ROUTE 300-101

Access List
Question 1
What does the following access list, which is applied on the external interface FastEthernet 1/0 of the
perimeter router, accomplish?
router(config)#access-list 101 deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any log
router (config)#access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any log
router (config)#access-list 101 deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any log
router (config)#access-list 101 permit ip any any
router (config)#interface FastEthernet 1/0
router (config-if)#ip access-group 101 in
A. It prevents incoming traffic from IP address ranges 10.0.0.0 10.0.0.255, 172.16.0.0
172.31.255.255, 192.168.0.0 192.168.255.255 and logs any intrusion attempts.
B. It prevents the internal network from being used in spoofed denial of service attacks and logs any exit
to the Internet.
C. It filters incoming traffic from private addresses in order to prevent spoofing and logs any intrusion
attempts.
D. It prevents private internal addresses to be accessed directly from outside.
Answer: C
Question 2
Refer to the following access list.
access-list 100 permit ip any any log
After applying the access list on a Cisco router, the network engineer notices that the router CPU utilization
has risen to 99 percent. What is the reason for this?
A. A packet that matches access-list with the log keyword is Cisco Express Forwarding switched.
B. A packet that matches access-list with the log keyword is fast switched.
C. A packet that matches access-list with the log keyword is process switched.
D. A large amount of IP traffic is being permitted on the router.

Answer: C

Explanation
Logging-enabled access control lists (ACLs) provide insight into traffic as it traverses the network or is
dropped by network devices. Unfortunately, ACL logging can be CPU intensive and can negatively affect
other functions of the network device. There are two primary factors that contribute to the CPU load
increase from ACL logging: process switching of packets that match log-enabled access control
entries (ACEs) and the generation and transmission of log messages.
Process switching is the slowest switching methods (compared to fast switching and Cisco Express
Forwarding) because it must find a destination in the routing table. Process switching must also construct
a new Layer 2 frame header for every packet. With process switching, when a packet comes in, the
scheduler calls a process that examines the routing table, determines which interface the packet should be
switched to and then switches the packet. The problem is, this happens for the every packet.
Question 3
For troubleshooting purposes, which method can you use in combination with the debug ip packet
command to limit the amount of output data?
A. You can disable the IP route cache globally.
B. You can use the KRON scheduler.
C. You can use an extended access list.
D. You can use an IOS parser.
E. You can use the RITE traffic exporter.

Answer: C
Explanation
If you use the debug ip packet command on a production router, you can bring it down since it generates
an output for every packet and the output can be extensive. The best way to limit the output of debug ip
packet is to create an access-list that linked to the debug. Only packets that match the access-list criteria
will be subject to debug ip packet. For example, this is how to monitor traffic from 1.1.1.1 to 2.2.2.2
access-list 100 permit ip 1.1.1.1 2.2.2.2
debug ip packet 100

Note: The debug ip packet command is used to monitor packets that are processed by the routers
routing engine and are not fast switched.

Point-to-Point Protocol
Question 1
PPPoE is composed of which two phases?
A. Active Authentication Phase and PPP Session Phase
B. Passive Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase
C. Active Authorization Phase and PPP Session Phase
D. Active Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase
Answer: D
Explanation
PPPoE provides a standard method of employing the authentication methods of the Point-to-Point Protocol
(PPP) over an Ethernet network. When used by ISPs, PPPoE allows authenticated assignment of IP
addresses. In this type of implementation, the PPPoE client and server are interconnected by Layer 2
bridging protocols running over a DSL or other broadband connection.
PPPoE is composed of two main phases:
+ Active Discovery Phase: In this phase, the PPPoE client locates a PPPoE server, called an access
concentrator. During this phase, a Session ID is assigned and the PPPoE layer is established.
+ PPP Session Phase: In this phase, PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once
the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method, allowing data to be
transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
Question 2
Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?
A. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed. Once the link setup is completed,
PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link
within PPPoE headers.
B. PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed,
PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link
within PPPoE headers.
C. PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed. Once the link setup is completed,
PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted over the PPP link
within PPPoE headers.

D. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE
functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within
PPPoE headers.
Answer: D
Explanation
PPP Session Phase: In this phase, PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the
link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method, allowing data to be
transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
Question 3
A corporate policy requires PPPoE to be enabled and to maintain a connection with the ISP, even if no
interesting traffic exists. Which feature can be used to accomplish this task?
A. TCP Adjust
B. Dialer Persistent
C. PPPoE Groups
D. half-bridging
E. Peer Neighbor Route
Answer: B
Explanation
The dialer persistent command (under interface configuration mode) allows a dial-on-demand routing
(DDR) dialer profile connection to be brought up without being triggered by interesting traffic. When
configured, the dialer persistent command starts a timer when the dialer interface starts up and starts the
connection when the timer expires. If interesting traffic arrives before the timer expires, the connection is
still brought up and set as persistent. An example of configuring is shown below:
interface Dialer1
ip address 12.12.12.1 255.255.255.0
encapsulation ppp
dialer-pool 1
dialer persistent

Question 4
Which PPP authentication method sends authentication information in cleartext?
A. MS CHAP
B. CDPCP
C. CHAP

D. PAP
Answer: D
Explanation
Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) is a very basic two-way process. The username and password are
sent in plain text, there is no encryption or protection. If it is accepted, the connection is allowed. The
configuration below shows how to configure PAP on two routers:
R1(config)#username R2 password digitaltut1

R2(config)#username R1 password digitaltut2

R1(config)#interface s0/0/0

R2(config)#interface s0/0/0

R1(config-if)#encapsulation ppp

R2(config-if)#encapsulation ppp

R1(config-if)#ppp authentication PAP

R2(config-if)#ppp authentication PAP

R1(config-if)#ppp pap sent-username R1 password

R2(config-if)#ppp pap sent-username R2 password

digitaltut2

digitaltut1

Note: The PAP sent-username and password that each router sends must match those specified with the
username password command on the other router.
Question 5
Prior to enabling PPPoE in a virtual private dialup network group, which task must be completed?
A. Disable CDP on the interface.
B. Execute the vpdn enable command.
C. Execute the no switchport command.
D. Enable QoS FIFO for PPPoE support.
Answer: B
Explanation
The vpdn enable command is used to enable virtual private dialup networking (VPDN) on the router and
inform the router to look for tunnel definitions in a local database and on a remote authorization server
(home gateway). The following steps include: configure the VPDN group; configure the virtual-template;
create the IP pools.
Question 6
A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and authenticated
using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can be used for
authentication in this manner?
A. PAP
B. dot1x

C. IPsec
D. CHAP
E. ESP
Answer: D
Explanation
There are three authentication methods that can be used to authenticate a PPPoE connection:
+ CHAP Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol
+ MS-CHAP Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol Version 1 & 2
+ PAP Password Authentication Protocol
In which MS-CHAP & CHAP are two encrypted authentication protocol while PAP is unencrypted
authentication protocol.
Note: PAP authentication involves a two-way handshake where the username and password are sent
across the link in clear text; hence, PAP authentication does not provide any protection against playback
and line sniffing.
With CHAP, the server (authenticator) sends a challenge to the remote access client. The client uses a
hash algorithm (also known as a hash function) to compute a Message Digest-5 (MD5) hash result based
on the challenge and a hash result computed from the users password. The client sends the MD5 hash
result to the server. The server, which also has access to the hash result of the users password, performs
the same calculation using the hash algorithm and compares the result to the one sent by the client. If the
results match, the credentials of the remote access client are considered authentic. A hash algorithm
provides one-way encryption, which means that calculating the hash result for a data block is easy, but
determining the original data block from the hash result is mathematically infeasible.

CEF & Fast Switching

Question 1
Refer to the exhibit

Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?

A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
Answer: C
Explanation
The command show ip cef is used to display the CEF Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table. There are
some entries we want to explain:
+ If the Next Hop field of a network prefix is set to receive, the entry represents an IP address on one
of the routers interfaces. In this case, 192.168.201.2 and 192.168.201.31 are IP addresses assigned to
interfaces on the local router.
+ If the Next Hop field of a network prefix is set to attached, the entry represents a network to which
the router is directly attached. In this case the prefix 192.168.201.0/27 is a network directly attached to
router R2s Fa0/0 interface.
But there are some special cases:
+ The all-0s host addresses (for example, 192.168.201.0/32) and the all-1s host addresses (not have in
the output above but for example, 192.168.201.255/32) also show as receive entries.
+ 255.255.255.255/32 is the local broadcast address for a subnet
+ 0.0.0.0/32: maybe it is a reserved link-local address
+ 0.0.0.0/0: This is the default route that matching all other addresses (also known as gateway of last
resort). In this case it points to 192.168.201.1 -> Answer C is correct.
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the
incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion
Answer: A
Explanation
The show adjacency command is used to display information about the Cisco Express Forwarding
adjacency table or the hardware Layer 3-switching adjacency table.
There are two known reasons for an incomplete adjacency:
+ The router cannot use ARP successfully for the next-hop interface.
+ After a clear ip arp or a clear adjacency command, the router marks the adjacency as incomplete.
Then it fails to clear the entry.
Note: Two nodes in the network are considered adjacent if they can reach each other using only one hop.
Question 3
Which switching method is used when entries are present in the output of the command show ip cache?
A. fast switching
B. process switching
C. Cisco Express Forwarding switching
D. cut-through packet switching
Answer: A
Explanation
The show ip cache command displays the contents of a routers fast cache. An example of the output of
this command is shown below:

Note: If CEF is disabled and fast switching is enabled, the router begins to populate its fast cache.
Question 4
How does an IOS router process a packet that should be switched by Cisco Express Forwarding without an
FIB entry?
A. by forwarding the packet
B. by dropping the packet
C. by creating a new FIB entry for the packet
D. by looking in the routing table for an alternate FIB entry
Answer: B

Frame Relay Questions

Question 1
Which protocol uses dynamic address mapping to request the next-hop protocol address for a specific
connection?
A. Frame Relay inverse ARP
B. static DLCI mapping
C. Frame Relay broadcast queue
D. dynamic DLCI mapping
Answer: A
Explanation

Normal (Ethernet) ARP Request knows the Layer 3 address (IP) and requests for Layer 2 address (MAC).
On the other hand, Frame Relay Inverse ARP knows the Layer 2 address (DLCI) and requests for Layer 3
address (IP) so we called it Inverse.
Question 2
What is the default OSPF hello interval on a Frame Relay point-to-point network?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Answer: A
Explanation
When saying Frame Relay point-to-point network, it means Frame Relay subinterfaces run point-topoint. Notice that Frame Relay subinterfaces can run in two modes:
+ Point-to-Point: When a Frame Relay point-to-point subinterface is configured, the subinterface emulates
a point-to-point network and OSPF treats it as a point-to-point network type
+ Multipoint: When a Frame Relay multipoint subinterface is configured, OSPF treats this subinterface as
an NBMA network type.
And there are 4 network types which can be configured with OSPF. The hello & dead intervals of these
types are listed below:
Network Type

Hello Interval (secs)

Dead Interval (secs)

Point-to-Point

10

40

Point-to-Multipoint 30

120

Broadcast

10

40

Non-Broadcast

30

120

Therefore the default OSPF hello interval on a Frame Relay point-to-point network is 10 seconds.

GRE Tunnel

Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. After configuring GRE between two routers running OSPF that are connected to each
other via a WAN link, a network engineer notices that the two routers cannot establish the GRE tunnel to
begin the exchange of routing updates. What is the reason for this?

A. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking IP protocol number 47.
B. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking UDP 57.
C. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking TCP 47.
D. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking IP protocol number 57.
Answer: A
Explanation
GRE packets are encapsulated within IP and use IP protocol type 47

DMVPN Questions
Question 1
Refer to the following output:
Router#show ip nhrp detail
10.1.1.2/8 via 10.2.1.2, Tunnel1 created 00:00:12, expire 01:59:47
Type: dynamic, Flags: authoritative unique nat registered used
NBMA address: 10.12.1.2
What does the authoritative flag mean in regards to the NHRP information?
A. It was obtained directly from the next-hop server.
B. Data packets are process switches for this mapping entry.
C. NHRP mapping is for networks that are local to this router.
D. The mapping entry was created in response to an NHRP registration request.
E. The NHRP mapping entry cannot be overwritten.

