331. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has a) full authority b) 50% authority # c) 10% authority 332.

Stall warning will be given # a) before stall b) after stall c) at stall 333. With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central maintenance function (CMF) is to # a) log relevant maintenance data b) transmits to the CMC c) provides details of defect action 334. How are spoilers normally operated? # a) Hydraulic actuator b) Air pistons c) Electrical motors 335. The purpose of a force trim release system in an helicopter is to permit the # a) pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude without having to maintain the opposing forces of the artificial feel system forces b) pilot to move the collective to obtain a power change c) appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered 336. A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause a) only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time b) one generator always comes on line before the other # c) the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled 337. Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline battery a) in the aircraft b) when the battery is fully charged # c) in the charging room only

338. When removing the load from a current transformer # a) short the terminals b) place a resistor across each terminal c) leave the terminals open 339. Wing steady light must be visible through a) 70 degrees # b) 110 degrees c) 180 degrees 340. On AC ground power the interlock system is operated by pins a) a and b b) c and d # c) e and f 341. When paralleling two AC generators # a) it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on in sequence ABC b) it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in either ABC or CBA c) they do not need to be in phase 342. The neutral shift sensor ensures that # a) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the stabiliser b) after a mach trim, the stabilizer is moved to align with the elevator c) after an auto trim, the stabilizer is moved to align with the elevator 343. Aileron to rudder cross feed is applied in autopilot systems to a) assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw b) prevents slip and skid in yaw # c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn 344. Standoff errors on localizer approach are washed out by a) differentiating deviation signals b) integrating deviation signals # c) integrating course error signals

345. An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratio meter would cause a) the pointer to read zero b) the pointer to read mid scale # c) the pointer to read full scale 346. The instantaneous VSI is designed to # a) overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer b) use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent c) improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g 347. with a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession will a) increase with a higher rotor speed # b) decrease with a higher rotor speed c) decrease with a lower rotor speed 348. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor located about the gyroscope's a) lateral axis # b) longitudinal axis c) vertical axis 349. The glideslope equipment operates in the a) HF band # b) UHF band c) VHF band 350. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system would cause a) aircraft to underbank b) aircraft to overbank # c) aircraft to remain in level flight 351. In a flight director system the radio signal outputs from the navigation receiver are # a) DC b) AC c) pulsed DC 352. Fuel quantity test set consists of

a) resistance decade #b) capacitance bridge c) inductance decade 353. EICAS provides the following a) engine parameters # b) engine parameters and system warnings c) engine warnings and engine parameters 354. The stabiliser is set to high setting when # a) the flaps are moving down b) the flap are moving up c) the flap are moving up or down 355. An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the system a) operational b) passive # c) simplex 356. DSR TK (desired track) means # a) the bearing to capture the track b) a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points c) distance left or right from desired track 357. In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal from # a) the barometric alt capsule b) a rad alt output c) a rad alt or capsule output depend on height 358. In a Doppler VOR the 30Hz reference signal is a) FM Modulated # b) AM Modulated c) modulated with a 9960Hz 359. On aircraft an auto land during auto flare the auto throttle will # a) retard the throttle b) reverse thrust

c) control throttle for a IAS 360. If an FM signal modulated by an audio signal the frequency of the audio would relate to the a) amplitude b) frequency # c) rate of frequency change 361. The normal axis on a helicopter is # a) straight down the rotor head b) at 90o to the C of G c) at 90o to the rotor head 362. On a HF radio set the clarifier control is used # a) to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RX b) make the audio signal clearer c) an Americanisum for volume 363. A GPS aerial is polarized a) vertically b) horizontally # c) right hand circular 364. Mach trim threshold are set by the a) pilot b) engineer using aircraft maintenance manual # c) manufacture 365. An O ring in a wave guide is used to a) correct the VSWR b) stop arcing between the wave guide # c) stop moisture entering the wave guide 366. An RMI requires the following inputs: # a) Heading and radio deviation b) Course and radio deviation c) Radio deviation only

