JC2 H2 Physics A levels 2007 Suggested Answers

Paper 1: MCQ

1 C 11 D 21 A 31 A
2 B 12 B 22 B 32 B
3 A 13 C 23 D 33 D
4 B 14 A 24 B 34 D
5 A 15 D 25 A 35 C
6 A 16 A 26 D 36 D
7 C 17 C 27 B 37 D
8 B 18 D 28 B 38 A
9 C 19 C 29 D 39 B
10 D 20 B 30 B 40 C

Reasoning for MCQs

1 Ans: C
Reasoning:
Its obvious.


2 Ans: B
Reasoning:
2
2
L
P kI

| |
=
|
\ .

Equation must be homogenous.
2
L

| |
|
\ .
is unitless because the 2 quantities share the
same SI unit. As such, units of k = units of
2
P
I
= units of R = ohm


3 Ans: A
Reasoning:
Note that velocity of the object at its maximum height must be 0 and hence option D is
out.
In addition, the acceleration of the ball is at a constant value of g throughout the motion
and hence only option A is correct.
4 Ans: B
Reasoning:
Air resistance is pointing to the left.
Gravitational force is pointing vertical downwards. The resultant of these 2 forces will be
in the direction of B.


5 Ans: A
Reasoning:
Use v u at = +
Now,
1
7000
30 50
500
t = +
1
1.43 t s =
2
7000
30 50
500 130
t = +
+

2
1.8 t s =
2 1
0.37 t t s =


6 Ans: A
Reason
Using COM,
Total initial momentum = total final momentum.
Total initial momentum = m (2v) + 2m ( - v) = 0
So final momentum is zero. Since the 2 particles are sticking together, the final velocity
of the particles will be zero as well. Hence, total kinetic energy after collision is 0.

7 Ans: C
Reasoning:
Denoting final velocity of m as v and final velocity of M as v
Using COM, we have
m + 0 = mv + Mv -----(1)
Using relative speed of separation, we have
u 0 = v v ------(2)

Solving for v , we will arrive at solution C.


8 Ans: B
Reasoning:
Thats the definition of upthrust.



9 Ans: C
Reasoning:
Weight is given as 1.6 x 10
-3
N
Electric force to the right is given by F = qE = 2 x 10
-6
(80/0.1) = 1.6 x 10
-3
N
Since the resultant force to the right and downwards are equal in magnitude, the
resultant force must be 45 degrees diagonal as in Option C.


10 Ans: D
Reasoning:
Fnet = ma = 240 N
Now, Fnet = Fdriving Fresistance
240 = Fdriving 160
Fdriving = 400 N
Since P = Fv = 400 (10) = 4.0 kW


11 Ans: D
Reasoning:
The case for PE = 12 KJ should be pretty obvious as it is halfway down.
Now, for EPE, halfway down, EPE should be a rather low value. Remember that the
rope will only stretch after a certain period of time.
For KE, at the midst of motion, KE should be a rather substantial value. It cannot be too
low, as not that much of KE has been transferred to EPE, if any.

.
12 Ans: B
Reasoning:
Note that we have to use metres and radians.
S = R (in km) (in deg)
= 1000 R (
180

) = 17.5 R


13 Ans: C
Reasoning:
The bob is at the lowest point of its circular bottom.
Look at the figure on the right.
The results follow.




14 Ans: A
Reasoning:
Centripetal force is a resultant force so we do not draw it on a free body diagram. The
answer follows.



15 Ans: D
Reasoning:
F =
24
2
(6 10 )(1)
0.02
G x
= 1 x 10
18
N

16 Ans: A
Reasoning:
1
2
100rads
T

= =
since
0 0
v x =
0
x = 0.030 m



T
W
17 Ans: C
Reasoning:
2
1
2
mv mgh =
2
1
(0,264) (9.81)
2
m m h =
h = 0.0135 m
r cos + h = r
where r = 0.962 m.
Solving, 9.8 =










18 Ans: D
Reasoning:
From definition.


19 Ans: C
Reasoning:
PV = nRT
3
20
(0.2 ) ( )(8.314)(100 273)
32
P = +
P = 240 kPa


20 Ans: B
Reasoning:
U Q W = +
= 24 + (1.3 x 10
5
) (1.3 3.6) x 10
-4

= - 6 J

21. Ans. A
Reason:
Sound produced from loudspeaker; sound longitudinal waves, so option B and D wrong.
Upon studying the diagram, = 10 cm.
Since, v = f f = (330)/(0.10) = 3300 Hz = 3.3 kHz
So, option A is correct.


