Mod 13 Systems Questions P2

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1. Flutter can be reduced by using

Your Answer:
a horn balance INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
mass balancing
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2. An elevator provides control about the

Your Answer:
lateral axis CORRECT
file:///C|/Documents%20and%20Settings/Jeremiah%20O'Brien/My%20Documents/18.htm (1 of 4)4/30/2008 6:53:24 PM
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3. The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft

Your Answer:
are isolated to improve sensitivity INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
are isolated at high speeds
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4. Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?

Your Answer:
Comment/Reference:
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Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going
aileron increases more CORRECT
Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-26
Assuming no Adverse Yaw prevention/compensation is applied.
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5. Which flap will increase wing area and camber?
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Your Answer:
Split INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Fowler
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 20
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6. Wing loading of an aircraft

Your Answer:
decreases with density INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
is independent of altitude
Comment/Reference:
Wing loading = aircraft weight/wing area
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7. An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is

Your Answer:
low INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
high
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8.
On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused
by
Your Answer:
right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted

CORRECT
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9. A split flap increases lift by increasing

Your Answer:
the camber of the top surface INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion
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10. When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft will
Your Answer:
pitch nose up INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pitch nose down
Comment/Reference:
Due to the centre of pressure moving aft
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Module Specific Links

ACARS online The official ACARS website
av8n Aerodynamics theory website
Compass Swing Great simulator for learning how to do a compass swing
Dunlop Aircraft Tyres Manual Maintenance, inspection, care, storage etc. - Download page
Dynamic Flight Helicopter basic aerodynamics explained
Michael Oxner Nice description of navigation system basics
Pilots Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge Large (22 Mb) pdf book. Allow to open in browser then
click File - Save - and it is yours to read
Rotorcraft Flying Handbook Large (17 Mb) pdf book. Allow to open in browser then click File - Save and it is yours to read
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Stanford University Excellent in-depth material on all aspects of aircraft design (aerodynamics,
structures etc. etc.)
TCAS Tutorial PDF - Allow it to load in the pop-up, then click Save, to save it to your computer for offline reading.
The Avionics Handbook Large (32 Mb) pdf book. Allow to open in browser then click File - Save - and
it is yours to read
TPUB US Navy course notes The biggest aviation maintenance basics resource EVER!
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1. The transition point located on the wing is the point where

Your Answer:
the airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic flow

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow
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2. The boundary layer is considered to be turbulent

Your Answer:
just aft of the separation point INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
between the transition and separation points
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Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, 4th Edition, Pallett and Coyle, Page 9
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3.
The advantage of a turbulent boundary layer over a laminar boundary layer

is
Your Answer:
decreases energy INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
less tendency to separate
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4. A laminar boundary layer is... and has... drag than a turbulent layer.
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Your Answer:
thicker; less INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
thinner; less
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5. When pulling out of a dive (e.g. looping) the angle of attack

Your Answer:
increases CORRECT
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6.
In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the
wing leading edge most critical?
Your Answer:
The last part of the rotation CORRECT
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7. Dutch roll is movement in

Your Answer:
yaw and roll CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Avionic Fundamentals Jeppesen page 291
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8. What is the main purpose of a frize aileron?
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Your Answer:
Increase drag on the up going wing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Decrease drag on the up going wing
Comment/Reference:
The Frise aileron increases drag on the up-going aileron, which

is on the downgoing wing. And Vise versa on the other aileron
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9. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to

Your Answer:
go one wing down CORRECT
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10. If an aircraft moves in yaw, what axis is it moving about?

Your Answer:
Longitudinal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Normal
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1. At the same weight, with the CG at its forward limit

Your Answer:
VS is higher, the stalling angle is unchanged CORRECT
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2. Stick pusher is installed in aircraft when

Your Answer:
the aircraft has failed to meet the stalling requirements by

normal category CORRECT
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Two identical aeroplanes A and B are flying horizontal steady turns. Further
data is:
3. A: W=1500 kg Bank= 20 TAS= 130 kt
B: W= 1500 kg Bank= 20 TAS= 200 kt
Which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B CORRECT
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4. Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)?
000
Your Answer:
Increasing load factor INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Decreasing weight
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5. The purpose of a fixed spoiler on the leading edge of a wing at the root is to
Your Answer:
prevent the wing from stalling at the root INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ensure that the root of the wing stalls before the tip does
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6.
In a level turn with 60 lateral bank, the load factor is 2.0 and the stall
speed increases by
Your Answer:
40 % CORRECT
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7. The critical angle of attack

Your Answer:
changes with an increase in gross weight INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
remains unchanged regardless of gross weight
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An aeroplane has been loaded in such a manner that the centre of gravity is
8. located behind the aft centre of gravity limit. One undesirable flight
characteristic a pilot might experience with this aeroplane would be
Your Answer:
a longer takeoff run INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition
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9. Vso is defined as the

Your Answer:
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing

configuration CORRECT
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10. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors
Your Answer:
increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c.

g. location INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g. location
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1. The angle of attack at which a wing stalls will

Your Answer:
remain the same regardless of centre of gravity position

CORRECT
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2.
Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight wing (1) and of a
strongly swept back wing (2) will
Your Answer:
(1) not move (2) move forward INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
(1) move aft, (2) move forward
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3.
Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed

at which stick shaker will be triggered is
Your Answer:
greater than VS CORRECT
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4. A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will

Your Answer:
improve the low speed characteristics CORRECT
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5.
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If the straight and level stall speed is 100 kt, what will be the stall speed in
a 1.5g turn?
Your Answer:
81 kts INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
122 kts
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6. The function of the stick pusher is

Your Answer:
to activate and push the stick forward prior to stick shaker

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain

value of angle of attack
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7. How does stalling speed vary with load factor?

Your Answer:
It decreases inversely with the load factor INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
It increases proportionally with the square root of the load factor
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8.
When entering a stall, the CG of a straight wing will (i) and of a strongly
swept wing will (ii)
Your Answer:
(i) move aft, (ii) move aft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
(i) not move, (ii) not move
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9. After the transition point between the laminar and turbulent boundary layer
Your Answer:
the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the mean speed and friction drag increases
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10. The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic speeds as long as
Your Answer:
the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall
occurs CORRECT
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1. With the centre of gravity on the forward limit, the stalling speed would be
Your Answer:
lower than with the centre of gravity on the aft limit

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
higher than with the centre of gravity on the aft limit
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2. The following take place at the transition point on a wing

Your Answer:
the boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to

the turbulent boundary layer CORRECT
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3. A low wing loading (aircraft weight has been reduced)

Your Answer:
increases stalling speed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decreases stalling speed and landing speed
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4.
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Stalling speed in a 15 bank level turn is 60kt. The stalling speed in a 45

bank level turn will be
Your Answer:
50 kts INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
70 kts
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5.
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Which of the following is the speed in level flight that would activate the
stall warning?
Your Answer:
1.2VS1G INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1.05VS1G
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6. How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?

Your Answer:
It increases with increasing altitude, because the density

decreases INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
It remains constant
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7.
Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of attack of
a wing?
Your Answer:
No effect on angle of attack INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Decrease the angle of attack
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8.
As the centre of gravity is changed, recovery from a stall becomes

progressively
Your Answer:
becomes progressively more difficult as the centre of gravity

moves forward INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
becomes progressively more difficult as the centre of gravity

moves aft.
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9. To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are
Your Answer:
installed on the wing leading edge at the wing tip INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root
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10. Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct?

Your Answer:
The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the
laminar boundary layer CORRECT
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1. The load factor is

Your Answer:
the ratio of lift to drag INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the ratio of lift to weight
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2. The input to a stick shaker comes from

Your Answer:
the airspeed, and sometimes the rate of change in airspeed

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
angle of attack, and sometimes the rate of change in angle of

attack
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3.
Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with dangerous stall

characteristics. Dangerous stall characteristics include:
Your Answer:
pitch down and minor wing drop INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
excessive wing drop and deep stall
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4.
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The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the

location of the
Your Answer:
transition region INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
stagnation point
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5. Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack?
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Your Answer:
Deep stall CORRECT
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6. Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer?
Your Answer:
Friction drag is lower in the laminar layer CORRECT
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7.
When the angle of attack of an aircraft is progressively increased, the wing

centre of pressure will reach its most forward position
Your Answer:
at the maximum lift coefficient (Clmax) CORRECT
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An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading
8. edge (L.E.) flaps. One possible efficient way to arrange the leading edge
devices on the wings is
Your Answer:
Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: slats CORRECT
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9. Krueger flaps make up part of the

Your Answer:
wing upper surface leading edge INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
wing lower surface leading edge
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-37. Automatic

Flight Control Pallett Page 53 fig 1.37 (Note: lower surface
when retracted, upper surface when extended.)
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10. Vortex generators

Your Answer:
reduce the span wise flow on swept wing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer
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1. When vortex generators are fitted they will normally be found

Your Answer:
towards the wing root to act as a stall inducer INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
near the wing leading edge in front of control surfaces
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2. The effect of Winglets is

Your Answer:
reduction in induced drag CORRECT
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3.
Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start
at high angles of attack?
Your Answer:
lower side leading edge INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
upper side trailing edge
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4. In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed
000
Your Answer:
to assist the up going aileron CORRECT
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5. Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will
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Your Answer:
decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential

velocity of the swept wing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps
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6.
It is possible to reduce the span wise airflow over swept wings, due to
adverse pressure gradients, by
Your Answer:
wing fences CORRECT
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7.
The optimum angle of attack for a typical aerofoil is about..., and the actual
angle of attack will be close to this optimum angle during...
Your Answer:
16, a stall INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
4, cruise
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8. If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the maximum lift-to-drag ratio will

Your Answer:
increase INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
not be affected
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9. Why are vortex generators often fitted on aircraft with straight wings?
Your Answer:
To reduce span wise airflow towards the wing root on the

intrados INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
To delay boundary layer separation
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10. The boundary layer of a body in a moving airstream is

Your Answer:
a layer of air over the surface where the airspeed is changing

from free stream velocity to zero velocity CORRECT
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1. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors?
Your Answer:
May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase

during icing conditions and will increase when the c.g. moves
forward CORRECT
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2. The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the
Your Answer:
forward movement of the centre of gravity INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
wing tip stalling first
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3.
When an aircraft with a typical aerofoil is in level flight at low speed and
high angle of attack, the normal axis is
Your Answer:
nearly vertical CORRECT
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4.
An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6.850 lbs.
What is the stall speed when the weight is 5.000 lbs?
Your Answer:
67 KCAS CORRECT
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5. What causes a swept wing aircraft to pitch-up at the stall

Your Answer:
Spanwise flow CORRECT
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6. Load factors has the following meaning:

Your Answer:
The ratio of a specified load to the mass of the aircraft, the

former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia
forces and ground reactions INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the

former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia
forces and ground reactions
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7.
When all other factors of importance are constant, the stall speed increases
when
Your Answer:
weight decreases INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pulling out of a dive
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8.
Which of the following is the correct order of configuration to give an

increasing critical angle of attack?
Your Answer:
Trailing edge flaps extended, clean wing, slats extended

CORRECT
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9. What is the percentage increase in stall speed in a 45 bank turn

Your Answer:
19% CORRECT
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10. When an aircraft wing stalls

Your Answer:
a swept back wing will stall from the root and the CP will move
aft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a swept back wing will stall from the tip and the CP will move
forward
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1. Flaps at landing position

Your Answer:
decrease take off and landing speeds INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decrease landing speed
Comment/Reference:
Although an aircraft will take-off with flaps at landing position,

this is not normal.
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2. As a subsonic aircraft speeds-up, its Centre of Pressure

Your Answer:
moves forward INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
is unaffected
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Assuming that the aircraft does not change pitch as it speeds

up (therefore it will climb also).
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3. Lowering of the flaps

Your Answer:
increases drag and lift CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A+P Technician General Textbook. Page 1-17
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4. Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with

Your Answer:
rudder INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ailerons
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 51. Jeppesen

A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-12
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5. What do ruddervators do?

Your Answer:
Control pitch and yaw CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A+P Technician General Textbook. Page 1-16 fig 1-36
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6. What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft?

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Your Answer:
Ailerons INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Elevons
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A+P Technician General Textbook. Page 1-17
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7. What does a trim tab do?

Your Answer:
Eases control loading for pilot CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
A&P General Textbook Pg 2-35
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8. How does a balance tab move?

Your Answer:
In the same direction a small amount INCORRECT
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Correct Answer:
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In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is

attached to
A&P General Textbook Pg 236
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9.
If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on
the rudder?
Your Answer:
To the centre INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
To the left
Comment/Reference:
Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page

43
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10.
If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left
aileron trim tab to correct it?
Your Answer:
Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Up
Comment/Reference:
Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page

43
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1.
If IAS is doubled, by which of the following factors should the original CL be

multiplied to maintain level flight?
Your Answer:
0.25 CORRECT
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2.
When an aircraft is in a steady climb, how will the wing stalling angle be
affected?
Your Answer:
The stalling angle will reduce with increasing altitude

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The stalling angle will remain the same, regardless of altitude
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3. The centre of pressure is in its most forward position

Your Answer:
when the angle of attack is smaller than the stalling angle of

attack INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
when the angle of attack is equal to the stalling angle of attack
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4. The angle of attack at which an aircraft stalls
000
Your Answer:
varies with gross weight and density altitude INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
remains constant regardless of gross weight
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5. The following factors increase stall speed:
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in

thrust CORRECT
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6. Stall speed in a turn is proportional to

Your Answer:
lift INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the square root of the load factor
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7.
An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the
aeroplane is flying a level turn with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is
Your Answer:
122 kt CORRECT
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8. A wing stalling angle is

Your Answer:
unaffected by a turn CORRECT
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9. What type of flap is this?
Your Answer:
Split flap CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Split flap
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10. What effect does an increased load have on an aircraft?

