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CHM13P

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ ____ 1. What is the molecular formula for hydrogen chloride? a. HClO2 c. HClO3 b. HCl d. HClO4 2. A compound contains sulfur, oxygen, and chlorine. Analysis shows that it contains by mass 26.95% sulfur and 59.61% chlorine. What is the simplest formula for this compound? a. S2OCl2 c. SOCl2 b. SOCl d. SO2Cl2 3. A 4.628-g sample of an oxide of iron was found to contain 3.348 g of iron and 1.280 g of oxygen. What is simplest formula for this compound? a. FeO c. Fe2O3 b. Fe3O4 d. Fe3O2 4. What mass of FeCl3 would contain the same total number of ions as 16.8 g of Al2(SO4)3? a. 10.8 g c. 7.96 g b. 9.95 g d. 8.01 g 5. A sample of lead ore has a density of 8.80 g/mL. It is composed of two lead compounds: lead oxide, PbO (density 9.10 g/mL) and lead selenide, PbS (density 8.10 g/mL). What is the percent of the ore is lead oxide? a. 89.0 % c. 96.7 % b. 92.0 % d. 70.0 % 6. The empirical formula of a compound is CHBr and its molecular weight is 185. What is its molecular formula? (atomic weights: C = 12.01, H = 1.008, Br = 79.90) a. CH2Br c. C3H3Br3 b. C2H2Br2 d. C2HBr 7. Balancing a chemical equation so that it obeys the law of conservation of matter requires: a. Changing the formulas of the products and reactants. b. Adjusting the coefficients in front of the formulas so there are the same number and type of atom on both sides of the equation. c. Keeping the total charge the same on both sides of the equation. d. Making sure the reactants and products are in the same phase. 8. How many molecules of O2 would react with 56 C2H6 molecules according to the following balanced equation? 2C2H6 + 7O2 4CO2 + 6H2O a. 112 c. 196 b. 784 d. 50 9. What volume of 0.130 M HCl solution will just react with 0.424 gram of Ba(OH)2? 2HCl + Ba(OH)2 BaCl2 + 2H2O a. 38.1 mL c. 32.6 mL b. 24.1 mL d. 18.6 mL 10. Which one of the following is an alkaline earth metal? a. bismuth, Bi c. magnesium, Mg b. tin, Sn d. potassium, K 11. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte? a. HNO3 c. HNO2 b. CH3COOH d. NH3 12. Determine the oxidation number of the underlined element in LiAlH4. a. +2 c. +1 b. 0 d. 1 13. Determine the oxidation number of the underlined element in H2P2O7. a. +6 c. +4 b. +5 d. +3 14. When two nonmetals combine, ____. a. they form a binary ionic compound. b. they neutralize the acid formed in the reaction. c. they form a binary covalent compound. d. they release hydrogen gas. 15. Which of the following reactions is a decomposition reaction? a. c. 2KClO3(s) 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g) C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) 3CO2(g) + 4H2O( ) b. Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g) d. 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O( )

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16. What ions are almost completely removed from solution when 0.1 M aqueous solutions of HBr and Pb(CH3COO)2 are mixed? Choose the response that includes all the ions removed. I. II. III. IV. H+ BrPb2+ CH3COO-

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a. II, III and IV c. III and IV b. I, II, III and IV d. II and III 17. The mass number of an atom is the number of ____ in the atom. a. neutrons c. electrons plus the number of neutrons b. protons plus the number of neutrons d. protons plus the number of electrons 18. Give the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in an atom of the 90Sr isotope. a. 90 p, 38 n, 90 e c. 38 p, 52 n, 38 e b. 52 p, 38 n, 52 e d. 38 p, 90 n, 38 e 19. A hypothetical element consists of four isotopes having the following percentage natural abundance and isotopic masses. What is its atomic weight? isotope 1: 16.06% (52.100 amu); isotope 2: 28.36% (53.097 amu); isotope 3: 42.60% (54.093 amu); isotope 4: 12.98% (55.090 amu). a. 53.262 amu c. 53.487 amu b. 53.314 amu d. 53.620 amu 20. The five isotopes of nickel occur in the following percentages with the following isotopic masses. The atomic weight is 58.69 amu. What is the isotopic mass of 60Ni? (Choose the closest answer.) Isotope 58Ni 60Ni 61Ni 62Ni 64Ni Mass (amu) 57.935 ? 60.931 61.928 63.928 % 68.27 26.10 1.13 3.59 0.91

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a. 59.93 amu c. 60.57 amu b. 59.31 amu d. 58.62 amu 21. Which response lists all the true statements about the four quantum numbers? I. II. III. IV. n = principal quantum number, l = angular momentum quantum number, ml = magnetic quantum number, ms = spin quantum number, n = 1,2,3, . . . l = 0,1,2,3, . . ., (n 1) ml = 0, 1, . . ., l ms = a. b. 22. a. b. c. d. 23. I and III c. I, II, and IV II, III, and IV d. II and III Which statement is false? The fifth shell (or major energy level) has one set of f orbitals. A set of p orbitals can accommodate a maximum of 6 electrons. There are 10 d orbitals in a set. None of the p orbitals are spherically symmetric. Identify the following orbital.

