Paying for work accomplished to date d. Negotiating a change to the contract

192. Under a blanket order arrangement, which of the following is correct? a. The cost of carrying the inventory is borne by the buyer b. The seller delivers all of the material ordered at one time c. Payments for all of the material are made at one time d. At the end of the blanket order, prices are adjusted for the actual amount of material delivered

193. Forward buying will: a. Decrease storage cost b. Decrease capital investment c. Decrease transportation costs d. Decrease inventory

194. Which of the following would not be a part of the procurement management process? a. Purchasing b. Contract negotiations c. Inspection d. Marketing

195. The equivalent of cost-reimbursable contracts is frequently termed: a. Back-charge contracts b. Fixed-price contracts c. Progress payment contracts d. Cost-plus contracts

196. The project team has delivered a deliverable to the customer. The deliverable contains defects that are easily correctable. There is a good relationship with the customer and the customer agrees to make the repairs and correct the defects on the item and invoice supplier for the work that was done. This is considered to be a: a. Bid cost reduction b. Payment authorization c. Back charge d. Release payment

197. A project manager decides to go out for bids on some of the project work that must be done as part of the contract to do a project for another customer. The bids are received and evaluated, and the seller with the lowest bid is

selected. The cost of the contract to the project can further be reduced by what action? a. Illegal methods b. Procurement leverage c. Selecting another seller d. Contract negotiation

198. A buyer extends a formal invitation that contains a scope of work that seeks a response that will describe the methodology and results that will be provided to the buyer. This is called: a. Invitation to bid b. Request for information c. Request for proposal d. Request for bid

199. A project manager wants to subcontract part of the project. This part of the project is quite complicated, and there are many ways that the work can be done. What method of request for seller responses should be used by the project team? a. Request for bid b. Request for quotation c. Request for proposal d. Request for information

200. The project team is considering whether to purchase a service or do it themselves. One of the items that should not be considered in their analysis is: a. The sellers price b. The cost and availability of floor space at the teams facility c. The sellers technical staff d. A competitors method of outsourcing 201. During testing, multiple defects were identified in a product. The project manager overseeing this product's development can best use which tool to help prioritize the problems? A. Pareto Diagram B. Control Chart

C. Variance Analysis D. Order of Magnitude estimate

202. You are the manager of an aircraft design project. A significant portion of this aircraft will be designed by a subcontracting firm. How will this affect your communications management plan? A. More formal verbal communication will be required. B. Performance reports will be more detailed. C. More format written communication will be required. D. Official communication channels will significantly increase.

203. What officially creates the project? A. The project initiating document. B. The kickoff meeting. C. The project charter. D. The statement of work.

204. Refer to the table. What is the critical path?

A . Start A B C I Finish B. Start A B H I Finish C. Start D E H I Finish D. Start F G I Finish

205. The Delphi technique is a way to:

A. Analyze performance. B. Gather expert opinion. C. Resolve conflict. D. Estimate durations.

206. The work authorization system makes sure that A. All the work and only the work gets performed. B. Work gets performed in the right order and at the right time. C. Work is done completely and correctly D. Functional managers are allowed complete control over who is assigned and when.

207. Your team is hard at work on their assigned project tasks when one team member discovers a risk that was not identified during risk planning. What is the FIRST thing to do? A. Halt work on the project. B. Update the risk management plan. C. Look for ways to mitigate the risk. D. Assess the risk.

208. The activity duration estimates should be developed by: A. The person or team doing the work. B. The project manager C. Senior management. D. The customer.

209. The project plan should be all of the following EXCEPT:

A. A formal document B. Distributed to stakeholders in accordance with the communications management plan C. Approved by all project stakeholders. D. Used to manage project execution.

210. You have been asked to take charge of project planning for a new project, but yo have very little experience in managing projects. What will be the best source of help for you? A. Your education. B. You on-the-job training. C. Historical information. D. Your functional manager.

211. The majority of the project budget is expended on" A. Project plan development B. Project plan execution C. Integrated change control D. Project communication.

212. Corrective action is: A. Fixing past anomalies B. Anything done to bring the project's future performance in like with the project management plan. C. The responsibility of the change control board

D. An output of project plan execution.

213. Outputs of Direct and Manage Project Execution include: A. Deliverables and performance reports. B. Deliverables and corrective action. C. Deliverables and work performance information D. Performance reports and requested changes.

214. Your original plan was to construct a building with six stories with each story costing $150,000. This was to be completed in 4 months. However, the project has not gone as planned. 2 months into the project, earned value is $400,000. What is the budget at completion? A. 450,000 B. 600,000 C. 800,000 D. 900,000

215. Project Integration is primarily the responsibility of" A. The project team. B. The project manager. C. Senior management. D. The project sponsor.

216. One of your team member has discovered a way to add an extra deliverable to the project that will have minimal impact on the project schedule and cost. The project cost performance idex is 1.3 and the schedule performance index is 1.5 The functionality was not included in the scope. How should you proceed?

A. Conform to the project scope and do not add the deliverable. B. Deliver the extra work to the customer service since it will not increase their cost. C. Reject the deliverable because you are behind schedule. D. Ask senior management for a decision.

217. If a project manager is unsure who has the authority to approve changes in project scope, she should consult: A. The customer. B. The scope statement. C. The sponsor. D. the scope management plan.

218. An end user has just requested a minor change to the project that will not impact the project schedule. How should you, the project manager, respond? A. Authorize the change quickly to ensure that the schedule can truly remain unaffected. B. Deny the change to help prevent scope creep. C. Evaluate the impact of change on the other project constraints. D. Submit the change request to customer for approval.

219. Which of the following tools is NOT used in initiating a project? A. Project selection methods. B. Project management methodology C. Expert judgement D. Earned value analysis.

220. You overheard a causal conversation between two team members in which one confides to the other some problems he is having in completing his part of the project work. You realise that the work being discused in on the project's critical path and that the information you overheard could mean a significatint delay for the project. what should you do? A. Let the team member know that you heard his conversation and discuss the work probelms with him immediately. B. Begin analysing ways to compress the project scheudle in anticipation of the potential delay. C. Ask a third team member to get involved immediately and encourage the two other team members to come to you with the delay. D. Ask human resources for help in resolving the problem. 221. The process of Contract Administration falls under which process group 1. Planning 2. Closing 3. Monitoring and Control 4. Executing

222. Sam Consultancy has a large internal project to be initiated. To staff this project, Sam Consultancy is working with People Consultancy to provide three resources for six months. The resources will be part of the team managed by Sam Consultancy for six months. Which contract type should be used by Sam Consultancy? 1. Purchase Order 2. Cost plus Fee 3. Fixed cost 4. Time and Material

223. Sam Consultancy is planning to buy ten desktops for $1500 each from a leading computer store. Which type of contract will get signed in this case?

1. Purchase Order 2. Cost plus Fee 3. Fixed cost 4. Time and Material

224. Tree Consultancy is getting 200 computers installed from a vendor. The vendor will be paid the cost involved and a 10% incentive. Which contract will be used in this case? 1. CPPC 2. CPIF 3. CPFF 4. Fixed Cost

225. Alice is a Project Manager. She is coordinating a bidder conference to allow vendors to get clarification on the work that needs to be performed. Which phase of Project Management is in progress. 1. Request Seller Process 2. Plan Contracting 3. Select Sellers 4. Contract Administration

226. Process Analysis is a function of: 1. Performance Analysis 2. Quality Metrics 3. Process Improvement Plan 4. Quality Improvement Plan

227. Root Cause Analysis relates to: 1. Process Analysis 2. Quality Audits 3. Quality Control Measurements 4. Performance Measurements

228. Trend Analysis is often performed using: 1. Cause and Effect Diagram 2. Control Charts 3. Pareto Chart 4. Run Chart

229. A Pareto diagram can be best described as: 1. Cause and Effect Diagram 2. Scatter Chart 3. Control Chart 4. Histogram

230. A planning phase for an engineering component generated 80 engineering drawings. The QA team randomly selected 8 drawings for inspection. This exercise can BEST be described as example of: 1. Inspection 2. Statistical Sampling 3. Flowcharting 4. Control Charting

231. Reserve Analysis a technique NOT used in: 1. Cost Estimating 2. Cost Budgeting 3. Cost Control 4. Estimating Activity Duration