22. Ans. B
Reason:
A YDS experiment study bright fringe separation: x = D/a
where a = distance between slits,
h
r
r
= wavelength of source, and
D = distance from slit to screen.

To get maximum x, a has to be small, has to be long and D has to be large.


23. Ans. D
Reason:
Light of frequency 6.0 x 10
14
Hz its is 5.0 x 10
-7
m.

d = (1.0 x 10
-2
m)/(4.0 x 10
3
lines) = 2.5 x 10
-6
m

Use dsin = m :

When m = 3, sin = (3)(5.0 x 10
-7
)/(2.5 x 10
-6
) = 0.6
= 36.9

Therefore, the angle between the two three-order diffraction maxima (i.e., one on both sides of the
zero-order bright fringe) = 2 x 36.9 = 73.8 ~ 74


24. Ans. B
Reason:
Given the magnitude of the charges on the top and bottom plates are the same, but the type of
charge on the plates must be different so as to establish an electric field.
So, option A and D are incorrect.

Charged sphere Y stayed stationary in the uniform electric field set up by the top and bottom plates.
There are two forces acting on the charged sphere Y its weight and the electric force.
The direction of the electric force must be in the opposite direction of the weight, i.e., it must be
directed upwards so as to balance the weight of the charge.

Option C is incorrect because the electric force on the charge is in the same direction as the weight.
So, the answer is option B.

25. Ans. A
Reason:
E = -dV/dr
dV is the difference in potential between two adjacent equi-potential lines, dr is the distance between
two adjacent equi-potential lines.

From + 400 V to 0 V,
the magnitude of dV is the same but the sign is negative;
the magnitude of dr increases and the sign is positive;
the value of E is positive but its value becomes smaller with increasing distance away from P.

From 0 V to 400 V,
the magnitude of dV is the same but the sign is negative;
the magnitude of dr increases and the sign is positive;
the value of E is positive but its value becomes larger with increasing distance away from P.

There is symmetry at the 0 V potential line so, answer is option A.


26. Ans. D
Reason:
A recall question. The energy transferred by the cell in driving unit charge round the complete circuit
is simply the electromotive force. Therefore, the answer is option D.


27. Ans. B
Reason:
Use R = L/A = 4L/d
2


Manipulate: d = (4L/R)

()

d = ()

So, d
Ag
= (
Ag
/
Al
)

d
Al

= (0.5)

d
Al

= 0.71d


28. Ans. B
Reason:
The two 6.0 resistors are connected in parallel.
The effective resistance of whole circuit is (3.0 + 3.0 ) = 6.0 .
The current flowing in the effective circuit is 2.0 A.
The current flowing in the ammeter will read 1.0 A.


29. Ans. D
Reason:
Maximum voltmeter reading will occur when variable resistor is set to 0.0 .
The voltmeter will read 12 V since the cell has negligible internal resistance.

So, the answer becomes very obvious option D.


30. Ans. B
Reason:
From information given, the electromagnetic force, F
B
= (0.020 x 10
-3
)(9.81)
= 1.96 x 10
-4
N

Since F
B
= BIL,
1.96 x 10
-4
= B(3.0)(0.050)
B = 1.3 x 10
-3
T



31. Ans. A
Reason:
Change in magnetic flux linkage = NBA = (3000)(1.8)(0.010)
2
= 1.7 Wb
Average emf = change in magnetic flux linkage/time interval
= 1.7/0.060
= 28.3 V ~ 28 V


32. Ans. B
Reason:
Recall question again. Answer in lecture notes.


33. Ans. D
Reason:
100% efficient transformer I
p
V
p
= I
s
V
s


N
s
/N
p
= (V
s
/V
p
)
rms
1000/200 = 80/V
p

V
p, rms
= 16 V

<P> = (V
s,rms
)
2
/R
s
= (80)
2
/100 = 64 W

(I
p, rms
)(V
p, rms
) = <P> = 64 I
p, rms
= 4.0 A


34. Ans. D
Reason:
of violet light ~ 4.0 x 10
-7
m

E = hc/ = (6.63 x 10
-34
)(3.00 x 10
8
)/(4.0 x 10
-7
) = 4.97 x 10
-19
J ~ 5 x 10
-19
J (1 s.f.)