Answer: A
Explanation
From the output we learn that the logical address 10.2.1.2 is mapped to the NBMA address 10.12.1.2.
Type dynamic means NBMA address was obtained from NHRP Request packet. Type static means NBMA
address is statically configured. The authoritative flag means that the NHRP information was obtained
from the Next Hop Server (NHS).
Question 2
Which common issue causes intermittent DMVPN tunnel flaps?
A. a routing neighbor reachability issue
B. a suboptimal routing table
C. interface bandwidth congestion
D. that the GRE tunnel to hub router is not encrypted
Answer: A
Explanation
When DMVPN tunnels flap, check the neighborship between the routers as issues with neighborship
formation between routers may cause the DMVPN tunnel to flap. In order to resolve this problem, make
sure the neighborship between the routers is always up.
Question 3
Which Cisco IOS VPN technology leverages IPsec, mGRE, dynamic routing protocol, NHRP, and Cisco
Express Forwarding?
A. FlexVPN
B. DMVPN
C. GETVPN
D. Cisco Easy VPN
Answer: B
Explanation
DMVPN is not a protocol, it is the combination of the following technologies:
+ Multipoint GRE (mGRE)
+ Next-Hop Resolution Protocol (NHRP)
+ Dynamic Routing Protocol (EIGRP, RIP, OSPF, BGP) (optional)

+ Dynamic IPsec encryption (optional)

+ Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)
Question 4
A company has just opened two remote branch offices that need to be connected to the corporate
network. Which interface configuration output can be applied to the corporate router to allow
communication to the remote sites?
A. interface Tunnel0
bandwidth 1536
ip address 209.165.200.230 255.255.255.224
tunnel source Serial0/0
tunnel mode gre multipoint
B. interface fa0/0
bandwidth 1536
ip address 209.165.200.230 255.255.255.224
tunnel mode gre multipoint
C. interface Tunnel0
bandwidth 1536
ip address 209.165.200.231 255.255.255.224
tunnel source 209.165.201.1
tunnel-mode dynamic
D. interface fa 0/0
bandwidth 1536
ip address 209.165.200.231 255.255.255.224
tunnel source 192.168.161.2
tunnel destination 209.165.201.1
tunnel-mode dynamic
Answer: A
Explanation
To allow communication to multiple sites using only one tunnel interface, we need to configure that tunnel
in multipoint mode. Otherwise we have to create many tunnel interfaces, each can only communicate to
one site.

Question 5
Which Cisco VPN technology can use multipoint tunnel, resulting in a single GRE tunnel interface on the
hub, to support multiple connections from multiple spoke devices?
A. DMVPN
B. GETVPN
C. Cisco Easy VPN
D. FlexVPN
Answer: A
Explanation
An mGRE tunnel inherits the concept of a classic GRE tunnel but an mGRE tunnel does not require a
unique tunnel interface for each connection between Hub and spoke like traditional GRE. One mGRE can
handle multiple GRE tunnels at the other ends. Unlike classic GRE tunnels, the tunnel destination for a
mGRE tunnel does not have to be configured; and all tunnels on Spokes connecting to mGRE interface of
the Hub can use the same subnet.

TCP UDP Questions

Question 1
Under which condition does UDP dominance occur?
A. when TCP traffic is in the same class as UDP
B. when UDP flows are assigned a lower priority queue
C. when WRED is enabled
D. when ACLs are in place to block TCP traffic
Answer: A
Explanation
It is a general best practice to not mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially StreamingVideo) within a single service-provider class because of the behaviors of these protocols during periods of
congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters throttle back flows when drops are detected. Although some UDP
applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP
transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and, thus, never lower transmission rates because of
dropping.
When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows within a single service-provider class and the class
experiences congestion, TCP flows continually lower their transmission rates, potentially giving up their
bandwidth to UDP flows that are oblivious to drops. This effect is called TCP starvation/UDP dominance.
TCP starvation/UDP dominance likely occurs if TCP-based applications is assigned to the same serviceprovider class as UDP-based applications and the class experiences sustained congestion.
Granted, it is not always possible to separate TCP-based flows from UDP-based flows, but it is beneficial to
be aware of this behavior when making such application-mixing decisions within a single service-provider
class.

Question 2
Which two actions must you perform to enable and use window scaling on a router? (Choose two)
A. Execute the command ip tcp window-size 65536.
B. Set window scaling to be used on the remote host.
C. Execute the command ip tcp queuemax.
D. Set TCP options to enabled on the remote host.
E. Execute the command ip tcp adjust-mss.
Answer: A B
Question 3
Which three TCP enhancements can be used with TCP selective acknowledgments? (Choose three)
A. header compression
B. explicit congestion notification
C. keepalive
D. time stamps
E. TCP path discovery
F. MTU window
Answer: B C D
Explanation
TCP Selective Acknowledgement (SACK) prevents unnecessary retransmissions by specifying successfully
received subsequent data. Lets see an example of the advantages of TCP SACK.

TCP Selective Acknowledgement

TCP (Normal) Acknowledgement

For TCP (normal) acknowledgement, when a client requests data, server sends the first three
segments (named of packets at Layer 4): Segment#1,#2,#3. But suppose Segment#2 was lost
somewhere on the network while Segment#3 stills reached the client. Client checks Segment#3 and
realizes Segment#2 was missing so it can only acknowledge that it received Segment#1 successfully.
Client received Segment#1 and #3 so it creates two ACKs#1 to alert the server that it has not received
any data beyond Segment#1. After receiving these ACKs, the server must resend Segment#2,#3 and wait
for the ACKs of these segments.
For TCP Selective Acknowledgement, the process is the same until the Client realizes Segment#2 was
missing. It also sends ACK#1 but adding SACK to indicate it has received Segment#3 successfully (so no
need to retransmit this segment. Therefore the server only needs to resend Segment#2 only. But notice
that after receiving Segment#2, the Client sends ACK#3 (not ACK#2) to say that it had all first three
segments. Now the server will continue sending Segment #4,#5,
The SACK option is not mandatory and it is used only if both parties support it.
The TCP Explicit Congestion Notification (ECN) feature allows an intermediate router to notify end
hosts of impending network congestion. It also provides enhanced support for TCP sessions associated
with applications, such as Telnet, web browsing, and transfer of audio and video data that are sensitive to
delay or packet loss. The benefit of this feature is the reduction of delay and packet loss in data
transmissions. Use the ip tcp ecn command in global configuration mode to enable TCP ECN.

The TCP time-stamp option provides improved TCP round-trip time measurements. Because the time
stamps are always sent and echoed in both directions and the time-stamp value in the header is always
changing, TCP header compression will not compress the outgoing packet. Use the ip tcp timestamp
command to enable the TCP time-stamp option.
The TCP Keepalive Timer feature provides a mechanism to identify dead connections. When a TCP
connection on a routing device is idle for too long, the device sends a TCP keepalive packet to the peer
with only the Acknowledgment (ACK) flag turned on. If a response packet (a TCP ACK packet) is not
received after the device sends a specific number of probes, the connection is considered dead and the
device initiating the probes frees resources used by the TCP connection.
Question 4
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease
simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
Answer: A
Explanation
Global synchronization occurs when multiple TCP hosts reduce their transmission rates in response to
congestion. But when congestion is reduced, TCP hosts try to increase their transmission rates again
simultaneously (known as slow-start algorithm), which causes another congestion. Global synchronization
produces this graph:

Global synchronization reduces optimal throughput of network applications and tail drop contributes to this
phenomenon. When an interface on a router cannot transmit a packet immediately, the packet is queued.
Packets are then taken out of the queue and eventually transmitted on the interface. But if the arrival rate
of packets to the output interface exceeds the ability of the router to buffer and forward traffic, the queues
increase to their maximum length and the interface becomes congested. Tail drop is the default queuing
response to congestion. Tail drop simply means that drop all the traffic that exceeds the queue limit. Tail
drop treats all traffic equally and does not differentiate among classes of service.
Question 5
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no
QoS? (Choose three)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Answer: A C E
Explanation
When TCP is mixing with UDP under congestion, TCP flows will try to lower their transmission rate while
UDP flows continue transmitting as usual. As a result of this, UDP flows will dominate the bandwidth of the
link and this effect is called TCP-starvation/UDP-dominance. This can increase latency and lower the
overall throughput.

Question 6
A network administrator uses IP SLA to measure UDP performance and notices that packets on one router
have a higher one-way delay compared to the opposite direction. Which UDP characteristic does this
scenario describe?
A. latency
B. starvation
C. connectionless communication
D. nonsequencing unordered packets
E. jitter
Answer: A
Question 7
A network engineer is configuring a routed interface to forward broadcasts of UDP 69, 53, and 49 to
172.20.14.225. Which command should be applied to the configuration to allow this?
A. router(config-if)#ip helper-address 172.20.14.225
B. router(config-if)#udp helper-address 172.20.14.225
C. router(config-if)#ip udp helper-address 172.20.14.225
D. router(config-if)#ip helper-address 172.20.14.225 69 53 49
Answer: A
Question 8
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the
queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Answer: A
Explanation
If the speed of an interface is equal or less than 768 kbps (half of a T1 link), it is considered a low-speed
interface. The half T1 only offers enough bandwidth to allow voice packets to enter and leave without
delay issues. Therefore if the speed of the link is smaller than 768 kbps, it should not be configured with a
queue.

Distribute List
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Which one statement is true?

A. Traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network will be blocked by the ACL.
B. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be advertised by Router B because the network statement for the
10.0.0.0/8 network is missing from Router B.
C. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be in the routing table on Router B.
D. Users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network can successfully ping users on the 192.168.5.0/24 network, but users
on the 192.168.5.0/24 cannot successfully ping users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
E. Router B will not advertise the 10.0.0.0/8 network because it is blocked by the ACL.
Answer: E
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit
access-list 1 permit 1.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
access-list 2 permit 1.2.3.0 0.0.0.255
!
router rip
Which command only announces the 1.2.3.0/24 network out of FastEthernet0/0?
A. distribute list 1 out
B. distribute list 1 out FastEthernet0/0
C. distribute list 2 out
D. distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0
Answer: D

Explanation
A distribute list is used to filter routing updates either coming to or leaving from our router. In this case,
the out keyword specifies we want to filter traffic leaving from our router. Access-list 2 indicates only
routing update for network 1.2.3.0/24 is allowed (notice that every access-list always has an implicit deny
all at the end).

EVN & VRF Questions

Quick review:
Easy Virtual Network (EVN) is an IP-based network virtualization solution that helps enable network
administrators to provide traffic separation and path isolation on a shared network infrastructure. EVN
uses existing Virtual Route Forwarding (VRF)-Lite technology to:
+ Simplify Layer 3 network virtualization
+ Improve shared services support
+ Enhance management, troubleshooting, and usability
Question 1
Which three characteristics are shared by subinterfaces and associated EVNs? (Choose three)
A. IP address
B. routing table
C. forwarding table
D. access control lists
E. NetFlow configuration
Answer: A B (?) C (?)
Explanation
All the subinterfaces and associated EVNs have the same IP address assigned. In other words, a trunk
interface is identified by the same IP address in different EVN contexts. EVN automatically generates
subinterfaces for each EVN. For example, both Blue and Green VPN Routing and Forwarding (VRF) use
the same IP address of 10.0.0.1 on their trunk interface:
vrf definition Blue
vnet tag 100
vrf definition Green
vnet tag 200
!
interface gigabitethernet0/0/0

vnet trunk
ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0

-> A is correct.
In fact answer B & C are not correct because each EVN has separate routing table and forwarding table.
Note: The combination of the VPN IP routing table and the associated VPN IP forwarding table is called a
VPN routing and forwarding (VRF) instance.
Question 2
Which encapsulation supports an interface that is configured for an EVN trunk?
A. 802.1Q
B. ISL
C. PPP
D. Frame Relay
E. MPLS
F. HDLC
Answer: A
Explanation
EVN is supported on any interface that supports 802.1q encapsulation, for example, an Ethernet interface.
Instead of adding a new field to carry the VNET tag in a packet, the VLAN ID field in 802.1q is repurposed
to carry a VNET tag. The VNET tag uses the same position in the packet as a VLAN ID. On a trunk
interface, the packet gets re-encapsulated with a VNET tag. Untagged packets carrying the VLAN ID are
not EVN packets and could be transported over the same trunk interfaces.
Question 3
What is the purpose of the autonomous-system {autonomous-system-number} command?
A. It sets the EIGRP autonomous system number in a VRF.
B. It sets the BGP autonomous system number in a VRF.
C. It sets the global EIGRP autonomous system number.
D. It sets the global BGP autonomous system number.
Answer: A
Explanation
An example of using autonomous-system {autonomous-system-number} command is shown below:

router eigrp 100

address-family ipv4 vrf Cust
net 192.168.12.0
autonomous-system 100
no auto-summary

This configuration is performed under the Provide Edge (PE) router to run EIGRP with a Customer Edge
(CE) router. The autonomous-system 100 command indicates that the EIGRP AS100 is running between
PE & CE routers.
Question 4
What is the primary service that is provided when you implement Cisco Easy Virtual Network?
A. It requires and enhances the use of VRF-Lite.
B. It reduces the need for common services separation.
C. It allows for traffic separation and improved network efficiency.
D. It introduces multi-VRF and label-prone network segmentation.
Answer: C
Question 5
Which Cisco VPN technology uses AAA to implement group policies and authorization and is also used for
the XAUTH authentication method?
A. DMVPN
B. Cisco Easy VPN
C. GETVPN
D. GREVPN
Answer: B
Question 6
Which three benefits does the Cisco Easy Virtual Network provide to an enterprise network? (Choose
three)
A. simplified Layer 3 network virtualization
B. improved shared services support
C. enhanced management, troubleshooting, and usability
D. reduced configuration and deployment time for dot1q trunking
E. increased network performance and throughput
F. decreased BGP neighbor configurations

Answer: A B C
Explanation
EVN builds on the existing IP-based virtualization mechanism known as VRF-Lite. EVN provides
enhancements in path isolation, simplified configuration and management, and improved shared service
support
Maybe the improved shared services support term here implies about the support of sharing between
different VRFs (through route-target, MP-BGP)
Question 7
A network engineer has set up VRF-Lite on two routers where all the interfaces are in the same VRF. At a
later time, a new loopback is added to Router 1, but it cannot ping any of the existing interfaces. Which
two configurations enable the local or remote router to ping the loopback from any existing interface?
(Choose two)
A. adding a static route for the VRF that points to the global route table
B. adding the loopback to the VRF
C. adding dynamic routing between the two routers and advertising the loopback
D. adding the IP address of the loopback to the export route targets for the VRF
E. adding a static route for the VRF that points to the loopback interface
F. adding all interfaces to the global and VRF routing tables
Answer: A B
Explanation
This question is not clear because we have to configure a static route pointing to the global routing table
while it stated that all interfaces are in the same VRF. But we should understand both outside and inside
interfaces want to ping the loopback interface.