232. A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of $95,000. What term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000? 1. Cost Variance 2. Management Overhead 3. Management Contingency Reserve 4. Schedule Variance

233. Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of: 1. Develop Project Management Plan process 2. Cost Estimating process 3. Cost Budgeting process 4. Cost Control process

234. A particular project in the domain of civil construction requires that every on-site worker be insured. Which of the following inputs BEST conveys this requirement to the Cost Estimation process so that the insurance cost is estimated and subsequently budgeted: 1. Enterprise Environmental Factor 2. Organizational Process Assets 3. Project Scope Statement 4. Project Management Plan

235. _____________ is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget: 1. Activity Cost Contingency Reserve 2. Management Contingency Reserve 3. Management Overheads 4. Project Management Planing

236. ___________ is not part of the Earned Value calculations. 1. Known Unknowns 2. Unknown Unknowns 3. Project Budget 4. Amount of work completed

237. What is the BEST way to make an accurate forecasting of ETC? 1. Manual Forecasting of cost of remaining work. 2. BAC EV 3. (BAC EV)/CPI

4. EAC - AC

238. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means: 1. Project is on budget and on schedule 2. Schedule Variance Index is 1 3. There is no schedule variance 4. There is no cost variance

239. Trend Analysis is BEST described as: 1. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time 2. Examining project performance over time 3. Calculating Earned Value 4. Calculating Cost Variance

240. Which of the following is not done as part of Performance Measurements? 1. Calculating Planned Value 2. Calculating Earned Value 3. Calculating ETC 4. Calculating Cost Variance 241. Jeff always delivers his projects on time and within budget. He believes that his success can be explained by the fact that he makes all of the project decisions himself and then enforces those decisions with an iron hand. His management style is best described by A. Kurt Lewins Force Field theory. B. McGregors Theory X. C. Elizabeth Duffys Arousal Theory.

D. McGregors Theory Y.

242. One of the following items is not used in assessing the completion of the project scope. Which one? A. The product requirements. B. The project management plan. C. The project scope statement. D. The WBS and WBS dictionary.

243. Hard logic is also known as A. Mandatory dependencies B. Preferred dependencies C. External dependencies D. Discretionary dependencies

244. Contract negotiation is the process A. of clarifying and developing a mutual agreement on the structure and requirements of the contract. B. of clarifying and developing a mutual agreement on the responsibilities and authorities that will govern contract administration. C. in which parties with different interests reach an acceptable agreement through communication and compromise. D. bargaining with the seller concerning resources, information and activities in order to come to terms that can be incorporated into the final contract.

245. A checklist is A. an ordered listing of quality items that must be verified before the quality control step is completed. B. an inspection list that is used when no evidence exists that the quality level of the product being submitted is better or worse than the specified quality level. C. a technical list of measured variables or counted data for decision making in a quality process review. D. a structured tool used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed.

246. Developing the answers to questions such as Who needs what information, What form is appropriate and Who is responsible for its preparation is part of which process? A. Communications planning B. Information distribution

C. Project plan execution D. Scope planning

247. Questions such as What products are available in the marketplace and What is the current balance between supply and demand are related to what input to procurement planning? A. Availability assessment. B. Cost/benefit analysis. C. Market conditions. D. Competitive fit analysis.

248. Inspections are A. a statistical sampling and examination. B. activities undertaken to determine whether results conform to requirements. C. recorded data concerning the results of inspection actions. D. performed during the manufacturing or repair cycle to help prevent defects from occurring.

249. Which process in integration management uses inputs from the largest number of of other PMBoK processes? A. Develop Project Management Plan. B. Direct and Manage Project Execution. C. Monitor and Control Project Work. D. Integrated Change Control.

250. The cost baseline is usually not changed unless

A. the basis for the original cost estimate is found to be false and the project must be reestimated. B. significant cost deviations have been reported and it is desired to have future cost reports be based on an as of date. C. the revision is the result of an approved scope change. D. the time baseline is also changed.

251. Qualitative numbers A. cannot be measured numerically. B. cannot be meaningfully added together. C. are ones that are measured by reference to a standard that is external to the system. D. are less reliable than quantitative numbers.

252. In estimating the total amount of material resources required for a project you must first estimate the amount of waste to be expected. You will most likely find this information in which process input? A. Resource requirements B. Historical information C. Parametric modeling D. Supporting detail

253. Which of the following statements is not true about stakeholder analysis? A. A methodical and logical view of the stakeholders information needs should be made. B. Care should be taken to include all information that may be of interest to one or more stakeholders. C. The analysis should consider methods and technolgies suited to the project that will provide the information needed.

D. The sources needed to meet stakeholder information needs should be identified.

254. The project plan is usually developed by A. senior management of the performing organization. B. the customer. C. the project manager. D. the project management team.

255. Which of the following is not true about error in project quality management? A. It is an unavoidable component of all project work. B. It is more costly than the design and planning work that would be necessary to prevent it. C. It is a source of learning rather than a basis for disciplinary warnings or actions. D. It is a reflection of inadequate project planning.

256. Which of the following inputs to contract administration is not based on the sellers work deliverables? A. Reports on what work has been started, is in progress or is finished. B. Change requests. C. Reports on cost, schedule and technical performance. D. Inspection reports.

257. Doing activities in parallel that would normally be done sequentially in order to achieve project objectives or to deal with resource allocation problems is called A. Crashing

B. Accelerating C. Fast Tracking D. Objectives management

258. Which of the following is usually not considered a goal of portfolio management? A. To maximize the value of the portfolio by careful examination of candidate projects and exclusion of those no meeting strategic objectives. B. To balance the portfolio among incremental and radical investments. C. To manage the effective and efficient use of resources. D. To ensure that the relationship between projects in the portfolio clearly reflects strategic objectives.

259. Which of the following is not true about the relationship between the activity definition processes and the WBS? A. These processes may identify deliverables missing from the WBS B. These processes may identify inaccurate descriptions in the WBS C. These processes may result in WBS changes that require additional scope definition work. D. The WBS provides the key input to these processes but is not part of any of its outputs.

260. All of the following are true concerning the product description except A. it is another term for the Statement of Work (SOW). B. it describes the ultimate end product of the project. C. it provides important information about any technical issues that are relevant to procurement planning. D. it is usually included in the Request for Proposal (RFP).

281. What does RDU stand for? A. B. C. D. Really Dumb User Ready for Download Use Remaining Duration unassisted Remaining Duration

282. Who is responsible for risk identification, risk quantification, risk response development, risk Monitor and Control? A. B. C. D. Project Communications Management Project human resource Management Project Procurement Management Project Risk Management

283. Three Point Statistical Estimating Formula Group. Expected Value = A. B. C. D. (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) x 6 (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) divided by 6 (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) x Pessimistic ) divided by 6 (Optimistic + (4 + Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) divided by 6

284. Two Point Delphi Estimate, The Best and Worst Case effort calculation: A. B. C. D. Calculate (Best + Worst) / 2 Calculate (Best +2 ) / Worst Calculate (2 + Worst) / Best none of the above

285. What does TQM stand for? A. B. C. D. Time Quality Managed Target Quality Management Total Quality Management Time Quote Management

286. Examples of Projects include: A. B. C. D. Implementing a new business procedure or process Constructing a building or facility Designing a new transportation vehicle All of the Above

287. Projects are undertaken at all levels of the organization? A. B. C. D. True False Both True and False Neither true nor false

288. 7. ________ means that every project has a definite beginning and a definite end. A. B. C. D. Overall Project Chart Temporary Duration

289. The smallest unit of time used in scheduling the project is known as: A. B. C. D. Calendar Unit Scope unit Time Measurement All of the Above

290. Who should be involved in the project planning phase? A. B. C. D. E. The Project Manager. The customer. The Sub-contractors/vendors. The project team members. All of the above.

291. The successful project managers spend most of their time: A. B. C. D. Planning with their personnel. Planning with top management. Talking with personnel. Studying project results.

292. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost (CPPC) contracts provide: A. A reimbursement of allowable cost of services performed plus an agreed upon percentage of the estimated cost as profit. B. A reimbursement of allowable costs plus a fixed fee which is paid proportionately as the contract progresses. C. The supplier with a fixed price for a delivered performance plus a predetermined fee for superior performance.

D.

None of the above.

293. Project success depends on a no. of interrelated factors, including time, cost and scope control. The success of any project depends primarily on: A. B. C. D. Customer acceptance. Customer satisfaction. Customer compromise in defining its needs. Exceeding customer requirements through gold plating.

