Question Papers

ExamCode: EEE2_16_B2 Version No : 1

1.

2.

3.

Resistance of a wire always increases if1) Temperature is decreased

3) Number of free electrons becomes less

2) Temperature is increased
4) Number of free electrons available becomes more

4.

5.

6.

7.

An ideal current source has1) Zero internal resistance

3) Low value of voltage

2) Infinite internal resistance

4) Large value of current

8.

The regulation of a line at full load 0.8, power factor lagging is 11%. The regulation at full load 0.8 power factor leading can be1) About 20%
2) About 15%
3) About 3%
4) About 30%

9.

When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces1) Damping torque
2) Eddy current torque
3) Running torque
4) No torque

10.

The thermal resistivity of soil is around1) 0.2c-m/watt

3) 5.0c-m/watt

2) 1.5c-m/watt
4) 100c-m/watt

11.

What happen to voltage and frequency if the load is suddenly rejected?

1) Voltage shoots and frequency increases
2) Voltage shoots and frequency decreases
3) Voltage decreases and frequency increases
4) Voltage decreases and frequency decreases

12.

The residual voltage of a 3 phase system is dependent upon1) Neutral to ground impedance
3) Both (A) and (B)

2) Phase fault impedance

4) None of these

13.

VFD based motor is running at 45 Hz frequency for one hour and then running at 50 Hz frequency for one hour.
Compared with 45 Hz, the 50 Hz frequency power consumption is:
1) Less than 45 Hz power consumption
2) More than 45 Hz power consumption
3) Remains same
4) None of these

14.

The effect of corona is:

1) Increased energy loss
3) Increased inductance

15.

2) Increased reactance
4) All of these

The main advantage of resistance earthing of a power system neutral is:

1) Operation of protective system
2) Enhancement of protective system sensitivity
3) Limitation of fault current

4) None of these

16.

For accurate load flow calculations on large power systems, the best method is:
1) G-S method
2) NR method
3) De-coupled method
4) None of these

17.

The zero sequence faults currents are absent when the fault is:
1) L-L
3) LLG

2) L-G
4) None

Bundled conductors are used to1) Reduce line capacitance to ground

3) Reduce regulation

2) Reduce weight of line

4) Reduce corona loss

Mho relays is usually employed for the protection of1) Short lines only
3) Long lines only

2) Medium lines only

4) Any lines

Ward-Leonard system of speed control is not recommended for 1) Wide speed range
3) Frequency motor reversals

2) Constant speed operation

4) Very low speeds

18.

19.

20.

21.

Retardation test on a DC shunt motor is used for finding ____ losses.

1) Stray
2) Copper
3) Friction
4) Iron

22.

23.

Armature reaction in DC motor results in 1) Decrease in speed

3) Short circuit

2) Increase in speed
4) Open circuit

The DC motor, which can provide zero speed regulation at full load without any controller is:
1) Series
3) Cumulatively compound

2) Shunt
4) Differential compound

24.

The conduction loss versus device current characteristic of a power MOSFET is best approximated by -

25.

1) A parabola
2) A straight line
3) A rectangular hyperbola
4) An exponentially decaying function
A modern power semiconductor device that combines the characteristics of BJT & MOSFET is:
1) GTO
3) IGBT

2) FCT
4) MCT

26.

A single phase AC regulator fed from 50 Hz supply feeds a load having 4 resistance & 12.73 mH inductance.
The control range of firing angle will be 1) 0 to 180
2) 45 to 180
3) 90 to 180
4) 0 to 45

27.

A single phase full-wave half-controlled bridge converter feeds an inductive load. The two SCRs in the converter
are connected to a common DC bus. The converter has to have a free-wheeling diode1) Because the converter inherently does not provide for freewheeling

2) Because the converter does not provide for freewheeling for high values of triggering angles

3) Or else the free-wheeling action of the converter will cause shorting 4) Or else if a gate pulse to one of the SCRs is missed,
of the AC supply
it will subsequently cause a high load current in the other SCR

28.