367. The versine signal is used in the # a) pitch channel only b) roll channel only c) pitch and roll channel 368. After a change in collective pitch the Rotor rpm will rise and fall. This is called # a) transient droop b) static droop c) under swing 369. Loran C Uses a) 16 KHz b) 20 Mhz # c) 100 Khz 370. The amount of travel of a series actuator is # a) 50% of control movement b) 10% of control movement c) full control movement 371. GPS Telemetry consists of a) week number and time label b) satellite position information c) 8 bits of preamble and position information 372. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at maximum flap at # a) 90o b) 180o c) 0o 373. Emergency Electronic equipment is approved by a) Aircraft Maintenance Manual # b) JAR (OPS) M c) BCAR A4-8 374. The rotor disc is # a) the distance between tip to tip

b) the rotor head hub c) the ground cushion 375. A DME is in auto stand by when a) the ATC transponder is transmitting # b) the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second c) the TCAS is transmitting 376. The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90o What is a RMI display? a) 90o b) 0o # c) 180o 377. The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation signal is lost the aircraft would a) continue on flying on the localizer # b) fly parallel to the localizer c) drift of from the localizer on the same heading 378. Cat-2 autoland DH limits are # a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft b) below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft. c) below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft. 379. Cat-1 autoland DH limits are a) not less than 100 ft. # b) not less than 200 ft. c) below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft. 380. When GA is initiated? a) Auto throttle disengages at 2000 ft/min rate and wings will level b) Auto throttle remains engaged allowing pilot to control the throttles # c) Auto throttle remains engaged giving correct G/A thrust 381. The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are # a) integrated pitch and radio altitude. b) G/S deviation and radio altitude.

c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation 382. Rollout guidance after touch down is by a) automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering b) visual indication and nosewheel steering c) visual indication and rudder control 283. During autoland failure of one channel is detected a) all channels will disconnect in triplex system. # b) all channels will disconnect in dulpex system. c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system. 384. In triplex autoland system failure of one channel will a) disconnect all channels # b) disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach c) disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual approach 385. During the flair mode the A/T throttle will # a) retard throttle to idle. b) disconnect autothrottle c) select reverse thrust. 386. Roll out mode occurs # a) after flare b) before flare c) at alert height 387. High and low signal to voter are a) average b) removed c) added 388. Basic monitoring is function of a) voting # b) signal comparison c) signal summing 389. In series rudder system

a) the pilot cannot input to the system # b) the pilot can input to the system c) yaw damping is only possible signal input 390. If a pointer is not centralised on a trim indicators, it means that a) the indicator is not serviceable b) the control system is out of trim c) the system is trimmed 391. in parallel rudder system, a) the pilot can input on rudder pedals # b) The rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement c) The rudder pedals are disconnected 292. The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel amplifier. This means it is a) AC b) DC # c) DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input 393. An increase in mach number will cause the # a) Cof P to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane b) Cof P to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail plane c) Cof P to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane 394. If one FMS fails in a duel system a) system operation will not be affected b) FMS CDU on fail side goes blank # c) FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer 395. To carry out FMS database update on FMS # a) use database loader b) insert new EPROM c) insert new data on CDU 396. To know the valid database on FMS a) perform bite check

# b) call up relevant page on CDU c) call up relevant current status 397. Magnetic heading errors will be # a) positive if easterly b) negative if easterly c) negative if northerly 398. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn? a) It will move once the aircraft is established on a new heading # b) Move as the aircraft moves c) Stay fixed on magnetic north 399. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored? a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1 b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1 c) If P2 is before P1 400. A helicopter autopilot uses # a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold 401. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam? a) Height Deviation b) Radio deviation # c) Course deviation 402. What of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence? a) Flare, attitude, rollout # b) Attitude, flare, rollout c) Rollout, attitude, flare 403. When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has been selected? a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft #b) When reached a desired altitude c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system

404. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available? #a) No other pitch modes are available b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam c) All are continuously available 405. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, view from above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what? a) In front of the lateral axis # b) Right of the longitudinal axis c) Left of the longitudinal axis 406. Forces on a helicopter in a power-on descent are # a) lift, drag thrust, weight b) lift, drag, thrust c) weight, drag, lift 407. What is the primary purpose of a helicopter tail arm? # a) Provide a structure for mounting the stabiliser and anti torque rotor b) Acts to help balance the centre of gravity of the helicopter c) Provide directional control 408. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length? # a) 21 micro seconds b) 8 micro seconds c) 17 micro seconds 409. What does the Radar contour button do? # a) Alter the beam shape b) Alter the transmitter power c) Alter the video amplifier 410. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds. How far away is the target? a) 12 miles # b) 25 miles c) 40 miles

