Reflection of Light - Multiple Choice Test

Question 1
Question: Light is a form of energy produced by a ______.
1.
luminous object
2.
transparent object
3.
non-luminous object
4.
opaque object
1.luminous object2.transparent object3.non-luminous object4.opaque object
Answer: 1
Question 2
Question: An example for non-luminous object is ___________.
1.
a candle
2.
the sun
3.
an electric bulb
4.
the moon
Answer: 4
Question 3
Question: The phenomenon by which the incident light falling on a surface is sent back into
the same medium is known as ________.
1.
polarization
2.
reflection
3.
refraction
4.
absorption
Answer: 2
Question 4
Question: When light is incident on a polished surface ___________ reflection takes place.
1.
regular
2.
irregular
3.
diffused
4.
normal
Answer: 1
Question 5
Question: An object becomes invisible when it undergoes ______ reflection.
1.
regular
2.
irregular
3.
diffused
4.
normal
Answer: 1
Question 6
Question: According to the laws of reflection,
1.
i= r
2.
i> r

3.
r> i
4.
Answer: 1
Question 7
Question: The image formed by a plane mirror is always _______.
1.
real and erect
2.
virtual and erect
3.
real and inverted
4.
virtual and inverted
Answer: 2
Question 8
Question: The centre of the sphere of which the spherical mirror forms a part is called
____________.
1.
centre of curvature
2.
focus
3.
pole
4.
vertex
Answer: 1
Question 9
Question: The focus of a concave mirror is ________.
1.
real
2.
virtual
3.
undefined
4.
at the pole
Answer: 2
Question 10
Question: A converging mirror is known as ________.
1.
convex mirror
2.
plane mirror
3.
concave mirror
4.
cylindrical mirror
Answer: 3
Question 11
Question: The relation between the focal length and radius of curvature of a mirror is
_______.
1.
2.
3.
4.

Answer:

R+2=f
f = R/2
f=2R

Question 12
Question: Radius of curvature of a concave mirror is always _____ to the mirror.
1.
parallel
2.
perpendicular
3.
inclined at 60o
4.
inclined at 45o
Answer: 2
Question 13
Question: An image formed by a convex mirror is always ________.
1.
virtual, erect and diminished
2.
virtual, real and magnified
3.
real, inverted and diminished
4.
real, erect and magnified
Answer: 1
Question 14
Question: If the image formed by a concave mirror is virtual, erect and magnified, then the
object is placed __________.
1. between the pole of the mirror and the focus
2. beyond the centre of curvature
3. at the centre of curvature
4. at the focus
Answer: 1
Question 15
Question: Dentists use a _____________ to focus light on the tooth of a patient.
1.
concave mirror
2.
convex mirror
3.
plane mirror
4.
cylindrical mirror
Answer: 1
Question 16
Question: An object is placed 1.5 m from a plane mirror. How far is the image from the
person?
1.
3m
2.
1.5 m
3.
2m
4.
1m
Answer: 1
Question 17
Question: An object placed 2m from a plane mirror is shifted by 0.5 m away from the
mirror. What is the distance between the object and its image?
1.
2m
2.
1.5 m
3.
5m

4.
3m
Answer: 3
Question 18
Question: What is the value of q in the following diagram?

1.
30o
2.
45o
3.
90o
4.
60o
Answer: 4
Question 19
Question: What is the angle between the incident and reflected rays when a ray of light is
incident normally on a plane mirror?
1.
90o
2.
45o
3.
180o
4.
0
Answer: 4
Question 20
Question: Name the type of image that can be obtained on a screen.
1.
Virtual
2.
Real
3.
Diverging
4.
Converging
Answer: 2
Question 21
Question: A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror and the angle of incidence is 25o.
What is the angle of reflection?
1.
0
2.
50o
3.
90o
4.
25o
Answer: 4

Question 22
Question: A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror and the angle of reflection is 50o.
Calculate the angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray.
1.
50o
2.
25o
3.
90o
4.
100o
Answer: 4
Question 23
Question: Which of the following is used to make a periscope?
1.
Concave mirror
2.
Convex mirror
3.
Plane mirror
4.
Lens
Answer: 3
Question 24
Question: Which mirror has a wider field of view?
1.
Convex mirror
2.
Concave mirror
3.
Plane mirror
4.
Cylindrical mirror
Answer: 1
Question 25
Question: The focal length of a concave mirror is 15 cm. What is its radius of curvature?
1.
15 cm
2.
30 cm
3.
7.5 cm
4.
45 cm
Answer: 2
Question 26
Question: The focal length of a mirror is 15 cm. Identify the type of mirror.
1.
Concave mirror
2.
Plane mirror
3.
Convex mirror
4.
Cylindrical mirror
Answer: 3
Question 27
Question: A ray of light passing through the _______ retraces its path.
1.
focus
2.
centre of curvature
3.
pole
4.
vertex

Answer: 2
Question 28
Question: When an object is placed at the focus of a concave mirror, the image will be
formed at ________.
1.
infinity
2.
focus
3.
centre of curvature
4.
pole
Answer: 1
Question 29
Question: Butter paper is an example for _______ object.
1.
a transparent
2.
a translucent
3.
an opaque
4.
a luminous
Answer: 2
Question 30
Question: An object of size 2.0 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a
concave mirror. The distance of the object from the mirror equals to the radius of curvature.
The size of the image will be ______________.
1.
0.5 cm
2.
1.5 cm
3.
1.0 cm
4.
2.0 cm
Answer: 4
Question 31
Question: If an incident ray passes through the centre of curvature of a spherical mirror, the
reflected ray will __________________.
1.
pass through the focus
2.
pass through the centre of curvature
3.
pass through the pole
4.
retrace its path
Answer: 4
Refraction of Light - Multiple Choice Test
Question 1
Question: The bending of a beam of light when it passes obliquely from one medium to
another is known as _______.
1.
reflection
2.
refraction
3.
dispersion
4.
deviation

Answer: 2
Question 2
Question: The part of the lens through which the ray of light passes without suffering
deviation is called ________.
1.
optical centre
2.
focus
3.
centre of curvature
4.
pole
Answer: 1
Question 3
Question: Convex lens always gives a real image if the object is situated beyond _______.
1.
optical centre
2.
centre of curvature
3.
focus
4.
radius of curvature
Answer: 3
Question 4
Question: Parallel rays of light entering a convex lens always converge at _______.
1.
centre of curvature
2.
the principal focus
3.
optical centre
4.
the focal plane
Question 5
Question: Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of the same
size is obtained, using a convex lens?
1.
Between O and F
2.
At F
3.
At 2 F
4.
At infinity
Answer: 3
Question 6
Question: SI unit of the power of a lens is ___________.
1.
dioptre
2.
cm
3.
metre
4.
watt
Answer: 1
Question 7
Question: 1 D is the power of the lens of focal length of ______ cm.
1.
100
2.
10
3.
1/100
4.
1/10

Answer: 1
Question 8
Question: In a simple microscope lens used is __________.
1.
biconvex
2.
biconcave
3.
plano convex
4.
cylindrical
Answer: 1
Question 9
Question: Reciprocal of focal length in metres is known as the ______ of a lens.
1.
focus
2.
power
3.
power of accommodation
4.
far point
Answer: 2
Question 10
Question: A convex lens is called _________.
1.
converging lens
2.
diverging lens
3.
both converging and diverging lens
4.
refracting lens
Answer: 1
Question 11
Question: A positive magnification greater than unity indicates _____________________.
1.
real image
2.
virtual image
3.
neither real not virtual image
4.
distorted image
Answer: 2
Question 12
Question: The power of a convex lens of focal length 50 cm is ______.
1.
+ 2D
2.
- 2D
3.
50 D
4.
- 5D
Answer: 1
Question 13
Question: The focal length of a lens whose power is -1.5 D is _______.
1.
-66.66 cm
2.
+ 1.5 m
3.
+ 66.66 cm
4.
-1.5 m
Answer: 1