Your Answer:
The aircraft will suffer immediate structural failure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The aircraft will stall at a higher speed
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Rotorcraft Flying Handbook Large (17 Mb) pdf book. Allow to open in browser then click File - Save file:///C|/Documents%20and%20Settings/Jeremiah%20O'Brien/My%20Documents/5.htm (3 of 4)4/30/2008 6:52:01 PM
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1. Servo tabs
Your Answer:
move in such a way as to help move the control surface

CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Pg.1-29
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2.
As the angle of attack of a wing is increased, the centre of pressure will

reach its most forward position on the wing
Your Answer:
just before the wing stalls CORRECT
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3. Spring Tabs
Your Answer:
provide artificial feel INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
move in such a way as to help move the control surface
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4.
000
Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change in velocity close to
the surface?
Your Answer:
Laminar boundary layer INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Turbulent boundary layer
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5.
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textbook shown
One disadvantage of the swept back wing is its stalling characteristics. At

the stall
Your Answer:
wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment
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6. Which of the following aircraft designs would be most prone to super stall?
Your Answer:
Swept back wing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
T-tail
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7. The stall speed in a 60 banked turn increases by the following factor

Your Answer:
2.00 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1.41
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8. The speed range between high and low speed buffet

Your Answer:
increases during a descent at a constant IAS CORRECT
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9. The boundary layer of a wing is caused by

Your Answer:
a turbulent stream pattern around the wing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than

the free stream velocity, due to friction
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10. The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is
Your Answer:
increase in drag INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
reduction in CLmax
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1. If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable

Your Answer:
aircraft becomes too sensitive INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
aircraft returns to trimmed attitude
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2. What are ground spoilers used for?

Your Answer:
To assist the aircraft coming to a stop INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
To dump lift
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3. Mass balance weights are used to

Your Answer:
counteract flutter on control surfaces CORRECT
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4. What is a slot used for?

Your Answer:
To reinforce the boundary layer CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 53
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5. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and

Your Answer:
horizontal axis INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
relative air flow
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6. A high lift device is used for

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textbook shown
Your Answer:
landing only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
take-off and landing
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7. How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems?

Your Answer:
Spoiler to elevator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Spoiler to aileron
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8. What is aileron droop?
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Your Answer:
The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The droop of ailerons with no hydraulics on
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9. Earths atmosphere is
Your Answer:
3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen
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10. An anti-balance tab is used

Your Answer:
to relieve stick loads INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to give more feel to the controls
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-29
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1. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer

Your Answer:
there is an increased tail plane up-force INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
there is an increased tailplane down-force
Comment/Reference:
The lower cambered surface produces a down-force on the tail
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2. When the trailing edge flap is extended

Your Answer:
the CP moves forward and the pitching moment changes to

nose up INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
CP moves rearward
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CP moves rearwards when the flap is extended
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3.
What is the effect on TAS if altitude is increased to 35,000 ft while flying at a

constant Mach number?
Your Answer:
Increase then remain constant INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Decrease
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4. During acceleration in level flight
000
Your Answer:
the transition point on the wing moves forward INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the lift coefficient reduces
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5.
As altitude increases, the equivalent airspeed at which an aeroplane stalls in

a particular configuration will
Your Answer:
remain equal to the calibrated airspeed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
remain the same regardless of altitude
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6. With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will

Your Answer:
not be affected INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
rise
Comment/Reference:
As ambient temperature drops, density increases and aircraft

performance increases
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When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1.3 times its basic

7. stalling speed, the coefficient of lift as a percentage of the maximum lift
coefficient (CLmax) would be
Your Answer:
130% INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
59%
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8. To maintain level flight, if the angle of attack is increased the speed must be
Your Answer:
reduced INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increased
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9.
In straight and level flight, if airspeed ... the angle of attack ... and the
incidence angle...
Your Answer:
decreases; increases; remains constant CORRECT
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10. If VS is 100 kt in straight and level flight, during a 45 bank turn VS will be
Your Answer:
140 kts INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
119 kts
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1. Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located?

Your Answer:
Either side of the Fuselage CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Reference BAe 146 etc
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2.
With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts, what will
happen to the angle of attack?
Your Answer:
Tend to increase CORRECT
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Assuming that 'rising gust' means it has a vertical component
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3. A device used to dump lift from an aircraft is the

Your Answer:
spoiler CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Spoilers are sometimes called 'lift dumpers'
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4. Geometric washout means that
000
Your Answer:
the tip of the wing has more angle of attack than the root
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the tip of the wing has less angle of attack than the root
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5. The purpose of a slot in a wing is to
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
speed up the airflow and increase lift INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer
Comment/Reference:
A slot is to act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise

boundary layer
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6. Large flap deployment

Your Answer:
has no effect on spanwise flow INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower

surface
Comment/Reference:
Flaps increase the pressure differential between top and

bottom surfaces, increase tip vortices and spanwise flow
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7. How do vortex generators work?

Your Answer:
Take energy from free stream and introduce it into the

boundary layer CORRECT
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8. Winglets
Your Answer:
decrease the static lateral stability INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decrease the induced drag
Comment/Reference:
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9. Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls first?

Your Answer:
Both stall together INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Tip stalls first
Comment/Reference:
The tip of a swept wing stalls first
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10.
During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would have a
tendency to fly
Your Answer:
left wing low INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
right wing low
Comment/Reference:
The leading wing (left wing) has increased lift, causing it to rise
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1. Which stall has the greatest angle of attack?

Your Answer:
High speed stall (shock stall) INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Deep stall
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2.
A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant altitude in significant

turbulence. Which type of stall can occur if this aeroplane decelerates?
Your Answer:
Accelerated stall CORRECT
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3. On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the pitch up phenomenon

Your Answer:
never occurs, since a swept wing is a remedy to pitch up

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
is caused by wingtip stall
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4. Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct?
000
Your Answer:
Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the

stall speed
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5.
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textbook shown
How are the wing stalling angle and the lift coefficient affected when
altitude increases and EAS is held constant?
Your Answer:
The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle both decrease
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle both remain
constant
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6. The stall speed

Your Answer:
decreases with an increased weight INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increases with an increased weight
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7. Increase of wing loading will

Your Answer:
decrease take off speeds INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increase the stall speed
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8. The most common stall sensing devices are normally located

Your Answer:
at or near the wing leading edge CORRECT
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9.
If angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the lift
coefficient ... and the stagnation point moves...
Your Answer:
decreases; forward INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decreases; rearward
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10. In a turn, the wing stalling angle

Your Answer:
decreases INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
remains unchanged
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1. When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?
Your Answer:
To re-energise the boundary layer CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 50. Jeppesen

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2.
Slats form part of

the
Your Answer:
trailing edge upper surface INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
leading edge upper surface
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3.
If aerodynamic balancing is increased, what is the effect on the centre of

pressure of the control surface?
Your Answer:
It moves forward CORRECT
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4. Spoilers and flaps, when extended, give more

Your Answer:
drag CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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5.
Considering an aileron to rudder crossfeed, in a left wing down turn,

the
Your Answer:
rudder moves left CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, 4th Edition, Pallett and Coyle, Page

41 and 42
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6. With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?

Your Answer:
The up going Aileron moves through a smaller angle than the

down going aileron INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the
up going aileron
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Mechanics of Flight, Kermode, Page 301. The down going

aileron moves less, to reduce the induced drag which causes
adverse aileron yaw.
External website...
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7.
The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore

provide a side-load
Your Answer:
if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder

movement CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Rudder deflection or yaw
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8.
An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the left
aileron trim tab in the cockpit would be
Your Answer:
moved up causing the left aileron to move up INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
moved up causing the left aileron to move down
Comment/Reference:
Down aileron required - which requires up trim
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9. An elevator tab moves down

Your Answer:
to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Elevator tab DOWN, elevator UP, aircraft nose UP
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10. The stall margin is controlled by

Your Answer:
angle of attack and flap position CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Page 143/4
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1. The balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface

Your Answer:
operating automatically to provide 'feel' to the controls

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls
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2. Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by

Your Answer:
providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge

point CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
AL/3-24 para 4.2
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3. Aerodynamic balance is used to

Your Answer:
make the flying controls easier to move CORRECT
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4. A horn balance is
Your Answer:
a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which

the control cables are attached INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of

the hinge line
Comment/Reference:
000
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5. A control surface is mass balanced by
Click the image for

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textbook shown
Your Answer:
fitting a balance tab INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line
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6. The purpose of anti-balance tabs is to

Your Answer:
relieve stick loads INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
give more feel to the control column
Comment/Reference:
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7.
You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for nose heavy. What was
the direction of travel of the trim tab?
Your Answer:
The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The elevator trim tab has moved down
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8. The tropopause exists at about

Your Answer:
36,000 ft. CORRECT
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9.
Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta wing are such that
there is
Your Answer:
decrease in gradient with wing speed CORRECT
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10.
If an aircraft is yawing left, to correct, the trim tab on the rudder would
need to be positioned
Your Answer:
to the left, moving the rudder right CORRECT
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1. On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane, pitch up is caused by

Your Answer:
decreasing tailplane incidence CORRECT
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2.
When checking full range of control surface movement, they must be

positioned by
Your Answer:
moving them by hand directly until against the primary stops

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
operating the cabin controls until the system is against the

primary stops
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3.
An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control surface centre of

pressure
Your Answer:
rearwards, resulting in too much assistance INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance
Comment/Reference:
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4. A flying control mass balance weight

Your Answer:
tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line

CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
000
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5. The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered is called a

Your Answer:
split flap INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Fowler flap
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6. Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an increase in wing area?
Your Answer:
Slotted flap INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Fowler flap
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7. Which of the following is not a primary flying control?

Your Answer:
Elevator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Tailplane
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8. A leading edge slat is a device for

Your Answer:
decreasing the stalling angle of the wing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increasing the stalling angle of the wing
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9. A Krueger flap is
Your Answer:
a leading edge flap which hinges forward CORRECT
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10.
A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving

automatically in the opposite direction to the control surface is called a
Your Answer:
servo tab INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
geared balance tab
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1.
A wing flap which has 'dropped' or partially extended on one wing in flight
will lead to
Your Answer:
a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of

the ailerons CORRECT
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2.
With an increase in the amount of flap deployment, the stalling angle of a

wing
Your Answer:
remains the same INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decreases
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Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flt Control, Pallett, Pg 51
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3. Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be achieved

Your Answer:
by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge

line CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 24 Para 7
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4. A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to

Your Answer:
assist the pilot in moving the control CORRECT
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5. Downward displacement of an aileron

Your Answer:
increases the angle at which its wing stalls INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decreases the angle at which its wing will stall
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6.
Due to the tailplane angle of attack change, the flap-induced downwash on

the tailplane
Your Answer:
will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch CORRECT
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7.
Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying extension of the flaps, to

maintain the lift constant it would be necessary to
Your Answer:
lower the nose CORRECT
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8.
The extension to the rudder (shaded portion shown on the diagram), is

provided to
Your Answer:
provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the

rudder CORRECT
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9. A differential aileron control is one which gives

Your Answer:
a larger aileron up travel than down CORRECT
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10. Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow over the wing?
Your Answer:
Slat CORRECT
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1. What is attached to the rear of the vertical stabilizer?

Your Answer:
Aileron INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Rudder
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What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to reduce his speed rapidly
2. in event of severe turbulence, or speed tending to rise above the 'Never
Exceed' limit?
Your Answer:
Wheel brakes INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Air brakes
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3. When spoilers are used asymmetrically, they combine with

Your Answer:
rudder INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ailerons
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4.
000
What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft to move towards an

undesirable flight attitude?
Your Answer:
Balance tabs INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Trim tabs
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5.
Click the image for

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textbook shown
The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving, in
relation to the rest of the airflow, is known as
Your Answer:
none of the above are correct INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
boundary layer
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6. A control surface which forms a slot when deployed is called a

Your Answer:
slot INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
slat
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7. Asymmetric flaps will cause

Your Answer:
the aircraft to descend INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
one wing to rise
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8.
When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil

decreases, what takes place?
Your Answer:
Pressure increases, lift increases INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Pressure increases, lift decreases
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9. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?

Your Answer:
Fineness ratio CORRECT
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10. Changes in aircraft weight

Your Answer:
will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated

lift change
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1. In aileron control
Your Answer:
the down going aileron moves further than up going aileron

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the up going aileron moves further than down going aileron
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2. The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the

Your Answer:
ailerons INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
elevator
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3. The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the

Your Answer:
elevator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
rudder
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4. Dutch roll is
000
Your Answer:
primarily a pitching instability INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a combined yawing and rolling motion
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5. The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
rudder INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ailerons
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6. Ruddervators when moved, will move

Your Answer:
opposite to each other only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
either opposite each other or together, depending on the

selection
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7. As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft limit

Your Answer:
the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high
CORRECT
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8. What is the term used for the amount of water in the atmosphere?
Your Answer:
Relative humidity INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Absolute humidity
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9. An anti-balance tab is moved

Your Answer:
hydraulically INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
via a fixed linkage
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10. A servo tab is operated

Your Answer:
automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main

control surfaces INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the

main control surfaces
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1. When an aircraft stalls

Your Answer:
lift and drag increase INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
lift decreases and drag increases
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2. Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed

Your Answer:
roll will not occur INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pitch trim is not affected
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3. The aircraft stalling speed will

Your Answer:
be unaffected by aircraft weight changes since it is dependant

upon the angle of attack INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increase with an increase in weight
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4. In a bank and turn
000
Your Answer:
extra lift is not required INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
extra lift is required
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5. The method employed to mass balance control surfaces is to
Click the image for

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textbook shown
Your Answer:
allow the leading edge of the surface to project into the airflow
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
attach weights forward of the hinge line
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6. A differential aileron control system results in

Your Answer:
aileron drag being compensated by small rudder movements

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn
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7. The angle of attack at which stall occurs

Your Answer:
depends on the weight of the aircraft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
can be varied by using flaps and slats
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8. The primary function of a flap is

Your Answer:
to trim the aircraft longitudinally INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to alter the lift of an aerofoil
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9. The stalling speed of an aircraft

Your Answer:
is increased when it is heavier CORRECT
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1. A split flap
Your Answer:
forms part of the trailing edge's lower surface when retracted

CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Page1-30 /31
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2. An anti-servo tab
Your Answer:
moves in the opposite direction to the control surface to assist

the pilot INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
assists the pilot to move the controls back to neutral
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External website...
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3. Slats
Your Answer:
increase the overall surface area and lift effect of wing

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
keep the boundary layer from separating for longer
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A & P technician airframe textbook page 1-32
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4. Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight
000
Your Answer:
nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
nose should be lowered, reducing AoA
Comment/Reference:
The main purpose of flaps is to increase lift so that the pilot

can lower the nose, increase decent angle and get a better
view of the runway.
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5. Flight spoilers
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
can be used with differential ailerons to reduce adverse yaw in a

turn INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without

reduction of airspeed
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6.
If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move the
elevator trim tab?
Your Answer:
Down to move elevator up CORRECT
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7. Wing tip vortices are strongest when

Your Answer:
flying into a headwind INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
flying slowly at high angles of attack
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8. Aerodynamic balance
Your Answer:
will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause

instability INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
will reduce aerodynamic loading
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9. A balance tab
Your Answer:
assists the pilot to move the controls CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook pg 1-29
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10. Elevons combine the functions of both

Your Answer:
rudder and elevator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
elevator and aileron
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-16 Fig 1-36
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1. The fin helps to give

Your Answer:
directional stability about the normal axis CORRECT
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2. If an aircraft moves in roll, it is moving about the

Your Answer:
longitudinal axis CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Mechanics of flight by A.C. Kermode page

241
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3. What effect does lowering the flaps for take-off have?