411. With a spring balance control system you can a) move the control surface on the ground b) move the control surface only by moving the tab c) not move the control surface on the ground 412. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is # a) 50 ohms b) 20 ohms c) 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively 413. Alert Height is when a) a decision of whether to land is made # b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made c) an alert of the position of the aircraft is made 414. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder a) remains at the neutral position b) controls the aircraft in trim c) remains in the previous position 415. for a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the pitch movement? a) Lateral b) Longitudinal c) Normal Page 47 - Mod 13 416. Versine is used in which channel? # a) Pitch b) Roll c) Yaw 417. A Master Warning is issued when # a) overspeed & low cabin altitude occurs b) cargo smoke & low oil quantity occurs c) engine fire & generator trip occurs

418. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations? # a) Visual inspections b) Insulation testing c) CMC fault indications 419. an RMI in VOR mode, it's pointer is showing a course of 000. If the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer? a) Move left #b) Move right c) Moves left then hard right 420. An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an ADF signal 030 relative to the aircraft, what is the ADF pointer indicating? a) 030 #b) 060 c) 090 421. When does the pressure in the standard atmosphere halve? a) 12,000ft b) 5,000ft # c) 18,000ft 422. If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the aileron to rudder crossfeed be? # a) Left Rudder b) Right Rudder c) No Rudder 423. If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what will happen to the tab? a) It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface b) It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface # c) It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface 424. At which two points on a gas turbine engine is EPR measured? # a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe b) Combustion chamber and jet pipe

c) Jet pipe and combustion chamber 425. If a stall is approaching, what indication does the pilot get? # a) Stick Shaker b) Stick Nudger c) EICAS warning 426. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to a) nose up b) go one wing down c) nose down 427. On a coupled approach what happens to the aircraft if it looses the localiser signal? # a) It will fly straight down the original course but will drift b) It will fly in circles c) It will fly on the heading the aircraft was on 428. If an autopilot is fed with radio deviation a) it will stand off the centre line by a fixed amount # b) it will fly in circles c) it will fly on the heading the aircraft was on 429. What colour are the autoland indication lights next to the pilots instruments with excess deviation? a) Red b) Amber c) White 430. In what type of Doppler System do altitude holes appear? # a) FM b) Pulse c) FM and Pulse 431. What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a turn? a) They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input signal b) They return back to neutral when the turn is complete c) They Disappear out of view

432. If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is it moving about? # a) Normal b) Longitudinal c) Lateral 433. The neutral shift system augments control of the a) stabiliser # b) elevator c) spoilers 434. On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose up command causes # a) the two elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move up b) all the elevators on each wing to move up c) the two Ailerons on each wing to move up 435. What are ground spoilers used for? # a) To dump lift b) To assist the aircraft coming to a stop c) To slow the aircraft 436. If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right where does the pilot feed in this command? # a) Control Wheel b) Control Column c) Rudder Pedals 437. What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure? # a) 3000 psi b) 1000 psi c) 300 psi 438. If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable you must # a) replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but larger b) defer the defect until correct spares are available c) splice the broken lead 439. What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the current from a primary structure?

a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable c) No smaller than 18AWG 440. What is the bonding value between secondary structure? a) 0.5 # b) 1 ohm c) Between 1Megohm and 500,000 441. What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called? # a) Drag Strut b) Drag Wire c) Shock Absorber Page 50 - Mod 13 442. What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing? # a) Increasing in lift b) Going to the highest point c) Increasing in drag 443. In a series actuator fitted to a helicopter how much authority does it have? # a) 10% approximately b) 100% c) 50% 444. What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver? a) Polarity sensitive AC # b) Polarity sensitive DC c) Either 445. What does an INS calculate on power up? a) Last Known Longitude # b) Last Known Latitude c) Last Known Longitude & Latitude 446. If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of a helicopter what effect will an autopilot input have?