294. Which of the following is the most efficient means of product quality inspection: A. B. C. D. Acceptance sampling. 100% inspection. Variable lot inspection. A and C.

295. Constructive Team Role includes : A. B. C. D. Investigates, clarifier and closer. Compromise, blocker and closer. Initiate, encourage and gate keeper. Investigates, recognize and summary.

296. Pareto Analysis, cause and effect diagrams and flow charts are used in quality. A. B. Control. Assurances.

C. D.

Planning. Verification.

297. In a multi-cultural environment, it is critical to establish a corporate culture that facilitates: A. B. C. D. Problem-solving through different approaches. Learning and communication. Partnerships, strong alliances and joint ventures. Negotiations.

298. A condition which will lead an organization towards conflict is: A. B. C. D. E. Conflict of interest. Differentiation in organization Resolved prior conflicts. Both A and B. All of the above.

299. The contemporary view of conflict is that: A. B. C. D. E. Conflict is bad. Conflict is caused by trouble makers. Conflict should be avoided. Conflict is often beneficial. A, B and C.

300. In general a project charter covers:

A. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational responsibilities, a project schedule, estimates, procurement schedule, and any imitations that top management wants to apply. B. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational responsibilities, detailed project schedules, estimates, and detailed procurement schedules responsibilities, a project schedule, and any limitations that top management wants to apply. C. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational apply. D. Project scope, objectives, available resources, responsibilities, a project schedule, estimates, procurement schedules, and any limitations that top management wants to apply. 301. A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style: A. B. C. D. Hierarchal Authoritarian Charismatic Associative

302. You are in charge of developing a new product for an organization. Your quality metrics are based on the 80th percentile of each of the last three products developed. This is an example of: A. B. C. D. Statistical sampling Metrics Benchmarking Operational definitions

303. The two closing procedures are called: A. Contract close out and scope verification

B. C. D.

Contract close out and Close Project Project closure and product verification Project closure and lessons learned

304. During the schedule development process the Project Manager may have to go through several iterations of the schedule before establishing the schedule baseline. All of the following are tools and techniques that may be used during this process: A. B. C. D. Critical Path Method, GERT, Resource Requirements Resource Leveling Heuristics, Mathematical Analysis, Calendars Duration compression, Resource Leveling Heuristics, PERT GERT, PERT, Leads and Lags

305. Which of the following models of conflict resolution allows a cooling off period, but seldom resolves the issue in the long term? A. B. C. D. Problem solving Withdrawal Forcing Smoothing

306. The receiver filters messages based on all but the following: A. B. C. D. Culture Semantics Language Distance

307. How much time does the typical project manager spend communicating both formally and informally? A. B. C. D. 40-60% 50-70% 60-80% 75-90%

308. Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except: A. B. C. D. Team building Analysis of alternatives Convergent thinking Uninhibited verbalization

309.The critical element in a project's communication system is the: A. B. C. D. Progress report Project directive Project manager Customer

310. System integration consists of: A. B. C. D. Assuring that the pieces of a project come together at the right time Planning for contingencies that may occur throughout the life cycle of the project The pieces of the project function as an integration unit a and c

311. Performance reviews are held to: A. B. C. D. Correct the project manager's mistakes. Provide for answers for upper levels of management To assess project status or progress To apprise the project costs and cost trends of the project

312. A complex project will fit best in what type of organization? A. B. C. D. Functional Cross-functional Matrix Balanced

313. Which of the following could be an appropriate WBS code for a work package at the fourth level in a WBS where the top level code is 1.0? A. B. C. D. 1.4 1.1.1.1 1.2.3.4 b and c

314. Which of the following Project Scope Management processes involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components? A. B. C. D. Scope Planning Initiation Scope Change Control Create WBS

315. The review of key deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is called: A. B. C. D. phase exit kill point stage gate all of the above

316. Project scope is: A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions. B. C. D. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract. a and b

317.The unique identifiers assigned to each item of a WBS are often known collectively as: A. B. C. D. The work package codes The project identifiers The code of accounts The element accounts

318. The sender of a message is responsible for: A. B. C. Confirming the message is understood Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message Scheduling communication exchange

D.

Presenting the message in the most agreeable manner

319. What are the best uses of PERT: A. B. C. D. Used in the planning phase to do " what if for the project. Assist in the controlling of changes to the project. Is used in the process of preparing a WBS for the project. None of the above.

320. Change requests can occur due to: A. B. C. D. all of the above 321. Which of the following is a CORRECT description of quality planning? a. Quality planning should be carried out on a regular basis during the overall execution of the project. b. Quality planning should only be carried out at the initiating stage of the project. c. Quality planning should only be carried out during the executing process of the project. d. Quality planning should only be carried out during the monitoring and control process of the project. 322. Which of the following is NOT used to perform quality management? a. Statistical sampling b. Process analysis c. Cause and effect diagram d Quality control measurement 323. Which of the following is NOT the tool and technique used for quality An external event such as a change in government regulation. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.

planning? a. Benchmarking b. Process analysis c. Design of experiments d. Cost-benefit analysis 324. A control chart of production displays all the last 10 sports shots weighing below the average, and you have to inform senior management of this because which rule has been broken? a. Rule of ten b. Rule of seven c. 6-sigma d Mean 325. Which of the following is NOT a motivating agent in Hertzberg's motivation theory? a. Recognition b. Promotion c. Professional growth d. Working conditions 326. You allow your project team members a lot of decision-making power over what they consider appropriate to do, and most of them are very experienced, professional project members. But sometimes, there are still some chaotic situations because they are not quite sure what to do next. Which of the following leadership styles do you use when managing? a. Consultative b. Autocratic c. Laissez-faire d. Democratic

327. During a project team meeting, a team member keeps criticizing another team member's opinions, and doubting their suggestions. What kind of behavior is this team member adopting?

a. Dominator b. Devil's advocate c. All of the statements are false. d. Aggressor 328. To achieve project objectives, the project manager supervises the project team every day and has announced those who fail to reach standards of performance will be disciplined. What theory does this project manager believe? a. Reward and penalty b. McGregor's Theory of X c. Formal power d. McGregor's Theory of Y 329. "Since we can't decide whether or not we should bid for this project, we'll leave it for now and discuss it again tomorrow afternoon." This conversation is an example of which particular conflict resolution method? a. Problem solving b. Compromise c. Smoothing d. Avoidance 330. During the project, because of the overlapping of resource availability, you, as the project manager, have to constantly negotiate with the functional managers. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of conflict? a. Project priorities b. Schedules c. Administrative procedures d. Cost 331. Quite a lot conflicts have occurred during your project which has a detrimental impact on team morale. After trying to understand the situation, you find the problem is very complicated, with more personnel involved than you had thought previously. Therefore, you decide to persuade the project team to dedicate themselves to the same project objective first. What conflict resolution technique are you using?

a. Compromise b. Forcing c. Confrontation d. Withdrawal 332. You are leading a cross-discipline project team comprising of six departments. Today, you are trying to settle a dispute between project team members over two critical problems. First, you ask them to stop arguing, and then demand they do work you want them to do in order to complete the project. Which conflict resolution technique are you using? a. Problem solving b. Avoidance c. Forcing d. Compromise 333. You are a young vice president sent out from headquarters, and you will need to use a certain kind of authority to successfully influence your relationship between you and other project team members. Which of the following authority will be recognized by project team members while you are on board? a. Formal power b. Referent power c. Reward power d. Expert power 334. Human resource planning identifies project roles, responsibilities and reporting relationship. Which of the following is not an output of human resource planning? a. Roles and responsibility b. Project organization charts c. Organization charts d. Staffing management plan 335. A senior system engineer in your project, who has been working for the organization for fifteen years, has the expertise that no one else has and on his own initiative is willing to share this with others on the team. Because of this, the system engineer is highly respected by the rest of the project team and other departments within the organization. Which level of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

has this expert attained? a. Social b. Self-actualization c. Esteem d. Safety

336. There are 7 team members on your project. Because you are crashing the project, two new members have joined your team. How many communication channels have been added? a. 17 b. 28 c. 45 d. 10 337. On your project, you lead 7 members at beginning, and next week a new member will be joining you. So, after next week, how many communication channels will your project have? a. Unable to say b. 9 c. 28 d. 36 338. Which of the following is often used as the format for a performance report? a. Histogram b. Work breakdown structure c. List of milestones d. Critical chain method 339. Your project has several problems. The schedule performance index (SPI) is 0.72, the cost performance index (CPI) is 1.02, and there are over 23 unexecuted critical activities. In a monthly status review meeting, what should you report? a. Report the project's problems and suggest ways to deal with them. b. Report that the project is progressing well. c. Report that the costs are under control.

