I.E.

S- (OBJ) 2008 1 of 11

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

PART-A
SYNONYMS ANTONYMS

Directions (For the 9 items which follow): Directions (For the 7 items which follow):

Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of Each of the following seven items consists of a word in capital
words in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word
words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital
meaning to the word or group of words in capital letters. letters.

1. BEAVER AWAY 10. SALACIOUS

a. To waste away a. Decent
b. To sleep for long hours b. Satisfying
c. To work hard c. Preciptious
d. To steal something d. Fortifying
2. BADGER 11. SEDULOUS
a. To ricochet a. Lack of emotions
b. To err b. Lack of steady effort
c. To apologize c. Affluent
d. To pester persistently d. Modest
3. SWISH 12. SWINGEINE
a. False a. Dull
b. Fashionable b. Meagre
c. Annulment c. Disrepute
d. Rapid d. Proportionate
4. SURREPTITIOUS 13. TEDIUM
a. To be impatient a. Appreciation
b. Susceptible b. Fixation
c. Supportive c. Neutrability
d. To act stealthily d. Liveliness
5. SURROGATE 14. TENDENTIOUS
a. Surpassable a. Impartial
b. Substitute b. Calm
c. Surfeit c. Supplementary
d. Surveillant d. Super-duper
6. UP-THE CREEK 15. TEMERITY
a. To get lot of money a. Humourous
b. In dire difficulties b. Hybrid
c. To be very successful c. Humility
d. To achieve one’s aim by deceit d. Humiliation
7. CAVEAT 16. CAPRICE
a. Award a. Excuse
b. Controversy b. Steady behaviour
c. Warning c. Accusation
d. Graphic d. Exhortation
8. NIP AND TUCK
a. Close competition Directions (For the 5 items which follow):
b. Heavy rain
c. Fierce attack In each of the following five items, a related pair of words (in
d. Mixture capital letters) is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair
that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the
9. COMEUPPANCE original pair (in capital letters).
a. Sudden arrival
b. Parity 17. CALLOW : MATURITY
c. Paradox a. Eager : Anxiety
d. Retribution b. Incipient : Fruition
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c. Apathetic : Disinterest (b)
d. Exposure : Weathering I told her the news
18. DAMPEN : ENTHUSIASM (c)
a. Moisten : Throat No error
b. Test : Commitment (d)
c. Reverse: Direction 24. Acting from inside information
d. Mute : Sound (a)
19. RUFFLE : COMPOSURE the police were able to arrest the gang
a. Flourish : Prosperity (b)
b. Adjust : Balance before the robbery occurred
c. Upset : Equilibrium (c)
d. Chaff : Wheat No error
20. LATENT : MANIFESTATION (d)
a. Dormant : Awakening 25. Amit did not have a girl-friend
b. Patent : Appearance (a)
c. Redoubtable : Impress till he was 21, but now
d. Aggrieved : Distress (b)
21. CELERITY : SNAIL he is making up at the lost time
a. Indolence : Sloth (c)
b. Humility : Peacock No error
c. Nervous : Energy (d)
d. Emulation : Rivalry 26. She wanted to be an actress
(a)
SPOTTING ERRORS but her father soon
Directions (For the 6 items which follow) : (b)
nipped that idea in the bud
(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The (c)
sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one
is labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out No error
whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence (d)
has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of 27. Captain’s language was uncompromising
the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on (a)
the separate Answer Sheet at the approximate space. You may
feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d)
he told junior officers their work
will signify a ‘No error’ response. (b)
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your must improve or they would be fired
Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your (c)
answer will be considered wrong) Errors may be in grammar, No error
word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there
may be a word which should be removed. (d)
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required
only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet. ORDERING OF SENTENCES
Example ‘P’ and ‘Q’ have been solved you for.
(EXAMPLES)
P. The young child singed
Directions (For the 10 items which follow):
(a) (b)
A very sweet song. No error In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The
(c) (d) first sentence (S1) and final sentence (S6) are given in the
Explanation: beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed
In item P, the word ‘signed’ in wrong. The letter under this part is and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required
(b); se (b) is the correct answer. Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the to find out the correct sequence of the four sentences and mark
correct answer, as the sentence does not certain any error. accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

22. There were gapes of horror Example ‘X’ has been solved for you.
(a)
form the spectators as (EXAMPLE)
X. S1 : There was a boy named Jack
(b) S6 : At least she turned him out of the house
the performer fell from the tightrope P: So the mother asked him to find work
(c) Q: They were very poor
No error R: he lived with his mother
(d) S: But Jack refused to work
23. She gazed at me
(a) Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
in misbelief when (a) R–Q–P-S
(b) P–Q–R-S
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(c) Q–P–R-S S6: We are the inheritors of a great
(d) R–P–S-Q world heritage.