a) The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot input # b) The cyclic lever will not move c) The flight director bars only will move 447. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do you get to the system pages? # a) Through the ground test function b) Through the Existing faults function c) Through the Present Leg faults function 448. What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication? # a) The voltage activity in the servo amp b) Trim tab position c) Control surface position 449. What is the entry angle of an MLS installation +/-? a) 62 # b) 42 c) 20 450. When using a bonding tester you # a) use the 6ft lead for testing different points b) use the 60ft lead for testing different points c) use either leads for the testing Page 51 - Mod 13 451. What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for? # a) Control of the pitch of the rotor blades b) Control of the speed of the rotor blades c) Control of the flap of the rotor blades 452. What does a piezo electric type vibration sensor detect? a) Disturbances b) Velocity # c) Pressure changes 453. with a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens when the control surface is moved?

a) It remains in the neutral position b) It moves in the same direction as the control surface #c) It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface 454. What should be carried out prior to working on or near control surfaces? # a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected off b) Pull & tag circuit breakers c) Wear ear protection 455. Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator has instant values of Vertical Speed by # a) blocking off static and by using an accelerometer b) using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator c) blocking off pitot pressure and by using an accelerometer 456. What is the glide slope frequency range? a) 108 - 112 Mhz b) 108 - 112 Ghz # c) 329 - 335 Mhz 457. What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery? a) Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte # b) Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte c) Fluctuations in the terminal voltage 458. Upwash on a helicopter would result in a) increase in lift without an increase in power b) decrease in lift c) decrease in speed 459. What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed? a) Bell sound # b) Clacking sound c) Horn sound 460. What is a slot used for? # a) To reinforce the boundary layer b) Increased angle of attack during approach

c) Increase the speed of the airflow 461. ADF is a) Rho b) Theta c) Rho-Theta 462. A Boost Gauge reads a) above or below ambient atmospheric pressure # b) absolute pressure c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure 463. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and # a) relative air flow b) tip path plane c) horizontal axis 464. If cyclic is moved to the right a) POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another b) the rotor blades on the right flap down c) the rotor blades on the left flap down 465. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz b) 2 - 6 GHz # c) 100 KHz 466. What would happen to an aircraft at low speed at high angle of attack had an aileron going down? a) Decrease stall speed b) Increase stall speed c) Have no effect on the stall speed 467. A high lift device is used for # a) take off and landing b) take off only c) landing only

468. What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a load bearing part of the structure that can be used as walls or partial walls? a) Frame #b) Bulkhead c) Stringer 469. What is jitter used for in a DME transmission? # a) To make an installation recognize it's own transmission b) To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense area c) To make an aircraft recognise a DME in a quiet area 470. What is the minimum candela of an anti-collision beacon? a) 100 b) 50 c) 20 471. What is the calibration law of a Ratiometer? a) Material of the coil #b) Material of the sensing element c) Material of the indicator needle 472. after a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, the helicopter would a) roll back to the horizontal b) continue to roll further c) remain at the position that it had rolled to 473. How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems? a) Spoiler to aileron b) Spoiler to flap c) Spoiler to elevator 474. What is audio clipping used for in voice communication? a) To enable vowels to be heard better b) To enable consonants to be heard better c) To enable numbers to be heard better 475. The difference between transient droop and static droop is

# a) underswing b) overswing c) a hole in one 476. If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the same level above sea level then a) it will not need resetting and will read zero b) it will display the airfield height above sea level #c) it will probably not need resetting and will read zero 477. capacitance fuel quantity indication test set is connected a) by replacing capacitance probes b) in parallel with capacitance probes c) in series with capacitance probes 478. What is aileron droop? a) The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow b) One aileron lowered c) The drop of ailerons with no hydraulics on 479. How is the output of a constant speed drive fed AC generator controlled? a) Hydraulic feedback to a governor b) No control as the generator is fed via a constant speed drive c) By a swashplate 480. What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight? a) The cabin goes in the direction of rotation b) The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation c) The rotor goes the opposite direction to the normal direction of rotation 481. With a helicopter with a twin blade same gimbal it is # a) semi rigid b) rigid c) fully articulating 482. Earths atmosphere is #a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen

b) 4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen 483. A thermocouple a) capacitance and inductance cannot be added b) cannot be shortened c) can be shortened 484. How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a compass? a) Bellows and diaphragm b) Alcohol is used as it does not get effect by temperature c) Press relief valve 485. When installing an aerial ,added support is needed for the structure. This is achieved by a) webs b) outer plate #c) inner plate 486. What is the difference between transmit and receive pulse frequency? a) 60 b) 63 c) 1000 487. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade a) increases at the tip b) increases at the root c) is unaffected by blade position 488. TCAS II is a) 10 aircraft per square mile b) 25 aircraft per square 5 miles c) 100 aircraft per 5 miles square 489. RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by a a) servomotor b) loop voltage

c) Chinaman 490. FMC changes movement via a) A/P actuator #b) flight control computer c) straight to the actuator 491. Aircraft condition monitoring monitors #a) certain parameters b) with a fault detector and tells master warning computer c) and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC 492. Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere a) increase with the frequency b) decrease with frequency c) is not affected by frequency 493. What is lapse rate? a) Pressure changes with altitude # b) Temperature changes with altitude c) Density changes with altitude 494. Increase in speed of spoilers is needed when a) the flaps are lowered b) at higher speeds c) the landing gear is extended 495. What should be taken into account when measuring the SG of a battery? a) The outside temperature b) Electrolyte temperature c) Charge state of the battery 496. What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left? a) Elevator up, left aileron down #b) Elevator down, right aileron down c) Elevator up, right aileron down 497. Where is the placement of a mercury switch?

a) Outer gimbal b) Gyro case c) Instrument case 498. DC power into the GCU comes from a) main battery bus #b) main battery bus and ground service c) ground service 499. In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains a) 1 capsule # b) 2 capsules c) 3 capsules 500. If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the control surface will a) move up b) move down c) remain at the same place 501. Spring tabs a) cannot be adjusted in flight b) can be adjusted in the flight deck c) cannot be adjusted 502. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoA will #a) increase b) decrease c) remain 503. If an aircraft moves in roll it is moving about the a) normal axis b) lateral axis # c) longitudinal axis 504. LOC signal modulation is a) 50 % # b) 20 %

c) 10 % 505. After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter , the helicopter would a) continue to roll b) increases roll c) come back to level flight 506. What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure? a) ASI b) Machmeter #c) VSI 507. If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will a) decrease # b) increase c) remain the same 508. A Master Warning is issued when #a) overspeed and low cabin attitude occurs b) cargo smoke and low oil quantity occurs c) engine fire & trip occurs 509. How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and roll axis? a) Elevator s # b) Elevons c) Ailerons 510. If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine generator give? # a) Up Elevator b) Left rudder c) Down elevator 511. What effect does lowering the flaps for takeoff have? a) Increases lift & reduces drag # b) Increases lift and drag c) Increase lift only 512. What effect does lowering flaps for takeoff have?

# a) Reduces takeoff and landing speeds b) Reduces takeoff speeds only c) Reduces landing speeds only 513. Which signal would be integrated to get onto Localiser centreline? a) Heading error #b) Course error c) Radio deviation Page 58 - Mod 13 514. What does a vibration type sensor measure? a) Maximum deflection # b) Frequency of deflections c) Direction of flexing 515. On a Ground Power unit which pins are allocated for interlock circuit? a) A and B b) B and C #c) E and F 516. Which is used for compass damping fluid compensation? a) Bellows or diaphragm b) No damping due to alcohol low temperature co-efficient c) Piston and oil 517. The result of the equation (Dev E - Dev W)/2 is known as # a) Coefficient B b) Coefficient A c) Coefficient C 518. If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen to the precession? a) Increase b) Remain unaffected c) Decrease 519. A 'q' feel system supplies a) aerodynamic damping

b) the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed c) control movement effort relief 520. ADF operates within which frequencies? # a) 200 KHz - 1000 KHz b) 118 MHz - 132 MHz c) 32 KHz - 64 KHz 521. Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used? a) Roll out # b) Flare c) Touchdown 522. FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is a) DME Freq b) LNAV # c) CRZ Page 59 - Mod 13 523. Mode C response is a) 21microseconds b) 12 microseconds c) 8 microseconds 524. Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude reporting system? # a) Read the altitude directly from ATC-600 panel b) Transfer the code displayed by the ATC-600 into binary c) Check the altitude code with the correct alt/code table 525. An uncorrected ADI is affected by a) climb b) descent c) roll 526. A DGPS system installed on an aircraft requires #a) 1 ground station and 4 satellites b) 2 ground stations and 4 satellites