Your Answer:
Increases lift & reduces drag INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Increases lift and drag
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Fundamentals. Jeppesen Page 244
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4. What effect does lowering flaps to takeoff setting have?

Your Answer:
Reduces takeoff and landing speeds CORRECT
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5. When the flaps are lowered
000
Your Answer:
there is no effect on the lift vector INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the lift vector moves rearward
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 51
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6. At take-off, if the flaps are lowered there is a
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
large increase in lift and small increase in drag INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
large increase in lift and drag
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Fundamentals. Jeppesen Page

244
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7. Wing spoilers can be used

Your Answer:
to assist the elevators INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
as ground spoilers on landing
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett page 55. A&P Technician

Airframe Textbook by Jeppesen. 1-14
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8. Differential aileron control will

Your Answer:
cause a nose up moment INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input
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9. Dutch Roll effects

Your Answer:
yaw and roll simultaneously CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett page 26
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10. Which of the following are primary control surfaces?

Your Answer:
Roll spoilers, elevators, tabs INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Elevators, ailerons, rudder
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1. Instability giving roll and yaw
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Your Answer:
is lateral stability INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
is dutch roll
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2. Vortex generators are fitted to

Your Answer:
advance the onset of flow separation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
move transition point forwards
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3. Leading edge flaps

Your Answer:
increase stalling angle of the wing CORRECT
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4. Krueger flaps are on

Your Answer:
the leading edge CORRECT
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5. Sweepback will
000
Your Answer:
decrease lateral stability INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increase lateral stability
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6. A plain flap
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
forms part of lower trailing edge INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
does not increase the wing area on deployment
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7. A split flap, when deployed

Your Answer:
increases drag with little lift coefficient increase, from

intermediate to fully down CORRECT
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8. A flying control mass balance weight

Your Answer:
tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line

CORRECT
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9. An elevator controls the aircraft motion in

Your Answer:
roll INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pitch
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1. Downstream of a normal shock wave

Your Answer:
pressure decreases temperature increases INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pressure and temperature increase
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2. Speed of sound varies with

Your Answer:
pressure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
temperature
file:///D|/AIRCRAFT/CAA UK 13 EXAM MODULES PRACTICE QUESTIONS/13.2/6.htm (1 of 4)3/25/2008 8:47:54 PM
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3. Immediately downstream of a normal shockwave, air is always

Your Answer:
the same as upstream INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
subsonic
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4. Increased sweepback
000
Your Answer:
decreases stability INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
raises Mcrit
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5. Aerodynamic heating
Your Answer:
decreases with altitude INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increases as a function of airspeed
Comment/Reference:
The Aviation Dictionary by Jeppesen Page7
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6. To overcome ineffective control surface problems in the transonic region

Your Answer:
hydraulic powered elevators may be used INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
an all moving tailplane may be used
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7.
An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True

Airspeed, its Mach. No. will
Your Answer:
remain the same INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decrease
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8.
To counter the effect of a shift of centre of pressure as an aircraft flies

through the transonic region, fuel is pumped
Your Answer:
forwards INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
backwards
Comment/Reference:
Pallet, Automatic Flight Control, pg 51
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9.
An aircraft flying above the tropopause descends at a constant True

Airspeed, its Mach. No. will
Your Answer:
increase INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
remain the same
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10. The velocity of sound with an increase in altitude will

Your Answer:
increase INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decrease
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems,

David Harris Page 19
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1. Air above Mach 0.7 is

Your Answer:
compressible only when above the speed of sound INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
compressible
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Flight Barnard and Philpot, Second Edition Page123.

Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Edition Page 385
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2. Supersonic air passing through a divergent duct causes the

Your Answer:
pressure to increase, velocity to increase INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pressure to decrease, velocity to increase
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Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Edition Page

340
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3.
An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True

Airspeed. Its Mach. No. will
Your Answer:
decrease CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Speed of sound INCREASES with DECREASING altitude, so

mach number will decrease.
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4. A nose down change of trim (tuck-under) occurs due to shock induced

Your Answer:
root stall on a delta wing aircraft CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page

45
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5.
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textbook shown
A symmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1 with an angle of

attack of 0. A shock wave will form
Your Answer:
on the upper and lower surface and will move aft until the point
of maximum camber INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
on the upper and lower surface and will move aft
Comment/Reference:
Shockwaves form on upper and lower surfaces BEGINNING at

point of max curvature, gradually moving back.
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6. Shock stall
Your Answer:
is a flap down stall and occurs at high speeds INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
occurs at high speeds
Comment/Reference:
Shock stall (or shock induced stall) is caused by the formation

of shock waves in the transonic speed range
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7. As you approach supersonic speed

Your Answer:
thrust is reduced INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
total drag is increased
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An additional drag - wave drag - is added to the total drag.
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8. Mach trim in some aircraft assists

Your Answer:
longitudinal stability CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Mach trim is used to correct the longitudinal trim upset during

the transonic speed range
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9. What is a high speed stall?

Your Answer:
A stall due to exceeding the critical angle of attack at high

speed during a manoeuvre INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Separation of the airflow due to shockwave formation
Comment/Reference:
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10. Before an aircraft reaches critical mach

Your Answer:
the aircraft buffets because the CP moves to the shock wave

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear
Comment/Reference:
Mechanics of Flight 10th edition Barnard and Philpott Pg 341
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1. On a standard day, at which altitude will the speed of sound be the greatest?
Your Answer:
20,000 ft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Sea level
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2. Which of the following will increase the Critical Mach Number of an aerofoil?
Your Answer:
Increasing the aspect ratio of the wings INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back
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3.
As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic region, the centre of

pressure tends to
Your Answer:
move rearward CORRECT
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4.
Supersonic air going through an incipient shock wave will decrease its speed
and
Your Answer:
decrease temperature and increase density INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increase temperature and increase density
Comment/Reference:
Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Edition Page 326 fig 11.4
000
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5. Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
increase the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decrease the shock wave induced separation
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6. An increase in mach number will cause the

Your Answer:
C of P to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail

plane INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
C of P to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, Pallett. Page 50
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7. At speeds above Mach 1, shockwaves will form above and below the wing
Your Answer:
at the leading edge INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
at both the leading edge and the trailing edge
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8. Above the critical mach number, the drag coefficient

Your Answer:
remains the same INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increases
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9. Mach trim counters

Your Answer:
vertical instability INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
longitudinal instability
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control Pallett page 231 and 50
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10. At high Mach Numbers above Mach 2.2, some aircraft metals
Your Answer:
lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect CORRECT
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1. Mach trim operates

Your Answer:
along the longitudinal axis CORRECT
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2. To increase critical mach number

Your Answer:
the wings are swept CORRECT
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3. When approaching the speed of sound the

Your Answer:
pressure above the wing can never exceed the pressure below
the wing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pressure above the wing exceeds the pressure below the wing
in places
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4.
Airspeeds above the speed of sound, but not exceeding 4 times the speed of
sound are
Your Answer:
hyposonic INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
supersonic
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5.
An aircraft experiences a large loss of lift and a big increase in drag in

straight and level flight, what would be the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Severe head winds INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Aircraft reached its critical mach number
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6. A Mach Trimmer is a device which

Your Answer:
automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic

region CORRECT
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7. Mach trim usually operates between

Your Answer:
0.7 and 0.8 mach CORRECT
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8. Mach trimming is initiated by an input signal from the

Your Answer:
IRS INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
CADC
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Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, Page 231/2
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9. Mach trim prevents

Your Answer:
the nose dropping in a low speed turn INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the nose dropping at high speed
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10. Critical Mach No. may be increased by

Your Answer:
sweeping back the wing CORRECT
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1. Airflow either side of a normal shock wave is

Your Answer:
sonic upstream, subsonic downstream CORRECT
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2. Mach Number is defined as

Your Answer:
speed of sound at sea level divided by local speed of sound

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
TAS divided by local speed of sound
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3. The reason for sharp leading edged wings on high speed aircraft is to
Your Answer:
decrease boundary layer INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned
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4. Critical Mach Number is defined as
000
Your Answer:
that number at which the airflow becomes supersonic

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the

airflow over the aircraft becomes sonic
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5. The transonic region is a region of
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Your Answer:
mixed airflow CORRECT
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6. Immediately downstream of an oblique shockwave is always

Your Answer:
the same as upstream INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
supersonic
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7. Wave drag
Your Answer:
increases in the supersonic region INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increases in the transonic region
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8. For increased Mcrit

Your Answer:
decrease sweepback INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decrease thickness/chord ratio
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9. Symptoms of shock stall are

Your Answer:
decrease in speed, buffet and movement of the centre of

pressure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
buffet, loss of control, and instability
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10. Sweepback increases Mcrit by

Your Answer:
increasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the

aerofoil section INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decreasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the

aerofoil section
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1. Mach number is
Your Answer:
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the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of sound at the same
atmospheric conditions CORRECT
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris
Page 19
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2. The critical Mach number is

Your Answer:
the aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the speed of
sound at some point on the aircraft CORRECT
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3. Above the Critical Mach No. the drag coefficient will

Your Answer:
start to increase CORRECT
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4. A wing of low thickness/chord ratio, the Critical Mach No. will be

Your Answer:
higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio CORRECT
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5. An aeroplane flying above the Critical Mach No. will usually experience
Your Answer:
a nose up pitch INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a nose down pitch
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6. Tuck-under can be counteracted by

Your Answer:
trim tabs INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
mach trim
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7. What causes tuckunder?

Your Answer:
Aileron reversal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Shock stall
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8. When does a shock stall occur?
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Your Answer:
At the critical Mach number of the aeroplane CORRECT
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9.
With an increase in altitude under I.S.A. conditions, the temperature in the

troposphere
Your Answer:
increases INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decreases
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10. Air either side of an oblique shockwave is generally

Your Answer:
sonic INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
supersonic
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1. Mach number equals the ratio of
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altitude to airspeed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
true airspeed to local sonic speed
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2. Tuck-under is caused by
Your Answer:
root stall on a swept wing aircraft CORRECT
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3. The purpose of sweepback on an aerofoil is to
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Your Answer:
increase Mcrit CORRECT
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4.
As the airspeed over a cambered wing is increased, a shock wave will

appear initially
Your Answer:
at the leading edge INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
near the point of maximum curvature
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5. In the transonic speed range
000
Your Answer:
the position of the wing centre of pressure remains constant

INCORRECT
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the centre of pressure movement may become oscillatory
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1. The choice of aerofoil section for a rotor blade is such that

Your Answer:
the C of P moves rapidly in response to pitch changes

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
it has a stable centre of pressure
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2. When the rotor blade is flapping up, the angle of attack

Your Answer:
is less than the pitch angle CORRECT
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3. When the rotor blade is flapping down, the pitch angle

Your Answer:
is greater than the angle of attack INCORRECT
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is less than the angle of attack
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4. The tropopause exists at about

Your Answer:
36,000 ft. CORRECT
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Aircraft Instruments & Intergrated Systems by EHJ Pallett Page

26
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5. The rotor blades operate at the best Lift/Drag ratio when their
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Your Answer:
angle of attack is 0 degrees INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
angle of attack is about +3 degrees
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6. The centre of pressure of an aerofoil is that point on the cord line

Your Answer:
which moves most, with changes in angle of attack, if the

section is symmetrical INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
at which the lift forces resultant is said to act
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7. The main rotor assembly of a helicopter provides

Your Answer:
lift, a component of which is horizontal so thrust is obtained

CORRECT
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8. An advantage of the symmetrical section blades used on helicopters is that

Your Answer:
the movement of the centre of pressure with changes of the

angle of attack is greater than that of a fixed wing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the position of the feather axis and the centre of pressure and
centre of gravity coincide, providing stability
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9. Which part of the rotor disc produces the most lift during forward flight?
Your Answer:
The rear portion INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The front portion
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10.
The aerofoil shape of a main rotor blade is symmetrical in order to make

the blade have
Your Answer:
the best possible autorotative characteristics INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a relatively stable centre of pressure position with changes in

angle of attack
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1. The angle of attack of a blade is the

Your Answer:
angle between the chord line and relative airflow CORRECT
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2. On a helicopter, what is blade dragging?

Your Answer:
Contact of the blade tips on the ground INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge
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A&P General Textbook Pg 2-58
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3. On a helicopter, the rotor disc is

Your Answer:
the combined surface area of the blades INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the swept area between the blade tips
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4. Lift generated by a blade is proportional to the

Your Answer:
relative airflow and the angle of attack CORRECT
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5. During the flare in autorotation the rotor RPM

Your Answer:
reduces CORRECT
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6. What effect does the ground have on a helicopter?

Your Answer:
Increases thrust INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Increases lift
Comment/Reference:
A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 1-58
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7. What damps vibrations on a helicopter?

Your Answer:
Bifilar damper CORRECT
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8. What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor?

Your Answer:
Engine and gearbox INCORRECT
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Correct Answer:
Weight of blade
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9.
In a NOTAR system air is ducted down the tail boom to produce a

predetermined amount of lift
Your Answer:
over the horizontal stabilizer to help maintain nose down

attitude in the cruise INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
over one side of the boom to counteract changing torque from

the main rotor
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10. Relative velocity of a helicopter rotor

Your Answer:
is equal for all blades INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increases at forward travelling blade
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1. When OAT increases, what happens to a helicopter operating ceiling?

