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Culture Documents
a. antigen-specific cells.
b. capable of developing into any blood cells.
c. committed to produce cells of a single lineage.
d. not self-renewing.
e. T and B lymphocytes of many different antigen specificities.
3. Lymphocytes continually recirculate through peripheral lymphoid tissue in order to
a. antigen.
b. lymphocytes.
c. macrophages.
d. PMNs.
e. stem cells.
8. Which situation below describes an example of innate immunity?
a. antibody production by plasma cells.
b. antigen removal by cilia in the respiratory tract.
c. complement activation by antibody bound to the surface of a bacterium.
d. memory response to influenza virus
e. recognition and killing of virus-infected cells by cytotoxic T cells.
9. The antigen specificity of an adaptive immune response is due to
21. Jenner observed that milkmaids who were infected with cowpox were later immune to
smallpox infections. This is an example of a(n)
a. B cells.
b. complement.
c. cytotoxic T cells.
d. opsonizing antibody.
e. Th1 cells.
23. Phagocytosis
part-2
1. The ability of an antigen to induce an immune response does NOT depend on the antigen's
4. The antibiotic penicillin is a small molecule that does not induce antibody formation.
However, penicillin binds to serum proteins and forms a complex that in some people induces
antibody formation resulting in an allergic reaction. Penicillin is therefore
a. an antigen.
b. a hapten.
c. an immunogen.
d. both an antigen and a hapten.
e. both an antigen and an immunogen.
5. Antigen entering the body in a subcutaneous injection activates its specific lymphocytes in
the
a. blood circulation.
b. draining lymph nodes.
c. MALT.
d. skin.
e. spleen.
7. During the lag period between antigen contact and detection of adaptive immunity,
8. To elicit the best antibodies to mouse MHC I, you should inject it into
a. a goat.
b. a mouse of the same genetic background (strain).
c. a mouse of a different strain.
d. a rat.
e. the mouse you isolated it from.
a. cellular response.
b. humoral response.
c. innate response.
d. primary response.
e. secondary response.
11. Immunogenicity
a. blood stream.
b. bone marrow.
c. liver.
d. lymph nodes.
e. skin.
a. adjuvant.
b. carrier.
c. hapten.
d. mitogen.
e. superantigen.
a. a secondary response.
b. hypersensitivity.
c. immunological ignorance.
d. low zone tolerance.
e. low zone immunity.
16. A virus vaccine that can activate cytotoxic T cells MUST contain
18. CD antigens
19. A patient desperately needs a bone marrow transplant, and a perfect match cannot be
found. The rejection response in unmatched marrow is primarily due to the presence of
mature T cells that recognize the recipient's cells as foreign. To minimize this rejection
response, the marrow can be treated before transfusion into the recipient with complement
plus antibody to human
a. CD3.
b. CD4.
c. CD8.
d. CD28.
e. CD154.
20. Antibody to membrane receptors sometimes inhibits receptor function and sometimes
mimics the action of the normal receptor ligand. (For example, some antibodies to insulin
receptor block the action of insulin and some mimic the action of insulin.) An antibody which
should NOT either block or stimulate B cell function would be anti-
a. CD21.
b. CD56.
c. CD80.
d. Iga.
e. m chain.
part-3
1. Cytokines may exhibit __________ action, signaling the cells that produce them.
a. antagonistic
b. autocrine
c. endocrine
d. paracrine.
e. synergistic
a. antigen specific.
b. capable of activating more than one cell type.
c. made by lymphocytes.
d. small protein molecules.
e. synthesized de novo in response to antigen or other cytokines.
3. Several cytokines may have the same effect on the cells they bind. This is an example of
a. a cascade.
b. antagonism.
c. pleiotropism.
d. redundancy.
e. synergy.
a. gene structure.
b. pleiotropism.
c. redundancy.
d. secretion close to target cell membranes.
e. short half-lives.