d. Report that the project is a little delayed, but you will catch up as soon as possible. 340. You are leading an international project with long-distance communication issues. When another 3 new team members join you from Canada, in total you will have 15 members from 3 different countries. Which of the following would MOST concern you about your communications? a. Increased conflicts b. Increased communication channels c. Increased communication languages d. Increased communication barrier S/N QUESTION C D A B

341 On a large-scale Evaluate Perform a quality different feasibility study. improvement opinions and project, with over take an 40 important average value stakeholders, you from them. find the stakeholders do not share a consensus over the project objectives. Some of the stakeholders think the project may help the organization reduce by 40% their nonconforming products, some think 50%, whilst, as project manager, you think 10% is more realistic. Which of

Carry on the Ask the project without sponsor to considering make the final the issue until decision. more data is found.

the following should you do NEXT? 342 You are working Thank the on a large-scale project team project members who comprising of helped you project team complete the members from project on every department time, and in the remind them organization. to pay Project schedule attention to and cost are quality in the under control. future. Suddenly, an important project team member, Tim, is assigned to a 2 week training course by his department's manager. The project work Tim is responsible for, Task T1, has not been completed yet, and only after Task T1 is done, can Tasks T2 and T3 start. With Task T2 on the critical path, you ask other project team members to "crash", and finally they catch up with the planned schedule Re-evaluate the project management plan. Since the cost Send a letter has overrun, to your you have to department ask the manager, project demanding sponsor to that Tim's make a department decision. manager should stop reassigning him during your projects.

without Tim's efforts. However, the project has overrun its cost, and the quality has been affected. How should you handle this situation? 343 Your large-scale software project has been finally completed, and the customer is very satisfied. At the same time, the director of the project management office asks you to write the lessons learned report. What stage is the project at? 344 You are required to temporarily take over a tough project, which is now 3 months behind schedule, over budgeted by $1,000,000, with the customers now continually complaining. However, your senior manager can still not The project has not completed the closure process, because you have to wait until all the deliverables are completed and approved. The project has been formally closed, because you are writing the lesson learned reports. The project is closed, because the customer has formally accepted the product. Unable to say, as the project has to be judged completed based on project closure regulations. The question doesn't state any of the organizational closure policies.

Is the project How to speed up information the project work and and get back on documentation schedule. sufficient?

The reason How to why the discover as customers are soon as complaining. possible the reason the budget is overrun.

explain clearly what has caused the situation. Which of the following should concern you most? 345 Your project team Weak matrix members are organization often transferred temporarily by the system manager. This has caused a lot trouble for your project. This situation is a typical from working in what type of organization? 346 You have just Get the taken control of a stakeholder large-scale involved and project of participating architectural from the engineering, and initiating one of the process. sponsors reminds you of another important yet trouble-making stakeholder notorious for requesting changes. As a project manager, how would you best deal with this potential Strong matrix organization Balanced matrix organization Projectized organization

Ignore this Ask the Ask the project stakeholder's stakeholder to initiator to change requests. reduce their exclude this change stakeholder requests from the list of through the recognized stakeholder's sponsors. manager.

problem? 347 You are promoted Historical to a project information manager and have to take over a new project. This project had been attempted repeatedly over three years, failing for a different reason each time. The main problem was the stakeholders' different opinions about where the project should go and how it should be done. This situation is a specific example of? 348 You are working on a large software development plan, comprising of multiple projects, and you find the outputs of these projects have a sequence. What should you do NEXT? Obtain every product's project charter. Communication planning Scope Stakeholder management analysis

Obtain the WBS and management plan for each project.

Check that the Check that project team every members stakeholder understand understands what they the sequence should do. of the project's outputs.

349 You are a project Assess the Accommodate Ask the manager on a big impacts of the the customer and initiator to

Have the change control

project where triple everything is constraint. going smoothly. Your customer asks to make a change that is easily done and that will not affect the schedule. What should you do NEXT? 350 Which of the following would be the BEST description of project management plan? It contains risks, cost, process improvement and other management plans.

quickly make the approve the change. change request.

board review the change request.

It is one of the It is milestone. It is project outputs of project scope management statement. software.

351 All of the They are riskfollowing are avoidance correct documents descriptions of designed to recommended reduce a corrective actions project's risks. EXCEPT?

They are They are They are documented outputs of the inputs of the recommendations monitor and integrated designed to control project change control ensure a project's work process. process. future performance will meet the project management plan. Stakeholders Consultants Industry groups

352 During the Competitors initiating process, expert judgment is often used to develop the project charter. Which of the following does NOT contribute

expert judgment? 353 Which of the Monitor and Direct and following is used control project manage project to help the project work execution manager and the project teams to monitor and control project work currently being executed? 354 You have been Refer to the promoted to a historical project manager information. finally after 3 years project related working experience. Today the senior manager assigned you a software development project. You have never managed an entire project before, so how do you intend to improve project achievement? Improve your project management training. Close project Integrated change control

Select experienced team members to join your project.

Concentrate on the communication management plan.

355 Which of the Standardized Scheduling following is NOT guidelines software tool an enterprise environmental factor? 356 Which of the Preliminary Configuration following should project scope management be completed

Organizational Stakeholder culture risk tolerances

Assessment baseline

Change control management

prior to developing project management plan? 357 The deliverables as well as the schedule baselines of your project have been changed three times. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY the cause of the changes? 358 Your department just took over an important project, to which you are considering moving some resources from existing projects. But moving these resources will definitely cause delays to the ongoing projects. To minimize the impacts, which of the following should you divert resources from?

statement

plan

plan

The lack of clear instructions from project sponsor.

Incomplete project management plans.

The lack of a signed-off project charter.

Incomplete project scope management plans.

Project A: Project B: Net Benefit/Cost present value is Ratio is 0.7, US$90,000, with without project 12 resources. charter, with 4 resources.

Project C: Project D: Internal rate of Indirect cost is return is 20%, US$20,000, with 10 with 15 resources. resources.

359 Which of the Obtain official Complete all following is an acceptance contracts in a important activity document. project . in the

Ensure all Ensure all products meet stakeholders the quality are satisfied with

administrative closure procedure? 360 Which of the Confirm all Obtain official following is NOT stakeholders' acceptance an activity that needs. documents. should be executed by a project manager during the close project process?

baseline.

deliverables.

Organize and file relevant documents produced during project activities.

Officially transfer the project's deliverables.

361 . You are working on a project to build a bridge. You have reached the planned half way mark. The total planned cost at this stage is five hundred dollars. The actual physical work that has been completed at this stage is worth $400. You have already spent one thousand dollars on the project. What is the Schedule Variance? 1. -100 2. 100 3. -600 4. 600

362. John needs to visit many countries as part of his job. He has learned that he needs to avoid being ethno-centric. What does ethnocentrism mean? 1. Not being friendly to strangers 2. Unable to get adjusted to the food of a new place 3. Belief that ones culture is superior to others. 4. Initial shock of landing in a new country.

363. You are planning to use screening system for source selection process to select a vendor for supplying food for your company? Which of these is a good example of screening system? You interview all the vendors and decide based upon the interviews. You negotiate with all the vendors and select the one that provides the best price.

You only consider those vendors who have revenue of ten million dollars in the last financial year. You select the vendor who responds first to your advertisement.

364. Which of the following is not an input to the Conduct Procurements process? 1. Source selection criteria 2. Make-or-buy decisions 3. Organizational process assets 4. WBS

365. You are using control charts to perform quality control. Which of these situations does not indicate that the process is out of control and an assignable cause needs to be assigned. Assume that the control limits have been set to three sigma. 1. One of the point is more than the mean + (3*sigma) 2. Two points together are more than mean +(2*sigma), but less than mean + (3*sigma) 3. Seven points together are on one side of the mean. 4. All of the above 366. You are the Project Manager of a car manufacturing company. As part of Quality Control you decide to check only 5% of the cars generated for environmental check. Which technique are you using? 1. Pareto Diagram 2. Control Charts 3. Statistical Sampling 4. Sample Selection

367. Which of the following is true statement about risks? 1. If a risk is identified in a risk response plan, then that means that risk has already happened. 2. Once a risk has happened, you refer to the risk management plan to determine what action needs to be taken. 3. A risk that was not planned but has happened is called a trigger. 4. Risk identification happens in all the phases of the project.