35. Ans. C
Reason:
The vertical axis of the energy level diagram is calibrated in joules (J).

Wavelength of photon emitted = 6.2 x 10
-7
m corresponds to a electron transition from a higher
energy level to a lower energy level.

E = hc/ = 3.21 x 10
-19
J so, option C is the answer. {E = (- 1.6 + 4.8) x 10
-19
J}


36. Ans. D
Reason:
From the information given (i.e., the two I-V graphs), we can see that photons having wavelength of
2

is more energetic than photons having wavelength of
1
it allows photoelectron emission from both
E and F electrodes.

So,
1
>
2
options A and B are incorrect.

Looking at the first I-V graph, when both E and F electrodes are illuminated by light of wavelength
1
,
we are seeing photoelectrons emitted from electrode F reaching electrode E but not vice versa. We
will only see photoelectrons emitted from electrode E reaching electrode F only when the electrodes
are illuminated by photons that are more energetic, i.e., light having wavelength of
2
.

From this information, we know that the work function of electrode E is greater than the work function
of electrode F.

Hence, the answer is option D.


37. Ans. D
Reason:
Option A incorrect because in semiconductors, electrons in valence bands are all used to form
covalent bonds.
Option B incorrect because there is no energy (band) gap in a metal or the valence electrons do not
completely fill up an energy band, like in the case of a mono-valent metal such as sodium (Na).
Option C incorrect because the presence of impurities is used to increase conductance and not
resistance.
Option D correct because electrons and holes have opposite charges.


38. Ans. A
Reason:
Conduction band is above the valence band in energy level diagram. Electrons always fill up the
lowest energy states first.
These two pieces of information will tell us that option C and D are incorrect.

At absolute zero, there should not be any electrons in the conduction band for an intrinsic
semiconductor. Therefore, option A is the best answer.





39. Ans. B
Reason:
The gradient of the graph gives the decay constant.
So, = (7.5 4.0)/(800 x 365 x 24 x 3600) = 1.38 x 10
-10
s
-1


t

= ln 2/ = 5.02 x 10
9
s = 159.3 years ~ 160 years.


40. Ans. C
Reason:
E = 2.13 x 10
-13
J
= (mass of excited nucleus mass of nucleus at ground state)c
2


1 uc
2
= 931.5 MeV = 1.49 x 10
-10
J

So, 2.13 x 10
-13
J = 0.00143 uc
2


(mass of excited nucleus)c
2
= 59.9308 uc
2
+ 0.00143 uc
2
= 59.93223 uc
2

mass of excited nucleus = 59.9322 u
2007 A-level H2 Paper 2 Answers

1 (a) (i)
2
2
-2
1
2
1
2.66 0 ( )(0.740)
2
9.72 m s
s ut at
g
g
= +
= +
=


(ii) 1
1
% x 100% 0.38%
266
h
h

= =

2
0.005
% x 100% 0.68%
0.740
t
t

= =

(b)
-2
% % 2(% ) 0.38 2(0.68) 1.74
1.74
(0.0174)(9.72) 0.2 (1 . )
100
(9.7 0.2) m s
g h t
g h t
g
g s f
g
g

= + = + =

= = =
=



(c) 1. There may be zero error in the timer.

2. Miscalibration of the timer.

2 (a) Electric field strength at a point is defined as the electric force per unit positive
charge experienced by a test charge placed at that point.

(b) (i) Direction of the electric field along CX is towards the left.

(ii) From graph, E = 2.4 kV m
-1

-19 3 -16
F = eE = (1.6 x 10 )(2.4 x 10 ) = 3.84 x 10 N


(c) (i) Based on the assumption that the electric force on electron is constant
along CX, then

3 -2 CX
CX
V F F
E = = V = ( )CX = (2.4 x 10 )(4.0 x 10 ) = 96 V
e CX e


(ii)
The magnitude of
CX
V calculated is an underestimate as the
average electric field or force was greater than the value used in
part (i).