P: They try to find out whatever is of value in
Explanation: The correct sequence in this example is R-Q-P- them.
S, which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct
Q: You will find that other religions are
answer.
studies with sympathy and respect by those
who do not adhere to them
28. S1 : The first aeroplanes were fragile and
R: All that has changed today.
clumsy.
S: The classics of the whole world form the
S6 : In those days people considered flight in
classics of every human being.
an aeroplane to be a miracle
Which one of the following is the correct
P : When they took off they would not fly
sequence?
very high
a. P – S – R – Q
Q : They also broke down frequently
b. R – Q – P – S
R: It was difficult for them to take off
c. P – Q – R – S
S : They flew slowly and only in the
d. R – S – P – Q
vicinity of the airfield
32. S1: Javert was a strong, upright and just man.
Which one of the following is the correct
S6: So he took the only way out for him-he
sequence?
killed himself.
a. R – P – S – Q
P: But now his life was turned upside down.
b. S – Q – R – P
Q: It was his safe world of rules.
c. R – Q – S – P
R: He would help no one, and he helped no
d. S – P – R – Q
one.
29. S1 : Lions usually live in a family parties
S: He did not want favours from a thief.
called ‘prides’.
Which one of the following is the correct
S6 : They actack man only when they are
sequence?
wounded or otherwise aroused.
a. Q – P –S – R
P : Wild lions are not normally a menance
b. S – R –Q – P
to man.
c. Q – R –S – P
Q : A pride is commonly made up of a lion,
d. S – P – Q – R
two lionesses and cubs.
33. S1: Nowadays we pay a great deal of attention
R : Sometimes pigs and other animals are
to pure air, open windows and garden cities.
also killed by them.
S6: Pasteurised milk is milk which has been
S : They usually prey on zebras and
treated in this way.
antelopes.
P: Another useful discovery of Pasteur’s was
Which one of the following is the correct
the process, now called, pasteurization.
sequence?
Q: Pasteur was one of the first to show how
a. P – S – R – Q
necessary all these are if we are to fight
b. Q – R – S - P
against germs and disease.
c. P – R – S – Q
R: Pasteur helped them by showing that by
d. Q – S – R – P
heating win or milk to a temperature of 60
30. S1 : Not long age television was a rarity.
degree Centrigrade, the germs were made
S6: Only a few people understand the
harmless.
technology behind it.
S: Some wine-growers were troubled by a
P: It has become a means of entertainment and
germ which has turned their win sour.
information.
Which one of the following is the correct
Q: Yet nowadays there is one in virtually
sequence?
every home.
a. R – S –P – Q
R: But most of us do not know much about
b. Q– P – S – R
how an image appears on the television screen
c. R – P – S – Q
S: We have grown used to it.
d. Q– S – P – R
Which one of the following is the correct
34. S1: Scientist have found that any train running
sequence?
on wheels cannot go faster than 300 kilometres
a. P – R – Q – S
an hour.
b. Q – S – P – R
S6: Japanese engineers are, therefore, planning
c. P – S– Q – R
another kind of train, a magnetic train without,
d. Q – R – P – S
wheels, which would also float above the
31. S1: I have know in my own life, in my own
ground.
experience, people who were hating one
another on account of their religious views.
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P: One way of building such trains has already Q: This work could be termed as
been tried out socially productive labour.
Q: If we want trains which can go still faster R: It consists of cooking, washing, cleaning,
we must build them without wheels. fetching fuel and water etc.