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a. dxy b. ____

c. fz d.

24. An element with the outermost electron configuration ns2np3 would be in Group a. IIIA c. VIIA b. VA d. IIA 25. a. b. 26. a. b. How many neutrons does an atom of chlorine-35 ( ) have? c. 17 d. 18 How many atomic orbitals are there in the 4d subshell? c. 4 d. 5

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52 35 2 3

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27. Choose the response that includes all of the listed elements that are d-transition elements, and no others. I. Ti II. Mo III. Tl IV. Kr V. U a. IV and V c. III and IV b. I and II d. II and III 28. Which of the following statements is false? a. Transition elements have larger atomic radii than the preceding IA and IIA elements in the same period because transition elements have electrons in their d orbitals. b. Electrons in inner shells screen, or shield, electrons in outer shells from the full effect of the nuclear charge. c. The atomic radii of representative elements decrease from left to right across a period (horizontal row in the periodic table). d. Within a family (vertical group in the periodic table) of representative elements atomic radii increase from top to bottom. 29. Which ion or atom has the largest radius? a. c. Sr Rb b. d. Br Se 30. Oxygen was discovered by Priestley in 1774 when he observed the ____. a. thermal decomposition of mercury(II) oxide, HgO b. electrolysis of water c. results of fractional distillation of air d. the thermal decomposition of potassium chlorate, KClO 31. What do elements in the same vertical column of the periodic table have in common? a. the same physical properties b. similar chemical properties c. the same electron configuration d. the same number of filled electron energy levels 32. Which Lewis Dot Formula is incorrect? a. c. b. d.

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33. Which Lewis dot notation for atoms and ions is correct for the reaction for the formation of calcium phosphide? a. b. c. d.

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34. a. b. c. d.

Which of the following statements is the best definition of valence electrons? The electrons that are paired. The electrons that are unpaired. The electrons in the p orbitals The electrons occupying the highest energy (outermost) level.

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35. a.

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What is the formula for the binary ionic compound of lithium and nitrogen? c. LiN Li N b. LiN d. Li N 36. A chemical bond formed by two atoms sharing one or more pairs of electrons is called a (or an) ____ bond. a. coordinate covalent c. nonpolar b. ionic d. covalent

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37. The internuclear distance at which the attractive and repulsive forces balance in a covalent bond is called the ____. a. bond length d. single bond b. bond energy e. none of these c. stabilization length

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38. The total number of valence electrons that must be shown in the dot formula for the C H Cl FO molecule is ____. (It is not necessary to draw the dot formula.) a. 50 c. 48 b. 42 d. 46 39. N a. 40 b. 34 When writing the relationship among N, A, and S for H CO , N = ____, A = ____, and S = ____. A 16 22 S 14 12 N c. 36 d. 34 A 24 24 12 10 S

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40. Draw the dot formula for acetylene, C H . The two carbon atoms are bonded together and each carbon is bonded to one hydrogen. Each carbon-hydrogen bond is a ____ bond and each carbon-carbon bond is a ____ bond. a. single, triple c. double, double b. single, double d. double, single 41. How many lone pairs of electrons are there on the Xe atom in the XeF molecule? a. four c. three b. zero d. two 42. a. 3 b. 2 43. a. 2 b. 3 44. a. b. 45. a. b. 46. a. b. How many resonance structures does the nitrate ion, NO -, have? c. 0 d. 1 How many resonance structures does the bicarbonate ion, HCO -, have? c. 1 d. 4

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How many resonance structures does O have? c. 0 d. 2 Which molecule has the most polar covalent bond? HCl c. N2 IBr d. PH3 Which of the following statements concerning polar molecules is false? There must be an odd number of polar bonds so that their polarities not cancel. A molecule with symmetrically arranged polar bonds can be polar if the central atom is bonded to atoms of different elements. c. If there are more than one polar bond, they must not be symmetrically arranged so that their polarities cancel. d. There must be at least one polar bond or one unshared pair of electrons on the central 4 1