Question 14
Question: Real images formed by single convex lenses are always ________________.
1.
on the same side of the lens as the object
2.
inverted
3.
erect
4.
smaller than the object
Answer: 2
Question 15
Question: An object is placed 12 cm from a convex lens whose focal length is 10 cm. The
image must be.
1.
virtual and enlarged
2.
virtual and reduced in size
3.
real and reduced in size
4.
real and enlarged
Answer: 4
Question 16
Question: When a person uses a convex lens as a simple magnifying glass, the object must
be placed at a distance.
1.
less than one focal length
2.
more than one focal length
3.
less than twice the focal length
4.
more than twice the focal length
Answer: 1
Question 17
Question: The image produced by a concave lens is ________.
1.
always virtual and enlarged
2.
always virtual and reduced in size
3.
always real
4.
sometimes real, sometimes virtual
Answer: 2
Question 18
Question: A virtual image is formed by _______.
1.
a slide projector in a cinema hall
2.
the ordinary camera
3.
a simple microscope
4.
telescope
Answer: 3
Question 19
Question: An object is placed 25 cm from a convex lens whose focal length is 10 cm. The
image distance is ________ cm.
1.
50 cm
2.
16.66 cm
3.
6.66 cm

4.
10 cm
Answer: 2
Question 20
Question: The least distance of distinct vision is ______.
1.
25 cm
2.
25 m
3.
0.25 cm
4.
2.5 m
Answer: 1
Question 21
Question: A convex lens has a focal length of 20 cm. Its power in dioptres is ___________.
1.
2
2.
5
3.
0.5
4.
0.2
Answer: 2
Question 22
Question: An object is placed before a concave lens. The image formed _____________-.
1.
is always erect
2.
may be erect or inverted
3.
is always inverted
4.
is always real
Answer: 1
Question 23
Question: A ray of light travels from a medium of refractive index n1 to a medium of
refractive index n2. If angle of incidence is i and the angle of refraction is r.
Then
is equal to
1.
n1
2.
n2
3.
n21
4.
n12
Answer: 3
Question 24
Question: Two thin lenses of power +5 D and -2 D are placed in contact with each other.
Focal length of the combination is
1.
+3 m
2.
-3 m
3.
0.33 m
4.
-0.33 m
Answer: 3
Question 25
Question: The lens formula in cartesian frame is ______________.

1.
2.
3.
4.
Answer: 3
The Human Eye and the Colourful World - Multiple Choice Test
Question 1
Question: The change in focal length of an eye lens to focus the image of objects at varying
distances is done by the action of ________.
1.
pupil
2.
ciliary muscles
3.
retina
4.
blind spot
Answer: 2
Question 2
Question: Far point of a normal eye is situated at _________.
1.
25 cm
2.
infinity
3.
50 cm
4.
400 cm
Answer: 2
Question 3
Question: A long-sighted person cannot see objects nearer to his eye than 50 cm. To enable
him to read a book 25 cm away, he should use spectacle lenses whose power in dioptres is
____.
1.
-6
2.
-4
3.
-2
4.
+4
Answer: 4
Question 4
Question: The process by which a beam of white light splits into its constituent colours is
known as _________.
1.
reflection
2.
dispersion
3.
divergence
4.
convergence
Answer: 2

Question 5
Question: The band of colours obtained due to dispersion is known as ______________.
1.
spectrum
2.
rainbow
3.
image
4.
mirage
Answer:
Question 6
Question: Power of a lens is expressed in
1.
dioptre
2.
cm
3.
metre
4.
millimetre
Answer: 1
Question 7
Question: 1 D is the power of a lens of focal length ______ cm.
1.
100
2.
10
3.
1/100
4.
1/10
Answer: 1
Question 8
Question: Hypermetropia is rectified by using
1.
convex lens
2.
concave lens
3.
cylindrical lens
4.
progressive lens
Answer: 1
Question 9
Question: Reciprocal of focal length in metres is known as the ______ of a lens.
1.
focus
2.
power
3.
power of accommodation
4.
far point
Answer: 2
Question 10
Question: The power of a convex lens of focal length 50 cm is ______.
1.
+2D
2.
-2D
3.
50 D
4.
-5D
Answer: 1
Question 11

Question: Two lenses having powers +2D and -4D respectively are put together. Power of
the combination would be
1.
-2 D
2.
+2 D
3.
-4 D
4.
+4 D
Answer: 1
Question 12
Question: The fluid between the retina and the lens is called _______.
1.
aqueous humour
2.
vitreous humour
3.
aqua
4.
humus
Answer: 2
Question 13
Question: Two thin lenses of power +5D and -2D are put in contact with each other. Focal
length of the combination is
1.
+3 m
2.
-3 m
3.
0.33 m
4.
-0.33 m
Answer: 3
Question 14
Question: The least distance of distinct vision for infants is _________.
1.
15 cm
2.
20 cm
3.
25 cm
4.
5 cm
Answer: 4
Question 15
Question: The focal length of a lens whose power is -1.5 D is _______.
1.
-66.66 cm
2.
+ 1.5 m
3.
+ 66.66 cm
4.
-1.5 m
Answer: 1
Sound - Multiple Choice Test
Question 1
Question: When a wave travels through a medium ______.
1. particles are transferred from one place to another

2. energy is transferred in a periodic manner

3. energy is transferred at a constant speed
4. none of the above statements is applicable
Answer: 3
Question 2
Question: The minimum distance between the source and the reflector, so that an echo is
heard is approximately equal to ______.
1.
10 m
2.
17 m
3.
34 m
4.
50 m
Answer: 2
Question 3
Question: Bats detect the obstacles in their path by receiving the reflected ______.
1.
infrasonic waves
2.
radio waves
3.
electro-magnetic waves
4.
ultrasonic waves
Answer: 4
Question 4
Question: When sound travels through air, the air particles ______.
1. vibrate along the direction of wave propagation
2. vibrate but not in any fixed direction
3. vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation
4. do not vibrate
Answer: 1
Question 5
Question: The relation between wave velocity 'v', frequency 'f ', and wavelength 'l' is
______.
1.
2.
3.
4.

Answer: 2
Question 6
Question: The frequency of a wave travelling at a speed of 500 ms-1 is 25 Hz. Its time
period will be ______.
1.

20 s

2.
0.05 s
3.
25 s
4.
0.04 s
Answer: 4
Question 7
Question: The amplitude of a wave is ______.
1. the distance the wave moves in one second
2. the distance the wave moves in one time period of the wave
3. the maximum distance moved by the medium particles on either side of the mean position
4. the distance equal to one wave length
Answer: 3
Question 8
Question: Which of the following is not a characteristic of a musical sound?
1.
Pitch
2.
Wavelength
3.
Quality
4.
Loudness
Answer: 2
Question 9
Question: Sound waves do not travel through
1.
solids
2.
liquids
3.
gases
4.
vacuum
Answer: 4
Question 10
Question: The physical quantity, which oscillates in most waves, is
1.
mass
2.
energy
3.
amplitude
4.
wavelength
Answer: 3
Question 11
Question: Sound waves are
1. longitudinal
2. transverse
3. partly longitudinal and partly transverse
4. sometimes longitudinal and sometimes transverse
Answer: 1
Question 12
Question: The frequency which is not audible to the human ear is
1.
50 Hz

2.
500 Hz
3.
5000 Hz
4.
50000 Hz
Answer: 4
Question 13
Question: The speed of sound in medium depends upon
1.
amplitude
2.
frequency
3.
wavelength
4.
properties of the medium
Answer: 4
Question 14
Question: Which of the following will remain unchanged when a sound wave travels in air
or in water?
1.
Amplitude
2.
Wavelength
3.
Frequency
4.
Speed
Answer: 3
Question 15
Question: A sound source sends waves of 400 Hz. It produces waves of wavelength 2.5 m.
The velocity of sound waves is
1.
100 m/s
2.
1000 m/s
3.
10000 m/s
4.
3000 km/s
Answer: 2
Question 16
Question: The time period of a vibrating body is 0.05 s. The frequency of waves it emits is
1.
5 Hz
2.
20 Hz
3.
200 Hz
4.
2 Hz
Answer: 2
Question 17
Question: A source of frequency of 500 Hz emits waves of wavelength 0.4 m, how long
does the waves take to travel 600 m?
1.
3s
2.
6s
3.
9s
4.
12 s
Answer: 1
Question 18