3 (a) A progressive wave is a periodic disturbance in a medium or in space, which
transfers energy from one place to another by vibrations of the disturbance.

(b) (i) 1. The waves from the two sources must be of roughly the same
amplitudes.

2. The two waves have a constant phase difference between them.

3. The two waves must overlap first in order to have interference.

(ii) 1 7 directions between AB and CD along which maximum amplitude
occurs.

2 Any line which does not connect the intersection points of the
wave-fronts from the two sources.

4 (a) B-field directed out of the page.

(b) (i)
2 2
B
2
B
mv p / m
F = =
r r
p = F mr = Bqvmr = B(2e)pr
p = 2Ber

(ii)
2 2 2
(2 ) 2( )
2 2
K
p Ber Ber
E
m m m
= = =


(c) The alpha particle does not get deflected immediately when it enters the B-
field. The particle moves in a straight line path further into the B-field region
before it gets deflected downwards. Out of the B-field region, the alpha
particle move in a straight line path tangential to point of exit.

5 (a) The electrons move towards the p-type material.

(b) In the p-type region there are holes from the acceptor impurities and in the n-
type region there are extra electrons from the donor impurities.

When a p-n junction is formed, some of the electrons from the n-type region
which have reached the conduction band are free to diffuse across the
junction and combine with holes in p-type region.

Filling a hole makes a negative ion at the p-type region and leaves behind a
positive ion on the n-type region. A space charge builds up, creating a
depletion region which inhibits any further electron transfer.

(c) Positive terminal of the cell is connected to the n-type region while the
negative terminal is connected to p-type region to increase the width of the
depletion region.

6 (a) X is a hydrogen nucleus.

(b) (i)
2
-27 8 2
-13
( )
(14.007525 4.003860 17.004507 1.008142)(1.66 x 10 )(3.0 x 10 )
1.9 x 10 J
N He O H
E m m m m c = +
= +
=


(ii) The reaction produced an increase in mass. For this reaction to
occur, the alpha particle must have a large kinetic energy when it
bombards the nitrogen nucleus to produce an increase in mass
after the reaction.


(iii) The oxygen nucleus and nucleus X move with some amount of kinetic
energy. This means that the kinetic energy of the alpha particle must be
very much higher than that of part (ii). As a result, part of the K.E of the
alpha particle can be converted into the K.E of the products and part of it
used to produce an increase in mass.

7 (a) (i) Work done, W is defined as the product of the force, F and the
displacement, r in the direction of the force.

W Fr =

If ion Y is displaced away from ion X by a distance, dr , then work done
by the force, F to pull ion Y back will cause a change in potential
energy,
p
dE of ion Y. The change in potential energy of ion Y is then
given by

since and are opposite in direction
p
p
dE W Fdr F dr
dE
F G
dr
= =
= =


In terms of magnitude, F G =

(ii)
For
-10
2.8 x 10 m r ( ,
p
dE
dr
is negative.
Since
is positive is repulsive
p
dE
F
dr
F F
=



For
-10
2.8 x 10 m r ) ,
p
dE
dr
is positive.
Since
is negative is attractive
p
dE
F
dr
F F
=




(iii) 1.
At
-10
= 2.8 x 10 m r , 0 N
p
dE
F
dr
= =

2.
At
-10
= 5.0 x 10 m r ,

-19
-9
10
( 2.0 ( 7.5))(1.6 x 10 )
1.76 x 10 N
(8.00 3.00)10
p
dE
F
dr


= = =

(b)
8
2 9
8
p
p
A B
E
r r
dE
A B
F
dr r r
= +
= = +


If r is very small, then
9 2 9
8
B A B
F
r r r
))) = is positive

1. This force only acts for a short range of distance.

2. This force is a repulsive force.

(c) (i) 1.
Assuming that K.E of the ions is zero, then 6.0
p
E eV = .
Draw a horizontal line of 6.0
p
E eV = . It will cut the curve at

Minimum value of r =
-10
2.35 x 10 mand

Maximum value of r =
-10
4.25 x 10 m

2.
At
-10
3.5 x 10 m r = , 7.1
p
E eV =

6.0 ( 7.1) 1.1
K T p
E E E eV = = =

(ii)
If the motion is simple harmonic, then vs
p
E r graph should be
symmetrical. Since the vs
p
E r graph is not symmetrical, the motion is
not simple harmonic.