5. Interferons
8. The ability of a cytokine to change gene expression in the target cell is influenced by all of
the following EXCEPT
10. The IL-2R subfamily consists of receptors for IL-2, IL-4, IL-7, IL-9, and IL-15. This
group of cytokine receptors
a. apoptosis.
b. clonal deletion.
c. clonal proliferation.
d. cytotoxicity.
e. somatic hypermutation.
part-4
1. Complement
3. Complement is
a. Enveloped viruses
b. Erythrocytes
c. Gram negative bacteria
d. Gram positive bacteria
e. Leukocytes
7. In the membrane attack phase of the classical complement pathway, the role of C5b is to
part-5
a. C5a.
b. chemokines.
c. glucose.
d. LPS.
e. selectins.
a. are completely degraded by hydrolytic enzymes into their component amino acids and
sugars.
b. are degraded to small peptides and carbohydrates which are presented on Class I MHC to
Tc.
c. may survive and replicate in the macrophage phagocytic vesicles.
d. stimulate macrophages to adhere to B cells.
e. stimulate vascular endothelium to upregulate selectin expression..
4. An inflammatory response
8. Early induced immune responses are like adaptive immunity in that they
a. are antigen-specific
b. demonstrate immune memory.
c. involve macrophages and complement.
d. involve T and B lymphocytes
e. use pre-synthesized proteins which can be released quickly upon cell activation.
9. Selectins
a. H2O2.
b. hydrolytic enzymes.
c. low pH
d. lysozyme.
e. strong reducing agents.
12. For a circulating neutrophil to reach the site of inflammation, it must bind to blood vessel
endothelial cell and then pass between the endothelial cells in a process called
a. addressinazition.
b. chemotaxis.
c. extravasation.
d. marginalization.
e. opsonization.
13. Macrophages are attracted to the site of infection by all of the following EXCEPT
a. bacterial peptides.
b. chemokines.
c. C5a.
d. IL-8.
e. MAdCAM.
14. Inflammatory cytokines produced by macrophages activate all of the following EXCEPT
part-6
a. CDR.
b. Fab regions.
c. Fc regions.
d. framework regions.
e. hinge regions.
a. antigen-binding sites.
b. CDR.
c. complement-binding sites.
d. framework residues.
e. light chain variable domains.
a. antigen specificity.
b. H chain constant region.
c. L chain variable region.
d. number of antigen-binding sites.
e. number of VH domains.
10. A colleague sends you an antibody to polio virus capsid protein. You perform equilibrium
dialysis on the antibody to measure its affinity. Plotting r/c versus r gives you a curved line
with K= 2.5 X 108 L/mole and an r intercept of 4. From these results, you conclude that the
antibody is probably
a. a cross-reactive antibody.
b. a monoclonal anti-polio virus antibody.
c. a polyclonal IgG antibody.
d. IgA anti-polio virus.
e. not specific for polio virus.
a. constant region determinants that distinguish each Ig class and subclass within a species.
b. expressed only from the paternal chromosome.
c. generated by the conformation of antigen-specific VH and VL sequences.
d. Not immunogenic in individuals who do not have that allotype.
e. amino acid differences encoded by different alleles for the same H or L chain locus.
13. Human serum IgA is isolated and injected into a rabbit. The rabbit anti-IgA antibodies
will react against all of the following EXCEPT human
a. a chain.
b. IgG.
c. k chain.
d. l chain.
e. secretory component.
14. You have purified some Fab from an IgG myeloma protein. Under appropriate conditions,
you could use this Fab to generate antibodies to
15. The Ig isotype which would be most important for neutralizing polio virus before it could
infect intestinal cells would be
a. secretory IgA.
b. serum IgA.
c. serum IgD.
d. serum IgG.
e. membrane IgM.
16. Which of the following changes to a serum IgM antibody molecule would definitely
DECREASE its avidity?
18. The ability to make antibody with the same antigen specificity but different Fc regions
19. Allergy symptoms are produced when antigen binds to IgE on FcR on
a. A cells.
b. macrophages.
c. mast cells.
d. neutrophils.
e. Th1 cells.