Question: Sound and light waves both

1.
have similar wavelength
2.
obey the laws of reflection
3.
travel as longitudinal waves
4.
travel through vacuum
Answer: 2
Question 19
Question: The method of detecting the presence, position and direction of motion of distant
objects by reflecting a beam of sound waves is known as _____.
1.
RADAR
2.
SONAR
3.
MIR
4.
CRO
Answer: 2
Question 20
Question: The technique used by bats to find their way or to locate food is _______.
1.
SONAR
2.
RADAR
3.
Echolocation
4.
Flapping
Answer: 3
Question 21
Question: An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is found
that the time interval between the sending and receiving of the wave is 1.6 s. What is the
depth of the sea, if the velocity of sound in the seawater is 1400 m/s?
1.
1120 m
2.
560 m
3.
1400 m
4.
112 m
Answer: 1
Question 22
Question: An example for mechanical wave.
1.
Radio wave
2.
Light wave
3.
Infrared radiation
4.
Sound wave
Answer: 4
Question 23
Question: Which of the following quantities is transferred during wave propagation?
1.
Speed
2.
Mass
3.
Matter
4.
Energy
Answer: 4

Question 24
Question: If a vibrator strikes the water 10 times in one second, then the frequency of wave
is _________.
1.
10 Hz
2.
0.5 Hz
3.
5 Hz
4.
0.1 Hz
Answer: 1
Question 25
Question: Unit of wavelength is __________.
1.
newton
2.
erg
3.
dyne
4.
angstrom
Answer: 4
Question 26
Question: The distance between a compression and the next rarefaction of a longitudinal
wave is __________.
1.
2.

2l

3.
4.

Answer: 3
Question 27
Question: SI Unit of time period is __________.
1.
second
2.
hour
3.
minute
4.
nanosecond
Answer: 1
Question 28
Question: The vibrations or the pressure variations inside the inner ear are converted into
electrical signals by the_________.
1.
cochlea
2.
tympanic membrane
3.
pinna
4.
anvil

Answer: 1
Question 29
Question: Vibrations inside the ear are amplified by the three bones namely the _________
in the middle ear.
1.
hammer, anvil and stirrup
2.
hammer, anvil and pinna
3.
hammer, cochlea and stirrup
4.
auditory bone, anvil and stirrup
Answer: 1
Question 30
Question: The persistence of audible sound due to the successive reflections from the
surrounding objects even after the source has stopped to produce that sound is called
_________.
1.
reflection
2.
echo
3.
reverberation
4.
rarefaction
Answer: 3
Force and Laws Of Motion - Multiple Choice Test
Question 1
Question: Inertia is ________
1.
a property of matter
2.
a type of force
3.
the speed of an object
4.
none of the above
Answer: 1
Question 2
Question: A and B are two objects with masses 100 kg and 75 kg respectively, then
________ .
1.
both will have the same inertia
2.
B will have more inertia
3.
A will have more inertia
4.
both will have less inertia
Answer: 3
Question 3
Question: The resultant of balanced forces is ________
1. non zero
2. equal to zero
3. not equal to zero
4. equal to the acceleration produced in the body
Answer: 2
Question 4

Question: The physical quantity, which is the measure of inertia, is ________

1.
density
2.
weight
3.
force
4.
mass
Answer: 4
Question 5
Question: The sparks produced during sharpening of a knife against a grinding wheel
leaves the rim of the wheel tangentially. This is due to ________
1.
inertia of rest
2.
inertia of motion
3.
inertia of direction
4.
force applied
Answer: 3
Question 6
Question: The law that gives a qualitative definition of force is ________
1.
Newton's second law of motion
2.
Law of inertia
3.
Newton's third law of motion
4.
Law of gravitation
Answer: 2
Question 7
Question: Name the property of matter due to which a body continues in its state of rest or
uniform motion unless an external force acts on it.
1.
Inertia
2.
Elasticity
3.
Viscosity
4.
Density
Answer: 1
Question 8
Question: The S.I. unit of force is
1.
erg
2.
joule
3.
newton
4.
dyne
Answer: 3
Question 9
Question: When a force of 1N acts on a mass of 1kg that is free to move, the object moves
with
1.
a speed of 1 m/s
2.
a speed of 1 km/s
3.
an acceleration 10 m/s2
4.
an acceleration of 1 m/s2
Answer: 4

Question 10
Question: The acceleration in a body is due to
1.
balanced force
2.
unbalanced force
3.
mass
4.
electrostatic force
Answer: 2
Question 11
Question: When an object undergoes acceleration
1.
its speed always increases
2.
its velocity always increases
3.
it always falls towards the Earth
4.
a force always acts on it
Answer: 4
Question 12
Question: A force of 10 N is acting on an object of mass 10 kg. What is the acceleration
produced in it?
1.
2.
3.
100 m/s2
4.
100 m/s
Answer: 1
Question 13
Question: What is the force acting on an object of mass 10 kg moving with a uniform
velocity of 10 m/s ?
1.
100 N
2.
10 N
3.
0
4.
1N
Answer: 3
Question 14
Question: An athlete can take a longer jump if he comes running from a distance as
compared to that when he jumps suddenly. Identify the type of inertia.
1.
Inertia of rest
2.
Inertia of motion
3.
Inertia of direction
4.
Inertia of position
Answer: 2
Question 15
Question: 1 newton = ________
1.
2.

3.
4.
Answer: 2
Question 16
Question: The physical quantity, which is equal to change in momentum, is
1.
force
2.
impulse
3.
acceleration
4.
velocity
Answer: 2
Question 17
Question: The physical quantity, which is equal to rate of change of momentum, is
1.
displacement
2.
acceleration
3.
force
4.
impulse
Answer: 3
Question 18
Question: 1kg m/s = _________.
1.
1Ns
2.
1N
3.
1Nm
4.
10 N s
Answer: 1
Question 19
Question: An example for a vector quantity is __________
1.
speed
2.
momentum
3.
distance
4.
length
Answer: 2
Question 20
Question: Impulse = _________.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Answer: 2
Question 21
Question: SI unit of impulse is ___________.
Ns
1.
Ns

2.
3.

N s2

4.
Answer: 1
Question 22
Question: The momentum of a toy bus of 0.01 kg moving with a velocity of 5 m/s is
1.
0.005 kg m/s
2.
0.05 kg m/s
3.
0.005 N s
4.
0.5 kg m/s
Answer: 2
Question 23
Question: The product of mass and velocity is known as ____________ .
1.
acceleration
2.
force
3.
momentum
4.
velocity
Answer: 3
Question 24
Question: What is the momentum of a man of mass 100 kg when he walks with a uniform
velocity of 2 m/s?
1.
2.
200 N
3.
4.
Answer: 1
Question 25
Question: The two factors on which the momentum of a body depends are ______ and
_________ .
1.
velocity, time
2.
mass, weight
3.
mass, distance
4.
mass,velocity
Answer: 4
Question 26
Question: The gravitational force of earth acting on a body of mass 1 kg is _______.
1.
8.9 N
2.
9.8 N
3.
980 N
4.
1N
Answer: 2

Question 27
Question: Momentum of a massive object at rest is _______.
1.
very large
2.
very small
3.
zero
4.
none of the above
Answer: 3
Question 28
Question: The resultant of action and reaction forces is _______.
1.
greater than zero
2.
less than zero
3.
zero
4.
none of the above
Answer: 1
Work and Energy - Multiple Choice Test
Question 1
Question: Work done = Force x _______
1.
distance
2.
acceleration
3.
velocity
4.
speed
Answer: 1
Question 2
Question: 1 joule = 1 _______
1.
N m2
2.
3.
Nm
4.
N2 m2
Answer: 3
Question 3
Question: Which form of energy does the flowing water possess?
1.
gravitational energy
2.
potential energy
3.
electrical energy
4.
kinetic energy
Answer: 4
Question 4
Question: A body of mass 2 kg is dropped from a height of 1m. Its kinetic energy as it
touches the ground is _______
1.
19.6 N
2.
19.6 J

3.
19.6 kg
4.
19.6 m
Answer: 2
Question 5
Question: The unit of power is _______
1.
watt per second
2.
joule
3.
kilojoule
4.
joule per second
Answer: 4
Question 6
Question: 3730 watts = ______h.p.
1.
5
2.
2
3.
746
4.
6
Answer: 1
Question 7
Question: A coolie carries a load of 500 N to a distance of 100 m. The work done by him is
1.
5N
2.
50,000 Nm
3.
0
4.
1/5 N
Answer: 3
Question 8
Question: The P.E. of a body at a certain height is 200 J. The kinetic energy possessed by it
when it just touches the surface of the earth is
1.
> P.E.
2.
< P.E.
3.
= P.E.
4.
cannot be known
Answer: 1
Question 9
Question: Power is a measure of the _______
1.
rate of change of momentum
2.
force which produces motion
3.
change of energy
4.
rate of change of energy
Answer: 4
Question 10
Question: Two objects of masses 1 x 10-3 kg and 4 x 10-3 kg have equal momentum. What is
the ratio of their kinetic energies?
1.
4:1

2.
3.
4.