R: But it would not be possible to run them on S: This work is crucial to the survival of
the Tokaido line because in same tunnels there society.
would not be enough air to support them Which one of the following is the correct
S: Here, the whole train floats above the sequence?
ground on top of a cushion of air created by a. P–Q–R–S
powerful fans. b. R–S–P–Q
Which one of the following is the correct c. P–S–R–Q
sequence? d. R–Q–P–S
a. Q–P–S–R
b. S–R–Q–P ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
c. Q–R–S–P Direction (For the 10 items which follow)
d. S–P–Q–R In the following item, some parts of the sentence have been
jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are
35. S1: Newspapers are the cheapest medium of labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sequence. Choose the
information today. proper sequence and marks in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
S6: Consequently, 50 percent of our population Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.
is denied across to information vital for the
(EXAMPLE)
functionaries of a democracy. Z. It is well-known that
P: If you cannot buy a paper, you can go to a the effect it very bad
public library. P Q
Q: And yet newspapers do not reach nearly on children of cinema
fifty percent of our population. R S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
R: They are also easily available to everybody (a) P–S–R–Q
S: It is because people are illiterate. (b) S-P-Q-R
Which one of the following is the correct (c) S-R-P-Q
sequence? (d) Q-S-R-P
Explanation:
a. R–S–Q–P The proper way of writing the sentence is “It is well-known that
b. Q–P–R–S the effect of cinema on children is very bad.” This is indicated by
c. R–P–Q–S the sequence P-S-R-Q and so (a) is the correct answer.
d. Q–S–R–P
36. S1: Social isolation, overcrowding, the 38. Life comes
competitiveness of our society and several Awed by all the things that their words can do
other factors are responsible for stress. with computer and gadgets
S6: Yet some other get totally depressed and P
often much worried. who can get anything done by clinking a few
P: In England we refer to competition in buttons
society as the ‘rat-race’. Q
Q: All of us react to that rat-race in different a full circle when some technologically
ways. challenged mothers
R: But some of us get very much tried and R
bored every easily. begin to believe that their child is a super-kid
S: The pressures on all of us are very great in the digital world
because speed and competition have become S
part of everyday life. Which one of the following is the correct
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
sequence? a. R–P–Q–S
a. R–P–Q–S b. P–R–Q–S
b. S–Q–P–R c. R–P–S–Q
c. R–Q–P–S d. P–R–S–Q
d. S–P–Q–R 39. Unaware
37. S1: It is true that a few women have Reading other periodicals and publication
opportunities to work outside the home. P
S6: If women stop doing this work there would ourselves with merely
be havoc in the public life. Q
P: Women do much work all the time within of the need to build
the house. R
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the intellect we tend to entertain in which Indian Cricket administration
S should definitely
Which one of the following is the correct Q
sequence? denying the benefits of Indian corporate
a. Q–P–R–S sponsorship
b. R–S–Q–P R
c. Q–S–R–P use its financial clout is in
d. R–P–Q–S S
40. Loss of employment Which one of the following is the correct
in a country like India where sequence?
P a. R–P–Q–S
is no social security net to fall back on b. Q–S–R–P
Q c. R–S–Q–P
most people are still poor and there d. Q–P–R–S
R 44. While improvements
or livelihood can be really injurious have definitely helped climbers now carry
S lighter oxygen bottles
Which one of the following is the correct P
sequence? in technology over the years
a. S–R–P–Q Q
b. Q–P–R–S made of titanium and get regular weather
c. Q–R–P–S updates
d. S–P–R–Q R
41. Many people through satellite phones the route to Mt.
organized their energies around a goal Everest remains treacherous as ever
P S
but simply because they have never Which one of the following is the correct
Q sequence?
or brains or even courage a. Q–P–R–S
R b. S–R–P–Q
fail in life not for lack of ability c. Q–R–P–S
S d. S–P–R–Q
Which one of the following is the correct 45. Life
sequence? the number of breaths you take
a. P–Q–R–S P
b. S–R–Q–P that take your breath away
c. P–R–Q–P Q
d. S–Q–R–P is not measured by
42. Being R
to a viewing point a higher more expansive but by the moments
place S
P Which one of the following is the correct
to move from a point of view sequence?