20. One amino acid difference in the Fc region of different human g chains is the epitope
recognized by anti-
a. allotype.
b. idiotype.
c. isotype.
d. IgG.
e. g chain.
part-7
2. The gene segments needed to encode the variable region of a k chain are
3. Pseudogenes are DNA sequences which look very similar to functional genes except for
the presence of a(n)
a. intron.
b. leader sequence.
c. promoter codon.
d. signal sequence.
e. stop codon.
a. 40.
b. 45.
c. 70.
d. 200.
e. 1200.
a. Any L chain can combine with any H chain to form a functional antibody.
b. Any Vk can be joined to any Jk to encode the light chain V region.
c. Many CH genes are present in the germline DNA.
d. Random numbers of N nucleotides can be added during somatic recombination.
e. VJL and VDJH joining is imprecise.
7. Since each B cell productively rearranges a single H and L chain allele, it exhibits
a. affinity.
b. allelic exclusion
c. antibody restriction.
d. antigen-binding diversity.
e. cross-reactivity
a. allows the B cell to improve its antigen-binding fit after antigen contact.
b. allows the B cell to make membrane IgM from the mature mRNA for secreted IgD.
c. can be used for the simultaneous production of any two Ig isotypes.
d. is a process by which a B cell can simultaneously synthesize m and d chains.
e. occurs in response to T cell cytokines.
14. Because of the order of the CH gene segments (Cm, Cd, Cg3, Cg1, pseudogene Ce, Ca1,
Cg2, Cg4, Ce, and Ca2), a human B cell which undergoes isotype switching from IgM to
IgG1 can never in the future secrete
a. IgA.
b. IgE.
c. IgG2.
d. IgG3.
e. IgG4.
part-8
a. Va and Vb chains.
b. Va, Vb, and CD3 chains.
c. Va and Vb2-microglobulin chains.
d. Vg and Va chains.
e. VL and VH chains.
3. Which of the following properties are NOT shared by TCR and BCR?
a. Class I MHC.
b. Class II MHC.
c. Fab region of immunoglobulin.
d. Fc region of immunoglobulin.
e. light chain of immunoglobulin.
6. The amount of diversity in TCR generated within one individual by somatic recombination
a. CD3.
b. endogenous antigen peptide.
c. the constant region of Class I MHC.
d. the constant region of TCR.
e. the variable region of Class I MHC.
9. All of the following are true for antigen receptors on both B cells and T cells EXCEPT
part-9
a. bacterial toxins.
b. extracellular protozoan parasites.
c. most bacteria.
d. ragweed pollen.
e. viruses.
a. b2-microglobulin.
b. H-2 D, K, and L.
c. H-2 IA and IE
d. HLA-A. -B, and -C.
e. HLA-DR, -DP, and -DQ.
3. Cells which have MHC Class II are _________________, which present _____________
antigen to Th cells.
4. Signaling to a cytotoxic T cell that a liver cell is infected with hepatitis virus depends on
6. Following virus infection, peptides produced from the proteasome are more likely to be
presented on the surface of the target cell because
a. HLA DM promotes the release of CLIP and peptide binding to Class II MHC.
b. invariant chain binds to Class II MHC a and b chains.
c. peptides are transported into the ER for binding to Class II.
d. proteins are broken down into peptides by proteasomes.
e. some pathogens live protected from lysosomal enzymes.
10. In order to have pathogen peptide plus Class II MHC molecules expressed on the
membrane of host cells, all of the following are required EXCEPT
a. b2-microglobulin.
b. CLIP.
c. HLA-DM.
d. HLA-DR, -DP, and -DQ alpha chains.
e. Ii .
18. All of the following are associated with the expression of Class I MHC molecules
EXCEPT
a. a random set of MHC Class I, Class II, and Class III genes.
b. enough diversity in MHC to present epitopes from most pathogens.
c. enough diversity in MHC to present every possible antigen epitope.
d. genes for a and b chains that can be recombined to increase their diversity.
e. the same Class I and Class II MHC genes as their siblings.
a. A peptide binding to Class I must have certain amino- and carboxyl-terminal amino acids
to bind tightly to the ends of the Class I binding cleft.
b. A transplant is most likely to be successful between people who share the same alleles at
all Class I and Class II MHC loci.
c. Identical twins share all their Class I and Class II MHC alleles.
d. Peptide binding to TCR is influenced by both its own conformation and the conformation
of the MHC protein to which it is bound.
e. The gene for b2-microglobulin is in the Class I region of the MHC.
part-10
1. An antigen binding signal at the membrane results in the mature B lymphocyte changing
its
a. antigen-binding specificity.
b. color.
c. Ig V-D-J gene rearrangement.
d. gene expression.
e. signal transduction molecules.
a. a B cell to a T cell.
b. a binding signal to a chemical signal.
c. a hapten to an antigen.
d. IgA to secretory IgA.
e. a kinase to a phosphatase.