BGP Questions
Question 1
Which type of BGP AS number is 64591?
A. a private AS number
B. a public AS number
C. a private 4-byte AS number
D. a public 4-byte AS number

Answer: A
Explanation
Private autonomous system (AS) numbers which range from 64512 to 65535 are used to conserve globally
unique AS numbers. Globally unique AS numbers (1 64511) are assigned by InterNIC. These private AS
number cannot be leaked to a global Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) table because they are not unique
(BGP best path calculation expects unique AS numbers).

Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding

Question 1
What are the three modes of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. strict mode, loose mode, and VRF mode
B. strict mode, loose mode, and broadcast mode
C. strict mode, broadcast mode, and VRF mode
D. broadcast mode, loose mode, and VRF mode
Answer: A
Explanation
The Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding feature (Unicast RPF) helps the network guard against malformed or
spoofed IP packets passing through a router. A spoofed IP address is one that is manipulated to have a
forged IP source address. Unicast RPF enables the administrator to drop packets that lack a verifiable
source IP address at the router.
Unicast RPF is enabled on a router interface. When this feature is enabled, the router checks packets that
arrive inbound on the interface to see whether the source address matches the receiving interface. Cisco
Express Forwarding (CEF) is required on the router because the Forwarding Information Base (FIB) is the
mechanism checked for the interface match.
Unicast RPF works in one of three different modes:
+ Strict mode: router will perform two checks for all incoming packets on a certain interface. First check
is if the router has a matching entry for the source in the routing table. Second check is if the router uses
the same interface to reach this source as where it received this packet on.
+ Loose mode: only check if the router has a matching entry for the source in the routing table
+ VRF mode: leverage either loose or strict mode in a given VRF and will evaluate an incoming packets
source IP address against the VRF table configured for an eBGP neighbor.
Question 2

Which address is used by the Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding protocol to validate a packet against the
routing table?
A. source address
B. destination address
C. router interface
D. default gateway
Answer: A
Explanation
When Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding is enabled, the router checks packets that arrive inbound on the
interface to see whether the source address matches the receiving interface.

IP Services Questions
Question 1
A network engineer is configuring SNMP on network devices to utilize one-way SNMP notifications.
However, the engineer is not concerned with authentication or encryption. Which command satisfies the
requirements of this scenario?
A. router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 traps version 2c CISCORO
B. router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 informs version 2c CISCORO
C. router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 traps version 3 auth CISCORO
D. router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 informs version 3 auth CISCORO
Answer: A
Explanation
The engineer is not concerned with authentication or encryption so we dont need to use SNMP version 3.
And we only use one-way SNMP notifications so SNMP messages should be sent as traps (no need to
acknowledge from the SNMP server) -> A is correct.
Question 2
When using SNMPv3 with NoAuthNoPriv, which string is matched for authentication?
A. username
B. password
C. community-string
D. encryption-key

Answer: A
Explanation
There are three SNMP security levels (for SNMPv1, SNMPv2c, and SNMPv3):
+ noAuthNoPriv: Security level that does not provide authentication or encryption.
+ authNoPriv: Security level that provides authentication but does not provide encryption.
+ authPriv: Security level that provides both authentication and encryption.
For SNMPv3, noAuthNoPriv level uses a username match for authentication.
Question 3
Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?
A. discover messages
B. DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C. traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D. DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match
Answer: B
Explanation
The switch validates DHCP packets received on the untrusted interfaces of VLANs with DHCP snooping
enabled. The switch forwards the DHCP packet unless any of the following conditions occur (in which case
the packet is dropped):
+ The switch receives a packet (such as a DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK, DHCPNAK, or DHCPLEASEQUERY
packet) from a DHCP server outside the network or firewall.
+ The switch receives a packet on an untrusted interface, and the source MAC address and the DHCP
client hardware address do not match. This check is performed only if the DHCP snooping MAC address
verification option is turned on.
+ The switch receives a DHCPRELEASE or DHCPDECLINE message from an untrusted host with an entry in
the DHCP snooping binding table, and the interface information in the binding table does not match the
interface on which the message was received.
+ The switch receives a DHCP packet that includes a relay agent IP address that is not 0.0.0.0.
Question 4
A network engineer is trying to implement broadcast-based NTP in a network and executes the ntp
broadcast client command. Assuming that an NTP server is already set up, what is the result of the
command?
A. It enables receiving NTP broadcasts on the interface where the command was executed.
B. It enables receiving NTP broadcasts on all interfaces globally.

C. It enables a device to be an NTP peer to another device.

D. It enables a device to receive NTP broadcast and unicast packets.
Answer: A
Explanation
The ntp broadcast client command is used under interface mode to allow the device to receive Network
Time Protocol (NTP) broadcast packets on that interface
Question 5
A network engineer initiates the ip sla responder tcp-connect command in order to gather statistics for
performance gauging. Which type of statistics does the engineer see?
A. connectionless-oriented
B. service-oriented
C. connection-oriented
D. application-oriented
Answer: C
Explanation
The keyword tcp-connect enables the responder for TCP connect operations. TCP is a connection-oriented
transport layer protocol -> C is correct.
Question 6
A network engineer is configuring a solution to allow failover of HSRP nodes during maintenance windows,
as an alternative to powering down the active router and letting the network respond accordingly. Which
action will allow for manual switching of HSRP nodes?
A. Track the up/down state of a loopback interface and shut down this interface during maintenance.
B. Adjust the HSRP priority without the use of preemption.
C. Disable and enable all active interfaces on the active HSRP node.
D. Enable HSRPv2 under global configuration, which allows for maintenance mode.
Answer: A
Explanation
We can test the action of HSRP by tracking the loopback interface and decrease the HSRP priority so that
the standby router can take the active role.
Question 7

Refer to the following command:

router(config)# ip http secure-port 4433
Which statement is true?
A. The router will listen on port 4433 for HTTPS traffic.
B. The router will listen on port 4433 for HTTP traffic.
C. The router will never accept any HTTP and HTTPS traffic.
D. The router will listen to HTTP and HTTP traffic on port 4433.
Answer: A
Explanation
The ip http secure-port is used to set the secure HTTP (HTTPS) server port number for listening.
Question 8
A network engineer executes the show crypto ipsec sa command. Which three pieces of information are
displayed in the output? (Choose three)
A. inbound crypto map
B. remaining key lifetime
C. path MTU
D. tagged packets
E. untagged packets
F. invalid identity packets
Answer: A B C
Explanation
This command shows IPsec Security Associations (SAs) built between peers. An example of the output of
above command is shown below:

Router#show crypto ipsec sa

interface: FastEthernet0
Crypto map tag: test, local addr. 12.1.1.1
local

ident (addr/mask/prot/port): (20.1.1.0/255.255.255.0/0/0)

remote ident (addr/mask/prot/port): (10.1.1.0/255.255.255.0/0/0)

current_peer: 12.1.1.2
PERMIT, flags={origin_is_acl,}

#pkts encaps: 7767918, #pkts encrypt: 7767918, #pkts digest 7767918

#pkts decaps: 7760382, #pkts decrypt: 7760382, #pkts verify 7760382
#pkts compressed: 0, #pkts decompressed: 0
#pkts not compressed: 0, #pkts compr. failed: 0,
#pkts decompress failed: 0, #send errors 1, #recv errors 0
local crypto endpt.: 12.1.1.1, remote crypto endpt.: 12.1.1.2
path mtu 1500, media mtu 1500
current outbound spi: 3D3
inbound esp sas:
spi: 0x136A010F(325714191)
transform: esp-3des esp-md5-hmac ,
in use settings ={Tunnel, }
slot: 0, conn id: 3442, flow_id: 1443, crypto map: test
sa timing: remaining key lifetime (k/sec): (4608000/52)
IV size: 8 bytes
replay detection support: Y
inbound ah sas:
inbound pcp sas:
inbound pcp sas:
outbound esp sas:
spi: 0x3D3(979)
transform: esp-3des esp-md5-hmac ,
in use settings ={Tunnel, }
slot: 0, conn id: 3443, flow_id: 1444, crypto map: test
sa timing: remaining key lifetime (k/sec): (4608000/52)
IV size: 8 bytes
replay detection support: Y
outbound ah sas:
outbound pcp sas:

The first part shows the interface and cypto map name that are associated with the interface. Then the
inbound and outbound SAs are shown. These are either AH or ESP SAs. In this case, because you used
only ESP, there are no AH inbound or outbound SAs.
Note: Maybe inbound crypto map here mentions about crypto map name.

Question 9
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the configuration is true?
ip auth-proxy max-nodata-conns 3
ip admission max-nodata-conns 3
ip sla monitor 1
type jitter dest-ipaddr 200.0.10.3 dest-port 65051 num-packets 20
request-data-size 160
tos 128
frequency 30
ip sla monitor shedule 1 start-time after 00:05:00
A. 20 packets are being sent every 30 seconds.
B. The monitor starts at 12:05:00 a.m.
C. Jitter is being tested with TCP packets to port 65051.
D. The packets that are being sent use DSCP EF.
Answer: A
Explanation
The num-packets specifies the number of packets to be sent for a jitter operation.
The frequency is the rate (in seconds) at which this IP SLA operation repeats. The tos defines a type of
service (ToS) byte in the IP header of this IP SLA operation.
Question 10
To configure SNMPv3 implementation, a network engineer is using the AuthNoPriv security level. What
effect does this action have on the SNMP messages?
A. They become unauthenticated and unencrypted.
B. They become authenticated and unencrypted.
C. They become authenticated and encrypted.
D. They become unauthenticated and encrypted.
Answer: B
Explanation
The SNMPv3 Agent supports the following set of security levels:
+ NoAuthnoPriv: Communication without authentication and privacy.
+ AuthNoPriv: Communication with authentication and without privacy. The protocols used for
Authentication are MD5 and SHA (Secure Hash Algorithm).
+ AuthPriv: Communication with authentication and privacy. The protocols used for Authentication are

MD5 and SHA ; and for Privacy, DES (Data Encryption Standard) and AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
protocols can be used. For Privacy Support, you have to install some third-party privacy packages.
Question 11
Which three items can you track when you use two time stamps with IP SLAs? (Choose three)
A. delay
B. jitter
C. packet loss
D. load
E. throughput
F. path
Answer: A B C
Explanation
When enabled, the IP SLAs Responder allows the target device to take two time stamps both when the
packet arrives on the interface at interrupt level and again just as it is leaving, eliminating the processing
time. At times of high network activity, an ICMP ping test often shows a long and inaccurate response
time, while an IP SLAs test shows an accurate response time due to the time stamping on the responder.
An additional benefit of the two time stamps at the target device is the ability to track one-way
delay, jitter, and directional packet loss. Because much network behavior is asynchronous, it is critical
to have these statistics. However, to capture one-way delay measurements the configuration of both the
source device and target device with Network Time Protocol (NTP) is required. Both the source and target
need to be synchronized to the same clock source. One-way jitter measurements do not require clock
synchronization.
Question 12
Which parameter in an SNMPv3 configuration offers authentication and encryption?
A. auth
B. noauth
C. priv
D. secret
Answer: C
Explanation
The SNMPv3 Agent supports the following set of security levels:
+ NoAuthnoPriv: Communication without authentication and privacy.
+ AuthNoPriv: Communication with authentication and without privacy. The protocols used for

Authentication are MD5 and SHA (Secure Hash Algorithm).