Your Answer:
No effect INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Decrease
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As temperature increases, density decreases and aircraft

performance decreases
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2. A co-axial helicopter rotor utilises

Your Answer:
two intermeshing shafts side-by-side INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
counter rotating shafts, one inside the other
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3. Ground effect is ONLY apparent

Your Answer:
in the hover INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
in low speed translational flight up to one times the disc

diameter from the ground
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4.
For a helicopter in autorotation, what forward speed will achieve the

maximum glide distance?
Your Answer:
Greater than minimum glide speed CORRECT
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The Art of the Helicopter Page 332
000
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5.
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With the helicopter in forward flight, parasitic drag will cause the helicopter
to
Your Answer:
pitch nose down with a decrease in forward airspeed

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pitch nose down with an increase in forward airspeed
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6. When a blade moves about the flapping hinge

Your Answer:
the drag forces on the blade change and the angle of attack
(AOA) changes CORRECT
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7. When will the needle split in a joint rotor/engine RPM instrument?

Your Answer:
When the tail rotor fails INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
On clutch slip
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The Art of the Helicopter Page 246
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8.
With a fixed collective pitch, as an auto-rotating helicopter loses its forward

velocity, the rotor RPM
Your Answer:
increases INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decreases
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9. In forward flight, if a helicopter had no flapping hinges it would tend to

Your Answer:
roll towards the side of the advancing blade INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
roll towards the side of the retreating blade
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10.
To maintain the position of the helicopter with a decrease in air density,

the pilot must increase
Your Answer:
cyclic pitch INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
collective pitch
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1. The forces which govern the coning angle are

Your Answer:
lift and thrust INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
lift and centrifugal force
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flt Control, Pallett, Pg 59, Axis systems.
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2.
As a helicopter accelerates in level forward flight above approximately 15

knots, it will be necessary to:
Your Answer:
increase power because rotor RPM is increasing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
reduce power because of the additional lift due to translational

flight
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Assuming the phase lag of a rotor blade is 90o and the control advance angle
3. is 15 degrees, then the pitch operating arm must be at the highest point of
the swash plate:
Your Answer:
75o ahead of the highest flapping position CORRECT
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4.
A helicopter is hovering and the pilot applies right pedal. Assuming the main
rotor rotates anti clockwise viewed from above, the helicopter will
Your Answer:
ascend, unless the pilot decreases rotor RPM CORRECT
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A helicopter has a main rotor which rotates anti-clockwise viewed from

5. above, and is fitted with an anti-torque tail rotor. It will tend to drift
sideways to
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Your Answer:
port, if the tail rotor is mounted on the left side of the aircraft
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
starboard, whichever way the tail rotor is fitted
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6.
As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward, what happens to the rearward
travelling blade's pitch angle?
Your Answer:
No change INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Increases
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7. The tail rotor

Your Answer:
is not subject to dissymmetry of lift INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
produces a force opposing torque reaction
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8. With the tail rotor pedals in neutral, the tail rotor blade pitch will be
Your Answer:
neutral INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
positive
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9.
The main rotor drive shaft is tilted laterally on some helicopters to correct
tail rotor
Your Answer:
roll INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
drift
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10.
Certain helicopters tend to tilt laterally when landing. This problem can be
overcome by placing the tail rotor thrust
Your Answer:
below the line of the main rotor hub INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
in line with the main rotor hub
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1. Ground cushion effect is produced by

Your Answer:
recirculating air giving additional lift INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increased pressure under the main rotor disc
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2. A helicopter hovering near a tall building will

Your Answer:
drift towards it CORRECT
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3. Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by

Your Answer:
centrifugal force CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Centrifugal force counteracts the droop of helicopter blades at

low RPM
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4. During decent with power-on, on a helicopter

Your Answer:
lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopter INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter
Comment/Reference:
All four forces act on the helicopter
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5.
A helicopter hovering 2m above the ground subject to a strong cross wind

will
Your Answer:
lose lift due to recirculation CORRECT
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6. With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will

Your Answer:
rise CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
As ambient temperature drops, density increases and aircraft

performance increases
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7. During an autorotative descent, rotor RPM will be

Your Answer:
substantially the same as in powered flight INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
higher than in powered flight
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8. Helicopter blades are
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Your Answer:
symmetrical CORRECT
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Helicopter blades are usually symmetrical section
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9. Autorotative force is the

Your Answer:
force the pilot must apply to the collective lever to obtain a

controlled descent INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
component of the total reaction which acts forward in the plane

of rotation in opposition to drag
Comment/Reference:
The Art of the Helicopter Page 78-81 Vertical autorotation gives

a full explanation
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10. Autorotation
Your Answer:
is the production of lift from freely rotating rotor blades

CORRECT
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If the main rotor of a helicopter rotates in an anti-clockwise direction when

1. viewed from above, and a hovering left turn is required, the following
movements of the controls are selected:
Your Answer:
Rudder pedal to the left, and decrease throttle INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Rudder pedal to the left, and increase throttle
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2. Helicopter derives its lift from

Your Answer:
air is pushed downward INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it
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All three are correct, but an aerodynamicist would choose a

'creates a low pressure above it'
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3. A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is called

Your Answer:
fully articulated rotor INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
semi rigid rotor
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If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from above

4. where, would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter
backwards, (90 degrees to what)?
Your Answer:
Right of the longitudinal axis CORRECT
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Due to precession of the rotor disc, the input to tilt the disc
backwards must be placed 90 degrees before, in direction of
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5. On a helicopter, what is vortex ring state?
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Your Answer:
Tip vortex interference at high forward speed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Tip vortex build-up during hover
Comment/Reference:
During hover, the tip vortex of one blade adds to the tip
vortices of the preceding blades, producing a large vortex ring
and a very inefficient helicopter.
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6.
Climbs with forward speed require less power than vertical climbs, because
of
Your Answer:
increased inertia INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
translational lift
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7. Translational flight is
Your Answer:
achieved by raising or lowering the collective lever INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
achieved by tilting the rotor disc in the direction of flight
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The Art of the Helicopter by John Watkinson Page 87 The

helicopter can be accelerated into translational flight by using
cyclic pitch to tilt the disc.
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8. The best design of a rotor blade is where the C of P

Your Answer:
moves freely along the length of the blade INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
does not move
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9. When the cyclic stick is eased forward in the hover position

Your Answer:
vertical lift is reduced CORRECT
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10. The rotor cone is formed by

Your Answer:
centrifugal force and lift CORRECT
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1. Tracking is carried out to_____________the main rotor blade tip path

Your Answer:
restore INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
align
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2. The advancing blade of a helicopter is the one moving

Your Answer:
one moving forward into relative airflow CORRECT
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3. Lift is generated by
Your Answer:
down-wash below the blade INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
low pressure above the blade
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4. Static stability of a helicopter is
000
Your Answer:
the tendency move back toward neutral after disturbance

CORRECT
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5. Forward velocity causes the advancing blade to

Your Answer:
flap down to increase lift INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
flap up to reduce lift
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6. When moving from the hover to forward flight it is necessary to

Your Answer:
maintain constant engine power INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increase the engine power
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7.
After a change in collective pitch the Rotor RPM will rise and fall. This is
called
Your Answer:
under swing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
transient droop
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The Helicopter and How it Flies by John Fay Page 20/21. The
initial total fall in rotor RPM is called transient droop. The
change in stabilised RPM is referred to as static droop. The RPM
difference between transient droop and static droop is called
the underswing
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8. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade, the blade will be at maximum flap at
Your Answer:
180 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
90
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9. The rotor disc is

Your Answer:
the ground cushion INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the distance between tip to tip
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 59/60 fig 1.42
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10. The maximum forward speed of a helicopter is limited by

Your Answer:
retreating blade stall and the forward speed of the advancing

blade CORRECT
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1. What principle does the delta 3 hinge use?

Your Answer:
Flapping actuators INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Offset hinges
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2. As the angle of attack of a rotor blade increases, it affects the

Your Answer:
dragging forces INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
dragging and the flapping forces
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3. With an increase in its angle of attack, the drag acting on a rotor blade
Your Answer:
increases CORRECT
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4. Forces on a helicopter, in a power-on descent are

Your Answer:
weight, drag, lift INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
lift, drag, thrust, weight
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000
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5. The bell stability augmentation system is based on
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
offset hinges INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
gyroscopic forces
Comment/Reference:
The Art of the Helicopter by John Watkinson Pages 305-307
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6. During forward flight the advancing blade will

Your Answer:
flap up CORRECT
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7. What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing?

Your Answer:
Increasing in drag INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Increasing in lift
Comment/Reference:
It is the increase in lift which makes it flap-up, thus

neutralizing the increase (flapping to equality).
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8. What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for?
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Your Answer:
Control of the speed of the rotor blades INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Control of the pitch of the rotor blades
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9. Upwash on a helicopter would result in

Your Answer:
decrease in lift INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increase in lift without an increase in power
Comment/Reference:
Upwash increases angle of attack
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10.
After a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, the helicopter

would
Your Answer:
continue to roll further CORRECT
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1. The difference between transient droop and static droop is

Your Answer:
overswing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
underswing
Comment/Reference:
The Helicopter history, piloting and how it flies John Fay

ISBN81-70002-030-1 Page No 21"
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2. What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight?

Your Answer:
The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation CORRECT
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3. The RPM of the rotor blades is constant, within small limits to

Your Answer:
prevent blades folding up during flight CORRECT
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4.
000
To maintain the position of the helicopter, when hovering with a decrease in

air density, the pilot must
Your Answer:
increase the cyclic pitch INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increase the collective pitch
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5. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
is unaffected by blade position INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increases at the tip
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6. An helicopter fin helps to give

Your Answer:
directional stability about the longitudinal axis INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
directional stability about the normal axis
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7. After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter, the helicopter would
Your Answer:
come back to level flight CORRECT
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8. Solidity of the rotor is the ratio of the

Your Answer:
all up weight to disc area INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
blade area to disc area
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9.
Which direction is the air flowing through the main rotor during
autorotation?
Your Answer:
Upwards CORRECT
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10. The purpose of an off-set vertical stabilizer is to

Your Answer:
relieve some of the load on the tail rotor during forward flight
CORRECT
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1. The purpose of the horizontal stabilizer is to

Your Answer:
to stabilize the aircraft in the hover INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
maintain the aircraft in as near a horizontal attitude as possible,

during forward flight
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2. During autorotation, the rudder pedals

Your Answer:
would need to be backed off due to the loss of torque CORRECT
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3. In forward flight, the advancing blade would be expected to

Your Answer:
lag INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
flap up
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4.
000
When the helicopter moves from the hover to translational flight, the lift
vector will
Your Answer:
move aft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
move forward
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5. If the blade angle of attack increases
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Your Answer:
lift increases only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
lift and drag increases
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6. When a blade is flapping up

Your Answer:
pitch will increase INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pitch will decrease
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7. Vortex ring start requires

Your Answer:
retreating blade stall INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
power on descent
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Comment/Reference:
The helicopter and how it flies Page 117 by John Fay
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8. Rotor tip vortices are strongest when

Your Answer:
flying into a headwind INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
hovering with high weight
Comment/Reference:
Art of the Helicopter page 81 to 83
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9. Tail rotor effects the helicopter in

Your Answer:
horizontal axis CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
'in' not 'about'
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10. A blade of a Helicopter Main Rotor is

Your Answer:
highly cambered INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
symmetrically cambered
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1. Helicopter rotor blades produce lift by

Your Answer:
creating a lower pressure above the blade than below CORRECT
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2.
With an increase in forward velocity of a helicopter, the increase in parasitic

drag will cause the fuselage attitude to
Your Answer:
remain level INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pitch down
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The amount of parasitic drag increases with increasing

airspeed, so that the thrust/parasite drag (nose down) couple
becomes stronger
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3. On a helicopter, rotor disc lift happens

Your Answer:
180 later INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
immediately
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4. During an autorotative decent, rotor RPM will be

Your Answer:
higher than in powered flight CORRECT
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5. Lift in a helicopter is a result of

Your Answer:
angle of attack x velocity squared and forward speed

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
angle of attack x velocity squared
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6. When the rotor blade increases its angle of attack, the centre of pressure
Your Answer:
does not move CORRECT
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7. Autorotative force attempts to pull the rotor blade

Your Answer:
both in and against the direction of normal rotation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
in the direction of normal rotation
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8. The ground effect is effective up to a height equalling

Your Answer:
twice the diameter of the rotor disc INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the diameter of the rotor disc
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9. Movement of the collective control will

Your Answer:
increase the pitch of the main rotor blades CORRECT
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10. Rotor blade sailing is a problem at

Your Answer:
high rotor RPM at engine start up INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
low rotor RPM at engine shut down
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1.
The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving, in
relation to the rest of the airflow, is known as
Your Answer:
none of the above are correct INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
boundary layer
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2. During helicopter forward flight the retreating blade will tend to

Your Answer:
no change INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
flap down
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3.
When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil

decreases, what takes place?
Your Answer:
Pressure increases, lift increases INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Pressure increases, lift decreases
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4. Changes in aircraft weight
000
Your Answer:
will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated

lift change
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5. When an aerofoil stalls
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Your Answer:
lift decreases and drag increases CORRECT
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6.
When a helicopter rotor disc is tilted forward, what happens to the pitch of
the retreating blade?
Your Answer:
Decreases INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Increases
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7. Airflow through the main rotor disc in autorotation is

Your Answer:
always down through the rotor disc INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
may be either up or down
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Mostly it is up through the rotor during auto-rotation, but there

comes a point usually just above the ground where the stored
energy in the rotor is used to arrest the descent rate, i.e. the
airflow is down through the rotor.
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8. The blade stalling speed will

Your Answer:
increase with an increase in helicopter weight CORRECT
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9. Ground effect will be most apparent when

Your Answer:
taxiing in the hover INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
hovering close to the ground
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10.
When entering into a stable autorotative state, the main rotor RPM will
initially
Your Answer:
decrease CORRECT
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TCAS Tutorial PDF - Allow it to load in the pop-up, then click Save, to save it to your computer for offfile:///C|/Documents and Settings/Jeremiah O'Brien/My Documents/11.htm (3 of 4)3/25/2008 9:13:01 PM
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1. The stalling speed of a helicopter blade

Your Answer:
is increased when the helicopter is heavier CORRECT
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2. Helicopters in forward flight are usually

Your Answer:
laterally stable INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
directionally stable
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3. Stability of a helicopter is its

Your Answer:
ability to move in all 3 axis where and when required

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ability to return to original attitude after displacement
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4. In forward flight the relative air velocity at each blade
000
Your Answer:
is greatest for the advancing blade CORRECT
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5. What forces are acting on the helicopter during descent?