29.

30.

When a line commutated converter operates in the inverter mode 1) It draws both real and reactive power from the AC supply

2) It delivers both real and reactive power to the AC supply

3) It delivers real power to the AC supply

4) It draws reactive power from the AC supply

When a thyristor is in the forward blocking state, then 1) All 3 junctions are reversed
3) Anode junction is forward biased but other two are reverse biased

2) Anode and cathode junctions are forward biased

but gate junction is reverse biased
4) Anode & gate junction are forward biased but
cathode is reverse biased

31.

An SCR triggered by a current pulse applied to the gate cathode can be turned off 1) By applying a pulse to the cathode
2) By applying a pulse to the anode
3) By applying another pulse of opposite polarity to the gate cathode
4) By reversing the polarity of the anode and cathode voltage

32.

An SCR is rated for 650 V PIV. What is the voltage for which the device can be operated if the voltage safety factor is 2?
1) 325 V rms
3) 459 V rms

33.

2) 230 V rms
4) 650 V rms

A differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000. CMRR=80 dB. The common mode gain is given by :
1) 2
3) 1/2

2) 1
4) 0

34.

A constant current signal across a parallel RLC circuit gives an output of 1.4 V at the signal frequency of 3.89 kHZ and 4.1 kHZ.
At the frequency of 4 kHZ, the output voltage will be :
1) 2 V
3) 1.4 V

35.

An amplifier without feedback has a voltage gain of 50, input resistance of 1 k and output resistance of 2.5 k.The input
resistance of the current-shunt negative feedback amplifier using the above amplifier with a feedback factor of 0.2 is1) 1/11 k
3) 5 k

36.

2) 1/5 k
4) 11 k

A circuit comprises a 100 resistance in series with a 1 mH inductance. The supply voltage is given by
v(t) = 40+200 sin t + 50 sin (3t + 45) +15 sin (5t+ 30), V, where = 105 rad/sec. The power dissipated in the circuit is:
1) 17.3 W
3) 100.0 W

37.

2) 1 V
4) 2.8 V

2) 117.3 W
4) 97.3 W

38.

39.

A D.C. generator has a efficiency of 90% for an output voltage and current of 250 V and 18 A respectively. If this
machine is made to operate at the same speed as a D.C. motor with an input voltage of 250 V and current of 18 A, the efficiency
of the motor would be1) 90%
3) 88.88%

40.

2) 91.12%
4) 87.12%

A belt-driven cumulatively compound D.C. generator is delivering power to the D.C. mains. If the belt snaps, then the machine will run as a1) Cumulative compound motor in the same direction

2) Differentially compound motor in the same direction

3) Cumulative compound motor in the opposite direction

4) Differentially compound motor in the opposite direction

41.

A D.C shunt generator is supplying a load of 1.8 kW at 200 V. Its armature and field resistances are 0.4 and 200 respectively.
What is the generated emf?
1) 190 V
2) 196 V
3) 204 V
4) 210 V

42.

A D.C. shunt motor has external resistances Raand Rf in the armature and field circuits respectively. Armature current at starting
can be reduced by keeping2) Ra maximum and Rf maximum
1) Rf maximum and Ra minimum
3) Ra minimum and Rf minimum

4) Ra maximum and Rf minimum

43.

In Hopkinsons method of testing D.C. machines, the power taken from the mains has to supply1) The losses in the motor only
3) The input to both the machines

44.

45.

Five cells are connected in series in a row and then four such rows are connected in parallel to feed the current to resistive load of 1.25 .
Each cell has an emf of 1.5 V with internal resistance of 0.2 . The current through the load will be1) 3.33 A
2) 23.33 A
3) 5 A
4) 1 A
A D.C. shunt motor runs at a no-load speed of 1140 rpm. At full-load, armature reaction weakens the main flux by 5% whereas the
armature circuit voltage drops by 10%. The motor full-load speed in rpm is:
1) 1080
3) 1000

46.