(d) As the lattice is heated, the total energy of the ions increase due to increase in
its K.E and P.E. Since its P.E increases, the minimum and maximum value of r
between which the ions vibrate increases. Therefore, the dimension of the
whole lattice increase as it is heated.

2007 G.C.E. A Level H2 Physics Paper 3
Suggested solutions

1(a) (i) The 2 nuclei are positively charged, and like charges repel one another.

(ii) If v is sufficiently high, the two nuclei will have sufficient kinetic energy to come very close to
one another, overcoming electrostatic repulsion. There maybe a possibility of nuclear fusion.

(iii) Total initial momentum of the system = 3mv + (-2mv) = mv

According to the principle of conservation of linear momentum, since there is no external force
acting on the system, the total momentum of the system must be conserved. In this instance,
total momentum of the system can never be zero. Thus it is not possible for the nuclei to stop
at the same instant otherwise the total momentum of the system would be zero at that instant.

Or

By Newtons third law, both nuclei experience the same magnitude of force. Hence, both
nuclei will have the same rate of change on momentum. Since the momentum of tritium is
greater than that of deuterium (due to its greater mass), they will never come to a stop at the
same time.

1(b) Let final velocity be v

mv = 2mv + 3mv = 5mv
v = v/5

1(c) (i)












(ii) Taking motion to the right as positive,

For elastic collisions,

Relative speed of approach = Relative speed of separation
Initial v of tritium Initial v of deuterium = Final v of deuterium Final v of tritium

v (-v) = v
D
v
T

2v = v
D
v
T
---- (1)

By conservation of momentum,
velocity
time
Tritium
nucleus
Closest
approach
Tritium nucleus stops
Deuterium
nucleus stops

3mv + (-2mv) = 3mv
T
+ 2mv
D

v = 3v
T
+ 2v
D
--- (2)

[(1) x 3] + (2) : 7v = 5v
D

v
D
= 1.4 v
Sub into (1): 2v = 1.4v - v
T

0.6v = - v
T

v
T
= -0.6 v

Final speed of tritium = 0.6 v
Final speed of deuterium = 1.4 v

2(a) (i) E = |V/d| = |600 (-600) / 2.5 x 10
-2
|
= 4.8 x 10
4
Vm
-1


(ii) W = qV = (8.0 x 10
-19
)(500 (-400)) = 7.2 x 10
-16
J

2(b) The electric field strength between 2 parallel plates is uniform. Hence, in the absence of any other
charged bodies, electric potential changes uniformly from one plate to another.
In this case the electric potential decreases from the left plate (+600 V) to the right plate (- 600V). The
equipotential line in the centre of the plates, midway between +600 V and 600 V would hence be 0
V.

Alternative:
Electric potential is defined as the work done by an external force in bringing a unit positive charge
from infinity to a point in an electric field.

Since the electric field strength between 2 parallel plates is uniform, the work done in bringing a
positive test charge from infinity to the centre line from the +600 V plate is +600 J, while the work
done in bringing a test charge from infinity to the centre line from the 600 V plate is 600 J. Hence
the net work done is 0 J, which explains why the potential along the centre line between the plates is
zero.


3(a) (i) From the graph, when V = 6.0 V, I = 1.43 A
R = V/I = 4.2

(ii) The minimum value of R occurs at the point where the ratio of V to I is the smallest. The slope
of the graph gives an indication of the variation of R. When the slope increases, it indicates
that the R is decreasing in value.

Hence, minimum value of R occurs at the point where the slope is the greatest.

This occurs when V = 3.0 V and I = 0.95 A

R = 3.0 / 0.95 = 3.16

3(b) (i) PD across C = PD across 5.0 = (5.0)(0.85) = 4.25 V

(ii) Referring to the graph, when V = 4.25 V, I = 1.3 A
Current from the supply = 0.85 + 1.3 = 2.15 A

(iii) E = V + Ir
= 4.25 + (2.15)(0.80) = 5.97 V

(iv) Power dissipated in C = IV = (1.3) (4.25) = 5.525 W
Energy supplied in 20 minutes = P x (20 x 60) = 5.525 x 20 x 60 = 6.63 x 10
3
J

4(a) A mass suspended from a spring oscillating vertically undergoes changes between kinetic energy and
potential energy (which comprises of gravitational potential energy and elastic potential energy).