Your Answer:
Lift and weight CORRECT
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6. The ground cushion effect is apparent

Your Answer:
in the hover only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
in the hover and at low translational flight close to the ground
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7. If the angle of attack is increased on a main rotor blade

Your Answer:
there is a reduction in drag INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
there is an increase in drag
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8. A helicopter main rotor blade may be tapered from root to tip to

Your Answer:
reduce the blade weight INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
equalise lift along the blade
Comment/Reference:
The Art of the Helicopter by John Watkinson Page 77 Blade

twist and taper section.
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9. A helicopter main rotor blade is twisted from root to tip to

Your Answer:
give the blade additional strength INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
equalise lift along the blade
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10. Translational drift is

Your Answer:
the tendency for the aircraft to turn to port INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the tendency for the aircraft to drift laterally
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1. Aspect ratio is the ratio of the
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blade chord to the disc area INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
blade span to the chord
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2. Disc loading is defined as the

Your Answer:
ratio of gross weight to disc area CORRECT
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3.
A helicopter has a main rotor which rotates anticlockwise viewed from

above. What happens if a loss of anti-torque device at cruise speed in flight?
Your Answer:
Nose pitches up slightly + yaw to right CORRECT
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4. Over pitch causes

Your Answer:
blades to cone up CORRECT
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5. A shrouded tail rotor
000
Your Answer:
gives control in pitch and yaw INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
reduces need for cyclic feathering
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6.
In a helicopter with its main rotor turning anti-clockwise, which way does
the aircraft tend to drift?
Your Answer:
Port if tail rotor is mounted on the right INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Starboard, irrespective of which side the tail rotor is mounted on
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1. ATA Zone 100 is

Your Answer:
upper fuselage INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
lower fuselage
Comment/Reference:
ATA Zone 100 is lower fuselage (below floor)
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2. Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100 is the

Your Answer:
right wing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
left wing
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Zone 500 is the left wing
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3. If you momentarily short the two spikes of bonding tester

Your Answer:
tester reads zero INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
tester reads full scale
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-6 Para.3.10.2 and CAAIP's Leaflet 9-1, para.

3.10.2
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4. For bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by
000
Your Answer:
a thick metallic bonding strip INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a corrugated bonding jumper
Comment/Reference:
CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Para.3.6.1
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What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic

5. conducting parts which may be subjected to appreciable charge and main
earth system?
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever is

less CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Table 1
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6. A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by

Your Answer:
special conductive grease INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
conductive paint
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs RL/2-5 Para 3.5
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7. With a bonding meter

Your Answer:
the long lead is attached to the aircraft airframe and short lead
to item CORRECT
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8.
Fibreglass parts are protected from lightning strikes and dangerous voltages
by
Your Answer:
earth primary conductors CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 para 3.4
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9. The ground cable must be

Your Answer:
single strand 18 AWG INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
single strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional area
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.3.1 a (i)
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10. Where on the aircraft is FS245, RWS45?

Your Answer:
245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the
centreline of the right wing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches
from the centreline of the right wing
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/7-2 fig 15
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1. If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you add

Your Answer:
an internal doubler CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin Page330
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2. Blowout panels are fitted to floors of pressurised aircraft to

Your Answer:
provide access for pressurising the aircraft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
provide venting should a differential pressure build up across

the floor
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Example DC10 Cargo door disaster. Cargo compartment

depressurised, cabin pressure caused floor to collapse. Blowout
panels made compulsory thereafter
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3.
Contact between titanium and phosphate ester fluid should be avoided

because
Your Answer:
there is no effect INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
it makes the titanium brittle
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4. The optimum atmospheric conditions for painting aircraft is
000
Your Answer:
between 65oC and 75oC with more than 75% relative humidity
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
between 60oF and 77oF with less than 75% relative humidity
Comment/Reference:
BL/6-20 para 5
Leaflet 2-7 para 5
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5. A false rib is usually used to
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Your Answer:
allow the fitment of aileron control tubes through a wing

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
support and give aerodynamic shape to the wing leading edge
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6.
When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component

and earth is
Your Answer:
1/
50
Correct Answer:
50 milliohms
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.8
ohms INCORRECT
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7. What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?

Your Answer:
Soft rubber INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Fire-proof grommets
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8. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters?

Your Answer:
To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor CORRECT
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The tail cone holds the stabilizers and tail rotors
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9. Tension is the stress of

Your Answer:
elongating or stretch CORRECT
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Tension is the stress of elongation or stretch.
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10. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding, we use

Your Answer:
solvent etch INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
acid etch
Comment/Reference:
Phosphoric acid and chromic acid wash
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1. The purpose of a primer is to

Your Answer:
help bonding of the topcoat CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs BL/6-20 Para.2.1
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2. Acrylic windows must be able to flex in-situ because they have

Your Answer:
slight shrinkage due to age INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure
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Acrylic has a thermal expansion approximately 8x that of

aluminium alloy
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3. A cargo bay must have signs stating

Your Answer:
no hazardous cargo INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
maximum loadings
Comment/Reference:
Usually, pallet size is fixed, but the weight is

critical.
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4. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are

Your Answer:
bulkheads CORRECT
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Bulkheads are vertical structural members forming lateral walls

in the fuselage
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5. Composite materials are bonded by
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
aluminium wire INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
special paint
Comment/Reference:
CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.4.4
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6. The normal axis of a helicopter passes through

Your Answer:
the centre of rotor disc INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral axis
Comment/Reference:
The normal axis is 90 degrees to both the lateral and

longitudinal axis. It does not necessarily go through the centre
of the rotor disc, and the rotor shaft is not necessarily vertical.
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7. In semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are taken by

Your Answer:
frames INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
stringers
Comment/Reference:
CAIP AL/7-2 para 2.6 (last sentence)
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8. What force is an I-Beam subjected to?

Your Answer:
Tension INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Bending
Comment/Reference:
An I beam is subject to Bending, although different parts of it

are subject to tension (upper boom) and shear (the web)
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9. What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?

Your Answer:
Frames INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Stringers
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/7.2 para

3.3
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10. Damage tolerant design

Your Answer:
allows for damage to structure by distributing loads to other

structure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired

between scheduled maintenance
Comment/Reference:
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1. Semi-monocoque construction
Your Answer:
utilizes the safe-life design concept INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
offers good damage resistance
Comment/Reference:
Jepessen A & P Technician Airframe textbook page 1-3
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2.
When installing an aerial, added support is needed for the structure. This is
achieved by fitting
Your Answer:
an inner plate CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
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3.
A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin strengthener, also acts

as a
Your Answer:
tear stopper CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/7-2 (crack stopper band fig.4)
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4. Why is a joggle joint used?
000
Your Answer:
So countersunk rivets do not need to be used INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Smooth contour of surface
Comment/Reference:
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5. Battery trays are
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
metal for earthing purposes INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett. Page 24
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6. Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for

Your Answer:
high strength high toughness INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
high strength high ductility
Comment/Reference:
External website...
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7. The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are

Your Answer:
15C to 25C and humidity above 60% INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
15C to 25C and humidity below 75%
Comment/Reference:
BL/6-20 5
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8. Slats, when stowed, make up part of the wing

Your Answer:
trailing edge INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
leading edge upper surface
Comment/Reference:
Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode Pages 117 and 118
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9. A plain flap
Your Answer:
when stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge lower

surface INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
when deployed increases the camber of the wing
Comment/Reference:
Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode Page 116
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10. What are the types of true bonded joints?

Your Answer:
Mechanical and specific CORRECT
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1. Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?

Your Answer:
Wings INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Pressure cabin
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/7-2 2.7
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2.
In a monocoque structure, which component carries the majority of the

loads?
Your Answer:
Stringers INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Skin
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Comment/Reference:
A&P Mechanic Handbook Page 25-28
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3. The ground cable must be

Your Answer:
single strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional area CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.3.1 a (i)
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4. Paint remover substances

Your Answer:
should only be used once INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
are damaging to some aircraft parts
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs BL/6-20 11.1
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5. How is the radome protected from lightning strike?
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
Special grease on the hinges INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Diverter strips
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs RL/2-5 3.4.2
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6. The normal axis on a helicopter is

Your Answer:
at 90 to the C of G INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
straight down the rotor head
Comment/Reference:
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7. Battery trays are

Your Answer:
metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett Page

24
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8. The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is
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Your Answer:
to seal the cabin CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIP AL/7-2 para. 3.7 and External website...
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9. What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called?

Your Answer:
Drag Wire INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Drag Strut
Comment/Reference:
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10.
What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a load bearing

part of the structure that can be used as walls or partial walls?
Your Answer:
Stringer INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Bulkhead
Comment/Reference:
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1. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?

Your Answer:
Landings INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Pressure Cycles
Comment/Reference:
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2. With regard to extraneous spilt fluids

Your Answer:
they can be ignored, they provide extra protection INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
they may be harmful to the aircraft structure
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3. The main forces on an aircraft structure are

Your Answer:
tension, compression, twisting and shear INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
tension, compression, torsion and shear
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4. The life of the structure is counted by
000
Your Answer:
flying hours INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pressurization cycle
Comment/Reference:
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5. What is a fairlead?
Your Answer:
A guide for control cables running through bulkheads etc

CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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6. A semi-monocoque structure is one which has

Your Answer:
a tubular internal structure fabric covered INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
an external load bearing skin with internal load bearing structure
Comment/Reference:
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7. A member designed to take mainly compressive loads is called a

Your Answer:
tie INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
strut
Comment/Reference:
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8.
Longitudinal members in a semi-monocoque fuselage supporting the skin

between longerons are called
Your Answer:
stringers CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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9.
A modern large transport aircraft fuselage would be normally constructed

from
Your Answer:
geodetic structure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
semi monocoque structure
Comment/Reference:
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10. Panels that are attached to the aircraft by quick release fasteners are:
Your Answer:
secondary structure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
tertiary structure
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1.
An extruded or rolled aluminium sheet channel section that runs normally

the length of the fuselage is known as
Your Answer:
intercostal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
stringer
Comment/Reference:
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2. Cantilever construction is structure supported at

Your Answer:
one end only CORRECT
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3. A fuselage construction where the skin carries all of the loads is known as
Your Answer:
semi-monocoque INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
monocoque
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4. A member taking a compression load is called a
000
Your Answer:
cable INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
strut
Comment/Reference:
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5. Skin panels may be strengthened by
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
cleats INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
stringers
Comment/Reference:
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6. What is the normal form of construction of a spar?

Your Answer:
Two booms separated by a web CORRECT
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7. A crack stopper is fitted

Your Answer:
before a crack starts, to prevent its initiation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation
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8. Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?

Your Answer:
Determine the fuel tanks are empty INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Install critical stress panels or plates
Comment/Reference:
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9.
Stringers are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage

construction?
Your Answer:
Semi-monocoque CORRECT
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10. What load is a tie rod designed to accept?

Your Answer:
Torsion INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Tensile
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1. Safe-life is
Your Answer:
the minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before

a major structural failure occurs INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before

a major structural failure occurs
Comment/Reference:
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2. Bending stresses are a combination of

Your Answer:
tension and compression stresses CORRECT
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3. Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as
Your Answer:
crack limiting joints INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
failsafe joints
Comment/Reference:
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4. The Airworthiness Notice that refers to structural surveys is
000
Your Answer:
Notice 65 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Notice 89
Comment/Reference:
These AWNs are now transferred to CAP747
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5. Structural survey inspections are normally called up by the
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Your Answer:
maintenance engineer INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
manufacturer
Comment/Reference:
AWN 89
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6.
If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes

will be
Your Answer:
stainless steel CORRECT
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7. An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has

Your Answer:
too much kinetic energy on landing CORRECT
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8. Symmetry checks should be carried out

Your Answer:
on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
in the hangar with the aircraft on jacks
Comment/Reference:
CAAIPs Leaflet 6-5 para 2
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9. A structural member intended to resist compression is a

Your Answer:
tie INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
strut
Comment/Reference:
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10. An aircraft structure, having multiple load paths, is known as a

Your Answer:
fail-safe design CORRECT
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1. If a colour is used to identify primary structure, it will be

Your Answer:
red CORRECT
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2. Which of the following is primary structure?

Your Answer:
Skin CORRECT
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3. One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it

Your Answer:
takes all the loads in the skin INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
shares the loads
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4. In a fully monocoque fuselage, all the loads are carried by the

Your Answer:
longerons INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
skin
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5. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures?

000
Your Answer:
These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and if damaged

may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of life INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged

will not cause failure of the aircraft
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6. Structure with builtin redundancy is called

Your Answer:
double safe INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
failsafe
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7. Stress
Your Answer:
is the deformation of a material caused by applied load

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
is the load per unit area acting on a material
Comment/Reference:
AL/7-2 2.2
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A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles,

8. flying hours or years, regardless of its physical condition is what type of
item?
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Your Answer:
Condition monitored INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Safe-life
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9.
If you are unable to identify a structure 'classification' as either Primary or

Secondary, what action should you adopt?
Your Answer:
Upgrade it to primary CORRECT
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10. Intercostals are

Your Answer:
compression ribs in cantilever wings INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent

frames
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1.
The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same
potential by
Your Answer:
static wicks INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
bonding
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2. The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be not less than
Your Answer:
22 SWG x 0.25 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
18 SWG for a single wire
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Comment/Reference:
CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.3.1 (ii)
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Using the following:

3. FS 345, RWS 45,
where is this located?
Your Answer:
345 inches back from the nose, 45 inches from the longitudinal
centre line of the right wing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
345 inches back from the datum line, 45 inches from the
longitudinal centre line of the right wing
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4.
When carrying out an insulation resistance test of a pitot probe you would
expect
Your Answer:
5 megohm INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
3 megohm when hot and when cooled down
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5. What are buttock lines?