368. Which of the following is not true about the Close Project or Phase process? 1. Contract closeout must be performed after the Administrative Closeout. 2. The risk is the lowest at this stage of the project. 3. The probability of completion is the highest at this stage of the project. 4. Stakeholders have least amount of influence at this stage.

369. Which of the following is an output of the Identify Risks process? 1. Lessons Learned 2. Checklists 3. Risk Register 4. SWOT Analysis

370. In which process of Project Risk Management knowledge area are numeric values assigned to probabilities and impact of risks? 1. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis 2. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis 3. Perform Numeric Risk Analysis 4. Plan Risk Response

371. You are required to estimate the time to paint a large wall. You know it takes two hours to paint one square foot of wall. The wall has an area of 30 square foot. So you estimate that it will take 60 hours to paint the wall. Which estimation model are you using? 1. Bottom-up 2. Parametric modeling 3. A nalogous 4. Expert judgment

372. The level of accuracy for order of magnitude estimation is 1. -25% to +75% 2. -25% to +50% 3. -25% to +25% 4. -25% to +10%

373. You are the project manager responsible for building a new web site. The project is running late. To bring the project on schedule, you decide to add additional resources to the critical path. This is an example of 1. Fast-tracking 2. Resource planning 3. Crashing 4. Schedule Management

374. You are the project manager of ABC project. One of the risks that has been identifies is attrition of team members. Mid-way through the project you notice that the morale and motivation of the team members is going down. You think that this is a precursor to people leaving the organization. For this risk, low motivation is an example of 1. work-around t2. rigger r3. isk monitoring r4. isk planning

375. You are working on the project of painting of your house. You identify a dependency that the painting of roof should begin only after two days of completion of painting of walls. This is an example of 1. Lag 2. Lead 3. Slack 4. Float

376. What percentage of Project Manager's time is spent on communicating? 1. 30 2. 50 3. 70 4. 90

377. You are the Project Manager for XYZ project. The scope of the project has been completed. You receive a request for a new module to be developed as part of this project. What should you do next? 1. You should approach the Project sponsor and ask her for a new module to be

developed as part of this project. 2. You should approach the Senior Management and ask them for a new module to be developed as part of this project. 3. You should send the request to Change Control Board for approval. 4. Since the project scope is completed you should inform the customer that this change cannot be done as part of the project.

378. Perform Quality Assurance process is part of which phase? 1. Planning 2. Execution 3. Control 4. Closure

379. You are managing the project of planning a party for your company employees. There is a risk that the employees will not come to the party. You decide to not take any action against this as the likely-hood of this is low. Which risk response strategy are you following? 1. Acceptance 2. Avoidance 3. Mitigation 4. Transference

380. The process of Conduct Procurements is part of which phase? 1. Planning 2. Execution 3. Control 4. Closure 381. The state of being totally answerable for the satisfactory completion of a specific assignment is called:

a. Authority b. Accountability c. Responsibility d. Fiduciary

382 . You are responsible for the communication controls for the Genesis series of satellites. Your current assignment is: a. Project management b. Functional management c. Facility management d. Program management

383. Work packages are used to : a. Represent units of work at a level where work is performed. b. Distinguish one package from all others assigned to a single functional group. c. Limit work to be performed to relatively short periods of time. d. All of the above.

384. Network planning methods(PERT/CPM/PDM): a. Are usually too complicated for practical use on most projects b. Require highly trained specialists for effective use c. Always require computer support to be practical d. Are based on flow charts and they allow observation of what happens to the project schedule when changes occur to a task's start and stop dates

385. You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates OSHA/EPA and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should: a. Do nothing; it's not your problem

b. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated c. Talk to the corporate legal department d. Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations

386. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You should: a. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire. b. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer. c. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project's financial status. d. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project

387.The terms "Facilitating Processes" and "Core Processes" are no longer used in new PMBOK. These terms have been eliminated to ensure that all project management processes in the Project Management Process Groups have the same level of importance. a. TRUE b. FALSE c. Neither of the above d. Both True and False

388. Which statement is correct : a. There are some core processes and some facilitating processes. b. PMI is not any more responsible form PMBOK. c. PMBOK will be changed every year in December. d. Version 4 PMBOK has 9 process groups and 42 processes.

389.Which of the following is not an input to Develop Project Charter: a. Project Statement of Work b. Enterprise Environmental Factors c. Organizational Process Assets d. Project Management Information System

390. Which of the following is not an input to Activity Definition process: a. Organizational Process Assets b. Project Scope Statement c. WBS Dictionary d. Schedule Network Templates

391. Which of the following Human Resource process generates Roles & Responsibilities : a. Human Resource Planning b. Acquire Project Team c. Develop Project Team d. Manage Project Team

392. Manage Stakeholders is a part which of the following process group: a. Human Resource Management b. Project Time Management c. Project Cost Management d. Project Communications Management

393. Which of the following is not correct: a. PMO - Program Management Office b. RBS - Resource Breakdown Structure c. RAM - Resource Assignment Matrix d. RFP - Request for Proposal

394. Which of the following is not correct : a. Cost of Quality (COQ): Determining the costs incurred to ensure quality b. Crashing: A specific type of project schedule compression technique performed by taking action to decrease the total project schedule duration. c. Total Quality Management: A common approach to implementing a quality improvement program within an organization d. Simulation: prototyping of a project to check if proposed design will work or not.

395. Most schedule simulations are based on some form of which of the following? a. Delphi b. PERT c. CPM d. Monte Carlo Analysis

396. What is critical path? a. The shortest path through the network, which represents the longest amount of time in which a project can be completed. b. The path with zero float. c. The longest path through the network, which represents the shortest amount of time in which a project can be completed. d. The path with the most activities with the longest durations.

397. In the communication process, "noise" is the word used to describe factors and forces inhibiting the exchange of information between two or more parties. Noise includes all of the following but __________. a. Culture b. Behavior c. Traditional way of doing things d. Loud talking

398. Which of the following is a tool used to secure expert judgment? a. Peer review b. Delphi technique c. Expected value technique d. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

399. An organization is certified to a stringent environmental standard and uses that as the key differentiator with its competitors. Alternative identification during scope planning for a particular project has thrown up an expeditious approach to achieve a project need, but this involves a risk of environmental contamination. The team evaluates that the likelihood of the risk is very low. What should the project team do?

a. Drop the alternative approach b. Work out a mitigation plan c. Procure an insurance against the risk d. Plan all precautions to avoid the risk

400. Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style: a. Hierarical b. Authoritarian c. Charismatic d. Associative Question 401 Which of the following statements are NOT techniques used to resolve conflicts on a project? A. Directing, smoothing B. Forcing, smoothing C. Compromise, confrontation D. Withdrawal, forcing E. Controlling, compromise Answer: A, E

Question 402 Which of the following s most likely to require a rebaselining in order to provide a realistic measure of performance? A. Revised cost estimates

B. Corrective actions C. Change requests D. Budget updates Answer: D

Question 403 One of your friends is a manager at telecommunications company. She is currently managing a project developing a VoIP (Voice over IP) gateway that addresses the challenges facing service providers deploying packer-based voice networks. The gateway offers a comprehensive approach to implementing high-density carrier-class voice over packet gateway applications. She is in the process of developing the project schedule, and has determined that the project has 4 critical paths. Which of the following BEST describes how the project will be impacted? A. The project will cost more B. The scenario is incorrect, as a project can only have one critical path C. The project will require more people D. The project risk will increase Answer: D

Question 404

You are the project manager within a large multi-national company. Your current project involves a large software development project that involves coordination of resources across four different reengineering teams across three different countries. Specifically your UI team is based in India, your database team and middleware team is in U.S., and your QA team is in Canada. The engineers in each of the team report to geographic functional manger, but are currently on loan to you for your project.

You are currently in the process of assessing the completion status for each work packages. In order to develop an accurate status of the project, youve asked each of the engineers to report their percentage complete for their respective deliverables.