2:1
16:1

Answer: 1
Question 11
Question: A 40 newton object is released from a height of 10 m. Just before it hits the
ground, its kinetic energy, in joules is _______
1.
400
2.
3920
3.
2800
4.
4000
Answer: 1
Question 12
Question: If the speed of an object is doubled then its kinetic energy is _______
1.
doubled
2.
quadrupled
3.
halved
4.
tripled
Answer: 2
Question 13
Question: 1.5 kW = ______ watts
1.
1500
2.
150
3.
15000
4.
15
Answer: 1
Question 14
Question: A man of mass 50 kg jumps to a height of 1 m. His potential energy at the highest
point is (g = 10 m/s2)
1.
50 J
2.
60 J
3.
500 J
4.
600 J
Answer: 3
Question 15
Question: The type of energy possessed by a simple pendulum, when it is at the mean
position is
1.
kinetic energy
2.
potential energy
3.
potential energy + kinetic energy
4.
sound energy
Answer: 1
Question 16

Question: An iron sphere of mass 30 kg has the same diameter as an aluminium sphere
whose mass is 10.5 kg. The spheres are dropped simultaneously from a cliff. When they are
10 m from the ground, they have the same _______.
1.
acceleration
2.
momentum
3.
potential energy
4.
kinetic energy
Answer: 1
Question 17
Question: A 1 kg mass has a kinetic energy of 1 joule when its speed is
1.
0.45 m/s
2.
1 m/s
3.
1.4 m/s
4.
4.4 m/s
Answer: 3
Question 18
Question: If air resistance is negligible, the sum total of potential and kinetic energies of a
freely falling body _______
1.
increases
2.
decreases
3.
becomes zero
4.
remains the same
Answer: 4
Question 19
Question: Name the physical quantity which is equal to the product of force and velocity.
1.
work
2.
energy
3.
power
4.
acceleration
Answer: 3
Question 20
Question: An object of mass 1 kg has potential energy of 1 joule relative to the ground
when it is at a height of _______.
1.
0.102 m
2.
1m
3.
9.8 m
4.
32 m
Answer: 1
Electricity - Multiple Choice Test
Question 1
Question: Which of the following statements does not represent ohm's law?
1. current / potential difference = constant

2. potential difference / current = constant

3. potential difference = current x resistance
4. current = resistance x potential difference
Answer: 4
Question 2
Question: The unit of current is _____________.
1.
ampere
2.
watt
3.
volt
4.
coulomb
Answer: 1
Question 3
Question: The potential difference required to pass a current 0.2 A in a wire of resistance
20W is ____.
1.
100 V
2.
4V
3.
.01 V
4.
40 V
Answer: 2
Question 4
Question: The resistance of an electric bulb drawing 1.2 A current at 6.0 V is ___________.
1.
0 .5 W
2.
5W
3.
0.2 W
4.
2W
Answer: 2
Question 5
Question: The unit of resistivity is ____________.
1.
ohm
2.
ohm / m
3.
ohm-m
4.
mho
Answer: 3
Question 6
Question: Two resistances of 100 W and zero ohm are connected in parallel. The overall
resistance will be
1.
100 W
2.
50 W
3.
25 W
4.
zero ohm
Answer: 1
Question 7

Question: Three resistors 2 W , 3 W and 4 W are connected so that the equivalent resistance
is 9 W . The resistors are connected _________.
1. all in series
2. all in parallel
3. 2 W and 3 W in parallel and the combination in series with 4 W
4. 2 W and 3 W in series and the combination in parallel to 4 W
Answer: 1
Question 8
Question: In the figure,

1. 6 W , 3 W and 9 W are in series

2. 9 W and 6 W are in parallel and the combination is in series with 3 W
3. 3 W , 6 W and W are in parallel
4. 3 W , 6 W are in parallel and 9 W is in series
Answer: 4
Question 9
Question: The resistance across AB is

1.
4
2.
1
3.
2
4.
0 .5
Answer: 2
Question 10
Question: When a current 'I' flows through a resistance 'R' for time 't' the electrical energy
spent is given by ___________.
1.
IRt
2.
I2 R t
3.
I R2 t

4.
I2R/t
Answer: 2
Question 11
Question: Kilowatt - hour is the unit of ______________.
1.
potential difference
2.
electric power
3.
electrical energy
4.
charge
Answer: 3
Question 12
Question: When a fuse is rated 8 A, it means _____________.
1. it will not work if current is less than 8 A
2. it has a resistance of 8 W
3. it will work only if current is 8 A
4. it will melt if current exceeds 8 A
Answer: 4
Question 13
Question: The device used for measuring potential difference is known as _____________.
1.
potentiometer
2.
ammeter
3.
galvanometer
4.
voltmeter
Answer: 4
Question 14
Question: The work done in moving a unit positive charge across two points in an electric
circuit is a measure of ___________.
1.
current
2.
potential difference
3.
resistance
4.
power
Answer: 2
Question 15
Question: The potential at a point is 20 V. The work done to bring a charge of 0.5 C from
infinity to this point will be ________.
1.
20 J
2.
10 J
3.
5J
4.
40 J
Answer: 2
Question 16
Question: Joule / Coulomb is same as ______________.

1.
watt
2.
volt
3.
ampere
4.
ohm
Answer: 2
Question 17
Question: The free electrons of a metal _____________.
1.
do not collide with each other
2.
are free to escape through the surface
3.
are free to fall into the nuclei
4.
are free to move anywhere in the metal
Answer: 4
Question 18
Question: The path of a free electron in a metal is ___________.
1.
parabolic
2.
circular
3.
a straight line
4.
zig zag
Answer: 4
Question 19
Question: Heat produced in a current carrying wire in 5s is 60 J. The same current is passed
through another wire of half the resistance. The heat produced in 5 s will be _____________.
1.
60 J
2.
30 J
3.
15 J
4.
120 J
Answer: 2
Question 20
Question: The current in a wire ______________.
1. depends only on the potential difference applied
2. depends only on the resistance of the wire
3. depends on both resistance and potential difference
4. does not depend on resistance and potential difference
Answer: 3
Question 21
Question: When there is an electric current passing through a wire, the particles moving are
_____________.
1.
electrons
2.
protons
3.
atoms
4.
ions
Answer: 1
Question 22

Question: A positive charge released from rest __________.