Q a. Q–P–S–R
willing to change allows you b. R–S–P–Q
R c. Q–S–P–R
from which you can seen both sides d. R–P–S–Q
S 46. The greatest
Which one of the following is the correct miss it but that it is too
sequence? P
a. R–Q–P–S danger for most of us
b. Q–R–P–S Q
c. Q–R–S–P is not that our aim is too high and we
d. R–Q–S–P R
43. Yet one area low and we reach it
to players who have violated the spirit of the S
game Which one of the following is the correct
P sequence?
a. Q–S–P–R

b. P–R–Q–S
c. Q–R–P–S
d. P–S–Q–R
47. The fundamental
but an institutional framework that lays down
P claim that it is the richest people that benefit by inflation: while the
and cannot be trampled on by the ruling
government
Q benefited by inflation, while the upper classes lose. The confusion
the rights of the people and rules of political
engagement
R essentially an economic problem at all. Konard Kellen holds that
mark of a democracy is not elections
S Samuelson cites a social factor, the evaluation of a more humane
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. S–P–Q–R
b. P–S–R–Q
c. P–S–Q–R
d. S–P–R–Q
COMPREHENSION
Directions (For the 13 items which follow):
In this section, you have three short passages. After each passage,
you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read
and passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are
required to select your answers based on the contents of the
passage and opinion of the author only.
Example ‘T’ and ‘J” are solved for you
PASSAGE (EXAMPLE)
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact
that confronts us squarely and unmistakable is the desire for peace,
security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of
existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And,
no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human
beings or to the lower groups and as animals, all beings primarily
seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature
as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection
against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to
live and not to die, so do all other creature.
I. The author’s remains point is that
(a) different forms of life are found on earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living
beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life
J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is
essential in developing the author’s position?
(a) All forms of life have a single over-riding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a
desire of peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and
pain and death.
Explanation:
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is
“peace and security are the chief goals of all living
being”, which is response (c). So (c) is the correct
answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage in “The will
to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for
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peace”, which is response (b). So (b) is the
correct answer.
PASSAGE I
J.K Galbraith has described the current inflation as a “revolt of the
rich against the poor”. Richard Parker supports this view with the
rest, especially the poorest, suffer in proportion to their relative
property. On the other hand, a 1979 study published by the
Brookings Institute indicates that the lower classes are generally
over who suffers from inflation is extended to other questions such
as the major causes of inflation. In addition to the proponents of the
demand theory, there are many who doubt whether inflation is
inflation is not an economic problem but a psychological one. Paul
society, as a root cause of inflation.
48. What does the author believe?
a. Only the rich suffer from inflation
b. Only the poor suffer from inflation
c. Both the rich and the poor suffer from
inflation
d. It is debatable as to who suffers from
inflation
49. From the passage, which one of the following
may be inferred?
a. The effect of inflation can be studied with
scientific precision
b. The effect of inflation cannot be studied
with scientific precision
c. Economists are biased towards the rich or
the poor
d. The effect of inflation varies from place to
place, and people to people
50. On the basis of the information given in the
passage, what are the causes of inflation?
a. Essentially economic
b. Essentially psychological
c. Essentially social
d. Highly controversial
51. How des the author write?
a. Objectively
b. Critically
c. Sympathetically
d. Persuasively
PASSAGE II
Work itself is a very important factor in motivating a person. A
person tends to perform a task more enthusiastically if that work
affords more satisfaction than the other work. A person’s
satisfaction out of work is more is it is more need satisfying. A
man seeks something from work and if he gets more satisfaction
from a particular work he will be prone to do that work better or
harder. There are incentives for work; these can be financial or
non-financial. People like missionaries and some scientists do not
work basically for material gains as such. A person wants to do a
work which is personally meaningful.
52. Which one of the following is correct?
a. Work is the most important factor by
which a person is motivated.

b. Work is the least important factor that
motivates a person
c. Among the several factors that motivate a
person, work is an important one.
d. Nothing can motivate a person who does
not have some permanent work.
53. Which one of the following is correct?
A person’s work satisfaction depends on
a. the money and other benefits he receives
from work
b. the need satisfying nature of the work he
does
c. the physical environment in which he
works
d. the personal relationship he establishes
with his colleagues and superiors
54. Which one of the following is correct?
If, a person get more satisfaction from a
particular work, he will
a. stick on the that work for every
b. certainly achieve mastery over that work
soon
c. slowly develop a taste for that work
d. do that work in a better and harder manure
55. Which one of the following is correct?
Both the scientists and the missionaries work
a. because of the incentives given to them
b. without hopping for any material gain
c. without receiving any material gain
d. because they want to be appreciated
56. Which one of the following is correct?
Every person wants to have a work which
a. helps him to get involved meaningfully
b. helps him to earn substantially
c. is pleasant and easy
d. can be finished quickly
PASSAGE III
In our country there is very little popular writing on science. Those
who write are writing for other scientists. The newspapers these
days devote a little more space then before for scientific topics but
they appear to be rather ill-digested knowledge not written in
simple readable language. So if we are to bridge this gap and
disseminate scientific knowledge and promote scientific temper, it
has become necessary for some of the scientists to turn to
popularization. Today we have almost compulsion for doing this if
we are to convey to the people the meaning and relevance of the
pursuit of science. It is time same scientists enters the field of
scientific journalism.