However, when asked for the percentage completion status, one of the QA engineers innocently responds, Percentage complete of what exactly? ever since the project started youve always thought that this QA engineer was difficult to manage. Especially tired of such comments, you finally decided to report to the QA engineers functional manager regarding the engineers lack of cooperation. Based on the scenario described above, which of the following BEST describes the real problem?

A. The QA engineer was not technically competent and could not meet the satisfy his assigned responsibilities.

B. There was a conflict of interest between your project and QA engineers objectives C. You should have met with functional manager the first time you encountered problems with this engineer, rather than let the problem escalate. D. You did not receive the necessary support from the functional manager regarding your project E. The work packages were not adequately defined for the project Answer: E

Question 405 You are in the process of controlling changes to the project cost baseline. Which of the following is the LEAST helpful tool/ technique? A. Cost change control system B. Forecasting, variance management C. Analogous estimating, parametric estimating D. Performance measurement analysis E. Project performance reviews Answer: C

Question 406 Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding project time

management? A. Schedule cost involving changes to the project schedule B. Activity resource estimating involves estimating type and qualities of resources required to perform each schedule activity C. None of the choices are correct D. Activity sequencing involves identifying dependencies among schedule activities E. Schedule development involves analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements in order to create project schedule Answer: C

Question 407 The applied level of change control is LEAST dependent upon: A. Complexity of specified project B. Context and environment in which project is performed C. Application area D. Stakeholder risk tolerances E. Contract requirements Answer: D

Question 408 Which of the following calculates the difference between the budget at completion and estimate at completion? A. EAC

B. VAC C. EV D. CV E. SV Answer: B

Question 409 Which of the following best describes this illustration?

A. Cause and effect diagram B. Histogram C. Gantt chart D. Scatter diagram E. Pareto chart Answer: B

Question 410 Approved corrective actions are an input to which process? A. Schedule development B. Direct an manage project execution C. Integrate change control D. Scope verification E. Scope control Answer: B

Question 411 Change control system, variance analysis, replanning and configuration management systems are tool/ techniques of which process? A. Scope planning B. Scope control C. Scope verification D. Scope definition Answer: B

Question 412 You are project manager responsible for constructing a new sports arena for the upcoming Olympics. Construction began on a project

over a year ago. The stakeholders of the project want a status report on the performance of the project to date. Youve obtained the following measurements: BAC=500, ETC=200, PV=500, AC=200, EV=300, CPI=1.5 You believe the type of variances that have occurred on the project to date are typical, and do not expect these variances to continue. What is the VAC for the project? A. 100 B. 400 C. 300 D. 200 E. 333.33 Answer: A

Question 413 Which of the following consists of tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the outputs of the project management processes? A. EVM B. PDM C. WBS D. PMIS E. ADM Answer: D

Question 414 You are the project manager at the Java Ice Cream Factory. You are currently supervising the manufacturing of a new flavor of ice cram JavaBean Burgundy Crunch. The manufacturing of this new flavor was proceeding as planned, until a manufacturing error occurred that requires corrective actions to be taken. To ensure the effectiveness of corrective actions, corrective actions frequently require which of the following? A. Resource leveling B. Rebaselining project schedule baseline C. Performance measurements D. Rebaselining project cost baseline E. Root-cause analysis Answer: E

Question 415 All of the following statements are TRUE regarding ground rules EXCEPT: A. Ground rules area tools/ techniques of develop project team process B. Ground rules are a list of acceptable and unacceptable behaviors adopted by project team. C. All project team members share responsibility for enforcing the ground rules

D. Ground rules help to improve working relationships and communication E. Ground rules help to authorize and define the scope of a new phase or project. Answer: E

Question 416 You are in the process of reviewing all change requests and controlling changes to deliverables and organizational process assets. All of the following are INPUTS except: A. Work performance information B. Recommended preventive actions and corrective actions C. Requested changes D. Forecasts E. Project management plan Answer: D

Question 417 Which of the following BEST describes the procedures by which the project schedule can change, and includes the paperwork, tracking systems, and approval levels necessary for authorizing changes? A. Schedule change control system B. None of the statements are correct C. Integrated change control

D. Schedule comparison bar charts E. Configuration management system Answer: A

Question 418 The administrative closure procedure is an output of the close project process. It is an input to which process? A. Manage stakeholders B. Integrated change control C. Direct and manage project execution D. Contract closure Answer: C

Question 419 You are the project manager at a large accounting firm in the United States. Throughout the year your firm provides both consulting services and accounting/ auditing services to XYZ Widgets, Inc, a publicly traded company listed on the New York Stock Exchange. Currently, your project involves auditing the financial statements of XYZ Widgets Inc, in preparation for the annual shareholders/ investors meeting. While your team is in the midst of project execution, you are informed that your project is due to new SEC regulations. Specifically, a new SEC regulation prohibits accounting firms from providing both consulting services and auditing services to a client, due to potential

conflicts of interest that could arise from such business relationships. As a result, your project is cancelled, and the budget for your project is cut. Without the necessary budget, your project team is disbanded and your project team members go to their separate ways. Which of the following statements are true? A. Since the project ended due to starvation, the scope verification process is no longer necessary B. Since the project ended due to integration, the scope verification process is no longer necessary C. Since the project ended due to starvation, you should document the level and degree of completeness during the Scope Verification process. D. Since the project ended due to integration, you should document the level and degree of completeness during the Scope Verification process. E. Since the project ended due to extinction, the scope verification process is no longer necessary Answer: C

Question 420 The administrative closure procedure that is an output of the close project process includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Define stakeholders approval requirements for changes B. Validate exit criteria have been satisfied C. Verify all deliverables have been provided and accepted

D. Close all contracts associated with the completed project E. Confirm that the project has met sponsor and stake holders requirements Answer: D

Question 421 In which of the following documents will you find specific procedures for contract closure? A. Contract terms and conditions B. Project plan C. Procurement audit documentation D. Contract change control system E. Contract file Answer: A

Question 422 Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding the relationship between project phase and project life cycles? A. Collectively, the project phases are known as the project life cycle B. The conclusion of project phase is generally marked by a review of key deliverables and current project performance C. Project phase-end reviews are often called phase-exits

D. Each project phase is marked by the completion of one or more milestones Answer: D

Question 423 All of the following are outputs of the close project process EXCEPT: A. Historical information B. Project management plan updates C. Project closure documents D. Formal acceptance documentation E. Project files Answer: B

Question 424 Your project is coming to an end, and you are in the process of listing the activities that must be performed to close out the project. Which of the following should be performed during the closing processes? A. Seek legal counsel from the companys attorney prior to closing the project B. Request final inspection reports for all vendor supplied products C. Issue a formal notice of project completion to sellers D. Issue payment schedules and requests Answer: C

Question 425

Which of the following documents formally indicates that the customer or sponsor has officially accepted the project deliverables? A. Historical information B. Formal acceptance documentation C. Project closure documents D. Project files Answer: B

Question 426 Historical record from previous project are generally used for all of the following EXCEPT: A. Lessons learned B. Estimating C. Risk management D. Project planning Answer: A

Question 427 Which of the following statements are true? A. Procurement audits review the procurement process from plan purchases and acquisition to contract administration B. Procurement audits review the procurement process from plan purchases and acquisition to close project

C. Procurement audits review the procurement process from plan purchases and acquisition to contract closure D. Procurement audits review the procurement process from plan contracting to contract closure Answer: A

Question 428 One of your friends is a manager at telecommunications company. She is currently managing a project developing a VoIP (Voice over IP) gateway that addresses the challenges facing service providers deploying packer-based voice networks. The gateway offers a comprehensive approach to implementing high-density carrier-class voice over packet gateway applications. All the technical work has already been completed on the project, and the project is in the closing phase. All of the following should be performed at this stage EXCEPT: A. Analyze the success or failure of the project B. Documents lessons learned C. Perform product verification D. Create the project archives E. Obtain formal acceptance of the project scope and deliverables Answer: E

Question 429 Which of the following statements are true regarding the procurement

audit? A. The primary purpose of procurement audit is to identify lessons learned during the procurement process B. The procurement audit is a tool/ technique of the contract administration process C. The procurement audit is a tool/ technique of the close project process D. The procurement audit provides information regarding how effectively the seller is meeting contractual obligations Answer: A