1. moves towards the regions of lower potential
2. moves towards the regions of higher potential
3. moves towards the regions of equal potential
4. does not move
Answer: 1
Question 23
Question: Three equal resistances when combined in series are equivalent to 90 W . Their
equivalent resistance when combined in parallel will be __________.
1.
270 W
2.
30 W
3.
810 W
4.
10 W
Answer: 4
Question 24
Question: An battery is used to ________________.
1.
maintain a potential difference
2.
measure electric current
3.
measure electric potential
4.
safeguard against short - circuit
Answer: 1
Question 25
Question: Ohm's law relates potential difference with ___________.
1.
power
2.
energy
3.
current
4.
time
Answer: 3
Question 26
Question: Which of the following is an ohmic resistor?
1.
Diode
2.
Germanium
3.
Nichrome
4.
Diamond
Answer: 3
Question 27
Question: The resistivity of a wire depends on ____.
1. length
2. material
3. area of cross- section
4. length, material and area of cross- section
Answer: 4

Question 28
Question: For which of the following substances, resistance decreases with temperature?
1.
Copper
2.
Platinum
3.
Mercury
4.
Carbon
Answer: 4
Question 29
Question: Four cells each of e.m.f 'E' are joined in parallel to form a battery. The equivalent
e.m.f of the battery will be _______.
1.
4E
2.
E
3.
E/4
4.
E=0
Answer: 2
Question 30
Question: Two electric bulbs have resistances in the ratio 1:2. If they are joined in series,
the energy consumed in them are in the ratio _________.
1.
1:2
2.
2:1
3.
4:1
4.
1:1
Answer: 2
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current - Multiple Choice Test

Question 1
Question: A magnetic field line is used to find the direction of
1.

south-north

2.

a bar magnet

3.

a compass needle

4.

magnetic field

Answer:

Question 2
Question: An electric current passes through a straight wire in the direction of south to
north. Magnetic compasses are placed at points A and B as shown in the figure.

What is your observation?

1.

The needle will not deflect

2.

Only one of the needles will deflect

3.

Both the needles will deflect in the same direction

4.

The needles will deflect in the opposite directions

Answer:

Question 3
Question: The magnetic field lines due to a straight wire carrying a current are
1.

straight

2.

circular

3.

parabolic

4.

elliptical

Answer:

Question 4
Question: Magnetic field produced at the centre of a current carrying circular wire is
1. directly proportional to the square of the radius of the circular wire
2. directly proportional to the radius of the circular wire
3. inversely proportional to the square of the radius of the circular wire
4. inversely proportional to the radius of the circular wire
Answer:

Question 5
Question: The magnetic field lines inside a long, current carrying solenoid are nearly
1.

straight

2.

circular

3.

parabolic

4.

elliptical

Answer:

Question 6
Question: A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current carrying solenoid. The magnetic
field inside the solenoid
1.

will become zero

2.

will decrease

3.

will increase

4.

will remain unaffected

Answer:

Question 7
Question: The direction of the force on a current-carrying wire placed in a magnetic field
depends on
1. the direction of the current
2. the direction of the field
3. the direction of current as well as field
4. neither the direction of current nor the direction of field
Answer:

Question 8
Question: The direction of induced curent is obtained by
1.

Fleming's left-hand rule

2.

Maxwell's right-hand thumb rule

3.

Ampere's rule

4.

Fleming's right-hand rule

Answer:

Question 9
Question: Who first discovered the relationship between electricity and magnetism?
1.

Faraday

2.

Newton

3.

Maxwell

4.

Oersted

Answer:

Question 10
Question: In an electric motor, the energy transformation is from
1.

electrical to chemical

2.

chemical to light

3.

mechanical to electrical

4.

electrical to mechanical

Answer:

Question 11
Question: A commutator changes the direction of current in the coil of
1.

a DC motor

2.

a DC motor and an AC generator

3.

a DC motor and a DC generator

4.

an AC generator

Answer:

Question 12
Question: Which of the following devices works on the principle of electromagnetic
induction?
1.

Ammeter

2.

Voltmeter

3.

Generator

4.

Galvanometer

Answer:

Question 13
Question: A device used for measuring small currents due to changing magnetic field is
known as
1.

galvanometer

2.

ammeter

3.

voltmeter

4.

potentiometer

Answer:

Question 14
Question: An electric generator actually acts as
1.

source of electric charge

2.

source of heat energy

3.

an electromagnet

4.

a converter of energy

Answer:

Question 15
Question: Electromagnetic induction is the
1. charging of a body with a positive charge
2. production of current by relative motion between a magnet and a coil
3. rotation of the coil of an electric motor
4. generation of magnetic field due to a current carrying solenoid
Answer:

Question 16
Question: For making a strong electromagnet, the material of the core should be
1.

soft iron

2.

steel

3.

brass

4.

copper

Answer:

Question 17
Question: Magnetic field inside a long solenoid carrying current is
1.

same at all points (uniform)

2.

different at poles and at the centre

3.

zero

4.

different at all points

Answer:

Question 18

Question: You have a coil and a bar magnet. You can produce an electric current by
1.

moving the magnet but not the coil

2.

moving the coil but not the magnet

3.

moving either the magnet or the coil

4.

using another DC source

Answer:

Question 19
Question: Which of the following describes the common domestic power supplied in India?
1.

220 V, 100 Hz

2.

220 V, 50 Hz

3.

110 V, 100 Hz

4.

100 V, 50 Hz

Answer:

Question 20
Question: A fuse in an electric circuit acts as a
1.

current multiplication

2.

voltage multiplication

3.

power multiplier

4.

safety device

Answer:

Question 21
Question: The magnetic lines of force inside a current carrying solenoid are
1.

along the axis and parallel to each other

2.

perpendicular to the axis and parallel to each other

3.

circular and do not intersect each other

4.

circular and intersect each other

Answer:

Question 22
Question: When the main switch of the house is put off, it disconnects
1.

live wire

2.

neutral wire

3.

earth wire

4.

live and neutral wires

Answer:

Question 23
Question: Kilowatt-hour is the unit of
1.

potential difference

2.

electric power

3.

electrical energy

4.

charge

Answer:

Question 24
Question: When a fuse is rated 8A, it means
1.

it will not work if current is less than 8A

2.

it has a resistance of 8

3.

it will work only if current is 8A

4.

it will burn if current exceeds 8A

Answer:

Gravitation - Multiple Choice Test

Question 1
Question: SI unit of gravitational constant is __________.
1.

N m2kg2

2.

N m2kg-2

3.

N m2s-2

4.

N mkg-2

Answer: 2
Question 2

Question: What is the value of gravitational constant?

1.

6.6734x10-11N m2/kg2

2.

6.6734x10-10N m2/kg2

3.

6.6734x10-11N m/kg2

4.

6.6734x10-11N m2/kg

Answer: 1
Question 3
Question: If the distance between two bodies is doubled, the force of attraction F between
them will be _______
1.

1/4 F

2.

2F

3.

1/2 F

4.

Answer: 1
Question 4
Question: The force of gravitation between two bodies in the universe does not depend on
1.

the distance between them

2.

the product of their masses

3.

the sum of their masses

4.

the gravitational constant

Answer: 3
Question 5
Question: Name the fundamental force which holds the planets in their orbits around the
sun.
1.

Gravitational force of attraction

2.

Electrostatic static force of attraction

3.

Nuclear force of attraction

4.

Electro static force of attraction

Answer: 1
Question 6

Question: When an object is thrown up, the force of gravity _________.

1.

is opposite to the direction of motion

2.

is in the same direction as the direction of motion

3.

becomes zero at the highest point

4.

increases as it rises up

Answer: 1
Question 7
Question: What is the final velocity of a body moving against gravity when it attains the
maximum height?
1.

Zero

2.

3.
4.

2gh

Answer: 1
Question 8
Question: A stone is dropped from a cliff. Its speed after it has fallen 100 m is
1.

9.8 m/s

2.

44.2 m/s

3.

19.6 m/s

4.

98 m/s

Answer: 2
Question 9
Question: A ball is thrown up and attains a maximum height of 100 m. Its initial speed was
1.

9.8 m/s

2.

44.2 m/s

3.

19.6 m/s

4.

98 m/s

Answer: 2

Question 10
Question: A stone dropped from the roof of a building takes 4 seconds to reach the ground.
What is the height of the building?
1.

19.6 m

2.

39.2 m

3.

156.8 m

4.

78.4 m

Answer: 4
Question 11
Question: The acceleration due to gravity is zero at ______.
1.

the equator

2.

poles

3.

sea level

4.

the centre of the earth

Answer: 4
Question 12
Question: If acceleration due to gravity on earth is 10 m/s2 then, the acceleration due to
gravity on moon is ________.
1.