57. What does the passage suggest?
a. The author is fully satisfied with the role
of newspapers in promoting popular
writing on science.
b. The author is totally dissatisfied with the
role of newspapers in promoting popular
writing on science.
c. The author appreciates the readiness of
newspapers to allow more space than
before to writings on science.
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d. The author condemns the attitude
displayed by newspapers in the matter of
promoting popular writing on science.
58. Which one of the following is correct?
Popular writing on science in our country
appears to be
a. not properly digested and easily
comprehensible
b. extremely restricted in outlook
c. very lucid, intelligible and self explanatory
d. based on obsolete knowledge of the topics
chosen
59. Which one of the following is correct?
The propose of promoting popular scientific
writing in newspapers is
a. to attract more people to the study of
science
b. to spread scientific knowledge and
encourage scientific temper among the
common people
c. to give the people information about
modern scientific inventions
d. to help the newspapers to increase their
circulation among the students of science
60. The author wants some of the scientists “to
turn to popularization”. What does that imply?
a. The scientists should go round and country
and explain to the people the various
achievements of science
b. The scientists should make use of the
television and radio to spread the message
of science among the common people
c. The scientists should write in newspapers
about the various aspects of science in
easily understandable language.
d. The scientists should seek the help of
social organizations to spread scientific
knowledge among the common people.
PART-B
61. The deficiency of which one of the following
leads to anemia?
a. Ascorbic acid
b. Citirc acid
c. Folic acid
d. Nicotinic acid
62. The highly fatal disease of Rabies is caused by
which one of the following?
a. Virus
b. Bacteria
c. Protozoan
d. Nematode worm
63. How in jasmine plant propagated?
a. Grafting
b. Layering
c. Root cutting
d. Stem cutting
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64. Which chamber of the heart has the thickest a. Ministry of Planning
muscular walls? b. Ministry of Human Resource
a. Right atrium Development
b. Left atrium c. Ministry of Home Affairs
c. Right ventricle d. Ministry of Statistics and Programme
d. Left ventricle Implementation
65. Among the following fruits, which one is not a 74. In terms of both quantity and value, which one
true fruit? of the following countries is the largest cutting
a. Apple and polishing centre of diamonds in the world?
b. Date a. Belgium
c. Coconut b. France
d. Tomato c. India
66. In human body, while one of the following d. South Africa
glands is located in the neck? 75. Regarding the procurement of wheat for
a. Adrenal central pool, which one of the following States
b. Hypothalamus has the highest share of contribution?
c. Pituitary a. Haryana
d. Thyroid b. Madhya Pradesh
67. In human body, which one among the c. Punjab
following secretes digestive enzyme? d. Uttar Pradesh
a. Large institute 76. So far how many times has the countrywide
b. Liver “Economic Census” been done in India?
c. Pancreas a. Thrice
d. Spleen b. Five times
68. Which one among the following is a warm c. Seven times
blooded animal? d. Nine times
a. Anaconda 77. Which among the following was the capital of
b. Crocodile Shivaji?
c. Shark a. Singhagarh
d. Whale b. Raigarh
69. Which one among the following is an ape c. Panhala
naturally found in India? d. Poona
a. Chimpanzee 78. Who among the following arrived in the court
b. Hoolak Gibbon of Jehangir as an official ambassador of King
c. Gorilla of England?
d. Orangutan a. William Hawkins
70. Which one among the following plants b. Sir Thomas Roe
produces seeds without producing flower? c. Sir Edward Terry
a. Cashew nut d. Bernier
b. Date Palm 79. Which Mughal Emperor granted the Dewani
c. Pinus of Bengal to the British East India Company in
d. Toddy the year 1765?