Your Answer:
Horizontal measurement lines INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Measurements from the centre line
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/7.2 Page 17 Para 6.2
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6. Aircraft fibreglass panels are protected against lighting strikes, partially by

Your Answer:
non-conductive paint INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
conductive paint
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7.
When attaching more than one jumper or ground lead terminal to structure
with a single fastener
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Your Answer:
connect the largest terminal nearest the structure with the

others, to a total of three, stacked symmetrically in any order
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
install the largest terminal nearest the structure, with the

others, to a maximum of four, stacked and fanned in decreasing
size
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8.
If earthing jumper leads terminate to a connector strain clamp, the expected

resistance value when carrying out a check should be
Your Answer:
0.5 milliohms CORRECT
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9. A panel at STN+88/WL-12 is located 88 units

Your Answer:
rearward of the aircraft datum and 12 units above the water

line datum INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
rearward of the datum and 12 units below the waterline
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10. Wing stations are measured

Your Answer:
outboard from the fuselage centreline CORRECT
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1. Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in

Your Answer:
CS 25 CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
JAR 25 is replaced by EASA Certification Specification CS 25
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2.
An Anthropomorphic Test Dummy (ATD) is strapped into a large aircraft

forward facing seat. It is put through a series of crash tests. This is to
Your Answer:
to determine whether or not the ATD's head comes into contact

with any structure or seat, and if so to measure the force
applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion
(HIC) CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
JAr25.562 (b) para 5
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3. ATA zone 500 is the

Your Answer:
left wing CORRECT
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4.
ATA zone 330 is

the
Your Answer:
left horizontal stabiliser CORRECT
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5. When applying a doubler plate, what else could you use for extra strength?
Your Answer:
Thicker material INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
A waffle plate
Comment/Reference:
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6. What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of HIRF?

Your Answer:
Check of aircraft structure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Bonding and insulation tests
Comment/Reference:
'Shielding' is job for design, not maintenance.
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7. Stringers
Your Answer:
run the full length on all aircraft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
do not pass through bulkheads
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8. A firewall bulkhead is usually made from

Your Answer:
titanium CORRECT
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9. Zone 320 under the ATA system is

Your Answer:
central fuselage INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
vertical stabiliser
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Maintenance and Repair Kroes/Watkins/Delp Page 22
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10. Engine mounts provide for

Your Answer:
longitudinal movement CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen Helicopter Maintenance Page 269
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1. When an item is cocooned, the visual indicator will indicate

Your Answer:
temperature INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
humidity
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2. Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage indicates

Your Answer:
sagging CORRECT
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3. If a redundant structure fails it becomes

Your Answer:
failsafe CORRECT
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4. A redundant structure is
Your Answer:
on-condition structure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a failsafe structure
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5. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is
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Your Answer:
1 in 200 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1 in 600
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6. Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by

Your Answer:
longerons INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
stringers
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7. Which loads do longerons resist?

Your Answer:
Bending, compression, tensile and torsion INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Bending, compression and tensile
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8. What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?

Your Answer:
Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear CORRECT
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9. A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would be classified as

Your Answer:
primary CORRECT
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10. An example of primary stress is

Your Answer:
shear INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
tension
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Your Answer:
Special paint INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Diverter strips
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs RL/2-5 3.4.2
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2.
Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF

installations?
Your Answer:
Insulation testing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Visual inspections
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Comment/Reference:
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question
The exact definition of HIRF does not include electrostatc

discharge (ESD). But only interference from outside sources.
Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller
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3. If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable, you must

Your Answer:
defer the defect until correct spares are available INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but

larger
Comment/Reference:
CAP 562 Part 9 Leaflet 9-1 Sect 3.5.2
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4.
000
What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the current
from a primary structure?
Your Answer:
0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.2
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5. What is the bonding value between parts of a secondary structure?
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Your Answer:
Between 1Megohm and 500,000 ohms INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1 ohm
Comment/Reference:
CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Page 6 Table 1
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6. When using a bonding tester, you

Your Answer:
use either leads for the testing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
use the 6ft lead for testing different points
Comment/Reference:
CAAIPS Sec 9-1 Para 3.10.4
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7. Most radio aerials are

Your Answer:
insulated from the fuselage INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
bonded
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8. Secondary bonding is usually provided with

Your Answer:
single strand 0.25 inch INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
18 AWG
Comment/Reference:
CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.3.1 (a) (ii)
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9. Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a

Your Answer:
vertical line CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
AL/7.2 Page 6.2 Fig 15
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10. Where is zone 320 on an aircraft according to the ATA100 system?

Your Answer:
Fin CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
B757 AMM chap 06-30-00
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Your Answer:
Special paint INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Diverter strips
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs RL/2-5 3.4.2
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2.

installations?
Your Answer:
Insulation testing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Visual inspections
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The exact definition of HIRF does not include electrostatc

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3. If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable, you must

Your Answer:
defer the defect until correct spares are available INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but

larger
Comment/Reference:
CAP 562 Part 9 Leaflet 9-1 Sect 3.5.2
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4.
000
What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the current
from a primary structure?
Your Answer:
0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.2
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5. What is the bonding value between parts of a secondary structure?
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
Between 1Megohm and 500,000 ohms INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1 ohm
Comment/Reference:
CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Page 6 Table 1
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6. When using a bonding tester, you

Your Answer:
use either leads for the testing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
use the 6ft lead for testing different points
Comment/Reference:
CAAIPS Sec 9-1 Para 3.10.4
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7. Most radio aerials are

Your Answer:
insulated from the fuselage INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
bonded
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8. Secondary bonding is usually provided with

Your Answer:
single strand 0.25 inch INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
18 AWG
Comment/Reference:
CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.3.1 (a) (ii)
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9. Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a

Your Answer:
vertical line CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
AL/7.2 Page 6.2 Fig 15
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10. Where is zone 320 on an aircraft according to the ATA100 system?

Your Answer:
Fin CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
B757 AMM chap 06-30-00
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1. Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the aircraft in
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feet INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
inches
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2. Where is Zone 323?

Your Answer:
Between rear spar and trailing edge INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Between front and rear spar
Comment/Reference:
Airbus A320 AMM 06-20-00-00 shows zone 323 as between the

front and rear spar of the vertical stab. Zone 324 is the tip of
the vertical stab.
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3.
The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane

measured in inches from bottom of the fuselage is
Your Answer:
fuselage station INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
water line
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4. What is the water line?

Your Answer:
The zero datum from which all lateral locations are measured
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The datum from which vertical locations refer
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5. Lateral stations have station zero at the

Your Answer:
left wing tip INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
centre line
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1. Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by

Your Answer:
special conducting or non-conducting grease INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
bonding strips
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs RL/2-5 3.4.2
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2.
How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning

strike?
Your Answer:
Bonding Strip CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page

343
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3. To remove a rivet you should

Your Answer:
drill to the depth of the head CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

CAIPs BL/6-29 10.1
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4. The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is

Your Answer:
50 milliohms CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Table 1
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5. In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircraft

Your Answer:
Comment/Reference:
at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkhead

CORRECT
Zone 100 is the lower part of the fuselage (below floor) up to
rear pressure bulkhead
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6.

installations?
Your Answer:
CMC fault indications INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Visual inspections
Comment/Reference:
The exact definition of HIRF does not include electrostatic

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7.
A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce the risk of high

potential differences would be
Your Answer:
painted in a non-conductive paint INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
painted in a conductive paint
Comment/Reference:
CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Para.3.4.4
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8. A Fuselage Station is a
Your Answer:
longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Fuselage Stations are longitudinal measurements on the

fuselage
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9.
When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the output
reading is
Your Answer:
zero CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-6 Para.3.10.2
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10. Composite materials are bonded by

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special paint CORRECT
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1. The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is on the
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right of the control column INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
side of the controls away from the throttles
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2.
If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the autoland mode, the audible

warning
Your Answer:
switches off after a time interval INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button
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Comment/Reference:
JAR AWO Para 153
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3. For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing, an autothrottle system is

Your Answer:
a matter of choice for the operator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds
Comment/Reference:
JAR AWO Para 306 b
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4. With autothrottle engaged, the application of reverse thrust will

Your Answer:
disconnect the autothrottle CORRECT
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5. What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?

Your Answer:
Pitch CORRECT
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6. In an autothrottle system, when is EPR or thrust mode used?

Your Answer:
Approach INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Take-off
Comment/Reference:
E.H.J.Pallet 3rd edition page 284 3rd paragraph
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7. Autopilot, when on approach to landing, how many axis are used?

Your Answer:
2 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
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1.
In helicopter autopilots, while operating the actuator, the movement of the

cockpit control is prevented by
Your Answer:
a lock on the cockpit control INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. EHJ Pallett Page 239
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2. An autopilot computer
Your Answer:
is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR CORRECT
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3. DH is based on
Your Answer:
aircraft characteristics CORRECT
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4. In an autopilot, what controls pitch mode?

Your Answer:
VOR INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Glideslope
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 187
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5. Glideslope controls autopilot in

Your Answer:
roll INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pitch
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6. When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means

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Your Answer:
the maximum aileron angle that can be commanded

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the maximum roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot
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7. Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a rate of

Your Answer:
30 degrees per millisecond INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
20 degrees per millisecond
Comment/Reference:
0.02 degrees per microsecoond
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8.
Which of the following modes does an autopilot go through, in correct

sequence?
Your Answer:
Attitude, flare, rollout CORRECT
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9. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available?
Your Answer:
No other pitch modes are available CORRECT
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10. What is B-RNAV?

Your Answer:
Ability to store 6 waypoints INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint
Comment/Reference:
See Module 11 Forum
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1. An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that

Your Answer:
the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of

single failure CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 281, JAR AWO
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2. The effective gain of the glide path receiver

Your Answer:
is increased as the aircraft descends INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
is decreased as the aircraft descends
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Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 156
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3. During an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by

Your Answer:
radio altimeters CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page

283
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4. An autopilot with two separate power supplies is

Your Answer:
fail operational CORRECT
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5. On touchdown, the autothrottle

Your Answer:
drives the throttles forward INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
disconnects after a short time
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 286/290
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6. When will the decision height aural warning sound?

Your Answer:
After D.H. INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
At D.H.
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7. Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by

Your Answer:
the area navigation system INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the runway localiser
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8. The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals from
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Your Answer:
the localiser receiver INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
radio altimeter
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9. A triplex system loses one channel. The system is now,

Your Answer:
fail operational INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
fail passive
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10. With a fail passive system, in the event of failure it will

Your Answer:
ensure the aircraft can still land automatically INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
produce no significant out of trim condition
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1. Touchdown mode is usually initiated by

Your Answer:
EPR limits INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
AoA and flap position sensors
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2. In autothrottle EPR mode, the actual EPR is obtained from

Your Answer:
EPR transmitter/transducer CORRECT
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3. Selecting a profile for VNAV for autothrottle speed control

Your Answer:
can be done at any time CORRECT
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4. Minimum operating speed of the autothrottle is derived from the

Your Answer:
altitude INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
angle of attack
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, 4th Edition, Pallett and Coyle, 288
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5. When turbulence mode is selected, which other mode will not be available?
Your Answer:
VOR INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ALT Hold
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6. A full operational autopilot system will ensure that

Your Answer:
the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to

overshoot if any failure is detected INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a

single failure
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7. The aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from

Your Answer:
roll errors INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
heading errors
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Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page

341
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8. An autopilot synchronisation loop circuit must ensure that the trim system
Your Answer:
disengages if hard over is detected INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
disengages upon coupling the channel
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9. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control

Your Answer:
the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 286/288
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10. Loss of course wash-out signal whilst on LOC approach would result in
Your Answer:
continued flight on course but with scalloping or bracketing

CORRECT
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1.
An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following

ground based transmitters
Your Answer:
VOR, ILS CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
An AFCS uses VOR and ILS (RA is not ground based)
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2. The maximum azimuth coverage by a MLS facility is

Your Answer:
+/-60 degrees CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
External website... but normal is +/- 40

degrees
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3. In MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists of

Your Answer:
7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function
Comment/Reference:
Principles of Avionics 3rd edition Albert Helfrick Page 101
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4. On localiser approach the radio deviation signal is lost
000
Your Answer:
aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading CORRECT
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5. A triplex system loses one channel
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Your Answer:
pilot must make a full manual approach and land INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pilot can continue with autoland
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6. The purpose of a force trim release system in a helicopter is to permit the

Your Answer:
pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude

without having to maintain the opposing forces of the artificial
feel system forces CORRECT
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7. Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems to

Your Answer:
assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
prevent aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn
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8. Stand-off errors on localiser approach are washed out by

Your Answer:
integrating deviation signals INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
integrating course error signals
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9. An autoland system displays Land 2. Another failure will make the system
Your Answer:
fail-passive INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
simplex
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems 6th

Edition Harris Page 139, Automatic Flight Control Pallett pg
282/3
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10. In a helicopter, Altitude Hold uses a signal from

Your Answer:
the barometric alt capsule CORRECT
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1. Speed information to the autothrottle is derived from

Your Answer:
the DME INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the CADC
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2.
On replacement of an actuator that incorporates an autopilot actuator, the

autopilot must be checked for
Your Answer:
correct sense and range of movement and autopilot breakout

checks CORRECT
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3. On replacement of an autopilot servo motor

Your Answer:
torque limiting settings must be checked CORRECT
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4. The autopilot prevents adverse yaw by

Your Answer:
rudder to pitch cross feed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
aileron to rudder cross feed
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5. An automatic disengagement of an autopilot will cause

Your Answer:
a red warning light to illuminate and an aural warning CORRECT
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6. Auto trimming trims the aircraft by

Your Answer:
movement of the elevator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
moving the leading edge of the stabiliser
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7. Automatic trimming starts on the detection of

Your Answer:
loss of position feedback INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
standing load on the elevator
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8. An autopilot runaway is prevented by
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Your Answer:
a fuse INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
torque limiting device
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition by EHJ Pallett & Shawn

Coyle Page 226
Flight Instruments & Automatic Flight Control Systems page
132
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9. An autopilot hardover runaway is caused by