Question 430 You have been recently hired to be a project manager at a bio-tech company to develop anew drug for the treatment of malignant melanoma. As part of feasibility study, your team has been evaluating the feasibility for such a drug using computer simulation. Your team has just completed one of the project phases by designing a potential chemical compound using a sophisticated computer model. You would like to have model reviewed prior to deciding whether to move to the next phase of the project. According to the PMI, these type of reviews are called: A. Phase exists B. Deliverables C. Target goals D. Milestones

Answer: A

Question 431 Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the SPI (schedule performance index)? A. EV-PV B. EV-AC C. EV/PV D. EV/AC E. EAC-AC Answer: C

Question 432 Which of the following statements are false regarding the administrative closure procedure? A. The administrative closure procedure is an output of the close project process B. The administrative closure procedure addresses the terms and conditions of the contract for contract closure C. The administrative closure procedure addresses the completion or exit criteria for the project D. The administrative closure procedure describes the procedure to transfer the project products or services to production and/ or operations E. The administrative closure procedure addresses the stakeholders

approval requirements Answer: B

Question 433 Contract file and formal acceptance and closure are outputs of which processes? A. Contract closure B. Contract administration C. Information distribution D. Manage stakeholders E. Performance reporting Answer: A

Question 434 Product verification is usually performed in the closing process. Which of the following statements are true? A. Product verification is performed during the close project process B. Product verification provides management with information about how effectively the seller is achieving the contractual objectives C. Product verification is a method for quantifying qualitative data to minimize the effect of biases during select sellers D. Product verification includes samples of the suppliers previous products for the purpose of providing a way to evaluate a suppliers capabilities

Answer: A

Question 435 You are in the process of controlling changes to project cost baseline. Which of the following is the LEAST helpful input? A. Work performance information B. Project funding requirements C. Performance measurements D. Performance reports E. Project management plan Answer: C

Question 436 A WBS can be used foe all of the following EXCEPT: A. Describe functional managers for each team member B. Manage/ control scope creep C. Communicate with customers D. Help new team members understand their roles Answer: A

Question 437 Recommended corrective actions are an input to which process? A. Integrate change control

B. Direct and manage project execution C. Scope verification D. Scope control E. Schedule development Answer: A

Question 438 You are the project manager at a large accounting firm in the United States. Your current project involves auditing the financial statements of a Fortune 100 company. You are currently utilizing network diagrams to track and schedule the execution of various auditing tasks through out the project. You are performing a backward pass analysis of the project schedule. It is important for you to examine activities that have _________ slack? A. Negative B. Forward C. Backward D. Zero E. Positive Answer: A

Question 439 Which of the following objectives is LEAST likely accomplish by implementing a project-wide application of the configuration

management system? A. Provides a mechanism to communicate changes to stakeholders B. Provides opportunities to improve the project by considering the impact of each change C. Provides a method to identify and manage risks D. Establishes a method to identify and request changes to project baseline Answer: C

Question 440 Your company is making a strategy shift: form being focused on fulfilling customer requests for becoming the best cost dairy producer in industry. Its existing cost manufacturing cost system, however fails to capture the costs associated with handling special flavors, small production orders, and complex delivery and order processing options. Hence youve been assigned to supervise an existing project to develop a new time-drive, activity-based costing system that will capture the full complexity of the companys operations and gives managers new insights into the profitability orders, products, and customers. Senior management will use the information to enhance process efficiencies, negotiating new terms with customers, and attempt to win new business.

The project timeline is very aggressive and a lot is at stake with this project. Hence, every week you report on the progress and status of

the project to all the necessary stakeholders and sponsors. Your project team has already completed all the initial and project planning activities and received sign-off and approvals on the project charter, project scope, and detailed work packages. Your project team is in the process of completing all the work packages. Te project timeline is very aggressive, and your project has the SPI of 1.2 and CPI of 1.3. A final review of the project deliverables has been scheduled foe the end of the month.

Unfortunately, as your project near completion, you are informed that your project is being cancelled since the resulting product is unacceptable and does not meet the business needs of the organization. All the resources on your project are being reassigned to another project. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this scenario? A. The project charter did not provide enough details regarding the project goals prior to sign-off B. The project was behind schedule and plagued with cist overruns C. A key stakeholder was not sufficiently involved in the project D. Your project resources were required on a separate project E. A project status was not properly communicated to the interested parties Answer: C Question 441 Which of the following calculates how much additional budget is

required in order to complete the project, assuming the current project performance to date? A. CV B. EV C. ETC D. VAC E. EAC Answer: C

Question 442 Which of the following is most likely to require a rebaselining of the cost baseline in order to provide a realistic measure of performance? A. Change requests B. Revised cost estimates C. Budget updates D. Cost management plan update E. Corrective actions Answer: C

Question 443 All of the following are FALSE regarding bar charts EXCEPT: A. Bar charts are generally better at illustrating the resource trade-offs compared with network diagrams

B. Bar charts are generally better at illustrating progress or status compared with network diagrams C. Bar charts are generally better at illustrating critical paths compared with network diagrams D. Bar charts are generally better at illustrating logical relationship compared with network diagrams Answer: A

Question 444 All of the following statements are true regarding the cost control process EXCEPT: A. Prevent authorize changes from being included in the cost baseline B. Inform stakeholders from authorize changes C. Monitor cost performance and understand cost variances D. Changes are accurately reflected in the project scope Answer: D

Question 445 You have been assigned to a project to build the largest U.S. natural gas pipeline project in more than 20 years. The proposed 1,350-mile, 42-inch diameter pipeline will provide valuable infrastructure allowing producers in the Rocky Mountain region to deliver their natural gas to attractive markets in the Midwest and northeastern parts of the U.S. You are in the process of developing the schedule for the project and

you have given the following activity duration estimates. However the project sponsor would like to share a few weeks off the project duration. Which activity should you shorten in order to reduce the overall duration of the project?

A. Activity Start-U B. Activity W-End C. Activity T-S D. Activity Start-S E. Activity T-X Answer: B

Question 446 You are a project manager at a real estate company that develops and manages commercial, retail and residential properties in United States and Europe. As a company continues to grow, the companys IT infrastructure is unable to meet business needs of organization. Specifically, you have been assigned to upgrade the companys IT

infrastructure. Specifically, your team has been asked to implement a corporate general ledger system, improve accounting and real estate processes, develop and implement lease tracking system, and implement HR and payroll systems and perform diagnostics and monthly closures.

Your project team has already completed all the initiating / project planning activities and received sign-off approvals on the project charter, project scope, and detailed work packages. Your project team is in the process of completing all the work packages. However, your client has just file a change request to add additional reporting functionality to the IT application. Fortunately you have already determined that this functionality will only add one week to the critical path. To accommodate with the request, youve determined that you could compress the schedule to recover one extra week. Which of the following should you perform NEXT? A. Implement the change request B. Consult the project sponsor before taking action C. Investigate other options on how to implement the change requests with minimal impact to the project D. Evaluate the impact to the change request on the other project constraints E. Inform the client the impact of the change Answer: B

Question 447 All of the following are reporting techniques used in the Cost control process EXCEPT: A. Cost-benefit analysis B. Earned value technique C. Trend analysis D. Variance analysis Answer: A

Question 448 With respect to value analysis which of the following is the portion of the approved cost estimate that has been budgeted for an activity during a certain time period? A. Planned value (PV) B. Earned value (EV) C. Actual cost (AC) D. Cost variance (CV) Answer: A

Question 449 You are in the process of reviewing all change requests and controlling changes to deliverables and organizational process asset. All of the following are inputs you need EXCEPT:

A. Recommended defect repair B. Requested changes C. Project charter D. Work performance information E. Project management plan Answer: C

Question 450 Which of the following are true regarding statistical perform quality control? A. Special causes are the result of variances that are always present in process B. Special causes are the result of variances that are linked to unusual events C. Random causes are the result of variances that are always present in he process D. Random causes are the result of variances that are linked to unusual events Answer: B, C

Question 451 You are a project manager responsible for constructing a new sports arena in preparation for upcoming Olympics. Construction begins on a project over a year ago. Stakeholders of the project want a status report on the performance of the project to the date. You have

obtained the following measurement: BAC=500, ETC=200, PV=500, AC=200, EV=300, CPI=1.5 You believe the type of variances that have occurred on the project to date to be atypical. Based on the information above what will be the EAC for the project? A. 400 B. 250 C. 300 D. 333.33 E. 200 Answer: A