71. The stem of which one of the following plants a. Jehangir
is usually underground? b. Shahjahan
a. Banana c. Aurangzeb
b. Sweet potato d. Shah Alam-II
c. Topioca 80. Who of the following was the representative of
d. Water melon Indian National Congress in the Second Round
72. In the context of Wholesale Prize Index (WPI) Table Conference, held in London?
in India, under the Primary Articles’ group, a. Madan Mohan Malviya
what is the approximate weight of ‘Food b. C. Rajagopalachari
Article’ in WPI? c. Mahatma Gandhi
a. 12 d. Vallabhbhai Patel
b. 15 81. Where did Lala Hardayal and Sohan Singh
c. 18 Bhakna form the Gadar Party in 1913?
d. 21 a. Paris
73. Which one of the following is responsible for b. San Francisco
bringing out the report on National and Per c. Tokyo
Capita Income in India? d. London
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82. Prior to Independence, the elections to the or till they attain the age of 65
Constituent Assembly were held under which years, whichever is earlier.
one of the following? Which of the statements given above is/are
a. Mountbatten Plan correct?
b. Cabinet Mission a. 1 only
c. Cripps Proposals b. 2 only
d. Wavell Plan c. Both 1 and 2
83. Who among the following introduced cashew d. Neither 1 nor 2
nut, pineapple and tobacco into India? 90. According to the provisions of the
a. Dutch Constitution of India, who inquires into all
b. English doubts and decides disputes arising out of or in
c. French connection with the election of Vice-President
d. Portuguese of India?
84. When All India Trade Union Congress was a. The President of India
founded in 1920, who of the following was b. The Supreme Court of India
elected its president? c. The Election Commission of India
a. C.R. Das d. The Attorney General of India
b. Lala Pajpat Rai 91. Who among the following tribes live in the
c. N.M. Joshi Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar
d. V.V. Giri Islands?
85. Which one of the following was the occasion a. Apatani
on which Jawaharlal Nehru stepped forward, b. Jarawa
as an important national leader? c. Munda
a. Agitation against Rowlatt Act d. Santhal
b. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement 92. Match List I with List II and select the correct
c. Formation of Swaraj Party answer using the code given below the lists:
d. Agitation against the arrival of Simon List I
Commission (Book)
86. At the time of Tripuri Congress Session in A. Crime and Punishment
1939 in which Subhash Bose has defeated B. Farewell to Arms
Sitaramayya, who among the following had C. The Rights of Man
withdrawn his candidature from D. Unto The Last
Presidentship? List II
a. Abdul Kalam Azad (Author)
b. Jawaharlal Nehru 1. Ernest Hemingway
c. Jayaprakash Narayan 2. Feodor Dostoyevsky
d. Vallabhbhai Patel 3. John Ruskin
87. Which one of the following was not a 4. Thomas Paine
programme of the Non-Cooperation cell given Code:
in 1920? A B C D
a. Boycott of titles a. 2 3 4 1
b. Boycott of Civil Services b. 4 1 2 3
c. Boycott of English education c. 4 3 2 1
d. Boycott of police and army d. 3 1 4 3
88. In which year was Mahatma Gandhi’s famous 93. In India, when both, the offices of the
work Hind Swaraj written? President and the Vice-President happen to be
a. 1907 vacant simultaneously, who will discharge the
b. 1909 duties of the President?
c. 1914 a. The Prime Minister
d. 1934 b. The Union Home Minister
89. Consider the following statements with c. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
reference to Union Government: d. The Chief Justice of India
1. The tenure of Chairman/Members of Staff 94. For the review of which of the following was a
Selection Commission is for five years or Commission under the chairmanship of Justice
still they attain the age of 62 years, M.N. Venkatachaliah constituted by Union
whichever is earlier. Government?
2. The tenure of Chairman/Member of Union a. Industrial sickness
Public Service Commission is for six years b. River water disputes
c. The Constitution of India
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d. Centre-State relations d. 3 4 1 2