+ AuthPriv: Communication with authentication and privacy. The protocols used for Authentication are
MD5 and SHA ; and for Privacy, DES (Data Encryption Standard) and AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
protocols can be used. For Privacy Support, you have to install some third-party privacy packages.
In the CLI, we use priv keyword for AuthPriv (noAuth keyword for noAuthnoPriv; auth keyword
for AuthNoPriv). The following example shows how to configure a remote user to receive traps at the
priv security level when the SNMPv3 security model is enabled:
Router(config)# snmp-server group group1 v3 priv
Router(config)# snmp-server user PrivateUser group1 remote 1.2.3.4 v3 auth md5 password1 priv access
des56
Question 13
Two aspects of an IP SLA operation can be tracked: state and reachability. Which statement about state
tracking is true?
A. When tracking state, an OK return code means that the tracks state is up; any other return code
means that the tracks state is down.
B. When tracking state, an OK or over threshold return code means that the tracks state is up; any other
return code means that the tracks state is down.
C. When tracking state, an OK return code means that the tracks state is down; any other return code
means that the tracks state is up.
D. When tracking state, an OK or over threshold return code means that the tracks state is down; any
other return code means that the tracks state is up.
Answer: A

NetFlow Questions
Quick review:
NetFlow is a network protocol to report information about the traffic on a router/switch or other network
device. NetFlow collects and summaries the data that is carried over a device, and then transmitting that
summary to a NetFlow collector for storage and analysis. An IP flow is based on a set of five, and up to
seven, IP packet attributes, which may include the following:
+ Destination IP address
+ Source IP address
+ Source port
+ Destination port
+ Layer 3 protocol type
+ Class of Service (optional)
+ Router or switch interface (optional)

Question 1
A network engineer executes the show ip flow export command. Which line in the output indicates that the
send queue is full and export packets are not being sent?
A. output drops
B. enqueuing for the RP
C. fragmentation failures
D. adjacency issues
Answer: A
Explanation
The show ip flow export command is used to display the status and the statistics for NetFlow accounting
data export, including the main cache and all other enabled caches. An example of the output of this
command is shown below:
Router# show ip flow export
Flow export v5 is enabled for main cache
Exporting flows to 10.51.12.4 (9991) 10.1.97.50 (9111)
Exporting using source IP address 10.1.97.17
Version 5 flow records
11 flows exported in 8 udp datagrams
0 flows failed due to lack of export packet
0 export packets were sent up to process level
0 export packets were dropped due to no fib
0 export packets were dropped due to adjacency issues
0 export packets were dropped due to fragmentation failures
0 export packets were dropped due to encapsulation fixup failures
0 export packets were dropped enqueuing for the RP
0 export packets were dropped due to IPC rate limiting
0 export packets were dropped due to output drops

The output drops line indicates the total number of export packets that were dropped because the send
queue was full while the packet was being transmitted.
Question 2
An organization decides to implement NetFlow on its network to monitor the fluctuation of traffic that is
disrupting core services. After reviewing the output of NetFlow, the network engineer is unable to see OUT
traffic on the interfaces. What can you determine based on this information?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding has not been configured globally.
B. NetFlow output has been filtered by default.

C. Flow Export version 9 is in use.

D. The command ip flow-capture fragment-offset has been enabled.
Answer: A
Explanation
In general, NetFlow requires CEF to be configured in most recent IOS releases. CEF decides which
interface the traffic is sent out. With CEF disabled, router will not have specific destination interface in the
NetFlow report packets. Therefore a NetFlow Collector cannot show the OUT traffic for the interface.
Question 3
A network engineer has left a NetFlow capture enabled over the weekend to gather information regarding
excessive bandwidth utilization. The following command is entered:
switch#show flow exporter Flow_Exporter-1
What is the expected output?
A. configuration of the specified flow exporter
B. current status of the specified flow exporter
C. status and statistics of the specified flow monitor
D. configuration of the specified flow monitor
Answer: B
Explanation
This command is used to display the current status of the specific flow exporter, in this case
Flow_Exporter-1. For example

N7K1# show flow export

Flow exporter Flow_Exporter-1:
Description: Fluke Collector
Destination: 10.255.255.100
VRF: default (1)
Destination UDP Port 2055
Source Interface Vlan10 (10.10.10.5)
Export Version 9
Exporter Statistics
Number of Flow Records Exported 726

Number of Templates Exported 1

Number of Export Packets Sent 37
Number of Export Bytes Sent 38712
Number of Destination Unreachable Events 0
Number of No Buffer Events 0
Number of Packets Dropped (No Route to Host) 0
Number of Packets Dropped (other) 0
Number of Packets Dropped (LC to RP Error) 0
Number of Packets Dropped (Output Drops) 0
Time statistics were last cleared: Thu Feb 15 21:12:06 2015

Question 4
Refer to the exhibit.
Sampler: mysampler, id: 1, packets matched: 10, mode random
sampling mode sampling interval is : 100
Which statement about the output of the show flow-sampler command is true?
A. The sampler matched 10 packets, each packet randomly chosen from every group of 100 packets.
B. The sampler matched 10 packets, one packet every 100 packets.
C. The sampler matched 10 packets, each one randomly chosen from every 100-second interval.
D. The sampler matched 10 packets, one packet every 100 seconds.
Answer: A
Explanation
The sampling mode determines the algorithm that selects a subset of traffic for NetFlow processing. In the
random sampling mode, incoming packets are randomly selected so that one out of each n sequential
packets is selected on average for NetFlow processing. For example, if you set the sampling rate to 1 out
of 100 packets, then NetFlow might sample the 5th, 120th, 299th, 302nd, and so on packets. This sample
configuration provides NetFlow data on 1 percent of total traffic. The n value is a parameter from 1 to
65535 packets that you can configure.
In the above output we can learn the number of packets that has been sampled is 10. The sampling mode
is random sampling mode and sampling interval is 100 (NetFlow samples 1 out of 100 packets).
Question 5
What is the result of the command ip flow-export destination 10.10.10.1 5858?

A. It configures the router to export cache flow information to IP 10.10.10.1 on port UDP/5858.
B. It configures the router to export cache flow information about flows with destination IP 10.10.10.1 and
port UDP/5858.
C. It configures the router to receive cache flow information from IP 10.10.10.1 on port UDP/5858.
D. It configures the router to receive cache flow information about flows with destination IP 10.10.10.1
and port UDP/5858.
Answer: A
Explanation
The ip flow-export destination 10.10.10.1 5858 command is used to export the information captured by
the ip flow-capture command to the destination 10.10.10.1. 5858 is the UDP port to which NetFlow
packets are sent (default is 2055). The syntax of this command is:
ip flow-export destination ip-address [udp-port] [version 5 {origin-as | peer-as}]

Question 6
Which NetFlow component is applied to an interface and collects information about flows?
A. flow monitor
B. flow exporter
C. flow sampler
D. flow collector
Answer: A
Explanation
Flow monitors are the Flexible NetFlow component that is applied to interfaces to perform network traffic
monitoring. Flow monitors consist of a record and a cache. You add the record to the flow monitor after
you create the flow monitor. The flow monitor cache is automatically created at the time the flow monitor
is applied to the first interface. Flow data is collected from the network traffic during the monitoring
process based on the key and nonkey fields in the record, which is configured for the flow monitor and
stored in the flow monitor cache.
For example, the following example creates a flow monitor named FLOW-MONITOR-1 and enters Flexible
NetFlow flow monitor configuration mode:
Router(config)# flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1
Router(config-flow-monitor)#
Question 7
A network engineer is notified that several employees are experiencing network performance related
issues, and bandwidth-intensive applications are identified as the root cause. In order to identify which

specific type of traffic is causing this slowness, information such as the source/destination IP and Layer 4
port numbers is required. Which feature should the engineer use to gather the required information?
A. SNMP
B. Cisco IOS EEM
C. NetFlow
D. Syslog
E. WCCP
Answer: C
Question 8
An engineer executes the ip flow ingress command in interface configuration mode. What is the result of
this action?
A. It enables the collection of IP flow samples arriving to the interface.
B. It enables the collection of IP flow samples leaving the interface.
C. It enables IP flow while disabling IP CEF on the interface.
D. It enables IP flow collection on the physical interface and its subinterfaces.
Answer: A
Explanation
The following is an example of configuring an interface to capture flows into the NetFlow cache. CEF
followed by NetFlow flow capture is configured on the interface:
Router(config)# ip cef
Router(config)# interface ethernet 1/0
Router(config-if)# ip flow ingress
or
Router(config-if)# ip route-cache flow

Note: Either ip flow ingress or ip route-cache flow command can be used depending on the Cisco IOS
Software version. Ip flow ingress is available in Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2(15)T or above.
Question 9
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the command output is true?

A. The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on UDP port 5127.

B. The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on UDP port 5127.
C. The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on TCP port 5127.
D. The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on TCP port 5127.
Answer: A

IPv6 Questions
Question 1
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single
connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
Answer: A
Explanation

Dual-stack method is the most common technique which only requires edge routers to run both IPv4 and
IPv6 while the inside routers only run IPv4. At the edge network, IPv4 packets are converted to IPv6
packets before sending out.
6to4 tunnel is a technique which relies on reserved address space 2002::/16 (you must remember this
range). These tunnels determine the appropriate destination address by combining the IPv6 prefix with the
globally unique destination 6to4 border routers IPv4 address, beginning with the 2002::/16 prefix, in this
format:
2002:border-router-IPv4-address::/48
For example, if the border-router-IPv4-address is 64.101.64.1, the tunnel interface will have an IPv6 prefix
of 2002:4065:4001:1::/64, where 4065:4001 is the hexadecimal equivalent of 64.101.64.1. This
technique allows IPv6 sites to communicate with each other over the IPv4 network without explicit tunnel
setup but we have to implement it on all routers on the path.
NAT-PT provides IPv4/IPv6 protocol translation. It resides within an IP router, situated at the boundary of
an IPv4 network and an IPv6 network. By installing NAT-PT between an IPv4 and IPv6 network, all IPv4
users are given access to the IPv6 network without modification in the local IPv4-hosts (and vice versa).
Equally, all hosts on the IPv6 network are given access to the IPv4 hosts without modification to the local
IPv6-hosts. This is accomplished with a pool of IPv4 addresses for assignment to IPv6 nodes on a dynamic
basis as sessions are initiated across IPv4-IPv6 boundaries.
Question 2
Which statement about the use of tunneling to migrate to IPv6 is true?
A. Tunneling is less secure than dual stack or translation.
B. Tunneling is more difficult to configure than dual stack or translation.
C. Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol
without dual-stack hosts.
D. Tunneling destinations are manually determined by the IPv4 address in the low-order 32 bits of IPv4compatible IPv6 addresses.
Answer: C
Explanation
Overlay tunneling encapsulates IPv6 packets in IPv4 packets for delivery across an IPv4 infrastructure (a
core network or the Internet). By using overlay tunnels, you can communicate with isolated IPv6 networks
without upgrading the IPv4 infrastructure between them. Overlay tunnels can be configured between
border routers or between a border router and a host; however, both tunnel endpoints must support both
the IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks.

Question 3
A router with an interface that is configured with ipv6 address autoconfig also has a link-local address
assigned. Which message is required to obtain a global unicast address when a router is present?
A. DHCPv6 request
B. router-advertisement
C. neighbor-solicitation
D. redirect
Answer: B
Explanation
In Stateless Configuration mode, hosts will listen for Router Advertisements (RA) messages which are
transmitted periodically from the router (DHCP Server). This RA message allows a host to create a global
IPv6 address from:
+ Its interface identifier (EUI-64 address)
+ Link Prefix (obtained via RA)
Note: Global address is the combination of Link Prefix and EUI-64 address
Question 4
An engineer has configured a router to use EUI-64, and was asked to document the IPv6 address of the
router. The router has the following interface parameters:
mac address C601.420F.0007
subnet 2001:DB8:0:1::/64
Which IPv6 addresses should the engineer add to the documentation?
A. 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7
B. 2001:DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7
C. 2001:DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7
D. 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7
Answer: A
Explanation

The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48-bit MAC address. The Mac address is first
separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being
NIC specific. The 16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address.
IEEE has chosen FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI-64 generated from the an EUI-48
MAC address.
In this question, the MAC address C601.420F.0007 is divided into two 24-bit parts, which are C60142
(OUI) and 0F0007 (NIC). Then FFFE is inserted in the middle. Therefore we have the address:
C601.42FF.FE0F.0007.
Then, according to the RFC 3513 we need to invert the Universal/Local bit (U/L bit) in the 7th position
of the first octet. The u bit is set to 1 to indicate Universal, and it is set to zero (0) to indicate local
scope. In this case we dont need to set this bit to 1 because it is already 1 (C6 = 11000110).
Therefore with the subnet of 2001:DB8:0:1::/64, the full IPv6 address is
2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64
Question 5
For security purposes, an IPv6 traffic filter was configured under various interfaces on the local router.
However, shortly after implementing the traffic filter, OSPFv3 neighbor adjacencies were lost. What caused
this issue?
A. The traffic filter is blocking all ICMPv6 traffic.
B. The global anycast address must be added to the traffic filter to allow OSPFv3 to work properly.
C. The link-local addresses that were used by OSPFv3 were explicitly denied, which caused the neighbor
relationships to fail.
D. IPv6 traffic filtering can be implemented only on SVIs.
Answer: C
Question 6
A companys corporate policy has been updated to require that stateless, 1-to-1, and IPv6 to IPv6
translations at the Internet edge are performed. What is the best solution to ensure compliance with this
new policy?
A. NAT64
B. NAT44
C. NATv6
D. NPTv4
E. NPTv6
Answer: E
Explanation

NPTv6 stands for Network Prefix Translation. Its a form of NAT for IPv6 and it supports one-to-one
translation between inside and outside addresses
Question 7
A network engineer executes the ipv6 flowset command. What is the result?
A. Flow-label marking in 1280-byte or larger packets is enabled.
B. Flow-set marking in 1280-byte or larger packets is enabled.
C. IPv6 PMTU is enabled on the router.
D. IPv6 flow control is enabled on the router.
Answer: A
Explanation
The command ipv6 flowset allows the device to track destinations to which the device has sent packets
that are 1280 bytes or larger.
Question 8
IPv6 has just been deployed to all of the hosts within a network, but not to the servers. Which feature
allows IPv6 devices to communicate with IPv4 servers?
A. NAT
B. NATng
C. NAT64
D. dual-stack NAT
E. DNS64
Answer: C
Explanation
NAT64 is used to make IPv4-only servers available to IPv6 clients.
Note:
NAT44 NAT from IPv4 to IPv4
NAT66 NAT from IPv6 to IPv6
NAT46 NAT from IPv4 to IPv6
NAT64 NAT from IPv6 to IPv4
Question 9
After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses
have the 16-bit hexadecimal value of FFFE inserted into the address. Based on this information, what do
you conclude about these IPv6 addresses?

A. IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
B. The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
C. IPv6 addresses containing FFFE indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
D. The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E. IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.
Answer: A
Explanation
The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48-bit MAC address. The Mac address is first
separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being
NIC specific. The 16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address.
IEEE has chosen FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI-64 generated from the an EUI-48
MAC address.
Question 10
A packet capture log indicates that several router solicitation messages were sent from a local host on the
IPv6 segment. What is the expected acknowledgment and its usage?
A. Router acknowledgment messages will be forwarded upstream, where the DHCP server will allocate
addresses to the local host.
B. Routers on the IPv6 segment will respond with an advertisement that provides an external path from
the local subnet, as well as certain data, such as prefix discovery.
C. Duplicate Address Detection will determine if any other local host is using the same IPv6 address for
communication with the IPv6 routers on the segment.
D. All local host traffic will be redirected to the router with the lowest ICMPv6 signature, which is statically
defined by the network administrator.
Answer: B
Explanation
IPv6 allows devices to configure their own IP addresses and other parameters automatically without the
need for a DHCP server. This method is called IPv6 Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (which contrasts
to the server-based method using DHCPv6, called stateful). In Stateless Autoconfiguration method, a
host sends a router solicitation to request a prefix. The router then replies with a router advertisement
(RA) message which contains the prefix of the link. Host will use this prefix and its MAC address to create
its own unique IPv6 address.
Note:
+ RA messages are sent periodically and in response to device solicitation messages

+ In the absence of a router, a host can generate only link-local addresses. Link-local addresses are only
sufficient for allowing communication among nodes that are attached to the same link

IPv6 Questions 2
Question 1
Which traffic does the following configuration allow?
ipv6 access-list cisco
permit ipv6 host 2001:DB8:0:4::32 any eq ssh
line vty 0 4
ipv6 access-class cisco in
A. all traffic to vty 0 4 from source 2001:DB8:0:4::32
B. only ssh traffic to vty 0 4 from source all
C. only ssh traffic to vty 0 4 from source 2001:DB8:0:4::32
D. all traffic to vty 0 4 from source all
Answer: C
Question 2
Which two functions are completely independent when implementing NAT64 over NAT-PT? (Choose two)
A. DNS
B. NAT
C. port redirection
D. stateless translation
E. session handling
Answer: A B
Question 3
Which two methods of deployment can you use when implementing NAT64? (Choose two)
A. stateless
B. stateful
C. manual
D. automatic
E. static
F. functional
G. dynamic

Answer: A B
Explanation
Address Family Translation (AFT) using NAT64 technology can be achieved by either stateless or stateful
means:
+ Stateless NAT64 is a translation mechanism for algorithmically mapping IPv6 addresses to IPv4
addresses, and IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses. Like NAT44, it does not maintain any bindings or
session state while performing translation, and it supports both IPv6-initiated and IPv4-initiated
communications.
+ Stateful NAT64 is a stateful translation mechanism for translating IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses, and
IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses. Like NAT44, it is called stateful because it creates or modifies bindings
or session state while performing translation. It supports both IPv6-initiated and IPv4-initiated
communications using static or manual mappings.
Question 4
Router A and Router B are configured with IPv6 addressing and basic routing capabilities using OSPFv3.
The networks that are advertised from Router A do not show up in Router Bs routing table. After
debugging IPv6 packets, the message not a router is found in the output. Why is the routing information
not being learned by Router B?
A. OSPFv3 timers were adjusted for fast convergence.
B. The networks were not advertised properly under the OSPFv3 process.
C. An IPv6 traffic filter is blocking the networks from being learned via the Router B interface that is
connected to Router A.
D. IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on Router A or Router B.
Answer: D
Question 5
What is a function of NPTv6?
A. It interferes with encryption of the full IP payload.
B. It maintains a per-node state.
C. It is checksum-neutral.
D. It rewrites transport layer headers.
Answer: C
Explanation
When a change is made to one of the IP header fields in the IPv6 pseudo-header checksum (such as one
of the IP addresses), the checksum field in the transport layer header may become invalid. Fortunately, an
incremental change in the area covered by the Internet standard checksum [RFC1071] will result in a well-

defined change to the checksum value [RFC1624]. So, a checksum change caused by modifying part of the
area covered by the checksum can be corrected by making a complementary change to a different 16-bit
field covered by the same checksum.
Question 6
Which statement about dual stack is true?
A. Dual stack translates IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
B. Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel.
C. Dual stack translates IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses.
D. Dual stack changes the IP addresses on hosts from IPv4 to IPv6 automatically.
Answer: B
Question 7
Which IPv6 address type is seen as the next-hop address in the output of the show ipv6 rip RIPng
database command?
A. link-local
B. global
C. site-local
D. anycast
E. multicast
Answer: A
Explanation
Link-local addresses are always configured with the FE80::/64 prefix. Most routing protocols use the linklocal address for a next-hop.
Question 8
Refer to the exhibit. The command is executed while configuring a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay
interface. Which type of IPv6 address is portrayed in the exhibit?
frame-relay map ipv6 FE80::102 102
A. link-local
B. site-local
C. global
D. multicast
Answer: A

Explanation
A link-local address is an IPv6 unicast address that can be automatically configured on any interface using
the link-local prefix FE80::/10 (1111 1110 10) and the interface identifier in the modified EUI-64 format.
Link-local addresses are not necessarily bound to the MAC address (configured in a EUI-64 format). Linklocal addresses can also be manually configured in the FE80::/10 format using the ipv6 address link-local
command.
Question 9
The following configuration is applied to a router at a branch site:
ipv6 dhcp pool dhcp-pool
dns-server 2001:DB8:1:B::1
dns-server 2001:DB8:3:307C::42
domain-name example.com
!
If IPv6 is configured with default settings on all interfaces on the router, which two dynamic IPv6
addressing mechanisms could you use on end hosts to provide end-to-end connectivity? (Choose two)
A. EUI-64
B. SLAAC
C. DHCPv6
D. BOOTP
Answer: A B
Explanation
Stateless Address Auto Configuration (SLAAC) is a method in which the host or router interface is assigned
a 64-bit prefix, and then the last 64 bits of its address are derived by the host or router with help of EUI64 process.
Question 10
Which statement about the NPTv6 protocol is true?
A. It is used to translate IPv4 prefixes to IPv6 prefixes.
B. It is used to translate an IPv6 address prefix to another IPv6 prefix.
C. It is used to translate IPv6 prefixes to IPv4 subnets with appropriate masks.
D. It is used to translate IPv4 addresses to IPv6 link-local addresses.
Answer: B
Question 11

The enterprise network WAN link has been receiving several denial of service attacks from both IPv4 and
IPv6 sources. Which three elements can you use to identify an IPv6 packet via its header, in order to filter
future attacks? (Choose three)
A. Traffic Class
B. Source address
C. Flow Label
D. Hop Limit
E. Destination Address
F. Fragment Offset
Answer: A C D
Explanation
The components of IPv6 header is shown below:

The Traffic Class field (8 bits) is where quality of service (QoS) marking for Layer 3 can be identified. In
a nutshell, the higher the value of this field, the more important the packet. Your Cisco routers (and some
switches) can be configured to read this value and send a high-priority packet sooner than other lower
ones during times of congestion. This is very important for some applications, especially VoIP.
The Flow Label field (20 bits) is originally created for giving real-time applications special service. The
flow label when set to a non-zero value now serves as a hint to routers and switches with multiple
outbound paths that these packets should stay on the same path so that they will not be reordered. It has
further been suggested that the flow label be used to help detect spoofed packets.
The Hop Limit field (8 bits) is similar to the Time to Live field in the IPv4 packet header. The value of the
Hop Limit field specifies the maximum number of routers that an IPv6 packet can pass through before the

packet is considered invalid. Each router decrements the value by one. Because no checksum is in the IPv6
header, the router can decrease the value without needing to recalculate the checksum, which saves
processing resources.
Question 12
Refer to the exhibit. When summarizing these routes, which route is the summarized route?

A. OI 2001:DB8::/48 [110/100] via FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:6F00, Ethernet0/0

B. OI 2001:DB8::/24 [110/100] via FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:6F00, Ethernet0/0
C. OI 2001:DB8::/32 [110/100] via FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:6F00, Ethernet0/0
D. OI 2001:DB8::/64 [110/100] via FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:6F00, Ethernet0/0
Answer: A
Explanation
We need to summarize three IPv6 prefixes with /64 subnet mask so the summarized route should have a
smaller subnet mask. As we can see all four answers have the same summarized route of 2001:DB8:: so /
48 is the best choice.
Note: IPv6 consists of 8 fields with each 16 bits (816 = 128).

Miscellaneous Questions
Question 1
A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this command
clear and rebuild? (Choose two)
A. IP routing
B. FIB
C. ARP cache
D. MAC address table
E. Cisco Express Forwarding table
F. topology table

Answer: A B
Explanation
The command clear ip route clears one or more routes from both the unicast RIB (IP routing table) and
all the module Forwarding Information Bases (FIBs).
Question 2
Which prefix is matched by the command ip prefix-list name permit 10.8.0.0/16 ge 24 le 24?
A. 10.9.1.0/24
B. 10.8.0.0/24
C. 10.8.0.0/16
D. 10.8.0.0/23
Answer: B
Explanation
The prefix-list ip prefix-list name permit 10.8.0.0/16 ge 24 le 24 means
+ Check the first 16 bits of the prefix. It must be 10.8
+ The subnet mask must be greater or equal 24
+ The subnet mask must be less than or equal 24
-> The subnet mask must be exactly 24
Therefore the suitable prefix that is matched by above ip prefix-list should be 10.8.x.x/24
Question 3
A user is having issues accessing file shares on a network. The network engineer advises the user to open
a web browser, input a prescribed IP address, and follow the instructions. After doing this, the user is able
to access company shares. Which type of remote access did the engineer enable?
A. EZVPN
B. IPsec VPN client access
C. VPDN client access
D. SSL VPN client access
Answer: D
Explanation
This is a new user (client) that has not been configured to accept SSL VPN connection. So that user must
open a web browser, enter the URL and login successfully to be authenticated. A small software will also be

downloaded and installed on the client computer for the first time. Next time the user can access file
shares on that network normally.
Question 4
After a recent DoS attack on a network, senior management asks you to implement better logging
functionality on all IOS-based devices. Which two actions can you take to provide enhanced logging
results? (Choose two)
A. Use the msec option to enable service time stamps.
B. Increase the logging history
C. Set the logging severity level to 1.
D. Specify a logging rate limit.
E. Disable event logging on all noncritical items.
Answer: A B
Explanation
Increase the logging history here is same as increase the logging buffer. The default buffer size is 4096
bytes. By increasing the logging buffer size we can see more history logging messages. But do not make
the buffer size too large because the access point could run out of memory for other tasks. We can write
the logging messages to a outside logging server instead.
Question 5
A network engineer finds that a core router has crashed without warning. In this situation, which feature
can the engineer use to create a crash collection?
A. secure copy protocol
B. core dumps
C. warm reloads
D. SNMP
E. NetFlow
Answer: B
Explanation
A core dump is a file containing a processs address space (memory) when the process terminates
unexpectedly to identify the cause of the crash
Question 6

A network engineer is asked to configure a site-to-site IPsec VPN tunnel. One of the last things that the
engineer does is to configure an access list (access-list 1 permit any) along with the command ip nat
inside source list 1 int s0/0 overload. Which functions do the two commands serve in this scenario?
A. The command access-list 1 defines interesting traffic that is allowed through the tunnel.
B. The command ip nat inside source list 1 int s0/0 overload disables many-to-one access for all
devices on a defined segment to share a single IP address upon exiting the external interface.
C. The command access-list 1 permit any defines only one machine that is allowed through the tunnel.
D. The command ip nat inside source list 1 int s0/0 overload provides many-to-one access for all
devices on a defined segment to share a single IP address upon exiting the external interface.
Answer: D
Explanation
The command ip nat inside source list 1 int s0/0 overload translates all source addresses that pass
access list 1, which means all the IP addresses, into an address assigned to S0/0 interface. Overload
keyword allows to map multiple IP addresses to a single registered IP address (many-to-one) by using
different ports.
Question 7
A network engineer is investigating the cause of a service disruption on a network segment and executes
the debug condition interface fastethernet f0/0 command. In which situation is the debugging output
generated?
A. when packets on the interface are received and the interface is operational
B. when packets on the interface are received and logging buffered is enabled
C. when packets on the interface are received and forwarded to a configured syslog server
D. when packets on the interface are received and the interface is shut down
Answer: A
Question 8
Refer to the following configuration command.
router (config-line)# ntp master 10
Which statement about this command is true?
A. The router acts as an authoritative NTP clock and allows only 10 NTP client connections.
B. The router acts as an authoritative NTP clock at stratum 10.
C. The router acts as an authoritative NTP clock with a priority number of 10.
D. The router acts as an authoritative NTP clock for 10 minutes only.