1.66 m/s2

2.

16.6 m/s2

3.

10 m/s2

4.

0.166 m/s2

Answer: 1
Question 13
Question: The second equation of motion for a freely falling body starting from rest is
_______.
1.
2.

3.
4.
Answer: 3
Question 14
Question: The acceleration due to gravity of a body moving against gravity is
1.

9.8 m/s2

2.

-9.8 m/s2

3.
4.

9.6 m/s

Answer: 2
Question 15
Question: A feather and a coin released simultaneously from the same height do not reach
the ground at the same time because of the _______.
1.

resistance of the air

2.

force of gravity

3.

force of gravitation

4.

difference in mass

Answer: 1
Question 16
Question: The weight of an object of mass 10 kg on earth is_______.
1.

9.8 N

2.

9.8 kg

3.

98 N

4.

98 kg

Answer: 3
Question 17
Question: The weight of an object of mass 15 kg at the centre of the earth is _____.
1.

147 N

2.

147 kg

3.

zero

4.

150 N

Answer: 3
Question 18
Question: Mass remains ______ throughout the universe.
1.

varies

2.

zero

3.

constant

4.

negative

Answer: 3
Question 19
Question: SI unit of weight is ______.
1.

newton

2.

kg

3.

Wt

4.

kg.wt

Answer: 1
Question 20
Question: 100 kg.wt=________ .
1.

980 N

2.

9.800 N

3.

1000 N

4.

0.98 N

Answer: 1
Question 21
Question: How much would a man, whose mass is 60 kg weigh on the moon?
1.

9.8 N

2.

600 N

3.

60 N

4.

98 N

Answer: 4
Question 22
Question: What is the mass of an object whose weight on earth is 196 N?
1.

20 kg

2.

0.20 kg

3.

1960 kg

4.

2 kg

Answer: 1
Question 23
Question: The upward force acting on an object submerged in a liquid is ______.
1.

thrust

2.

buoyant force

3.

pressure

4.

force of friction

Answer: 2
Question 24
Question: The normal force per unit area is called _______.
1.

pressure

2.

thrust

3.

balanced force

4.

pascal

Answer: 1
Question 25
Question: If the mass of a ball is 5 kg on earth, then what would be its mass on Jupiter?
1.

5 kg

2.

5000 kg

3.

40000 kg

4.

50 kg

Answer: 1
Motion - Multiple Choice Test
Question 1
Question: 1 km/h = _____ m/s
1.
2.
3.
4.
Answer: 1
Question 2
Question: The distance (s) in metres travelled by a particle is related to time (t) in seconds
by the equation of motion -S = 10t + 4t2. What is the initial velocity of the body?
1.
10 m/s
2.
6 m/s
3.
4 m/s
4.
10 m/s2
Answer: 1
Question 3
Question: For the equation - S = 10t + 4t2 what is the acceleration of the body?
1.
8 m/s2
2.
10 m/s2
3.
4 m/s2
4.
8 m/s
Answer: 1
Question 4
Question: A body moving along a straight line at 20 m/s decelerates at the rate of 4 m/s2.
After 2 seconds its speed will be equal to
1.
8 m/s
2.
12 m/s
3.
16 m/s
4.
- 12 m/s
Answer: 2
Question 5
Question: Give the equation of motion connecting u, v, a and s where the symbols have
their usual meaning
1.
v = u + at

2.
3.

v2 - u2 = 2aS

4.
Answer: 3
Question 6
Question: An object moving with a speed of 5 m/s comes to rest in 10 s, after the brakes are
applied. What is the initial velocity?
1.
zero
2.
5 m/s
3.
15 m/s
4.
50 m/s
Answer: 2
Question 7
Question: A body moving along a straight line at 40 m/s undergoes an acceleration of 4
m/s2. After 10 seconds its speed will be
1.
20 m/s
2.
28 m/s
3.
16 m/s
4.
80 m/s
Answer: 4
Question 8
Question: SI unit of acceleration is __________.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Answer: 1
Question 9
Question: Retardation is __________.
1.
negative acceleration
2.
positive acceleration
3.
uniform acceleration
4.
variable acceleration
Answer: 1
Question 10
Question: When an object is moving with uniform velocity, what is its acceleration?
1.
zero
2.
uniform
3.
non-uniform

4.
negative
Answer: 1
Question 11
Question: In the case of a rectilinear uniform motion, distance-time graph is a
1.
parabola
2.
straight line
3.
curved line
4.
rectangle
Answer: 2
Question 12
Question: Speed of 90 km/h when expressed in m/s is .
1.
2.5
2.
25
3.
250
4.
90000
Answer: 2
Question 13
Question: When a graph of one quantity versus another results in a straight line, the
quantities are .
1.
directly proportional
2.
constant
3.
inversely proportional
4.
independent of each other
Answer: 1
Question 14
Question: What does the following S-t graph indicate?

1.
uniform speed
2.
body is at rest
3.
non-uniform speed
4.
variable speed
Answer: 2
Question 15
Question: What do you infer, if S-t graphs of two cyclists meet at a point?
1.
They collide
2.
They pass each other

3.
They are at rest
4.
They are starting from rest
Answer: 2
Question 16
Question: Name the physical quantity which we get from a S-t graph.
1.
Speed
2.
Displacement
3.
Distance
4.
Time
Answer: 1
Question 17
Question: What is the SI unit of speed?
1.
km/h
2.
m/s
3.
m/min
4.
km/s
Answer: 2
Question 18
Question: What is the distance covered by a car in 5 h if it is moving with a speed of 35
km/h?
1.
175 km
2.
150 km
3.
7 km
4.
1750 km
Answer: 1
Question 19
Question: The S-t graph for uniform speed is

1.

2.

3.

4.

Answer: 2
Question 20
Question: The average speed of a car which covers half the distance with a speed of 20 m/s
and other half with a speed of 30 m/s in equal intervals of time is _________.
1.
25 m/s
2.
0 m/s
3.
24 m/s
2.4 m/s
4.
Answer: 1
Question 21
Question: Displacement is a ________ quantity.
1.
scalar
2.
vector
3.
derived
4.
linear
Answer: 2
Question 22
Question: km / h2 is a unit of ________ .
1.
velocity
2.
speed
3.
acceleration
4.
distance
Answer: 3
Question 23
Question: The speed-time graph for a particle moving at constant speed is a straight-line
________ to the time axis.
1.
parallel

2.
perpendicular
3.
aligned
4.
inclined
Answer: 1
Question 24
Question: When an object moves in a fixed direction with uniform acceleration, the speedtime graph is a ________.
1.
parabola
2.
straight line
3.
ellipse
4.
curve
Answer: 2
Question 25
Question: The area under the speed-time graph gives the ________.
1.
distance
2.
velocity
3.
time
4.
acceleration
Answer: 1
Question 26
Question: A speed of 90 km/h, expressed in cm s-1 is ________.
1.
2.5
2.
2500
3.
300
4.
90
Answer: 2
Question 27
Question: When an object of mass 5 kg starts from rest, what is its initial velocity?
1.
0
2.
- 5 m/s
variable
3.
5
4.
1 m/s
Answer: 1
Question 28
Question: Identify the v- t graph representing uniform velocity.

1.

2.

3.

4.

Answer: 2
Question 29
Question: Name the physical quantity that is defined as the rate of change of displacement.
1.
velocity
2.
acceleration
3.
distance
4.
speed
Answer: 1
Question 30
Question: An object moves with a constant velocity of 9.8 m/s, its acceleration in m s-2 is
________.
1.
9.8 m/s2
2.
zero
3.
0.98 m/s
4.
98 m/s2
Answer: 2
Question 31
Question: In 12 minutes a car whose speed is 35 km/h travels a distance of

1.
7 km
2.
3.5 km
3.
14 km
4.
28 km
Answer: 1
Question 32
Question: A body moving along a straight line at 20 m/s undergoes an acceleration of 4
m/s2. After two seconds its speed will be ________.
1.
8 m/s
2.
12 m/s
3.
16 m/s
4.
28 m/s
Answer: 4
Question 33
Question: A car increases its speed from 20 km/h to 50 km/h in 10 seconds. Its acceleration
is ________.
1.
30 m/s2
2.
3 m/s2
3.
18 m/s2
4.
0.83 m/s2
Answer: 4
Question 34
Question: When the distance covered by an object is directly proportional to time, it is said
to travel with ________.
1.
zero velocity
2.
constant speed
3.
constant acceleration
4.
uniform acceleration
Answer: 2
Question 35
Question: Negative acceleration means an object is moving with ________ .
1.
increasing speed
2.
decreasing speed
3.
uniform speed
4.
constant speed
Answer: 2
Question 36
Question: Motion along a straight line is called __________ motion.
1.
rectilinear motion
2.
circular motion
3.
oscillatory motion
4.
parabolic
Answer: 1
Question 37

Question: Distance-time graph is a straight line for __________ motion.