When the mass-spring system is at its highest position (Fig 1), its kinetic energy is zero as it is
instantaneously at rest. Its GPE is maximum, while the EPE is minimum as the spring has the least
extension here. Its total potential energy is maximum at this point.




















As it accelerates towards the equilibrium, GPE is converted into kinetic energy and EPE. Its kinetic
energy increases, GPE decreases while EPE increases (as the extension increases). At equilibrium
position (Fig 2), its kinetic energy is maximum, while the total potential energy is minimum.

As the mass-spring system moves below the equilibrium position, kinetic energy and GPE are
converted into EPE. At the lowest point (Fig 3), kinetic energy and GPE are minimum, while EPE is a
maximum (extension is greatest).

In all stages of the motion, the total energy of the mass-spring system (which comprises of kinetic
energy, GPE and EPE) remains constant assuming there are no dissipative forces.


4(b) In radioactive decay, the binding energy per nucleon of the parent nucleus is less than the combined
binding energy per nucleon of the products. This means that energy is released during the process (in
the form of kinetic energy of the products, electromagnetic radiation etc).

x = 0
x = + x
o
x = - x
o
KE = 0
Total PE = max
(GPE max, EPE min)
KE = max
Total PE = min
(GPE , EPE ) KE = 0
Total PE = max
(GPE min, EPE max)
Fig 1

Fig 2

Fig 3

When the parent nucleus decays, the total mass of the products is less than that of the parent.
Einsteins mass-energy equivalence states that E = mc
2
. Hence, the decrease in mass provides for
the energy released during the process.


5(a) f = 5000 rev min
-1
= 5000/60 = 83.33 Hz (rev s
-1
)

= 2f = 2(83.33) = 524 rad s
-1


5(b) (i) = 2/T = 2/24 x 60 x 60 = 7.27 x 10
-5
rad s
-1


(ii) a = r
2
= (6.38 x 10
6
) (7.27 x 10
-5
)
2
= 3.37 x 10
-2
m s
-2


5(c) (i) The Earth spins on its axis. At the poles, a test mass placed at the poles also spins on the
Earths axis. There is no need for the gravitational force between a test mass placed at the
poles and the Earth to assist in the rotation of the test mass. The acceleration of free fall g is
then the gravitational strength at that point.

At the Equator, part of the gravitational force between a test mass placed at the Equator and
the Earth provides for the centripetal force to keep the test mass in orbit. As a result, the
acceleration of free fall (g
pole
a
c
) takes a smaller value at the Equator.

(ii) The difference in the acceleration of free fall is equal to the centripetal acceleration of a point
at the Equator (3.37 x 10
-2
ms
-2
). Therefore, the difference in the radius at the Equator and at
the poles is small in comparison to the radius of the Earth itself. Hence, the difference in
acceleration due to free fall is small.

5(d) (i) Newtons Law of Gravitation states that the attractive force F between 2 masses, M and m is
directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of
the distance between the centre of both masses, r.

F = GMm/r
2



(ii) Consider a test mass placed at the surface of the Earth. The gravitational force of attraction on
the test mass m is then given by

F = GMm/r
2


Definition of g = F/m g = GM/R
2


5(e) (i) GMm/r
2
= mr
2

GM/r
2
= r
2

r
3
= GM/
2

= gR
2
/
2
= 9.81 x (6.38 x 10
6
)
2
/ (7.27 x 10
-5
)
2


r = 4.23 x 10
7
m

5(e) (ii) 1. satellites orbit lies in the plane of the Equator and is always directly above a point on the
Equator.

2. rotates from West to East, following the direction of rotation of the Earth.

5(f) Polar orbit satellites
Closer distance to earth means signals are received more strongly and have better resolution.
Reduced time delay between transmitting and receiving signals

Geostationary satellites
Less energy required to launch and maintain.
Able to monitor a fixed place over a long period of time.

6(a) 77.30 K = 77.30 273.15 = - 195.85
o
C


6(b) This means that the temperature on such a scale is not dependent on the thermometric property of
any particular substance and has absolute zero as its minimum temperature.