Answer: B
Explanation
The command ntp master [stratum] is used to configure the device as an authoritative NTP server. You
can specify a different stratum level from which NTP clients get their time synchronized. The range is from
1 to 15.
The stratum levels define the distance from the reference clock. A reference clock is a stratum 0 device
that is assumed to be accurate and has little or no delay associated with it. Stratum 0 servers cannot be
used on the network but they are directly connected to computers which then operate as stratum-1
servers. A stratum 1 time server acts as a primary network time standard.
A stratum 2 server is connected to the stratum 1 server; then a stratum 3 server is connected to the
stratum 2 server and so on. A stratum 2 server gets its time via NTP packet requests from a stratum 1
server. A stratum 3 server gets its time via NTP packet requests from a stratum-2 server A stratum
server may also peer with other stratum servers at the same level to provide more stable and robust time
for all devices in the peer group (for example a stratum 2 server can peer with other stratum 2 servers).
Question 9
Which two commands would be used to troubleshoot high memory usage for a process? (Choose two)
A. router#show memory allocating-process table
B. router#show memory summary
C. router#show memory dead
D. router#show memory events
E. router#show memory processor statistics
Answer: A B
Explanation
The show memory allocating-process table command displays statistics on allocated memory with
corresponding allocating processes. This command can be also used to find out memory leaks. A memory
leak occurs when a process requests or allocates memory and then forgets to free (de-allocate) the
memory when it is finished that task.
Note: In fact the correct command should be show memory allocating-process totals (not table)
The show memory summary command displays a summary of all memory pools and memory usage per
Alloc PC (address of the system call that allocated the block). An example of the output of this command is
shown below:

Legend:
+ Total: the total amount of memory available after the system image loads and builds its data structures.
+ Used: the amount of memory currently allocated.
+ Free: the amount of memory currently free.
+ Lowest: the lowest amount of free memory recorded by the router since it was last booted.
+ Largest: the largest free memory block currently available.
Note: The show memory allocating-process totals command contains the same information as the
first three lines of the show memory summary command.
An example of a high memory usage problem is large amount of free memory, but a small value in the
Lowest column. In this case, a normal or abnormal event (for example, a large routing instability) causes
the router to use an unusually large amount of processor memory for a short period of time, during which
the memory has run out.
The show memory dead command is only used to view the memory allocated to a process which has
terminated. The memory allocated to this process is reclaimed by the kernel and returned to the memory
pool by the router itself when required. This is the way IOS handles memory. A memory block is
considered as dead if the process which created the block exits (no longer running).
The command show memory events does not exist.
Question 10
A router receives a routing advertisement for the same prefix and subnet from four different routing
protocols. Which advertisement is installed in the routing table?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. iBGP
D. EIGRP
Answer: D
Explanation
The table below lists the default administrative distance values of popular routing protocols:
Routing Protocols Default Administrative Distance

EIGRP

90

OSPF

110

RIP

120

eBGP

20

iBGP

200

Connected interface 0
Static route

Question 11
Refer to the exhibit. The network setup is running the RIP routing protocol. Which two events will occur
following link failure between R2 and R3? (Choose two)

A. R2 will advertise network 192.168.2.0/27 with a hop count of 16 to R1.

B. R2 will not send any advertisements and will remove route 192.168.2.0/27 from its routing table.
C. R1 will reply to R2 with the advertisement for network 192.168.2.0/27 with a hop count of 16.
D. After communication fails and after the hold-down timer expires, R1 will remove the 192.168.2.0/27
route from its routing table.
E. R3 will not accept any further updates from R2, due to the split-horizon loop prevention mechanism.
Answer: A C
Question 12
Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP client is unable to receive a DHCP address from the DHCP server. Consider
the following output:
hostname RouterB
!
interface fastethernet 0/0
ip address 172.31.1.1 255.255.255.0
interface serial 0/0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252

!
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
Which configuration is required on the Router B fastethernet 0/0 port in order to allow the DHCP client to
successfully receive an IP address from the DHCP server?

A. R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.2

B. R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.1
C. R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.31.1.1
D. R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 255.255.255.255
Answer: A
Explanation
If the DHCP Server is not on the same subnet with the DHCP Client, we need to configure the router on
the DHCP client side to act as a DHCP Relay Agent so that it can forward DHCP messages between the
DHCP Client & DHCP Server. To make a router a DHCP Relay Agent, simply put the ip helper-address <IPaddress-of-DHCP-Server> command under the interface that receives the DHCP messages from the DHCP
Client.
Question 13
Which technology was originally developed for routers to handle fragmentation in the path between end
points?
A. PMTUD
B. MSS
C. windowing
D. TCP
E. global synchronization
Answer: A
Explanation
Fragmentation and Path Maximum Transmission Unit Discovery (PMTUD) is a standardized technique to
determine the maximum transmission unit (MTU) size on the network path between two hosts, usually
with the goal of avoiding IP fragmentation. PMTUD was originally intended for routers in IPv4. However, all
modern operating systems use it on endpoints.

Note: IP fragmentation involves breaking a datagram into a number of pieces that can be reassembled
later.
Question 14
A network engineer is trying to modify an existing active NAT configuration on an IOS router by using the
following command:
(config)# no ip nat pool dynamic-nat-pool 192.1.1.20 192.1.1.254 netmask 255.255.255.0
Upon entering the command on the IOS router, the following message is seen on the console: %Dynamic
Mapping in Use, Cannot remove message or the %Pool outpool in use, cannot destroy
What is the least impactful method that the engineer can use to modify the existing IP NAT configuration?
A. Clear the IP NAT translations using the clear ip nat traffic * command, then replace the NAT
configuration quickly, before any new NAT entries are populated into the translation table due to active
NAT traffic.
B. Clear the IP NAT translations using the clear ip nat translation * command, then replace the NAT
configuration quickly, before any new NAT entries are populated into the translation table due to active
NAT traffic.
C. Clear the IP NAT translations using the reload command on the router, then replace the NAT
configuration quickly, before any new NAT entries are populated into the translation table due to active
NAT traffic.
D. Clear the IP NAT translations using the clear ip nat table * command, then replace the NAT
configuration quickly, before any new NAT entries are populated into the translation table due to active
NAT traffic.
Answer: B

Lab Sim Category

OSPF Evaluation Sim
You have been asked to evaluate an OSPF network and to answer questions a customer has about its
operation. Note: You are not allowed to use the show running-config command.

Although in this sim we are not allowed to use show running-config command but we post the
configuration here so that you can understand more about the topology.
R1

R2

R3

interface Loopback0

interface Loopback 0

interface Loopback 0

ip address 1.1.1.1

ip address 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.255 ip address 3.3.3.3 255.255.255.255

255.255.255.255

interface S0/0

interface Ethernet0/0

interface Serial0/0

ip address 192.168.23.2

ip address 192.168.34.3

ip address 192.168.13.1

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.0

ip ospf network non-broadcast

ip ospf network non-broadcast

interface S1/0

router ospf 1

ip address 192.168.23.3

router ospf 1

network 192.168.23.0 0.0.0.255

255.255.255.0

network 192.168.13.0 0.0.0.255

area 0

ip ospf network non-broadcast

area 0

network 2.2.2.2 0.0.0.0 area 0

network 1.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

neighbor 192.168.23.3

interface S1/1
ip address 192.168.13.3
255.255.255.0
ip ospf network non-broadcast
!
router ospf 1
network 192.168.13.0 0.0.0.255
area 0
network 192.168.23.0 0.0.0.255

area 0
network 192.168.34.0 0.0.0.255
area 1
network 3.3.3.3 0.0.0.0 area 0
area 1 virtual-link 4.4.4.4
neighbor 192.168.23.2
R4

R5

R6

interface Loopback 0

interface Loopback0

interface Ethernet0/0

ip address 4.4.4.4

ip address 5.5.5.5 255.255.255.255 ip address 192.168.46.6

255.255.255.255

interface Loopback1

interface FastEthernet0/0

ip address 5.5.1.1 255.255.255.255 interface Loopback 0

ip address 192.168.34.4

interface Loopback2

255.255.255.0

ip address 5.5.2.1 255.255.255.255 !

interface Loopback3

interface Ethernet0/1

ip address 5.5.3.1 255.255.255.255 network 192.168.46.0 0.0.0.255

ip address 192.168.45.4

interface Loopback4

255.255.255.0

ip address 5.5.4.1 255.255.255.255 network 6.6.6.6 0.0.0.0 area 3

no shut

interface Ethernet0/0

ip address 192.168.45.5

interface Ethernet0/2

255.255.255.0

ip address 192.168.46.4

255.255.255.0

router ospf 1

no shut

network 192.168.45.0 0.0.0.255

area 2

router ospf 1

network 5.5.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 2

network 192.168.34.0 0.0.0.255

area 2 nssa

area 1
network 192.168.45.0 0.0.0.255
area 2
network 192.168.46.0 0.0.0.255
area 3
network 4.4.4.4 0.0.0.0 area 1
area 1 virtual-link 3.3.3.3
area 2 nssa
area 3 stub no-summary

Some notices from above configuration:

+ The OSPF network type between R2 & R3 is non broadcast.
+ R3 and R4 is running virtual-link to connect Area 2 & 3 to Area 0
+ Area 2 is a NSSA area while Area 3 is a Totally Stubby area

255.255.255.0
ip address 6.6.6.6 255.255.255.255
router ospf 1
area 3
area 3 stub

You can download this sim to practice at http://www.digitaltut.com/download/ROUTE_OSPF.zip. Please use

GNS3 with version older than v1.0 to open it (v0.8.3.1 for example). IOS used in this lab: c3640-jk9smz.124-16.bin
Question 1
How old is the Type 4 LSA from Router 3 for area 1 on the router R5 based on the output you have
examined?
A. 1858
B. 1601
C. 600
D. 1569
Answer: A
Explanation
To check OSPF LSA we should use the show ip ospf database command on R5:

In this sim there is no LSA Type 4 because there is no ASBR so maybe this question wants to ask about
LSA Type 3 (Summary Net Link States).
Note: LSA Type 4 is generated by ABR, not ASBR but without ASBR inside the network there are no LSA
Type 4 generated.
R3 advertises LSA Type 1 to R4 then R4 converts it into Type 3 and sends to R5 (because R4 is the ABR)
so we see the Link ID 3.3.3.3 of R3 is advertising by R4 (4.4.4.4). According to the Age column, this
LSA was advertised 1858 seconds ago.
Question 2
Which of the following statements is true about the serial links that terminate in R3?
A. The R1-R3 link needs the neighbor command for the adjacency to stay up
B. The R2-R3 link OSPF timer values are 30, 120, 120
C. The R1-R3 link OSPF timer values should be 10,40,40
D. R3 is responsible for flooding LSUs to all the routers on the network.
Answer: B
Explanation
Check the Serial1/0 interface of R3 which is connected to R2 with the show ip ospf interface serial 1/0
command:

There are two things we should notice from the output above:
+ The network type connection between R2-R3 is NON_BROADCAST (usually we have BROADCAST).
OSPF neighbors are discovered using multicast Hello packets. In non broadcast environment, multicast
(and broadcast) messages are not allowed so OSPF neighborship cannot be formed automatically.
Therefore we have to establish OSPF neighborship manually by using neighbor command under OSPF
process (OSPF will send unicast Hello message to this address). For example on R2 we have to use these
commands:
router ospf 1
neighbor 192.168.23.3

And on R3:
router ospf 1
neighbor 192.168.23.2

+ For non broadcast environment the default Hello timer is 30 seconds; Dead timer (time to wait before
declaring a neighbor dead) is 120 seconds and Wait timer (causes the interface to exit out of the wait
period and select a DR on a broadcast network. This timer is always equal to the dead timer interval) is
120 seconds. In the output we also see the default timers for non broadcast network.
Question 3
How many times was SPF algorithm executed on R4 for Area 1?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 9
D. 20
E. 54
F. 224
Answer: C
Explanation
We can check the number of executed SPF algorithm via the show ip ospf command on R4:

In the output above we can see SPF has been executed 9 times.
Question 4
Areas of Router 5 and 6 are not normal areas, inspect their routing tables and determine which statement
is true?
A. R5s Loopback and R6s Loopback are both present in R5s Routing table
B. R5s Loopback and R6s Loopback are both present in R6s Routing table
C. Only R5s loopback is present in R5s Routing table
D. Only R6s loopback is present in R5s Routing table E. Only R5s loopback is present in R6s Routing
table
Answer: A
Explanation
Area 2 (of R5) is a Not-so-Stubby area (NSSA). You can check it by the show ip ospf command on R4 or
R5 (in Area 2 section). For example, below is the output of show ip ospf command on R5:

In general, NSSA is same as normal area except that it can generate LSA Type 7 (redistribute from
another domain) so we can see both Loopback interfaces of R5 & R6 in the routing table of R5.

Note: NSSA does not receive a default route by default so you will not see a default route on R5.
Area 3 (of R6) is a Totally-Stubby area so R6 only has one default route to outside world. You can check
with the show ip ospf command on R4 and R6 (area 3 section):

Notice that on R4 you will get more detail (shows stub area, no summary LSA) than on R6 (only shows
stub area).
R6 is in a totally-stubby area so we will not see any R5s Loopback interfaces in R6 routing table:

Note: You can see a default (summary) route to the outside (O*IA 0.0.0.0/0 )

EIGRP Evaluation Sim

You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a network.