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atom. 47. The hybridization associated with the central atom of a molecule in which all the bond angles are 109.5 is ____. a. sp3d c. sp3d2 b. sp d. sp3 3 2 48. The bond angles associated with sp d hybridization are ____. a. 109 c. 90 and 180 b. 90 and 120 d. 120 49. Which of the following statements about polar molecules is false? a. A molecule with 180o bond angles can be polar. b. A molecule with 120o bond angles can be polar. c. A molecule with polar bonds can be nonpolar. d. A molecule with only nonpolar bonds can be polar. 50. Molecules such as NF3 are best described by assuming what kind of hybridization at the central atom? a. sp3d c. sp b. sp3d2 d. sp3 51. Which of the following species has square planar molecular geometry? a. SF4 c. SO42b. XeF4 d. CH4

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52. a. b. c. d. 53. a.

Which of the following statements about multiple bonds is true? A sigma bond results from the side-on overlap of p atomic orbitals. sp3 hybridization in carbon is associated with one double bond and two single bonds. A double bond consists of two sigma bonds. sp2 hybridization in carbon is associated with one double bond and two single bonds.

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How many sigma ( ) bonds and how many pi ( ) bonds does the acetylene molecule contain? c. 3 and 1 5 and 1 b. d. 3 and 2 2 and 2 54. Which response includes all of the molecules listed that have the same molecular geometry as electronic geometry, and only those molecules? BCl3, AsF5, NF3, H2S a. b. c. d. Which, if any, of the compounds listed are not sp3d hybridized at the central atom? BF3 AsI5 SF4 BrF5 XeF4

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55. I. II. III. IV. V.

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a. III and IV c. all are sp3d hybridized b. III and V d. I, IV, and V 56. What is the molecular geometry of the species, ICl2+. a. linear c. tetrahedral b. angular d. trigonal planar 57. Which of the following can be a Brnsted-Lowry acid? a. H2O c. CH4 b. H2 d. NaOH 58. What is the formula and molarity of the salt produced by the reaction of 17 mL of 0.33 M H2SO4 and 44 mL of 0.23 M Sr(OH)2? a. SrH2, 0.0920 M c. SrSO4, 0.0920 M b. SrSO4, 9.2 10-5 M d. Sr(OH)2, 0.165 M 59. A sample of impure iron reacts with exactly 28.3 mL of 0.100 M HCl. How many grams of iron were contained in the sample? FeS (s) + 2HCl (aq) H2S (g) + FeCl2 (aq) a. 0.158 g c. 0.316 g b. 79.0 g d. 0.079 g 60. Balance this equation for a reaction in basic solution. What is the coefficient of H2O?

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KOH + Cl2 KClO3 + KCl + H2O a. 3 c. 2 b. 6 d. 4 61. In acidic solution MnO4 oxidizes H3AsO3, a weak acid, to H3AsO4, a weak acid, and is reduced to Mn2+. Write the balanced net ionic equation for this reaction. How many H+ are there in the balanced equation? a. 4 c. 2 b. 6 d. 1 62. Write the balanced net ionic equation for the reaction of hydrogen sulfide with bromate ions, BrO3-, in acidic solution to form sulfur and bromide ions. How many H+ are there in the balanced equation? a. zero c. 3 b. 2 d. 6 63. What volume of 0.0100 M KMnO4 solution is required to oxidize 42.5 mL of 0.0100 M FeSO4 sulfuric acid solution? MnO4- + 8H+ + 5Fe2+ Mn2+ + 5Fe3+ + 4H2O a. 8.5 mL c. 16.0 mL b. 31.9 mL d. 80.0 mL 64. What volume of 0.1066 M Na2S2O3 solution would be required to react with 24.32 mL of 0.1008 M I2 solution? Na2S2O3 + I2 a. 5.75 mL b. 34.50 mL Na2S4O6 + NaI (unbalanced) c. 11.50 mL d. 45.99 mL

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65.