2) Zero
4) 50 V

An 8-pole, D.C. generator has simplex wave-wound armature containing 32 slots of 6 turns each. Its flux per pole is 0.06 Wb.
The machine is running at 250 rpm. The induced armature voltage is:
1) 96 V
3) 384 V

48.

2) 1203
4) 1200

A 220 V, D.C. machine has an armature resistance of 1 . If the full-load current is 20 A, the difference in the induced voltage when the
machine is running as a motor and as a generator is:
1) 20 V
3) 40 V

47.

2) The losses in both the machines

4) The input to motor and not to the generator

2) 192 V
4) 768 V

A D.C. series motor is rated 230 V, 1000 rpm, 80 A. The series field resistance is 0.11 and the armature resistance is 0.41 .
If the flux at an armature current of 20 A is 0.4 times of that under rated condition, what is the speed at reduced armature current of 20 A?

1) 2378 rpm
3) 2578 rpm

2) 2478 rpm
4) 2678 rpm

49.

50.

A minimum phase transfer function is defined as1) A transfer function which has one zero in the right of the s plane

2) A transfer function which has one pole in the right of the s plane

3) A transfer function which has neither poles nor zeros in the right of the s
plane

4) A transfer function which has one pole and one zero in the
right of the s plane

51.

52.

In the GH(s) plane, the Nyquist plot of the loop transfer function G(s)H(s)=(/s)e-0.25s passes through the negative real axis at the point1) -0.25
3) -1.00

2) -0.50
4) -2.00

53.

Which of the following is correct? The slope of the asymptotic bode magnitude plot is integer multiple of1) 40 dB/octave
3) 6 dB/octave

54.

The number of sign changes in the Routh's array indicates the number of roots lying in the 1) Centre of the s-plane
3) Right half of s-plane

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

2) 12 dB/decade
4) 3 dB/octave

2) Left half of s-plane

4) Origin of s-plane

Which of the following will improve the mutual coupling between primary and secondary circuits ?
1) Transformer coil and high breakdown voltage

2) High reluctance magnetic core

3) Winding material of high resistivity

4) Low reluctance magnetic core

An alternator with higher value of SCR has 1) Poor voltage regulation

2) Better voltage regulation and higher stability limit

3) Poor voltage regulation and higher stability limit

4) Better voltage regulation and low stability limit

Which type of alternator is used in hydro electric power stations?

1) Non-salient pole alternator
3) Salient pole alternator

2) Turbo generator
4) Steam turbine alternator

In an induction motor, maximum torque varies as:

1) V/X2
3) V/R2

2) V/X2
4) V/X2

A differential amplifier is invariably used in the input stage of all op-amps. This is done basically to provide the op-amp with a
very high ________.
1) CMRR
2) Bandwidth
3) Slew-rate
4) Open-loop gain
An op-amp differentiator has R1 = 10 k and C1 = 0.01F. The cut-off frequency and maximum linear operating frequency
will be ____.
1) 1.59 kHz and 159 Hz
2) 159 kHz and 1.59 MHz
3) 1.59 MHz and 1.59 kHz
4) 159 kHz and 159 Hz

61.

An amplifier has an open loop gain of 1000 and a feedback ratio of 0.04. If the open loop gain changes by 10% due to temperature,
the percentage change in gain of the amplifier with feedback is _____.
1) 0.35%
3) 0.25%

62.

A device used to display one or more digital signals so that they can be compared to expected timing diagrams for the signals is a 1) Digital Multimeter
3) Logic Analyzer

63.

64.

2) 0.55%
4) 0.45%

2) Spectrum analyzer
4) Frequency counter

The Rs required to self-bias an N-Channel JFET with IDSS = 40 mA, Vp = -10V and VGSQ = - 5V is ____.
1) 300
3) 400

2) 200
4) 500

Higher order active filters are used for ___.

1) Bandwidth
3) Impedance

2) Gain in the passband

4) Higher roll-off rate

65.