95. In which one of the following countries did the 102. Where is the Port of East London located?
Industrial Revolution first take place? a. England
a. USA b. Ireland
b. UK c. East coast of USA
c. Germany d. South Africa
d. France 103. Which one of the following pairs is not
96. Who of the following is the author of the correctly matched?
famous book ‘Das Kapital’? a. Northern Rhodesia : Namibia
a. Adam Smith b. Gold Coast : Ghana
b. Karl Marx c. Dutch Guyana : Suriname
c. Rousseau d. Dutch East Indies : Indonesia
d. Voltaire 104. Khmer Rouge atrocities pertained to which
97. Which one of the following is the correct one among the following?
statement? a. South Africa
In the Parliament of India, a money bill can be b. Iraq
introduced only with the recommendation of c. Libya
a. the President of India d. Cambodia
b. the Prime Minister of India 105. Recently, the President of India conferred the
c. the Speaker of Lok Sabha India Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament
d. the Union Finance Minister and Development for 2006 on whom among
98. Which one of the following is a place of the following?
famous Hindu pilgrimage as well as a site of a. Kim Dae Jung
important hydroelectric power project? b. Mohamed El Baradei
a. Devaprayag c. Shirin Ebadi
b. Guntur d. Wangari Muta Maathai
c. Nasik-Triambakeshwar 106. In the year 2007, which one of the following
d. Omkareshwar pairs of countries launched spacecrafts to carry
99. State which one of the following groups of out research on the Moon?
oceanic water currents meet near a. Australia and Canada
‘Newfoundland Island’ of Canada? b. China and Japan
a. Gulf Stream and Labrador c. France and Germany
b. Kuroshio and Kurile d. Russia and South Korea
c. Agulhas and Mozambique 107. In December, 2007, which one of the
d. Brazilian and Falkland following countries launched in interceptor
100. How many Indian States border Myanmar? missile called AAD-02 to intercept a ballistic
a. Three missile?
b. Four a. Iran
c. Five b. North Korea
d. Six c. India
101. Match List I with List Ii and select the correct d. Pakistan
answer using the code given below the lists: 108. Recently, who of the following writers in
List I English, has been awarded the Sahitya
(Name of the River) Akademi Fellowship?
A. Godavari a. Amitav Ghosh
B. Krishna b. Anita Desai
C. Tapti c. Jhumpa Lahiri
D. Cauvery d. Shashi Tharoor
List II 109. In the context of Indian Defence, what is
(Tributary Joining) Admiral Gorshkov, frequently in the news?
1. Parna a. Stealth worship
2. Hemavati b. Nuclear powered submarine
3. Pranhita c. Aircraft carrier
4. Koyana d. Marine oil drilling platform
Code: 110. Hugo Chavez, who is frequently in the news,
A B C D is a President of which one of the following
a. 1 4 3 2 countries?
b. 3 2 1 4 a. Argentina
c. 1 2 3 4 b. Brazil
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c. Cuba
d. Venezuela
111. What is the Defence outlay (approximate) in 116. The well-known sportsman Liu Xiang has
India for the year 2008-09? excelled in which event?
a. Rs. 65,000 crores a. Table Tennis
b. Rs. 85,000 crores b. Weightlifting
c. Rs. 95,000 crores c. Hurdles race
d. Rs. 1,05,000 crores d. Swimming
112. What is a major use of allethrin? 117. Which one of the following subjects is mainly
a. In household insecticides dealt with by Montreal Protocol?
b. In glass manufacture a. Undersea cable network
c. In steel manufacture b. International cooperation against terrorism
d. In paints and varnishes c. Depletion of Ozone layer
113. Which one of the following is not correctly d. Exploration of outer space
match (approximately)? 118. From which year does the 11th Five Year Plan
a. 4 Imperial gallons = 18.18 litres start?
b. 4 pounds = 1.81 kilograms a. 2005
c. 30 pounds per sq. in. = 2.07 kg per sq. cm. b. 2006
d. 5 hectares = 18.35 acres c. 2007
114. Big Mac Index is employed in the d. 2008
determination of which one of the following? 119. In the context of India’s defence, what is C-
a. Infrastructure development 130 J Hercules?
b. Purchasing power parity a. A supersonic fighter jet
c. Defence budget per capita b. A troop transport aircraft
d. Crop yield c. An unmanned patrol aircraft
115. What does the term ‘Pyrrhic Victory’ imply? d. A multi-purpose amphibious vehicle
a. A victory in a war wherein Air Force has 120. Who among the following is a blanker?
played a major role a. Samir Jain
b. A victory achieved at a great cost to the b. Raghav Bahl
winner c. K.V. Kamath
c. A victory of a political party wherein d. G.M. Rao
members of the opposition party have
betrayed their own members
d. A victory achieved in games as a result of
match-fixing