1.
variable
2.
non uniform
3.
rectilinear
4.
circular
Answer: 3
Question 38
Question: A car is moving with a speed of 36 km/h. Its speed in m/s is _______.
1.
10
2.
100
3.
2
4.
1
Answer: 1
Question 39
Question: A car starts from rest and covers a distance of 100 m in one second with uniform
acceleration. Its acceleration is _________.
1.
100 m/s2
2.
50 m/s2
3.
200 m/s2
4.
100 m/s
Answer: 1
Question 40
Question: Which of the following is a vector quantity?
1.
area
2.
length
3.
distance
4.
displacement
Answer: 4
Question 41
Question: The slope of a v-t graph gives ________.
1.
acceleration
2.
velocity
3.
speed
4.
distance
Answer: 3
Question 42
Question: The physical quantity describing motion and whose measure is the product of
distance travelled and the time taken to travel that distance is ________.
1.
speed
2.
mass
3.
weight
4.
displacement
Answer: 1

Question 43
Question: If you are travelling with a velocity of 25 m/s, how long will you take to travel
700 m?
1.
25 s
2.
28 s
3.
25 min
4.
2.8 s
Answer: 2
Question 44
Question: Name the instrument used to measure instantaneous speed of a vehicle.
1.
accelerator
2.
speedometer
3.
ammeter
4.
multimeter
Answer: 2
Question 45
Question: A body covers a distance S in time t. What is its speed?
1.
S/t
2.
t/S
3.
Sxt
4.
Zero
Answer: 1
Matter In Our Surroundings - Multiple Choice Test

Question 1
Question: Matter has ___________.
1.

no mass but occupies space

2.

mass but occupies no space

3.

mass and occupies space

4.

no mass and occupies no space

Answer:

Question 2
Question: The gaseous form of water is called as _______.
1.

water gas

2.

water vapour

3.

fog

4.

snow

Answer:

Question 3
Question: The state of matter with only one free surface is _______.
1.

liquid

2.

gas

3.

solid

4.

plasma

Answer:

Question 4
Question: In gases, particles vibrate _________.
1.

about their mean position

2.

about a vertical axis

3.

about a horizontal axis

4.

in any direction

Answer:

Question 5
Question: Mixing of gases is called ______.
1.

diffusion

2.

effusion

3.

filtration

4.

sedimentation

Answer:

Question 6
Question: A property not possessed by a fluid is _________.
1.

it can flow

2.

it has mass

3.

it has a definite shape

4.

can be perceived by our senses

Answer:

Question 7
Question: Which among the following is a solid at room temperature?
1.

Nitrogen

2.

Potassium permanganate

3.

Bromine

4.

Helium

Answer:

Question 8
Question: Which of these is a characteristic property of gases?
1.

Gases are not at all rigid.

2.

Gases are not compressible.

3.

Gases have particles in fixed positions.

4.

Gases have high density.

Answer:

Question 9
Question: A solid has _________.
1.

maximum intermolecular space

2.

definite mass but no definite volume

3.

very high compressibility

4.

maximum intermolecular force of attraction

Answer:

Question 10
Question: Conversion of gas to liquid is called _________.
1.

condensation

2.

sublimation

3.

vapourisation

4.

solidification

Answer:

Question 11
Question: The process by which wet clothes dry up is called _______.

1.

evaporation

2.

boiling

3.

condensation

4.

solidification

Answer:

Question 12
Question: A solid that sublimes on heating is _________.
1.

sodium chloride

2.

copper sulphate

3.

lead sulphate

4.

ammonium chloride

Answer:

Question 13
Question: Matter changes from one state to another with change in _________.
1.

density

2.

temperature

3.

volume

4.

height

Answer:

Question 14
Question: The process of a solid changing into liquid is called ___________.
1.

liquefaction

2.

melting

3.

freezing

4.

solidification

Answer:

Question 15
Question: The freezing point of pure water is __________.
1.

100oC

2.

0oC

3.

5oC

4.

78.3oC

Answer:

Question 16
Question: The force between particles of matter is called as ___________.
1.

cohesive force

2.

adhesive force

3.

kinetic energy

4.

thermal energy

Answer:

Question 17
Question: Particles of matter are __________.
1.

stationary

2.

vibrating in one position

3.

in continuous motion

4.

rotating about an axis

Answer:

Question 18
Question: The temperature at which vapour changes into liquid is called ________.
1.

freezing point

2.

melting point

3.

boiling point

4.

liquefaction point

Answer:

Question 19
Question: Temperature is a measure of ___________.
1.

total kinetic energy of molecules

2.

total potential energy of molecules

3.

average potential energy of molecules

4.

average kinetic energy of molecules

Answer:

Question 20
Question: For any substance the temperature remains same during the change of state due
to ___________.
1.

loss of heat

2.

latent heat

3.

less supply of heat

4.

lattice energy

Answer:

Objective General Knowledge

Q In an atom no two electrons have all the four quantum numbers identical. This is
. known as
1 Paulis Exclusion principle
2 Hunds Rule
3 Aufbau Principle
4 Avogadros Law
Ans:1
Q
Which of the following is a physical change?
.
1 Boiling of Water
2 Rusting of Iron
3 Boiling of an Egg
4 Burning of Candle
Ans:1

Q
Superconductors are those materials
.
1 Which become non-conductors at transition point
2 Which looses all electrical resistance when cooled below a certain temperature
3 In which resistance rises to infinity below certain temperature
4 Which conducts electricity in extra widths
Ans:2
Q
Which one of the following is not a radioactive element?
.
1 Uranium
2 Radium
3 Thorium
4 Cadmium
Ans:4
Q A body is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 100 m/sec. While coming back
. on ground, its speed at starting point will be
1 100 m/sec
2 1000 m/sec
3 50 m/sec
4 200 m/sec
Ans:1
Q
When 1 litre of water freezes, the volume of ice formed will be
.
1 0.9 litre
2 1.0 litre
3 1.11 litre

4 1.5 litre
Ans:3
Q An object is placed between the pole of concave mirror and the focus of the mirror,
. the image formed will be
1 Behind the mirror, virtual, erect and magnified
2 At infinity, real inverted and highly enlarged
3 Byond centre of curvature, real inverted and enlarged
4 Beyond 2F, real inverted and enlarged
Ans:1
Q A hollow cylindrical rod is filled with air, to make it a resonance column. To
. produce a wave of length 48 cm the minimum length of rod should be
1 12 cm
2 24 cm
3 48 cm
4 96 cm
Ans:2
Q In a telescope of magnification power 10, the focal length of the objective lens is 60
. cm, what will be the total length of eyepiece
1 6 cm
2 25 cm
3 30 cm
4 50 cm
Ans:1
Q A boy has five resistance of 1/5 ohm each. The maximum resistance that can be
. formed with them is
1 0.5 ohm

2 1 ohm
3 1/25 ohm
4 1/5 ohm

Ans:2
Each of 3 capacitors of capacity C are connected together in series. This
Q
combination is added in paralled to a capacitor of capacity C. Resultant capacity
.
will be
1 C
2 3C
3 4C
4 4C/3
Ans:4
Q
A falling drop of rain water acquires the spherical shape due to
.
1 Surface Tension
2 Gravitational force
3 Atmospheric pressure
4 Viscosity
Ans:1
Q
A periscope works by the principle of
.
1 Refraction
2 Total Internal reflection
3 Diffraction
4 Reflection and refraction
Ans:2
Q
Which of the following light waves is outside the visible spectrum?
.
1 Violet
2 Blue
3 Yellow
4 Ultraviolet
Ans:4
Q
Estimated time period of a pendulum of length 0.2m is closer to is
.
1 .5 sec

2 1 sec
3 2 sec
4 None of these
Ans:2
Q
What is the value of knee voltage of silicon diode?
.
1 0.3V
2 0.33V
3 0.7V
4 1.1V
Ans:3
Q There is 20 volt accross the inductor and 15 volt across the resistance in the a.c.
. supplied series R-L circuit. What would be the supply voltage?
1 20 volt
2 15 volt
3 25 volt
4 17.5 volt
Ans:3
Q
A transformer mainly transforms .
1 Current
2 Voltage
3 Frequency
4 Power
Ans:2
Q
What is the power factor of a pure resistor circuit?
.
1 One
2 Zero
3 Leading
4 Lagging
Ans:1
Q
What is the S. I. unit of magnetic flux density?
.
1 Gauss
2 Tesla
3 Oersted
4 Weber
Ans:2

Q.