A moving-coil instrument gives full deflection at 500 A and has a resistance of 1 k. The instrument has to be used as a (0 - 50)V
voltmeter. The required value of series resistance is:
1) 100 k
2) 50 k
3) 99 k
4) 101 k

66.

The maximum percentage error in the sum of two voltage measurements when V1 = 100V 1% ; V2 = 80 V 5% is:
1) 4%
2) 2.8%
3) 6%
4) 3%

67.

A transducer measures a range of 0 - 200N force with a resolution of 0.15 percent of full scale. What is the smallest change which
can be measured by this transducer?
1) 0.15 N
2) 3.33 N
3) 0.3 N
4) 6.66 N

68.

A dynamometer type wattmeter with its voltage coil connected across the load side of the instrument reads 250 W. The voltage coil
has a resistance of 2000 . If the load voltage is 200 V, what power is being absorbed by the load?
1) 20 W
3) 230 W

2) 10 W
4) 270 W

69.

Two meters X and Y require 40 mA and 50 mA respectively, to give full-scale deflection. Then 1) Sensitivity cannot be judged with given information

70.

71.

72.

2) Both are equally sensitive

3) X is more sensitive
4) Y is more sensitive
A 0 - 150V voltmeter guarantees on accuracy of 1% of full scale reading. The voltage measured by this instrument is 75V. The
limiting error (%) is:
1) 1.00 %
2) 2.00 %
3) 0.5 %
4) 1.5 %

73.

74.

Maximum peak over shoot of a second order system is e-. Then its damping ratio is:
2) 1
4) 2

75.

1) 0
3) 1/2
Impulse response of a system is g(t)= 3e-t+4e-2t + 5e3t. The system is:
1) Stable
3) Marginally stable

2) Unstable
4) None of these

Damping ratio and maximum peak overshoot are measures of 1) Absolute stability
3) Steady state error

2) Relative stability
4) Speed of response

76.

77.

A type 1 system is connected under unity feedback. Which of the following transfer function is needed in forward path to track
unit ramp reference?
1) s
2) 1/s
3) 1/s
4) s

78.

If the open loop gain of a system is increased by 10 times, then 1) Magnitude plot shifts up by 20 dB and phase plot remains same
3) Magnitude plot remains same and phase plot shifts up by 90 degree

2) Magnitude plot shifts down by 20 dB and phase plot remains same

4) Magnitude plot remains same and phase plot shifts
down by 90 degree

79.

80.

The power in a 3 phase circuit is measured with the help of 2 wattmeters. The readings of one of wattmeters is positive and
that of the other is negative.The magnitude of readings is different. It can be concluded that the power factor of the circuit is :
1) Unity
3) 0.5(lagging)

2) Zero(lagging)
4) Less than 0.5 (lagging)

81.

The sensitivity of a PMMC instrument is 10 k/V. If this instrument is used in a rectifier type voltmeter with half wave rectification,
what would be the sensitivity?
1) 10 k/V
2) 9 k/V
3) 4.5 k/V
4) 22.2 k/V

82.

The values of static stiffness and compliance in a measurement system determines the amount of -

83.

84.

1) Power drain from a system

2) Current drain from a system
3) Energy drain from a system
4) None of these
An alternator is being synchronised to the bus bars whose frequency is 50 Hz. The bulb of the synchronoscope flickers at a
frequency of 10 Hz the frequency of the alternator is 1) 60 Hz
3) 60 Hz or 40 Hz

2) 40 Hz
4) None of these

The units whose sizes cannot be chosen independently are called 1) Derived units
3) Absolute units

2) Fundamental units
4) Auxiliary fundamental units

85.

86.

Zener sources when used as voltage standards 1) Are reverse biased

2) Can be designed to cover a wide range of voltages

3) Are immune to the effects of short circuit

4) All of these

In a short circuit test, with earthed neutral on a 132 kV three phase circuit breaker, the pf of the fault was 0.3; the recovery
voltage was 0.95 of full line value; the breaking current was symmetrical and the restriking transient had a natural frequency of 16 kHz.
The rate of rise of the restriking voltage is:
1) 10.83 kV/s
3) 8.43 kV/s

87.