c) 1 ground station and 6 satellites 527. The term `circling current' refers to #a) AC generators b) AC and DC Generators c) DC generators 528. Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central maintenance computers and you only have one to dispatch the aircraft. Where do you fit it? #a) LH side b) RH side c) LH or RH side (i.e. doesn't matter) 529. If the localiser signal is only applied to the A/P roll channel a) aircraft flies parallel to the runway centre line b) aircraft flies along the runway centre line # c) aircraft flies in circles 530. Speed control on an emergency hydraulic driven generator is via the a) IDG b) CSD #c) swash plate 531. WX radar display the time base is # a) saw tooth wave form b) trapezoidal wave form c) rectangular wave form 532. Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost, following the FD commands. Aircraft will a) stay on centre of course b) stay parallel to course c) follow the course with scalloping or bracketing 533. Flight director on G/S capture, the pitch integration is a) to increase GS signal

b) to decrease GS signal c) to maintain GS signal 534. A helicopter needs to re-trim # a) indication is shown on the API b) indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI c) indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude indicator 535. API Trim pointers are fed by a) a synchro b) an RVDT c) an LVDT 536. VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for maximum power transfer is #a) 50 ohms b) 25 to 75 ohms c) 129 ohms 537. Transformer coupling between an ADI and a flight director computer is a) to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failure b) to protect the FD computer in case of an ADI failure c) to protect the FD computer in case of an HSI failure 538. In audio clipping a) vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal b) vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal c) there is no change in relative strength of vowels 539. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses # a) attenuation first then amplification b) amplification first then attenuation c) no attenuation but amplification 540. DME - how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid? a) Decoder b) Blocking oscillator

c) Integrator 541. Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected dipole of 120 ohms. While checking with ohm meter the reading will be a) 80 ohms #b) 200 ohms c) more than 20 mega ohms 542. Transformer coupling between ADI and Flight director is to protect a) ADI b) Flight director computer c) both of the above 543. A HUMS in a helicopter is a) a vibration analysis system #b) a system which monitors time period of components in service and warns of a premature failure c) a system which indicates a crack in the blade 544. When the flaps are lowered a) the lift vector moves forward b) the lift vector moves rearward c) there is no effect on the lift vector 545. at take off, if the flaps are lowered there is a # a) large increase in lift and drag b) small increase in lift and drag c) large increase in lift and small increase in drag 546. In a large transport aircraft to check VSWR of a HF system with a long aerial feeder the VSWR meter has to be connected a) between the transmitter and the ATU (transmitter end) b) between the aerial and ATU c) between the transmitter and the ATU (ATU end) 547. With power applied to the autopilot but not engaged, the trim indicator will indicate a) a standby electrical signal in the servo loop b) that the gyro is out of the null and needs aligning

c) the trim system is out of datum 548. Control loop gain with an autopilot is usually a) dependent on aircraft altitude b) 100% c) chosen as a compromise 549. With no.1 h.f. system transmitting the interlock circuit a) allows no.2 h.f. to receive only b) allows no.2 h.f. to transmit and receive # c) does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive Page 62 - Mod 13 550. MLS azimuth range is a) +/- 30 b) +/- 42 c) +/- 62 551. Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90 degrees, RMI indicates a) 90 # b) 180 c) 0 552. in an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when # a) flaps are retracted b) landing gear up and locked c) flaps extended 553. An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236 microseconds after transmitting the interrogation. What is the slant range to the station? # a) 96 nautical miles b) 100 nautical miles c) 104 nautical miles 554. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track is the aircraft? # a) 10 b) 5

c) 2.5 555. What frequency range does ACARS operate in? a) 2-30 MHz # b) 118-136 MHz c) 4-5 GHz 556. An FM signal would have it's sideband signals a) above the carrier signal b) below the carrier signal # c) No sidebands present 557. on an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warning a) would initiate a Go Around b) audio and Visual warning c) visual warning only 558. A Doppler VOR station's transmissions # a) can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver b) can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver c) can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR receiver 559. Direction of normal flight is changed by the pilot by applying pressure a) to the control wheel b) to the control column #c) to the rudder pedals 560. On a modern aircraft about to stall a) the outboard slats extend automatically b) engine power increases automatically c) the flaps retract automatically 571. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by a) 4% # b) 7% c) 10.321% 572. A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for electrical cables carrying