6(c) (i) Internal energy of a gas is the sum of microscopic kinetic energies and microscopic potential
energies of all the gas molecules. Microscopic KE arises due to the motion of the gas
molecules while microscopic PE arises due to the intermolecular forces between the gas
molecules.

(ii) An ideal gas is a hypothetical gas which obeys that equation of state of an ideal gas, PV =
nRT, for all values of pressure, temperature and volume.


6(d) (i) Since V and T are constant, n P
n
i
/n
f
= P
i
/P
f
= 2.62 x 10
5
/ 3.23 x 10
5

n
f
= 1.23 n
i


n
i
= P
i
V
i
/RT
i

= (2.62 x 10
5
x 0.0120)/[8.314 x (25 + 273.15)]
= 1.27

n
f
= 1.23 (1.27) = 1.56 mol

Amt of air that needs to be supplied = 1.56 1.27 = 0.29 mol


(ii) To supply 4 tyres, amount of air needed to be transferred from supply = 4 x 0.29 = 1.16 mol

Fall in supplys pressure , P = n RT/V = (1.16 x 8.314 x 298.15)/(0.0108) = 2.66 x 10
5
Pa

Final pressure of supply = 8.72 x 10
5
2.66 x 10
5

= 6.06 x 10
5
Pa, which is still above 3.23 x 10
5
Pa

6(e) (i) For ideal gas, U = 3/2 NKT
= 3/2 (1)(1.38 x 10
-23
)(298.15)
= 6.17 x 10
-21
J

(ii) No. of molecules in 1 mol = 6.02 x 10
23


Hence, internal energy for one mole of air = 6.16 x 10
-21
x 6.02 x 10
23

= 3.71 x 10
3
J

Alternative:
For one mol of ideal gas, U = 3/2 RT
= 3/2 (8.314)(298.15) = 3.72 x 10
3
J

(iii) U = n x U of 1 mole = (0.29)(3.71 x 10
3
) = 1.08 x 10
3
J

6(f) (i) Internal energy is a function of state of the system and the increase in internal energy of a
system is equal to the sum of the work done on the system and the heat supplied to the system.

(ii) Since there is no heat supplied to or removed from the system, Q = 0
Work done on the system = Increase in internal energy
= 1.08 x 10
3
J


7(a) - Refer to notes for description of photoelectric effect.
- State the observations of the photoelectric effect and explain how these observations provide
evidence for the particulate nature of electromagnetic radiation.


7(b) Equation :

Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons = Energy of incident photons Work Function of metal

Terms:

Maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons = Kinetic energy of the most energetic electron that is
released from the metal plate

Energy of incident photons = energy of electromagnetic radiation incident on metal plate, given by the
product of the Plancks constant and frequency of radiation, f (E=hf)

Work function of metal = minimum energy required to release a photoelectron from the metal plate


Note: Cambridge examiners commented that many students simply stated the algebraic form of the
photoelectric equation and explained what each of the symbols meant. This was NOT what they were
looking for. Instead, they required students to explain the meaning of the terms, as shown above.


7(c) KE
max
= hf -
= (hc/) - KE
max
= (6.63 x 10
-34
)(3.0 x 10
8
)/(3.82 x 10
-7
) [1/2 x 9.11 x 10
-31
x (6.87 x 10
5
)
2
]
= 3.06 x 10
-19
J

7(d) (i) Length of pulse = speed x time = 3.0 x 10
8
x 1.0 x 10
-5
= 3.0 x 10
3
m

(ii) x = 3.0 x 10
3
m

(iii) xp > h/4
p = (h/4 x) = 1.76 x 10
-38
kgms
-1


7(e) A potential barrier is a region in space where there exists a maximum potential U, which prevents a
particle on side of it to pass through.










Classically, if E > U, the particle is able pass through the barrier. If E < U, the particle is not able to
pass through the barrier.

According to quantum physics, particles exhibit wave nature and are defined by a continuous wave
function . The square of the amplitude of this function ||
2
indicates the probability of finding a
particle at a particular position and time.

The wave function must be continuous on both sides of the potential barrier, indicating a finite
probability that the particles can tunnel through the barrier, regardless of the value of E. Hence, there
is a probability that the particle can be found on the other side of the barrier, and ||
2
is not zero at the
region on the right side of the potential barrier.

U
Particle with
energy E