Your Answer:
loss of servo power supply INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
loss of position feedback
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10. Inner loop servo control of an autopilot will provide

Your Answer:
navigation commands only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
stability only
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1.
For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing, an autothrottle

system is
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed
Comment/Reference:
JAR-AWO para 123 auto-throttle control
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2. The overshoot or go around mode is initiated

Your Answer:
by pushing the throttles forward to maximum INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
by a selector on the throttle control panel
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Circuits. EHJ Pallett Page

277
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3. The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope at

Your Answer:
start of flare phase CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, Page 255
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4. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated

Your Answer:
at any time INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
at any time after autoland has been engaged
Comment/Reference:
Boeing 747 Maintenance Training Manual, Autothrottle

Operation - 'Go-around, the go-around mode is engaged when
there are these conditions. 1, Autothrottle armed 2, Airplane in
the air 3, AFDS Glideslope engaged or flaps not zero 4, Thrust
limit mode not T/O'
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5.
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The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been initiated,
after the selection of autoland
Your Answer:
IAS and glideslope INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
IAS and steering or heading
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6.
If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the
aeroplane will
Your Answer:
increase speed and rotate nose up CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

277
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7. VNAV can be selected

Your Answer:
only if autothrottle is selected INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
alone
Comment/Reference:
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8. If during autoland, the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach

Your Answer:
the system degrades to CAT II INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a go-around is initiated
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9. The order of autoland approach is

Your Answer:
GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE
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10. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to

Your Answer:
assist with localiser tracking INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
point the aircraft down the runway at touchdown
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 186. The questions says

'decrabbing' which is the correction manoeuvre for the
crabbing.
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1. On an autoland, during auto flare it will

Your Answer:
control throttle for a IAS INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
retard the throttle
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control Pallett Figure 10.2 on Page 284 and

detailed on Page 290
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2. Cat-2 autoland DH limits are

Your Answer:
below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft. INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft
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3. Cat-1 autoland DH limits are

Your Answer:
not less than 200 ft. CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
ILS Category I (CAT I). An ILS approach procedure that

provides for approach to a height above touchdown of not less
than 200 feet and with runway visual range of not less than
1800 feet. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 279
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4. When GA is initiated
000
Your Answer:
autothrottle remains engaged allowing pilot to control the

throttles INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
autothrottle remains engaged giving correct G/A thrust
Comment/Reference:
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5. A radio coupled approach is
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
glideslope first, followed by localiser INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
localiser first, followed by glideslope
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 184-185
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6. The controlling signals in pitch channel in the Flare mode, are

Your Answer:
integrated pitch and radio altitude. CORRECT
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7. Aileron signal is fed to the rudder channel

Your Answer:
for turn coordination CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. 4th Edition Page 121/122
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8. Rollout guidance after touch down is by
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Your Answer:
automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering CORRECT
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9. During autoland, failure of one channel is detected.

Your Answer:
All channels will disconnect in duplex system. CORRECT
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10. In triplex autoland system, failure of one channel will

Your Answer:
disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual

approach INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach
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1. In an automatic flight control system, when may the yaw damper be applied?
Your Answer:
During manual control only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
During either manual or automatic control
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 222 - 226
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2.
The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to ILS localiser and
glidepath. How does it operate?
Your Answer:
Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam

which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and DOWN
CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 224
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3. In ILS, the glideslope provides

Your Answer:
lateral steering INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
vertical steering
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 69
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4. The components of an ILS are:

Your Answer:
A localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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5.
When carrying out an autoland approach, VNAV is deselected. The aircraft

will enter MCP SPD mode when
Your Answer:
the aircraft captures the glideslope CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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6. Airspeed hold is a
Your Answer:
heading mode INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pitch mode
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7. In an auto trim system, for the trim system to operate

Your Answer:
autopilot must be engaged INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
autopilot need not be engaged
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 213 - 218
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8. Cat 2 RVR, if the alert height is 100 feet, will be

Your Answer:
300m INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
400m
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9. In a triplex system, if an ILS receiver fails before localizer capture

Your Answer:
there is no autoland INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
autoland Continues
Comment/Reference:
Manual of Avionics 3rd edition Kendal Page120 end of 2nd

paragraph
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10. The decision height on the Radio Altimeter system is adjusted by

Your Answer:
selecting a switch on the control panel INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
moving a bug on the Radio Altitude indication
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems Powell page 196
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1. A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a

Your Answer:
dual-dual system INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
duplex system
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2. The two parameters used for category classification are

Your Answer:
radio height/runway visual range INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decision height and runway visual range
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3. What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode?

Your Answer:
Radio altimeter CORRECT
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4. CAT-3b allows
Your Answer:
approach, land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
approach, land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the

order of 50 meters
Comment/Reference:
000
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5. The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
continue to control after any first fault CORRECT
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6. What is added to the flare computation at touchdown?

Your Answer:
No signal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Nose down bias
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7.
If a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system will totally

disconnect if it is a
Your Answer:
Simplex system INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Duplex system
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The minimum requirement for autoland is Duplex, therefore

Simplex system cannot be in control in first place. Automatic
Flight Control. Pallett. Page 283
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8. The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is

Your Answer:
to limit the range of control movement INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to allow the pilot to override
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Automatic Flight Control Pg 289
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9. Alert Height is when

Your Answer:
an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a decision of whether to land is made
Comment/Reference:
Alert height is the height, specified by the aircraft manufaturer/

caa that where a specific input(ILS ETC) can become U/S and a
cat3 land is still allowed and computed by the aircraft DFGS
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10. When downgrading an Autoland system what needs to be done?

Your Answer:
Crew retraining INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding
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1. During the flare mode, the autothrottle will

Your Answer:
select reverse thrust INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
retard throttle to idle
Comment/Reference:
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2. Roll-out mode occurs

Your Answer:
after flare CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 284 fig 10.2
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3. High and low signal to voter are

Your Answer:
removed CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Usually the high and low signals are removed as they are
considered to be most likely spurious, then of the ones that are
left the lowest is chosen
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4. Basic monitoring is a function of

Your Answer:
signal summing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
signal comparison
Comment/Reference:
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5.
The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel amplifier.

This means it is
Your Answer:
DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input

CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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6. A helicopter autopilot uses

Your Answer:
radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude
hold CORRECT
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7. On an ILS approach, what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?
Your Answer:
Course deviation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Radio deviation
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8.
Which of the following modes does an autopilot go through, in correct

sequence?
Your Answer:
Rollout, attitude, flare INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Attitude, flare, rollout
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 284 fig 10.2
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9.
When can other autopilot modes be selected once Go-Around has been
selected?
Your Answer:
When reached a desired altitude CORRECT
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10. Alert Height is when

Your Answer:
a decision of whether to land is made CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
JAR AWO Subpart 3. or External

website...
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1. An aircraft will capture the autoland system at

Your Answer:
2500 ft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1500 ft
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 284 fig 10.2
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2. An autopilot interlock circuit is to

Your Answer:
disconnect the system if a fault appears INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
both disconnect the system if a fault appears and prevent the

system engagement if a fault exists
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Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 92-95
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3. During flare mode, autothrottle will

Your Answer:
select reverse thrust INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
retard throttles to idle
Comment/Reference:
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4. In autopilot, the control column
000
Your Answer:
does not move INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
moves in pitch and roll
Comment/Reference:
A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 12-47 (Parallel system).

This is assuming it is a non-fly-by-wire aircraft.
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5. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
aircraft moves in a circle INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway
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6.
When is autothrottle
disengaged?
Your Answer:
On landing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
On selection of thrust reverse
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Automatic Flight Control Page 286
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7. In an Autoland, autothrottle is disengaged

Your Answer:
manually after landing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
after reverse thrust is applied
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8.
In aircraft with an autopilot and an auto trim, a pitch command input will
cause
Your Answer:
column to move and trim system to move CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-47 - This is assuming it

is a non-fly-by-wire aircraft.
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9. What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in LOC coupling?
Your Answer:
Heading and Deviation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Course error and Deviation
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen, Avionics Fundamentals Page 328
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10. During takeoff, if an input to autothrottle fails

Your Answer:
fail light illuminates INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
throttle hold is annunciated
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1. When the rotor of an AC tachogenerator is stationary, the rotor has

Your Answer:
no circulating currents CORRECT
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2. An AC tachogenerator stator has

Your Answer:
two windings 180 apart INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
two windings 90 apart
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3. The sense of a control surface feedback signal will

Your Answer:
displacing assist the signal displacing the servo INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
oppose the signal causing the displacement of control surface
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4. A rate servo tachogenerator feedback signal is required to
000
Your Answer:
ensure proportional control movement for a given command

signal CORRECT
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5. One basic requirement of a synchronizing loop is that it must
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
be engaged at all times INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
disengage on A/P engagement
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6.
When the autopilot is engaged, moving the control column forward will
cause the pitch CWS sensor
Your Answer:
to produce a significant signal which has a pitch up sense

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to produce a significant signal which has pitch down sense
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7. To increase the gain of an amplifier it is necessary to

Your Answer:
reduce the tachogenerator feedback CORRECT
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8. A position servo tachogenerator feedback signal is required to

Your Answer:
assist the demand applied to servo-motor INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
damp out oscillations of a control movement
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9. The outputs of a slaved directional gyro to an autopilot consist of

Your Answer:
azimuth rate signals INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
azimuth direction information
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10.
The type of amplifier used to overcome difficulty in amplifying DC or very

low frequency signals and to prevent drift is
Your Answer:
integrator amplifier INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
chopper amplifier
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1. The autopilot is instructed by the

Your Answer:
FMC CORRECT
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2. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle?

Your Answer:
Only after take off CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Only after take-off
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3. Which is the correct sequence for an autoland?

Your Answer:
Localizer capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Localizer capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control Pallett 4th Edition Page 176, 284/275
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4. An autopilot PFCU servo brake is

Your Answer:
energised off CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 142.
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5.
000
The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as
satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known as the
Your Answer:
intercept height INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decision height
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 204. Automatic Flight

Control. Pallett. Page 278
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6. The ICAO weather category 3A is

Click the image for
details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
operation down to 60 m and 800 m INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
operation down to and along the surface of the runway with

RVR of 200m
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control Pallett 4th Edition Page 279
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7. A category II facility performance ILS has an intercect height of

Your Answer:
60 m INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
15 m
Comment/Reference:
Manual of Avionics, Kendal Page 120
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8. The facility performance ILS intersect height is the point

Your Answer:
where the aeroplanes first receives both the localiser and glide
path signals INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the localiser and glide path signals cross each other
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Comment/Reference:
Manual of Avionics, Kendal Page

120
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9.
The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal accidents
per landing greater than
Your Answer:
1 x 10-7 CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
JAR OPS
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10. Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the

Your Answer:
ILS system must be working CORRECT
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1. An autopilot servo motor is often fitted to a mounting plate to

Your Answer:
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enable motor replacement without disturbing flight control

system CORRECT
Automatic Flight Control, 4th Edition, Pallett and Coyle, page
209
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2. Failure of Autopilot in flight will be indicated by

Your Answer:
A failure light and an aural signal CORRECT
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3.
With Control Wheel Steering (CWS), if the flight path is disturbed by the
pilot, the course will be corrected by the
Your Answer:
flight director input INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
autopilot panel
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, 6th Edition,

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4. Torque is limited by the clutch in the servo motor to
000
Your Answer:
allow manual control when the autopilot is disengaged

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
allow the pilot to over-ride the autopilot
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5. VOR signals are sent to the
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
pitch channel INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
roll channel
Comment/Reference:
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6.
To ensure an aircraft attains the glideslope

track
Your Answer:
there is a glideslope capture bias applied for 10 seconds after

the system switches to capture mode CORRECT
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7. In a simple vertical hold circuit the clutch is

Your Answer:
disengaged when the aircraft is climbing or descending

CORRECT
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8.
In a helicopter the Rate Gyro and 'Leaky Integrator' inputs which are fed to
the computer form part of the
Your Answer:
outer loop control system INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
inner loop control system
Comment/Reference:
Pallett, Automatic Flight Control Page 243
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9.
When the autothrottle is selected to 'Airspeed' mode, the throttles will

maintain the
Your Answer:
speed selected at engagement INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
speed selected on the thrust select panel
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10. Autopilot servo brake is energised

Your Answer:
at the same time as the clutch INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to actuate off
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 142
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In the electro pneumatic servo-motor using dual poppet valves and dual roll1. frame actuator, when there is zero command output from the autopilot
servo amplifier
Your Answer:
both valves will be closed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
both valves will be open for an equal period of time
Comment/Reference:

205
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2. When DC motors are used as servomotors, they are usually

Your Answer:
high torque heavy armature type INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
split field type
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Split field combines the advantages of high start torque and

controllability
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3. When a 'dead zone amplifier' is used, a CWS circuit

Your Answer:
passes only signals below a certain magnitude INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
passes only signals above a certain magnitude
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4.
000
The purpose of using altitude rate signal to develop the capture point in the
altitude acquire mode is
Your Answer:
to allow the aircraft to start flaring on to the selected altitude

later if the vertical speed is high INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to allow the aircraft to start flaring on to the selected altitude

earlier if the vertical speed is high
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5. When internal navigation control is used, the roll channel signals used are
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
drift angle and cross track distance INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
cross track distance and track angle error
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6. Which modes are incompatible?

Your Answer:
HDG hold & speed hold INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
VOR & G/S
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7. Rate feedback signal in a rate/rate system

Your Answer:
prevents oscillations of the control surfaces CORRECT
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8. Throttle hold will occur

Your Answer:
with weight on wheels INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
at a predetermined take-off speed
Comment/Reference:
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9. An autopilot transfer valve

Your Answer:
converts electrical power to hydraulic power CORRECT
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10. The autothrottle controls the aircraft

Your Answer:
both laterally and vertically INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
vertically
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1. The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is on the
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right of the control column INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
side of the controls away from the throttles
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2.
If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the autoland mode, the audible

warning
Your Answer:
switches off after a time interval INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button
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Comment/Reference:
JAR AWO Para 153
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3. For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing, an autothrottle system is

Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds
Comment/Reference:
JAR AWO Para 306 b
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4. With autothrottle engaged, the application of reverse thrust will

Your Answer:
disconnect the autothrottle CORRECT
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5. What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?