electrical current is a) 20 inches # b) 24 inches c) 28 inches 573. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with #a) an inclinometer b) micrometer c) spirit level 574. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by # a) Tachogenerator b) Feedback from control surface c) Feedback from servo motor 575. When an hydraulic system is un pressurized, the position of flight control surfaces are a) down #b) neutral c) droop 576. Radar beamwidth improves a) range resolution b) range accuracy # c) bearing resolution 577. A transformer has a power input of 115V AC. What is the output voltage? a) 115V b) 345V # c) 460V 578. The manufacturer of a pitot head gave a specification indicating 2 inches dia. This is the a) opening dia. of pitot head b) internal dia of pitot head where air stagnates c) external dia of pitot head 579. on a VSI fitted on an aircraft, for climb and descent indication

# a) a set screw is provided for zero adjustment b) it does not have any adjustment c) a set screw is provided for climb/descent increments 580. A shunt wound generator fitted on an aircraft, a preset potentiometer is fitted a) in series with the field winding b) in parallel with the field winding c) in series with the generator output 581. When can wing spoilers be used? a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn b) As ground spoilers on landing #c) To assist the elevators 582. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure #b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb c) set the rad alt to 0 feet 583. Dutch Roll affects a) pitch and roll simultaneously b) pitch and yaw simultaneously #c) yaw and roll simultaneously 584. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the antenna a) will move up b) will move down c) will not move 585. Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to a) length of the cable b) transmitter power output #c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna 586. When more than one D.R.Compass is fitted on an aircraft or where a D.R.compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass

a) Only the master compass reading and adjustment carried out and remaining compasses are adjusted with master compass. # b) All reading and adjustments for each compass should be made simultaneously on each heading. c) All reading and adjustment for each compass should be made at any one heading only. 587. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation card should not exceed a) 2 Degree # b) 3 Degree c) 5 Degree 588. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called a) apparent error # b) residual error c) index error 589. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce a) parallax error. # b) surface reflection. c) static to avoid dust attraction. 590. Versine signal is governed by a) roll # b) pitch c) yaw 591. Increasing the real load primarily a) decreases frequency b) decreases output voltage # c) increases output voltage and increases frequency 592. Inductive reactive load causes a) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated b) increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated # c) increase in torque only

593. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of a) apparent power from the generator that does work b) reactive power from the generator that does work # c) real power from the generator that does work 594. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by # a) angle of swash plate b) IDG c) restriction valve 595. Differential protection in an AC system protects against a) A reverse current flowing from the battery b) short circuits # c) line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults 596. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be # a) stationary b) rotating at idle c) rotating at Nsync 597. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to # a) enable generators to be paralleled b) prevent engine overload c) maintain constant load on the generator 598. in a undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is # a) activation of the time delay circuit b) de-activation of the field regulatory TRs c) energise the bus tie relay 599. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the # a) CSD drives shaft had sheared b) phase sequence detection circuit has operated c) bus tie interlock is inoperative 600. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases,

generator output voltage will a) decrease and amperage output increases b) increases and amperage output increases # c) remain constant and amperage output increases 601. Battery trays are a) metal for earthing purposes # b) metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint c) absorbent to soak up electrolyte 602. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in a) parallel b) series # c) either parallel or series and switched between as an option 603. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector? a) Ground or earth b) Positive to battery relay # c) Positive to external power relay 604. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is a) 71 degrees F # b) 144 Degrees F c) 144 Degrees C 605. If an aircraft has no battery charger the battery is charged by # a) constant voltage b) constant current c) constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage 606. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA a) Chapter 24 Section 21 # b) Chapter 24 Section 31 c) Chapter 31 Section 21 607. In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element is

a) in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length # b) in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact c) in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length 608. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is # a) stationary b) fluctuating c) pulse width modulating 609. In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by a) transformers and transistors b) diodes and transformers # c) zeners and transistors 610. Paralleled relay for DC system is energized and connected by a) voltage coil b) current coil # c) voltage and current coil