2) 6.25 kV/s
4) 9.83 kV/s

A 1000 MW power station delivers 1000 MW for 2 hours, 500 MW for 6 hours and is shut down for the rest of each day. It is also
shut down for maintenance for 60 days annually. The annual load factor in this case is:
1) 20.8%
3) 15.7%

2) 25.6%
4) 18.9%

88.

A refining plant employs 600 cells for copper refining. A current of 1 kA is used and the voltage per cell is 0.3 V. If the plant is
worked for 90 hours in 1 week, the energy consumption in kWh/tonne is : (The electrochemical equivalent of Copper is 1.1844 kg/1kAh)
1) 345.6
2) 125.6
3) 187.3
4) 253.4

89.

A 500 kVA, 1100 V, 50 HZ, Y connected 3 phase alternator has stator resistance of 0.1 ohm/phase. The alternator is supplying
full load at unity power factor. The induced emf per phase for this condition is:
1) 769 V
2) 832 V
3) 692 V
4) 935 V

90.

A three phase squirrel cage induction motor has a starting current of 7 times the full load current and full load slip of 5%.
If a star-delta starter is used to start this, the per unit starting torque will be 1) 0.607
2) 0.816
3) 1.225
4) 1.616

91.

When the excitation of normally operating unloaded salient-pole synchronous motor suddenly gets disconnected, it continues to run as a 1) Schrage motor
2) Spherical motor
3) Switched reluctance motor
4) Variable reluctance motor
What does the use of higher flux density value in a transformer design lead to?
1) Increase in weight per kVA
2) Decrease in weight per kVA
3) Reduced iron losses
4) Reduced copper losses

92.

93.

As compared to DOL starting, a cage induction motor with star-delta starting shall have 1) More starting torque
2) More starting time
3) Reduced starting current
4) Smoother acceleration

94.

The number of electrical degrees passed through in one revolution of a six pole synchronous alternator is:
1) 360
2) 720
3) 1080
4) 2160

95.

If the full-load speed of a 6-phase, 50 Hz induction motor is 950 rpm, what is its half-load speed nearly equal to?
1) 1000 rpm
2) 450 rpm
3) 1900 rpm
4) 975 rpm

96.

If a 400 V, 50 Hz, star connected, 3 phase squirrel cage induction motor is operated from a 400 V, 75 Hz supply, the torque that the
motor can now provide while drawing rated current from the supply 1) Reduces
2) Increases
3) Remains the same
4) Increase or reduces depending upon the rotor resistance

97.

A 25 HP, 400 V, 50 Hz, 4-pole Y connected induction motor has the following impedance per phase in ohms referred to stator side:
Rs=0.641, Rr=0.332, Xs=1.106, Xr=0.464 and Xm=26.30 Rotational losses are assumed constant and are 1.1 kW. Core losses
are assumed negligible. If the slip is 2.2% at rated voltage and frequency, the efficiency of the motor is:
1) 89.3 %
2) 80.83 %
3) 91.2 %
4) 95.6 %

98.

In which of the following is reluctance power developed?

1) Salient pole alternator
3) Squirrel cage induction motor

2) Non-salient pole alternator

4) Transformer

99.

The speed of a 4-pole induction motor is controlled by varying the supply frequency while maintaining the ratio of supply voltage to
supply frequency (V/f) constant. At rated frequency of 50 Hz and rated voltage of 400 V, its speed is 1440 rpm. Find the speed at 30 Hz,
if the load torque is constant.
1) 882 rpm
2) 864 rpm
3) 840 rpm
4) 828 rpm

100.

When one transformer is removed from a D-D bank of 30 kVA transformer, the capacity of the resulting 3-phase transformer in
V-V connection will be:
1) 11.5 kVA
2) 17.3 kVA
3) 20 kVA
4) 25.9 kVA