When household ammonia is mixed with bleach, NaOCl, toxic chlorine gas and hydrazine, N2H4 is

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produced. What volume of 0.75 M NH3 would react with 100 mL of 0.35 M NaOCl? NH3 + OClCl2 + N2H4 (unbalanced) a. 23.5 Ml c. 100 mL b. 26 mL d. 47 mL 66. A 50.0-mL sample of K2Cr2O7 solution oxidizes 1.500 g of Na2SO3 to Na2SO4. Cr2(SO4)3 is also produced. What is the molarity of the K2Cr2O7 solution? a. 2.96 M c. 0.0158 M b. 0.0952 M d. 0.0794 M 67. If 30.0 mL of 0.250 M HCl solution and 30.0 mL of 0.250 M NaOH are mixed, what is the molarity of the salt in the resulting solution? Assume that the volumes are additive. a. 0.0075 M c. 0.125 M b. 0.0625 M d. 0.250 M 68. What volume of 0.230 M potassium hydroxide solution, KOH, would completely neutralize 27.4 mL of 0.205 M sulfurous acid solution, H2SO3? a. 61.5 mL c. 24.4 mL b. 12.2 mL d. 48.8 mL 69. A sample of helium occupies 1.40 L at standard conditions. What pressure will it exert in a 0.500 L vessel at 100.C? a. 1.56 103 torr c. 371 torr b. 624 torr d. 2.91 103 torr 70. A sample of nitrous oxide, N2O, occupies 1.65 L at STP. What is the mass of the sample? a. 18.9 g c. 22.1 g b. 28.6 g d. 32.4 g 71. A 7.97 g sample of gas occupies 5.25 L at STP. What is the formula of the gas? a. CO2 c. PCl3 b. NO d. N2H4 72. What mass of methane, CH4, is contained in a 500.-mL sample of CH4 at STP? a. 0.407 g c. 0.357 g b. 0.212 g d. 0.390 g 73. Calculate the density of O2, in g/L, at STP. a. 0.714 g/L c. 1.62 g/L b. 1.43 g/L d. 1.14 g/L 74. A 5.00 L container contains CH4, H2, and Xe at 35C with a total pressure of 1.81 atm. If there are equal moles of each gas, what is the partial pressure of H2? a. 0.603 atm c. 0.034 atm b. 1.81 atm d. 3.05 atm 75. A mixture of gases containing 21.0 g of N2, 106.5 g of Cl2 and 12.0 g of He at 14C is in a 50.0-L container. What is the total pressure in the vessel? a. 2.7 atm c. 2.5 atm

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b. 1.8 atm d. 2.2 atm 76. Which of the following situations would one expect the most real gas behavior? a. He at 10C c. NH3 at 5 atm b. CO2 at 100 atm d. CO at 25C

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77. The van der Waals constant, b, in the relationship (P + )(V - nb) = nRT is a factor that corrects for a. the attractive forces between gas molecules. b. the volume occupied by the gas molecules. c. deviations in the gas constant, R. d. the average velocities of the gas molecules. 78. Calculate the pressure (in atm) exerted by 1.00 mole of acetylene at 125C in a 20.0-liter container. The van der Waals constants for acetylene are: a = 20.0 L2 atm/mol2, b = 0.100 L/mol. a. 1.59 c. 1.64 b. 0.485 d. 0.533 79. Which liquid would evaporate most quickly at room temperature? a. Ethylene glycol, HO-CH2-CH2-OH, 62 g/mol b. H2O, 18 g/mol c. Vegetable oil, 895 g/mol d. Gasoline, C8H18, 114 g/mol 80. Calculate the amount of heat (in joules) required to convert 92.5 g of water at 25.0C to steam at 108.0C. (Sp. heat of H2O( ) = 4.18 J/gC, Sp. heat of H2O(g) = 2.03 J/gC, heat of vap. of H2O( ) = 2.260 kJ/g) a. 6.43 105 J c. 3.05 104 J 5 b. 2.26 10 J d. 2.40 105 J

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81. a. b. c. d. 82. a. b. c.

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Which one of the following statements is not applicable to ionic solids? Ionic solids have fairly high melting points. Most ionic solids are hard and brittle. Ionic solids are usually excellent conductors of electric current. The units that occupy the lattice points are ions. Which statement is false? About 26% of the total volume of any cubic close packed crystal lattice is empty space. Two solids that crystallize in the same kind of crystal lattice are said to be isomorphous. The size of an ion in a crystal is influenced by its environment, that is, by the other ions surrounding it. d. An example of an amorphous solid is diamond. 83. Which one of the following substances is incorrectly matched with the kind of solid it forms? Substance Kind of Solid