The configuration of R1 to R6 are posted below for your reference, useless lines are omitted:
R1

R2

R3

interface Loopback0

interface Ethernet0/0

interface Ethernet0/0

ip address 150.1.1.1

description Link to R1

description Link to R5

255.255.255.255

ip address 192.168.12.2

ip address 192.168.35.3

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.0

interface Ethernet0/0

description Link to R2

interface Ethernet0/1

interface Ethernet0/1

ip address 192.168.12.1

description Link to R4

description Link to R1

255.255.255.0

ip address 192.168.24.2

ip address 192.168.13.3

ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 1 20

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.0

ip authentication mode eigrp 1 md5 !

interface Ethernet0/1

ip authentication key-chain eigrp 1

router eigrp 1

description Link to R3

CISCO

network 192.168.13.0

ip address 192.168.13.1

network 192.168.35.0

255.255.255.0

router eigrp 1

ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 1 20

network 192.168.12.0

delay 5773

network 192.168.24.0

router eigrp 1

key chain CISCO

network 192.168.12.0

key 1

network 192.168.13.0

key-string firstkey

net 150.1.1.1 0.0.0.0

key chain FIRSTKEY

variance 11

key 1
key-string CISCO
key chain R3
key 1
key-string R3
key 2
key-string R1

R4

R5

R6

interface Loopback0

interface Ethernet0/0

interface Loopback0

ip address 150.1.4.4

description Link to R3

ip address 150.1.6.6

255.255.255.255

ip address 192.168.35.5

255.255.255.255

255.255.255.0

interface Ethernet0/0

interface Loopback1

description Link to R6

interface Ethernet0/1

ip address 172.16.6.6

ip address 192.168.46.4

description Link to R6

255.255.255.255

255.255.255.0

ip address 192.168.56.5

255.255.255.0

interface Ethernet0/0

interface Ethernet0/1

ip address 192.168.46.6

description Link to R2

router eigrp 1

255.255.255.0

ip address 192.168.24.4

network 192.168.35.0

255.255.255.0

network 192.168.56.0

interface Ethernet0/1

ip authentication mode eigrp 1

ip address 192.168.56.6

md5

255.255.255.0

ip authentication key-chain eigrp

1 CISCO

router eigrp 1

distribute-list 1 out

router eigrp 1

network 150.1.6.6 0.0.0.0

network 192.168.46.0

network 172.16.6.6 0.0.0.0

network 192.168.24.0

network 192.168.46.0

network 150.1.4.4 0.0.0.0

network 192.168.56.0

key chain CISCO

access-list 1 permit 192.168.46.0

key 1

access-list 1 permit 192.168.56.0

key-string firstkey

access-list 1 permit 150.1.6.6

access-list 1 deny 172.16.6.6
access-list 2 permit 192.168.47.1
access-list 2 permit 192.168.13.1
access-list 2 permit 192.168.12.1
access-list 2 deny 150.1.1.1

Note: This sim uses IOS version 15 so no auto-summary is the default setting of EIGRP. You dont have
to type it.
You can download this sim to practice at http://www.digitaltut.com/download/ROUTE_EIGRP.zip. Please
use GNS3 with version older than v1.0 to open it (v0.8.3.1 for example). IOS used in this lab: c3640-jk9smz.124-16.bin
Question 1
Traffic from R1 to R6 s Loopback address is load shared between R1-R2-R4-R6 and R1-R3-R5-R6 paths.
What is the ratio of traffic over each path?
A. 1:1
B. 1:5
C. 6:8
D. 19:80
Answer: D
Explanation
First we need to get the IP address of R6s loopback address by show ip interface brief command on R6:

Now we learned the R6s loopback address is 150.1.6.6. To see the ratio of traffic that is load shared
between paths, use the show ip route 150.1.6.6 command on R1:

This means that after 19 packets are sent to 192.168.13.3, R1 will send 80 packets to 192.168.12.2 (ratio
19:80). This is unequal cost path Load balancing (configured with variance command).
Question 2
What type of route filtering is occurring on R6?
A. Distribute-list using an ACL
B. Distribute-list using a prefix-list
C. Distribute-list using a route-map
D. An ACL using a distance of 255
Answer: A
Explanation
Use the show running-config on R6 we will see a distribute-list applying under EIGRP:

With this distribute-list, only networks 192.168.46.0; 192.168.56.0 and 150.1.6.6 are advertised out by
R6.
Question 3
Which key chain is being used for authentication of EIGRP adjacency between R4 and R2?
A. CISCO
B. EIGRP
C. key
D. MD5
Answer: A
Explanation
Check on both R2 and R4:

To successfully authenticate between two EIGRP neighbors, the key number and key-string must match.
The key chain name is only for local use. In this case we have key number 1 and key-string CISCO and
they match so EIGRP neighbor relationship is formed.
Question 4
What is the advertised distance for the 192.168.46.0 network on R1?
A. 333056
B. 1938688
C. 1810944
D. 307456
Answer: A
Explanation
To check the advertised distance for a prefix we cannot use the show ip route command because it only
shows the metric (also known as Feasible Distance). Therefore we have to use the show ip eigrp
topology command:

There are two parameters in the brackets of 192.168.46.0/24 prefix: (1810944/333056). The first one
1810944 is the Feasible Distance (FD) and the second 333056 is the Advertised Distance (AD) of that
route -> A is correct.
Just for your reference, this is the output of the show ip route command on R1:

In the first line:

D 192.168.46.0/24 [90/ 1810944] via 192.168.12.2, 00:10:01, Ethernet0/0

The first parameter 90 is the EIGRP Administrative Distance. The second parameter 1810944 is the
metric of the route 192.168.46.0/24. R1 will use this metric to advertise this route to other routers but the
question asks about the advertised distance for the 192.168.46.0 network on R1 so we cannot use this
command to find out the answer.
Question 5
What percent of R1s interfaces bandwidth is EIGRP allowed to use?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Answer: B
Explanation

Check with the show running-config command on R1:

In the ip bandwitdh-percent eigrp 1 20 command, 1 is the EIGRP AS number while 20 is the percent
of interfaces bandwidth that EIGRP is allowed to use.
Note: By default, EIGRP uses up to 50% of the interface bandwidth. The bandwidth-percent value can be
configured greater than 100%. It is useful when we set interface bandwidth lower than the real capacity of
the link (for policy reasons, for example).

Practice Real ROUTE Labs with GNS3

Well, the title said it all. Here are some screenshots of the labs in GNS3:
+ OSPF Sim:

+ IPv6 OSPF Virtual Link Sim:

+ EIGRP OSPF Redistribution Sim:

+ EIGRP Stub Sim:

+ Policy Based Routing Sim:

Link to download these ROUTE lab sims:

Download lab fies from digitaltut
Note:
+ You have to find the IOS by yourself to run these labs. The IOS used in these labs is c2691adventerprisek9-mz.124-5a. If you have any problems or suggestions about these files please
comment here.
+ In real exam, you have to click on host (PC) to access command-line-interface of the router, not the
router itself.

EIGRP OSPF Redistribution Sim

Question

You are a network engineer with ROUTE.com, a small IT company. They have recently merged two
organizations and now need to merge their networks as shown in the topology exhibit. One network is
using OSPF as its IGP and the other is using EIGRP as its IGP. R4 has been added to the existing OSPF
network to provide the interconnect between the OSPF and EIGRP networks. Two links have been added
that will provide redundancy.
The network requirements state that you must be able to ping and telnet from loopback 101 on R1 to the
OPSF domain test address of 172.16.1.100. All traffic must use the shortest path that provides the
greatest bandwidth. The redundant paths from the OSPF network to the EIGRP network must be available
in case of a link failure. No static or default routing is allowed in either network.
A previous network engineer has started the merger implementation and has successfully assigned and
verified all IP addressing and basic IGP routing. You have been tasked with completing the implementation
and ensuring that the network requirements are met. You may not remove or change any of the
configuration commands currently on any of the routers. You may add new commands or change default
values.

Answer and Explanation:

First we need to find out 5 parameters (Bandwidth, Delay, Reliability, Load, MTU) of the s0/0/0 interface
(the interface of R2 connected to R4) for redistribution :
R2#show interface s0/0/0
Write down these 5 parameters, notice that we have to divide the Delay by 10 because the metric unit is
in tens of microsecond. For example, we get Bandwidth=1544 Kbit, Delay=20000 us, Reliability=255,
Load=1, MTU=1500 bytes then we would redistribute as follows:

R2#config terminal
R2(config)# router ospf 24
R2(config-router)# redistribute eigrp 100 metric-type 1 subnets
R2(config-router)#exit
R2(config-router)#router eigrp 100
R2(config-router)#redistribute ospf 24 metric 1544 2000 255 1 1500
(Notice: In fact, these parameters are just used for reference and we can use other parameters with no
problem. Also, a candidate said that the simulator didnt accept the Bandwidth of 1544; in that case, we
can use a lower value, like 128.
If the delay is 20000us then we need to divide it by 10, that is 20000 / 10 = 2000)
Note: usec here does not mean microsecond (which is 1/1000 milliseconds) but means millisecond. In
short usec = msec. I dont know why they use the word usec here but just think it is msec (According
to this link:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cb7.shtml#eigrpmetric
s: The delay as shown in the show ip eigrp topology or show interface commands is in
microseconds)
For R3 we use the show interface fa0/0 to get 5 parameters too
R3#show interface fa0/0
For example we get Bandwidth=10000 Kbit, Delay=1000 us, Reliability=255, Load=1, MTU=1500 bytes
R3#config terminal
R3(config)#router ospf 34
R3(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 100 metric-type 1 subnets
R3(config)#exit
R3(config-router)#router eigrp 100
R3(config-router)#redistribute ospf 34 metric 10000 100 255 1 1500
Finally you should try to show ip route to see the 172.16.100.1 network (the network behind R4) in the
routing table of R1 and make a ping from R1 to this network.
Note: If the link between R2 and R3 is FastEthernet link, we must put the command below under EIGRP
process to make traffic from R1 to go through R3 (R1 -> R2 -> R3 -> R4), which is better than R1 -> R2
-> R4.
R2(config-router)# distance eigrp 90 105
This command sets the Administrative Distance of all EIGRP internal routes to 90 and all EIGRP external
routes to 105, which is smaller than the Administrative Distance of OSPF (110) -> the link between R2 &
R3 will be preferred to the serial link between R2 & R4.

Note: Please check the OSPF process numbers first before typing these commands. Maybe they are not
ospf 1 like above.

Policy Based Routing Sim

Question
Company TUT has two links to the Internet. The company policy requires that web traffic must be
forwarded only to Frame Relay link if available and other traffic can go through any links. No static or
default routing is allowed.

Answer and Explanation:

Notice: The answer and explanation below are from PeterPan and Helper.Please say thank to
them!
All the HTTP traffic from the EIGRP Network should go through Frame Relay link if available and all the
other traffic should go through either link.
The only router you are able to administrate is the Border Router, from the EIGRP Network you may only
send HTTP traffic. As the other people mentioned, actually it is not a BGP lab. You are not able to execute
the command router bgp 65001
1) Access list that catches the HTTP traffic:
BorderRouter(config)#access-list 101 permit tcp any any eq www

Note that the server was not directly connected to the Border Router. There were a lot of EIGRP routes on
it. In the real exam you do not know the exact IP address of the server in the EIGRP network so we have
to use the source as any to catch all the source addresses.
2) Route map that sets the next hop address to be ISP1 and permits the rest of the traffic:
BorderRouter(config)#route-map pbr permit 10
BorderRouter(config-route-map)#match ip address 101
BorderRouter(config-route-map)#set ip next-hop 10.1.101.1
BorderRouter(config-route-map)#exit
(Update: We dont need the last command route-map pbr permit 20 to permit other traffic according to
Cisco:
If the packets do not meet any of the defined match criteria (that is, if the packets fall off the end of a
route map), then those packets are routed through the normal destination-based routing process. If it is
desired not to revert to normal forwarding and to drop the packets that do not match the specified criteria,
then interface Null 0 should be specified as the last interface in the list by using the set clause.
3) Apply the route-map on the interface to the server in the EIGRP Network:
BorderRouter(config-route-map)#exit
BorderRouter(config)#int fa0/0
BorderRouter(config-if)#ip policy route-map pbr
BorderRouter(config-if)#exit
BorderRouter(config)#exit
4) There is a Host for Testing, click on this host to open a box in which there is a button named
Generate HTTP traffic. Click on this button to generate some packets for HTTP traffic. Jump back to the
BorderRouter and type the command show route-map.
BorderRouter#show route-map
In the output you will see the line Policy routing matches: 9 packets. It means that the route-map we
configured is working properly.

IPv6 OSPF Virtual Link Sim

Question
TUT is a small company that has an existing enterprise network that is running IPv6 OSPFv3. However,
R4s loopback address (FEC0:4:4) cannot be seen in R1. Identify and fix this fault, do not change the
current area assignments. Your task is complete when R4s loopback address (FEC0:4:4) can be seen in
the routing table of R1.