3. A ligand is
a. a cytokine.
b. a molecule that specifically binds a receptor.
c. an antigen.
d. an enzyme.
e. all of the above are ligands.
4. A tyrosine kinase which is activated by antigen binding is found in the __________ of the
BCr or TCR complex.
a. cytoplasmic domain
b. extracellular domain.
c. Ig superfamily domain.
d. transmembrane domain.
e. variable domain.
a. BCR.
b. MHC
c. MHC + peptide.
d. peptide.
e. TCR ligand.
a. apoptosis.
b. cancer.
c. ITIMs.
d. TCR and BCR signal transduction.
e. viruses.
7. Antigen binding to B cells is most effective at sending an activation signal to the B cell if it
causes
a. co-receptor.
b. ITAM.
c. kinase.
d. phosphatase.
e. receptor.
a. CD1.
b. CD3.
c. CD4.
d. CD8.
e. CD22.
a. antigen.
b. calcium.
c. Class I MHC.
d. phosphate.
e. sodium.
13. DAG and IP3 are released from PIP2 by the action of
a. adaptor protein.
b. phospholipase C (PLC).
c. protein kinase C (PKC).
d. small G protein.
e. TdT.
14. Small G proteins (like Ras) convert GTP to GDP by their ___________ activity.
a. GEF.
b. kinase.
c. phosphatase.
d. polymerase.
e. protease.
a. case where the enzyme catalyzes its own inactivation, like small G proteins.
b. pair of enzymatic reactions that have opposite effects, like kinases and phosphatases.
c. series of enzymatic reactions that result in cancer.
d. series of enzymatic reactions where the product of one reaction catalyzes the next reaction.
e. small waterfall.
17. Signal transduction complex associates with TCR in the membrane through
a. agonist peptides.
b. covalent bonds.
c. enzyme cascades.
d. reverse phosphorylation.
e. salt bridges.
19. The immune system of a person who had a mutation in CD3 could NOT fight a viral
hepatitis A infection by
a. blocking Hepatitis A virus from infecting liver cells with neutralizing IgG antibodies.
b. generating cytotoxic T cells to lyse infected liver cells
c. lysing virus-infected cells with NK cells.
d. phagocytosing complement-opsonized Hepatitis A virus.
e. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
20. Amino acid sequences in lymphocyte signal transduction complexes which are
phosphorylated following antigen binding are called
a. ITAMs.
b. ITIMs.
c. MAPs.
d. PTKs.
e. syks.
21. An immune deficiency resulting from a defective PTK in the activation cascade in B cells
would probably be characterized by
23. The anti-rejection drugs cyclosporin A and FK506 block rejection of transplanted organs
by interfering with
a. the antibodies.
b. complement.
c. cytotoxic T cells.
d. cells with Fc receptors for IgG3.
e. cells with Fc receptors for IgE.
26. When IgE on mast cell FceR is cross-linked by, antigen, the mast cell responds by
a. apoptosis.
b. presenting the antigen to Th cells.
c. secreting IgE.
d. secreting histamine and other allergic mediators.
e. stimulating macrophage and neutrophil phagocytosis of the coated antigen.
27. Homeostasis is
a. cytosolic proteins.
b. involved in cytokine signaling.
c. JAK kinases.
d. signal transducers.
e. transcription activators.
a. bcl-2 receptor.
b. death receptor.
c. Fas.
d. Fas ligand.
e. STAT ligand.
30. The most important receptor through which lymphocytes receive life and death signals is
a. antigen receptor.
b. bcl-2 receptor.
c. Fas receptor.
d. FcR.
e. growth factor receptor