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a. sulfur dioxide molecular c. methane molecular b. lithium ionic d. calcium bromide ionic 84. If the mole fraction of methyl alcohol in a solution (with only water) is 0.28, what is the mole fraction of the water? a. 0.62 c. 0.72 b. 0.28 d. 1.28 85. Calculate the boiling point of a solution prepared by dissolving 70.0 g of naphthalene, C10H8 (a nonvolatile nonelectrolyte), in 220.0 g of benzene, C6H6. The Kb for benzene = 2.53C/m. The boiling point of pure benzene is 80.1C. a. 73.8C c. 106.3C b. 87.8C d. 86.4C 86. Calculate the freezing point of a solution that contains 8.0 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 100. g of H2O. Kf for H2O = 1.86C/m. a. - 0.044C c. 0.04C b. - 0.44C d. - 0.22C 87. Calculate the freezing point of a solution that contains 68.4 g of sucrose (table sugar) in 300. g of water. One mole of sucrose is 342 g. Kf for H2O = 1.86C/m. a. -0.372C c. -1.24C b. -0.186C d. -0.558C 88. When 35.0 g of an unknown nonelectrolyte is dissolved in 220.0 g of benzene, the solution boils at 83.2C. Calculate the molecular weight of the unknown nonelectrolyte. The Kb for benzene = 2.53C/m. The boiling point of pure benzene is 80.1C. a. 156 g/mol c. 20.3 g/mol b. 183 g/mol d. 130 g/mol

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89. How much heat is released or absorbed in the reaction of 10.0 grams of SiO2 (quartz) with excess hydrofluoric acid? SiO2(s) -910.9 H a. 1.25 kJ released c. 6.56 kJ released b. 11.3 kJ released d. 1.25 kJ absorbed 90. Which statement is false? a. H is equal to E for the process: 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g). b. No work is done in a reaction occurring in a bomb calorimeter. c. H is often nearly equal to E. d. The thermodynamic quantity most easily measured in a "coffee cup" calorimeter is H. 91. The reaction of 1.00 mole of H2(g) with 0.500 mole of O2(g) to produce 1.00 mole of steam, H2O(g), at 100C and 1.00 atm pressure evolves 242 kJ of heat. Calculate E per mole of H2O(g) produced. The universal gas constant is 8.314 J/molK. a. +240 kJ c. +242 kJ b. -242 kJ d. -240 kJ 0 92. Calculate S for the reaction below at 25C. S0 for SiH4 = 204.5 J/molK, for O2(g) = 205.0 J/molK, for SiO2(s) = 41.84 J/molK, for H2O( ) = 69.91 J/molK. SiH4(g) + 2O2(g) a. -677.0 J/K b. -880.3 J/K SiO2(s) + 2H2O( ) c. -353.5 J/K d. -432.8 J/K + 4HF(aq) -320.8 SiF4(g) -1615 + 2H2O( ) -285.8

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93.

At 100 K the reaction below obeys the rate law rate = k[AB2]2 where k = 5.7 M-1s-1. 2AB2 A2 + 2B2

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What would the concentration of AB2 be after 60 minutes if the initial concentration was 1.45 mol/L? a. 2.0 10-5 M c. 4.9 10-5 M -4 b. 1.9 10 M d. 2.4 10-5 M 94. What would be the activation energy of a reaction if its rate constant at 35C was double the value of its rate constant at 25C? a. 8.12 kJ/mol c. 52.9 kJ/mol b. 68.3 J/mol d. 63.8 kJ/mol 95. A catalyst a. increases H for the process. b. increases the rate at which equilibrium is reached without changing the equilibrium constant. c. increases the amount of products present at equilibrium. d. lowers S for the process. 96. Consider the gas phase system below at a high temperature. The form of the expression for the equilibrium constant, Kc, ____. 4NH3 + 5O2 a. is Kc = b. 4NO + 6H2O c.

is Kc = d. cannot be determined without rate data

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is Kc = 97. What is the equilibrium constant expression for the following reaction? C3H8(g) + 5 O2(g) a. 3 CO2(g) + 4 H2O( ) c.

b.

d.

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98. What is the value of Kc for the reaction 2A(g) + 3B(g) 0.60 M, [B] = 0.30 M, [C] = 0.10 M and [D] = 0.50 M? a. 2.4 c. 0.088 b. 0.15 d. 0.51 99. The Kc for the following reaction is 56.2 at 305C. A2(g) + B2(g) 2 C(g)

2C(g) + D(g) if at equilibrium [A] =

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If a reaction is initiated with 2.4 M of each substance, what is the equilibrium concentration of C? a. 4.3 M c. 5.7 M b. 1.2 M d. 2.4 M 100. Consider the reversible reaction at equilibrium at 392C. 2A(g) + B(g) C(g)

The partial pressures are found to be: A: 6.70 atm, B: 10.1 atm, C: 3.60 atm. What is the concentration of B at equilibrium? a. 0.200 M c. 1.64 M b. 0.185 M d. 1.13 M