Special Note: To gain the maximum number of points you must remove all incorrect or unneeded
configuration statements related to this issue.
Answer and Explanation:
To troubleshoot the problem, first issue the show running-config on all of 4 routers. Pay more attention
to the outputs of routers R2 and R3
The output of the show running-config command of R2:

The output of the show running-config command of R3:

We knew that all areas in an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) autonomous system must be physically
connected to the backbone area (Area 0). In some cases, where this is not possible,we can use a virtual
link to connect to the backbone through a non-backbone area. The area through which you configure the
virtual link is known as a transit area. In this case, the area 11 will become the transit area. Therefore,
routers R2 and R3 must be configured with the area area-id virtual-link neighbor-router-id command.
+ Configure virtual link on R2 (from the first output above, we learned that the OSPF process ID of R2 is
1):
R2>enable
R2#configure terminal
R2(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1
R2(config-rtr)#area 11 virtual-link 3.3.3.3
(Notice that we have to use neighbor router-id 3.3.3.3, not R2s router-id 2.2.2.2)
+ Configure virtual link on R3 (from the second output above, we learned that the OSPF process ID of R3
is 1 and we have to disable the wrong configuration of area 54 virtual-link 4.4.4.4):
R3>enable
R3#configure terminal
R3(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1
R3(config-rtr)#no area 54 virtual-link 4.4.4.4
R3(config-rtr)#area 11 virtual-link 2.2.2.2
We should check the configuration on R4:
R4>enable
R4#show running-config
You will see a wrongly configured virtual-link command. To get full mark we have to disable this command:
R4#configure terminal
R4(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1
R4(config-rtr)#no area 54 virtual-link 3.3.3.3

After finishing the configuration dont forget to ping between R1 and R4 to make sure they work well!
Now all the configuration was done. It is weird that we cant ping the IPv6 loopback interface of R4 (with
the ping or ping ipv6 command) but we can check by using the command show ipv6 route on R1
The copying running-config startup-config command will not work but dont worry, just skip it.
Notice: If you issue the command show running-config on R1, you will see these two lines:
passive-interface default
no passive-interface fa0/0 (fa0/0 is the interface connecting with R2)
These two lines make all the interfaces of R1 become passive interfaces except interface fa0/0. They are
correctly configured so dont try to disable them.

EIGRP Stub Sim

Question
TUT Corporation has just extended their business. R3 is the new router from which they can reach all
Corporate subnets. In order to raise network stableness and lower the memory usage and broadband
utilization to R3, TUT Corporation makes use of route summarization together with the EIGRP Stub Routing
feature. Another network engineer is responsible for this solution. However, in the process of configuring
EIGRP stub routing connectivity with the remote network devices off of R3 has been missing.

Presently TUT has configured EIGRP on all routers in the network R2, R3, and R4. Your duty is to find and
solve the connectivity failure problem with the remote office router R3. You should then configure route
summarization only to the distant office router R3 to complete the task after the problem has been solved.
The success of pings from R4 to the R3 LAN interface proves that the fault has been corrected and the R3
IP routing table only contains two 10.0.0.0 subnets.

Answer and Explanation:

First we have to figure out why R3 and R4 can not communicate with each other. Use the show runningconfig command on router R3

Notice that R3 is configured as a stub receive-only router. The receive-only keyword will restrict the
router from sharing any of its routes with any other router in that EIGRP autonomous system. This
keyword will also prevent any type of route from being sent.
Therefore we will remove this command and replace it with the eigrp stub command:
R3#configure terminal
R3(config)#router eigrp 123
R3(config-router)#no eigrp stub receive-only
R3(config-router)#eigrp stub
R3(config-router)#end
Now R3 will send updates containing its connected and summary routes to other routers. Notice that the
eigrp stub command equals to the eigrp stub connected summary because the connected and
summary options are enabled by default.
Next we will configure router R3 so that it has only 2 subnets of 10.0.0.0 network. Use the show ip route
command on R3 to view its routing table
R3#show ip route

Because we want the routing table of R3 only have 2 subnets so we have to summary sub-networks at the
interface which is connected with R3, the s0/0 interface of R4.
There is one interesting thing about the output of the show ip route shown above: the 10.2.3.0/24,
which is a directly connected network of R3. We cant get rid of it in the routing table no matter what
technique we use to summary the networks. Therefore, to make the routing table of R3 has only 2 subnets
we have to summary other subnets into one subnet.
In the output if we dont see the summary line (like 10.0.0.0/8 is a summary) then we should use the
command ip summary-address eigrp 123 10.2.0.0 255.255.0.0 so that all the ping can work well.
In conclusion, we will use the ip summary-address eigrp 123 10.2.0.0 255.255.0.0 at the interface
s0/0 of R4 to summary.
R4>enable
R4#configure terminal
R4(config)#interface s0/0
R4(config-if)#ip summary-address eigrp 123 10.2.0.0 255.255.0.0
Now we jump back to R3 and use the show ip route command to verify the effect, the output is shown
below:

(But please notice that the ip addresses and the subnet masks in your real exam might be different so you
might use different ones to solve this question)
But in your real exam, if you see the line 10.0.0.0/8 is a summary,.Null0 then you need to summary
using the network 10.0.0.0/8 with the command ip summary-address eigrp 123 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 .
This configuration is less optimize than the first but it summaries into 2 subnets as the question requires
(maybe you will not see this case, dont worry!).
The command copy running-config startup-config will not work so try using this command; just skip if it
doesnt work.

OSPF Sim
Question
OSPF is configured on routers Amani and Lynaic. Amanis S0/0 interface and Lynaics S0/1 interface are in
Area 0. Lynaics Loopback0 interface is in Area 2.

Your task is to configure the following:

Portlands S0/0 interface in Area 1
Amanis S0/1 interface in Area 1
Use the appropriate mask such that ONLY Portlands S0/0 and Amnanis S0/1 could be in Area
1.
Area 1 should not receive any external or inter-area routes (except the default route).
Answer and Explanation:
First, we configure Portlands S0/0 interface so that it belongs to Area 1. So, we have to find out which
sub-network the IP address 192.168.4.5/30 (the IP of interface S0/0 of Portland) belongs to. This address
belongs to a subnetwork which has:
Increment: 4 (/30 = 255.255.255.252 or 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1100)
Network address: 192.168.4.4 (because 4 = 4 * 1 and 4 < 5)
Broadcast address: 192.168.4.7 (because 7 = 4 + 4 1) (It is not necessary to find out the broadcast
address but we should know it)
The question requires that only Portlands S0/0 and Amanis S0/1 could be in Area 1, therefore we must
use a wildcard of 0.0.0.3 (this wildcard is equivalent with a subnet mask of /30) so that there are only 2 IP
addresses can participate in area 1 (they are 192.168.4.5 & 192.168.4.6). The full command we use here
is network 192.168.4.4 0.0.0.3 area 1
The question also requires that Area 1 should not receive any external or inter-area routes (except the
default route). Recall that if we dont want the router to receive external routes, we have to stop LSA Type
5. And if we dont want to receive inter-area routes, we have to stop LSA Type 3 and Type 4. Therefore
we have to configure area 1 as a totally stubby area. For your information, here is the definition of a
totally stubby area:
Totally stubb area This area does not accept summary LSAs from other areas (types 3 or 4) or
external summary LSAs (Type 5). Types 3,4 and 5 LSAs are replaced by the Area Border Router(ABR) with
a default router. Totally stubby areas protect internal routers by minimizing the routing table and
summarizing everything outside the area with a default route. (CCNP BSCI Official Exam Certification
Guide, Fourth Edition)
In conclusion, we have to configure area 1 as a totally stubby area. We do that by configuring Portland as
stub and configuring Amani (ABR router) as a stub + no-summarysuffix.
+ Configure Portland router as a stub:
Portland#configure terminal
Portland(config)#router ospf 1

Allow network 192.168.4.4/30 to join Area 1, notice that you have to convert subnet mask into wildcard
mask:
Portland(config-router)#network 192.168.4.4 0.0.0.3 area 1
Configure Portland as a stub:
Portland(config-router)#area 1 stub
Portland(config-router)#end
Portland#copy running-config startup-config
+ Configure Amani router as a totally stub:
Amani#configure terminal
Amani(config)#router ospf 1
Amani(config-router)#network 192.168.4.4 0.0.0.3 area 1
Make area 1 become a totally stubby area, notice that we can only use this command on ABR router:
Amani(config-router)#area 1 stub no-summary
Amani(config-router)#end
Amani#copy running-config startup-config
Note: Make sure to check the OSPF process ID before typing your configuration. Maybe it is not OSPF
process 1 like the configuration above.

EIGRP Simlet

EIGRP SHOW IP EIGRP TOPOLOGY ALL-LINKS

Here you will find answers to EIGRP Simlet question

Question
Refer to the exhibit. BigBids Incorporated is a worldwide auction provider. The network uses EIGRP as its
routing protocol throughout the corporation. The network administrator does not understand the
convergence of EIGRP. Using the output of the show ip eigrp topology all-links command, answer the
administrators questions.

Question 1
Which two networks does the Core1 device have feasible successors for? (Choose two)
A 172.17.0.0/30
B 172.17.1.0/24
C 172.17.2.0/24
D 172.17.3.0/25
E 172.17.3.128/25
F 10.140.0.0/24

Answer: A F
Explanation
To understand the output of the show ip eigrp topology all-links command command, lets analyze an
entry (we choose the second entry because it is better for demonstration than the first one)

The first line tells us there is only 1 successor for the path to 10.140.0.0/24 network but there are 2 lines
below. So we can deduce that one line is used for successor and the other is used for another route to that
network. Each of these two lines has 2 parameters: the first one (156160 or 157720) is the Feasible
Distance (FD) and the second (128256 or 155160) is the Advertised Distance (AD) of that route.
The next thing we want to know is: if the route via 172.17.10.2 (the last line) would become the feasible
successor for the 10.140.0.0/24 network. To figure out, we have to compare the Advertised Distance of
that route with the Feasible Distance of the successors route, if AD < FD then it will become the feasible
successor. In this case, because AD (155160) < FD (156160) so it will become the feasible successor.
Therefore we can conclude the network 10.140.0.0/24 has 1 feasible successor.
After understanding the output, lets have a look at the entire output:

Because the question asks about feasible successor so we just need to focus on entries which have more
paths than the number of successor. In this case, we find 3 entries that are in blue boxes because they
have only 1 successor but has 2 paths, so the last path can be the feasible successor.
By comparing the value of AD (of that route) with the FD (of successors route) we figure out there are 2
entries will have the feasible successor: the first and the second entry. The third entry has AD = FD
(30720) so we eliminate it.
Question 2
Which three EIGRP routes will be installed for the 172.17.3.128/25 and 172.17.2.0/24 networks? (Choose
three)

A 172.17.3.128.25 [90/28160] via 172.17.1 2, 01:26:35, FastEthernet0/2

B 172.17.3.128/25 [90/30720] via 172.17.3.2, 01:26:35, FastEthemet0/3
C 172.17.3.128/25 [90/30720] via 172.17.10.2, 01:26:35, FastEthernet0/1
D 172.17.2.0/24 [90/30720] via 172.17.10.2, 02:10:11, FastEthernet0/1
E 172.17.2.0/24 [90/28160] via 172.17.10.2, 02:10:11, FastEthernet0/1
F 172.17.2.0/24 [90/33280] via 172.17.3.2, 02:10:11, FastEthernet0/3

Answer: B C D
Explanation
First indicate the positions of these networks:

Network 172.17.3.128/25 has 2 successors, therefore the two paths below are both successors.
Network 172.17.2.0/24 has only 1 successor, therefore the path lies right under it is the successor.
Question 3
Which three networks is the router at 172.17.10.2 directly connected to? (Choose three)
A 172.17.0.0/30
B 172.17.1.0/24

C 172.17.2.0/24
D 172.17.3.0/25
E 172.17.3.128/25
F 172.17.10.0/24

Answer: C E F
Explanation

First, we should notice about the entry in the orange box, it shows that the network 172.17.10.0/24 is
directly connected with this router and has a FD of 28160. So we can guess the networks that directly
connected with router at 172.17.10.2 will be shown with an AD of 28160. From that, we find out 3
networks which are directly connected to the router at 172.17.10.2 (they are green underlined). The
network 172.17.10.0/24 is surely directly connected to the router at 172.17.10.2 (in fact it is the network
that links the router at 172.17.10.2 with Core1 router).

ROUTE 300-101

Access List _____________________________________________________________ 1

Point-to-Point Protocol ____________________________________________________ 3

CEF & Fast Switching _____________________________________________________ 6

Frame Relay Questions ____________________________________________________ 9

GRE Tunnel ____________________________________________________________ 11

DMVPN Questions _______________________________________________________ 11

TCP UDP Questions ______________________________________________________ 15

Distribute List __________________________________________________________ 21

EVN & VRF Questions ____________________________________________________ 22

BGP Questions _________________________________________________________ 25

Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding ___________________________________________ 26

IP Services Questions ____________________________________________________ 27

NetFlow Questions _______________________________________________________ 34

IPv6 Questions __________________________________________________________ 40

IPv6 Questions 2 ________________________________________________________ 46

Miscellaneous Questions __________________________________________________ 51

Lab Sim _______________________________________________________________ 59

OSPF Evaluation Sim _______________________________________________ 59

EIGRP Evaluation Sim ______________________________________________ 69

Practice Real ROUTE Labs with GNS3 __________________________________ 77

EIGRP OSPF Redistribution Sim _______________________________________ 79

Policy Based Routing Sim ____________________________________________ 82

IPv6 OSPF Virtual Link Sim ___________________________________________ 83

EIGRP Stub Sim ____________________________________________________ 86

OSPF Sim _________________________________________________________ 89

EIGRP Simlet ______________________________________________________ 91