Which type of oscillator is most stable

in simple circuit?
1 Crystalline oscillators
2 Clapp oscillators
3 Colepitts oscillator
4 Armstong oscillator
Ans:1

Q
What is the proper use of signal generator?
.
1 Designing
2 Testing
3 Repairing
4 All of the Above
Ans:4
Q If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that
. cylinder the -1 Exhaust will be smokey
2 Piston rings would stik into piston grooves
3 Scavenging occurs
4 Engine starts overheating
Ans:1
Q
The information is sent by CW transmitter by .
1 Changing the audio frequency
2 Interrupting radio signal
3 Using microphone
4 Using camera
Ans:1
Q
Moisture can be removed from lubricating oil using .
1 Tubular centrifugal
2 Clarifier
3 Sparkler filter
4 Vacuum leaf filter
Ans:1
Q
Germanium possesses .
1 Two valence electrons
2 Three valence electrons

3 Four valence electrons

4 Five valence electrons
Ans:3
Q
Which of the following is not a property of difference amplifier?
.
1 Capacitor is used in it
2 It is used to compare two signals
3 Difference amplifier yields more than the direct couple ampliier
4 Frequency of difference amplifier remains flat from zero to high frequency
Ans:1
Q
Calorie value is the least of the following materials .
1 Coal gas
2 Producer gas
3 Steam fiery gas
4 Oil gas
Ans:2
Q For generating large currents on D.C. generators which winding is generally
. preferred?
1 Progressive wave winding
2 Lap winding
3 Retrogressive wave winding
4 Current depends on design
Ans:2
Q
A. C. servomotor is basically a/an ...
.
1 Universal motor
2 Single phase induction motor
3 Two phase induction motor
4 Three phase induction motor
Ans:3
Q.

Co-efficient of velocity as compared to

the coefficient of discharge is 1 Less
2 More
3 Equal
4 Less or more depending on flow
Ans:2

Q The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to -

.
1 Momentum
2 Velocity
3 Displacement
4 Mass
Ans:4
Q
...signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs are equal.
.
1 Input
2 Actuating
3 Feedback
4 Reference
Ans:2
Q
Motor-generator set for D. C. arc welding has generator of .
1 Series type
2 Shunt type
3 Differentially compound type
4 Level compound type
Ans:3
Q Which of the following motors is preferred when quick speed reversal is the main
. consideration?
1 Squirrel cage induction motor
2 Wound rotor induction motor
3 Synchronous motor
4 D. C. motor
Ans:4
Q
In case of ball bearings, which part is made harder than others .
1 Ball
2 Outer race
3 Inner race
4 All are made equally hard
Ans:4
Q
Selectivity of the receiver can be increased by which of the following?
.
1 By using more tuned circuit
2 By decreasing number of tuned circuit
3 By using loudspeaker

4 By increasing gain of the receiver

Ans:4
Q An electronics circuits in which different components such as Diode, Resistor and
. Capacitor etc. are connected separately is called 1 Chassis
2 Printed board
3 Integrated circuit
4 Discrete circuit
Ans:3
Q
What are Ferrites?
.
1 Magnetic but have low resistance
2 Magnetic but have high resistance
3 Non-magnetic with low resistance
4 Non-magnetic with high resistance
Ans:2
Q
How will a red flower appear, if it is seen through a green glass?
.
1 Red
2 Brown
3 White
4 Green
Ans:2
Q. What is the unit of electrical energy?
1 Ampere
2 Volt
3 Watt
4 Kilowatt-hour
Ans:4
Q
A diode....
.
1 Functions only in one direction
2 Functions in both the directions
3 Does not function at all
4 It gets damaged, when voltage is applied
Ans:1
Q
What is the frequency of the receiver?
.
1 488 kHz

2 445 kHz
3 455 kHz
4 456 kHz
Ans:4
Q What would be the expenditure in 30 days at the rate of 50 paise per unit, if a bulb
. of 100 W is used five hours per day?
1 Rs. 10.50
2 Rs. 8.50
3 Rs. 7.50
4 Rs. 9.50
Ans:3
Q
Lever functions on which of the following principles?
.
1 Crank-shaft
2 Joining rod
3 Crank pin
4 Cross head
Ans:1
Q
Protein is not available in which of the following?
.
1 Meat
2 Milk
3 Rice
4 Pulse
Ans:3
Q
In steam turbine the action of steam is .
1 Stable
2 Dynamic
3 Stable and dynamic
4 Neither stable nor dynamic
Ans:2
Q
Among the following statement which is the false?
.
1 Only minority impurities are added in a junction diode
2 Higher temperature increases the leakage current of diode
3 A simple zener diode works when connected between anode to cathode
4 Zener is mostly used in voltage regulator
Ans:1

Q In resistance heating, highest working temperature is obtained from heating

. elements made of...
1 Nickel and copper
2 Nichrome
3 Silicon carbide
4 Silver
Ans:2
Q
When the load is above ....., a synchronous motor is found to be more economical.
.
1 2 KW
2 20 KW
3 50 KW
4 100 KW
Ans:3
To convert moving coil galvanometer
Q. into an ammeter, which of the following
methods is used?
1 Small resistance in series
2 Small resistance in parallel
3 High resistance in series
4 High resistance in parallel
Ans:2
Q
Which of the following can be used to control the speed of a D. C. motor?
.
1 Thermistor
2 Thyristor
3 Thyratron
4 Transistor
Ans:2
Q
Minority carrier in P-type semiconductor is .
1 Free electrons
2 Free holes
3 Holes and electrons both
4 Holes minus electrons
Ans:2
Q
Pulley in a belt drive acts as .
1 Cylindrical pair

2 Turning pair
3 Rolling pair
4 Sliding pair
Ans:1
Q
While checked with a multimeter, an open resistor reads .
1 Zero
2 Infinite
3 High but within tolerance.
4 Low but not zero
Ans:2
Q
In amplitude modulation .
1 Amplitude of the carrier is kept constant
2 Change occurs in carrier frequency
3 Amplitude is varied according to the instaneous value of modelling wave
4 None of these
Ans:3
Q
The blue colour of the clear sky is due to .
1 Diffraction of light
2 Dispersion of light
3 Reflection of light
4 Refraction of light
Ans:2
Q
Which of the following is used in semi-conductors?
.
1 Aluminium
2 Copper
3 Silicon
4 None of these
Ans:3
Q
Which one of the following allotropes of carbon is used for cutting and drilling?
.
1 Diamond
2 Graphite
3 Activated carbon
4 Carbon black
Ans:1

Q
Which one of the following is a vector?
.
1 Kinetic energy
2 Pressure
3 Rate of change of momentum
4 Density
Ans:3
Q. X-rays comprise of:
1 Electrons only
2 Protons only
3 Neutrons only
Electromagnetic radiations
4
Ans:4
Q
The power of lens is - 2D. What is its focal length?
.
1 2m
2 0.5m
3 1.0m
4 0.5m
Ans:4