Question 452 All of the following statements are true except: A. Recommended corrective actions, recommended corrective actions, and recommended defect repairs are outputs of integrated change control process B. None of the choices are correct C. Recommended corrective actions, recommended corrective actions, and recommended defect repairs are inputs of integrated change control process D. Recommended corrective actions, recommended corrective actions, and recommended defect repairs are outputs of monitor and control project work process Answer: A

Question 453 Which of the following are true regarding project scope management? A. Scope verification involves subdividing the major project deliverables into small more manageable components B. None of the statements are correct C. Scope planning involves developing a detailed project scope statement as a basis of future project decision D. Scope definition involves creating a project scope management plan that document how the project scope will be defined and controlled E. Scope control involves formalizing the acceptance of project deliverables Answer: B

Question 454 Inspections are a tool of perform quality process. They may also be called? A. Sampling B. monitoring C. trend analysis D. audit E. walkthroughs Answer: E, D

Question 455 You are a project manager responsible for constructing a new sports arena in preparation for upcoming Olympics. Construction begins on a project over a year ago. Stakeholders of the project want a status report on the performance of the project to the date. Unfortunately you are afraid to tell stakeholder that project is coming in significantly behind schedule. In fact schedule delays are so severe that the rebaselining of the project is required. Which of the following statements are true? A. Rebaselining should be a normal mode of controlling the schedule B. Resource leveling techniques should not be used to rebaseline the schedule C. Historical data are preserved when you rebaseline the schedule D. Approval from all stakeholder is required prior to rebaseline the schedule E. None of the statement are correct Answer: E

Question 456 Which of the following statement are correct regarding managing stakeholders except: A. Managing stakeholders increases the likelihood that the project will not veer off track due to unresolved stakeholders issue B. Tools used to manage stakeholders includes communication

methods and issue logs C. Project manager is usually responsible for stakeholder management D. The manage stakeholder process is the part of project executing process group Answer: D

Question 457 You are a project manager responsible for constructing a new sports arena in preparation for upcoming Olympics. Construction begins on a project over a year ago. Stakeholders of the project want a status report on the performance of the project to the date. You have obtained the following measurement: BAC=500, ETC=200, PV=500, AC=200, EV=300, CPI=1.5 You believe the type of variances that have occurred on the project to date to be atypical, and except these variances to continue. Based on the information above what will be the VAC for the project? A. 333.33 B. 133.33 C. 400 D. 166.67 E. 100 Answer: D

Question 458 All of the statements are false regarding variance analysis? A. Variance analysis involves comparing actual project to planned or expected performance B. Variance analysis is a tool of scope analysis C. Variance analysis is a toll of schedule control process D. Variance analysis involves examining project performance over time to determine if the performance is improving or deteriorating Answer: D

Question 459 Which of the following statements are false regarding project time management? A. Schedule development involves estimating type and qualities of resources required to perform each schedule activity B. Activity definition involves identifying schedule activities that are required to meet project deliverables C. Schedule control involving changes to project schedule D. None of the choices are correct E. Activity sequencing involves identifying dependencies among schedule activities Answer: A

Question 460 Which of the following risk management processes are workarounds identified? A. Qualitative risk analysis B. Risk identification C. Risk response planning D. Qualitative risk analysis E. Risk monitoring and control Answer: E 461. The project sponsor has approached you with a dilemma. The CEO announced at the annual stockholders meeting that the project youre managing will be completed by the end of this year. The problem is that this is six months prior to the scheduled completion date. Its too late to go back and correct her mistake, and stockholders are expecting implementation by the announced date. You must speed up the delivery date of this project. Your primary constraint before this occurred was the budget. Choose the best action from the options listed to speed up the project. A. Hire more resources to get the work completed faster. B. Ask for more money so that you can contract out one of the phases you had planned to do with in-house resources. C. Utilize negotiation and influencing skills to convince the project sponsor to speak with the CEO and make a correction to her announcement. D. Examine the project plan to see whether there are any phases that can be fast tracked, and then revise the project plan to reflect the compression of the schedule. 462. These types of dependencies can create arbitrary total float values and limit your scheduling options. A. Discretionary B. External C. Mandatory D. Hard logic 463. Project managers spend what percentage of their time communicating? A. 90

B. 85 C. 75 D. 50

464. Inspections are also called each of the following except for which one? A. Reviews B. Assessment C. Walk-throughs D. Audits 465. The primary function of the Closing processes is to perform which of the following? A. Formalize lessons learned and distribute this information to project participants. B. Perform audits to verify the project results against the project requirements. C. Formalize project completion and disseminate this information to project participants. D. Perform post-implementation audits to document project successes and failures. 466. During your project meeting, a problem was discussed, and a resolution to the problem was reached. During the meeting, the participants started wondering why they thought the prob- lem was such a big issue. Sometime after the meeting, you received an email from one of the meeting participants saying theyve changed their mind about the solution reached in the meeting and need to resurface the problem. The solution reached during the initial project meeting is a result of which of the following conflict resolution techniques? A. Confrontation B. Forcing C. Smoothing D. Storming 467. What are decision models? A. Project selection criteria B. Project selection methods C. Project selection committees D. Project resource and budget selection methods 468. Youve been assigned as a project manager on a research and development project for a new dental procedure. Youre working in the Scope Management Knowledge Area. What is the purpose of the project scope

management plan? A. The project scope management plan describes and documents a scope baseline to help make future project decisions. B. The project scope management plan decomposes project deliverables into smaller units of work. C. The project scope management plan describes how project scope will be developed and how changes will be managed. D. The project scope management plan describes how cost and time estimates will be developed for project scope changes. 469. All of the following statements are true regarding Ishikawa diagrams in the Identify Risks process except which one? A. Ishikawa diagrams are also called cause-and-effect diagrams. B. Ishikawa diagrams are also called fishbone diagrams. C. Ishikawa diagrams are part of the diagramming tool and technique of this process. D. Ishikawa diagrams show the steps needed to identify the risk. 470. All of the following are outputs of the Perform Integrated Change Control process except for which one? A. Change request status updates B. Project management plan updates C. Organizational process assets updates D. Project document updates 471. What is one of the most important skills a project manager can have? A. Negotiation skills B. Influencing skills C. Communication skills D. Problem-solving skills 472. All of the following are a type of project ending except for which one? A. Extinction B. Starvation C. Desertion D. Addition 473. You are the project manager for a construction company that is building a new city and county office building in your city. Your CCB recently approved a scope change. You know that scope change might come about as a result of all of the following except which one?

A. B. C. D.

Schedule revisions Product scope change Changes to the agreed-upon WBS Changes to the project requirements

474. You that teach basic reading and math skills. Youre performing cost estimates for your project and dont have a lot of details yet. Which of the following techniques should you use? are the project manger for Xylophone Phonics. It produces childrens software programs A. Analogous estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses historical information from similar projects B. Bottom-up estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses historical information from similar projects C. Monte Carlo analysis, because this is a modeling technique that uses simulation to determine estimates D. Parametric modeling, because this is a form of simulation used to determine estimates 475. Project managers have the highest level of authority and the most power in which type of organizational structure? A. Projectized B. Strong matrix C. Functional D. Balanced matrix 476. This process is concerned with determining the information stakeholders will need throughout the project and the methods of communication. A. Distribute Information B. Report Performance C. Plan Communications D. Identify Stakeholder Needs 477. All of the following statements are true regarding risk events except which one? Choose the least correct answer. A. Project risks are uncertain events. B. If risks occur, they can have a positive or negative effect on project objectives. C. Unknown risks are threats to the project objectives, and nothing can be done to plan for them. D. Risks that have more perceived rewards to the organization than consequences

should be accepted. 478. This process applies evaluation criteria to the bids and proposals received from potential vendors. A. Plan Procurements B. Administer Procurements C. Conduct Procurements D. Perform Quality Assurance 479. You are the project manger for Xylophone Phonics. This company produces childrens soft- ware programs that teach basic reading and math skills. You are ready to assign project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. Which project Planning process are you working on? A. Estimate Activity Resources B. Develop Human Resource Plan C. Acquire Project Team D. Plan Organizational Resources 480. You know that PV = 470, AC = 430, EV = 480, EAC = 500, and BAC = 525. What is VAC? A. 70 B. 20 C. 25 D. 30