Your Answer:
Pitch CORRECT
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6. In an autothrottle system, when is EPR or thrust mode used?

Your Answer:
Approach INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Take-off
Comment/Reference:
E.H.J.Pallet 3rd edition page 284 3rd paragraph
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7. Autopilot, when on approach to landing, how many axis are used?

Your Answer:
2 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
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1. Which modes are incompatible?

Your Answer:
VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD
Comment/Reference:
Cannot have G/S and Alt Hold at same time
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2. To carry out an autopilot check, first

Your Answer:
switch on NAV receivers INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed
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3. FAIL PASSIVE means
Your Answer:
system self monitors, and the system has the ability to

withstand a failure without endangering passenger safety, and
without producing excessive deviations from the flight path
CORRECT
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4. On the approach, the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft would
000
Your Answer:
fly a circle INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
fly parallel to the beam
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, Page

185
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5.
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The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system are laid
down in
Your Answer:
CAIPs INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
JAR AWO
Comment/Reference:
JAR AWO. Download a copy at External website...
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6. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure

Your Answer:
that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions

on engagement
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7. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode, the throttles are used for
Your Answer:
correction of minor speed deviations INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
maintaining a computed EPR
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Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page

288
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8. The GA mode is usually initiated by

Your Answer:
pressing a button on the control wheel INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pressing a button on thrust levers
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 370. Automatic Flight

Control, Pallett, Page 290
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9. On selection of the Turbulence Mode

Your Answer:
the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe
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10. Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by

Your Answer:
yaw rate gyro signals INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
aileron to rudder crossfeed
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals pg 292, figs 20-5 and 20-6
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1. An autoland is carried out in which sequence?

Your Answer:
LOC capture, GS capture, Attitude hold, Flare CORRECT
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2.
If a fault is detected during an autoland approach, the system will totally

disconnect if it is a
Your Answer:
triplex system INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
duplex system
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3. The glideslope signal integrator

Your Answer:
decreases the glide-slope signal CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control Pallett page 187
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4. Glideslope gain programming is based on

Your Answer:
altitude above MSL and radio altitude INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
radio altitude
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight control Pallett page 156
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5. 3 autopilot computers are considered

Your Answer:
Fail Operable CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, Pg 282
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6. API trim pointers are fed by

Your Answer:
an LVDT CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Table page 201 Art and Science of flying Helicopter Coyle also
read page 202 and 203
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7. In autopilot with THS in motion, the

Your Answer:
Auto Trim is inhibited CORRECT
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8. How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in normal manual operation?

Your Answer:
Pitch Trim INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Mach/Speed Trim
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9. The glideslope signal integrator

Your Answer:
decreases glideslope signal CORRECT
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10. On a Cat 3B landing, the localizer signal is used at which phase?

Your Answer:
Touchdown INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Rollout
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1. How do the crew select decision height?

Your Answer:
Selected on the radio altimeter display CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Powell Aircraft Radio Systems Powell page 196
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2. What type of signal is used for trigger height trip signals?

Your Answer:
Switchable DC CORRECT
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3. The AFCS remains in control:

Your Answer:
until 2 seconds after touchdown INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
until disengaged by flight crew
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4.
How can ambiguity be avoided during the test of a microwave landing

system?
Your Answer:
Note scan cycle start time CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems by J Powell page 224
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5. How is automatic angle of attack protection provided?

000
Your Answer:
Autothrottle applying more power CORRECT
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6. Rollout guidance by the rudder is effective to about

Your Answer:
80 knots CORRECT
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7. Go-around mode can be initiated

Your Answer:
after glideslope capture INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
below 2000ft
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8.
An integrated autoland system has been selected to Go-around during the

autoland phase, the aircraft will
Your Answer:
increase speed and rotate nose up CORRECT
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9. The integrity of an autopilot must be increased when the aircraft is flying at

Your Answer:
lower speeds INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
approach and landing phases
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10. Signals used during the flare are

Your Answer:
Rad alt and integrated pitch CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Automatic Flight Control page 285
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1. Speed information to the autothrottle is derived from

Your Answer:
the DME INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the CADC
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2.
On replacement of an actuator that incorporates an autopilot actuator, the

autopilot must be checked for
Your Answer:
correct sense and range of movement and autopilot breakout

checks CORRECT
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3. On replacement of an autopilot servo motor

Your Answer:
torque limiting settings must be checked CORRECT
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4. The autopilot prevents adverse yaw by

Your Answer:
rudder to pitch cross feed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
aileron to rudder cross feed
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5. An automatic disengagement of an autopilot will cause

Your Answer:
a red warning light to illuminate and an aural warning CORRECT
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6. Auto trimming trims the aircraft by

Your Answer:
movement of the elevator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
moving the leading edge of the stabiliser
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7. Automatic trimming starts on the detection of

Your Answer:
loss of position feedback INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
standing load on the elevator
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8. An autopilot runaway is prevented by
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Your Answer:
a fuse INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
torque limiting device
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition by EHJ Pallett & Shawn

Coyle Page 226
Flight Instruments & Automatic Flight Control Systems page
132
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9. An autopilot hardover runaway is caused by

Your Answer:
loss of servo power supply INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
loss of position feedback
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10. Inner loop servo control of an autopilot will provide

Your Answer:
navigation commands only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
stability only
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1. How can a pilot over-ride the auto-throttle?

Your Answer:
Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers CORRECT
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2. Altitude hold mode, what signal is washed out?

Your Answer:
Pitch angle CORRECT
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3. Where is the autothrottle disconnect switch?

Your Answer:
Within reach of both pilots CORRECT
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4. Which of the following is correct ?

Your Answer:
demand = feedback - error INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
error = demand - feedback
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5. The autothrottle system at touchdown will
000
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apply reverse thrust INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
go to idle and disconnect
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6.
During take off with autothrottle engaged, the autothrottle sensor fails, THR
CLP is annuciated on the mode annunciator panel when
Your Answer:
aircraft leaves ground CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
THR CLP means throttle clamp, if the speed sensor fails a back
up system operates via WOW see AFCS Pallett pages 287,288
and Flight Instruments & AFCS Harris page 142,143 the term
THR HOLD is used in both cases but Throttle Clamp is a term
used in BAE RJ training notes
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7. If only radio deviation is fed to the autopilot roll channel, what will happen?
Your Answer:
Aircraft will fly parallel to centreline INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Aircraft will fly in circles
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control EHJ Pallett Page 172
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8. Altitude hold, when engaged, provides a washout input to the

Your Answer:
autopilot pitch servo CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
During Alt Hold all signals to pitch servo wash out before
applied and keep aircraft in same altitude
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9. What is the main operating principle of MLS?

Your Answer:
Phase shift between Tx and Rx INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Time difference between TO and FRO pulse
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10.
Capture of a localiser beam is normally dependent on a change of bank

angle command based on
Your Answer:
airspeed, deviation and altitude INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
attitude, distance from transmitter and runway heading
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1. Flight management control system (FMCS) utilises
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VOR, ADF, DME INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ILS, DME, ADC,
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FMCS does not normally utilise ADF
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2. ACARS is
Your Answer:
a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight

CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 250
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file:///C|/Documents%20and%20Settings/Jeremiah%20O'Brien/My%20Documents/53.htm (1 of 3)4/14/2008 9:29:49 AM
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3. How many data bases are required in an FMS system?

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3 (one is used for redundancy) INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
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4. What is secondary radar?

Your Answer:
A backup radar on an airfield INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Signal returned from a transponder
Comment/Reference:
Manual of Avionics: Kendal page 153
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5. What is Mode 1 & 2 of GPWS used for?

000
Your Answer:
Excessive terrain closure rate, altitude loss after take-off

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Fundamentals, Jeppesen page 262-264
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6. For radio communication over a distance of over 250 miles we use

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Your Answer:
VLF INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
HF
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Communications and Navigation Systems, Tooley and

Wyatt page 73
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1. On an aircraft communication system, HIRF interference is most prominent

Your Answer:
during transmissions only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
at specific frequencies
Comment/Reference:
Whilst HIRF affects the aircraft across the whole frequency

spectrum, individual systems are susceptible to certain
frequencies only
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2.
An HF coupling is used to match

the
Your Answer:
aerial CORRECT
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3. An adjustment of the laser beam inside a laser gyro IRU

Your Answer:
is not possible INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
can be done by adjusting the servo mirror
Comment/Reference:
External website...
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4. Satellite transmits updates on every
000
Your Answer:
13th orbit INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
2nd orbit
Comment/Reference:
Every day - 2 orbits per day
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5. An IRS cannot calculate

Your Answer:
local longitude CORRECT
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6. A buffer amp on a transmitter is between

Your Answer:
local oscillator and modulator CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin Page

297
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7. An autoland can operate without an autothrottle if

Your Answer:
the control of speed does not create an excessive pilot workload

CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
JAR AWO Para 306b
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8. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI. The pointer points to
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Your Answer:
180 CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 61
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9. An ADF system includes

Your Answer:
a loop antenna INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
both a sense and loop antenna
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10. What is the power at pulse?

Your Answer:
Average power INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Peak power
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1. Track error is the difference between

Your Answer:
actual track and desired track CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems Pallet page 256

Track Angle Error
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2. The general function of the ATC transponder is to

Your Answer:
interrogate the ground station which replies with an

identification INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
reply with an identification signal after being interrogated by a

ground station
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th edition Eismin page 320321
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3.
ACARS is primarily used for communicating

with
Your Answer:
air traffic control INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
maintenance base
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, Pg 297
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4. The tone frequencies for glideslope and localiser are
000
Your Answer:
1300 Hz and 3000 Hz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
90 Hz and 150 Hz
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5. SELCAL is used to
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Your Answer:
alert other aircraft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
monitor ground signals
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6. HF communication frequency is in the range

Your Answer:
23 - 30 kHz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
3-30 MHz
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7. The polythene sleeving over a HF antenna is to stop

Your Answer:
lightning strike INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
precipitation static
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems Page 30
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8. The term HIRF means

Your Answer:
High Intensity Radiated Fields CORRECT
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9. The INS platform is

Your Answer:
always vertical relative to the earth's surface INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
always parallel relative to the earth surface
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10. The fundamental theory of operation of a ranging radar is

Your Answer:
percentage of emitted signal returned INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
time taken to receive returns
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1. Janus operation is used

Your Answer:
as a standby system INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
for better coverage
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, James Powell Page 175
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2. What frequency increases radar relative range?

Your Answer:
Low CORRECT
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3. If radar pulse is reduced, there is

Your Answer:
no effect on relative range INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
reduced relative range
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, Page 340. Jeppesen

Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 140
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4.
000
If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial,

resistance would be
Your Answer:
0 ohm INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
80 ohm
Comment/Reference:
Terminating a transmission line in its characteristic impedance

makes a the transmission line look infinitely long, and would
therefore measure its characteristic impedance
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5. Adding 6 foot of cable to both TX and RX aerials on a rad alt would give you
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Your Answer:
6 ft error INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
18 foot error
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell. Page 191
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6. How long does GPS ephemeris collection take?

Your Answer:
30 seconds CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
This is referring to the GPS start-up initialisation period.

External website... (See Ephemeris).
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7. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the

Your Answer:
narrowest width INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
number of joints and bends
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen - Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Page 147
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8. After passing the Zone of Confusion of a VOR

Your Answer:
the phase difference is 90 degrees out INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the phase difference reverses
Comment/Reference:
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9. Emergency frequency is
Your Answer:
125.5 MHz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
121.5 MHz
Comment/Reference:
JAR OPS 1.820 or 1.850. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe

Textbook Page 12-25
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10. The voice switch on the audio select panel has

Your Answer:
1020 Hz band stop filter INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1020 - 1350 Hz band stop filter
Comment/Reference:
737 Classic AMM 34-55-02 page 506
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1. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by

Your Answer:
measured radio deviation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
rate of change of radio deviation
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2. What does 7700 indicate on an ATC control panel?

Your Answer:
Radio Failure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Emergency
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3. The number of VHF frequency channels is

Your Answer:
720 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
760
Comment/Reference:
760 channels at 25kHz spacing, but see External website...
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4. To know the valid data base on the FMS

Your Answer:
call up the relevant page on the CDU CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 386
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5. What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables?

Your Answer:
75 ohms and 25 ohms INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
50 ohms
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6.
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textbook shown
To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar
receiver)
Your Answer:
scan at a lower rate INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
use shorter bursts
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 140/1
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7. The polythene coating on an HF antenna wire is provided

Your Answer:
to prevent precipitation static build up CORRECT
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8. ILS marker beacon lights are

Your Answer:
blue, amber, white CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 312.

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-24
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9. 111.1 MHz is
Your Answer:
a VOR frequency INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
an ILS frequency
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 69 shows this as a

localiser frequency. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 12-24
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10. The aviation distress frequency is

Your Answer:
122.5 MHz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
121.5 MHz
Comment/Reference:
JAR OPS 1.820 or 1.850 c. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe

Textbook Page 12-25
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1.
TCAS antenna is
a
Your Answer:
phased-array L-band INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
directional antenna
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Training, Systems Installation and Troubleshooting pg

151
737 AMM 34-45-00 pg 7 (download from the Tutorial Support
section)
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2. MLS frequency is
Your Answer:
5050-6050 MHz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
5000-6000 MHz
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3.
The electrical tuning unit of a HF transmitter maintains a VSWR of the

antenna at
Your Answer:
exactly 1 to 1 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1.3 to 1
Comment/Reference:
737 AMM 23-11-01 page 1 (download from

Tutorial Support section) quotes 1.0 to 1.3. 737
NG AMM quotes less than 1.31 to 1 is perfection
and rarely achievable.
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4. When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna
000
Your Answer:
use any paint INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
do not use cellulose paint
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs RL/2-2 8.1.2
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5. To minimize cross cable interference
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
run cables as single bundle INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
run radiating and affected cables as separate bundles
Comment/Reference:
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6. What is the difference between Alert Height and Decision Height?

Your Answer:
Alert Height is based upon the visual reference of the runway,

and Decision Height is based upon the mechanical integrity of
the equipment INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Decision Height is based upon the visual reference of the

runway, and Alert Height is based upon the mechanical integrity
of the equipment
Comment/Reference:
JAR AWO
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7. If the ADF cable is too long

Your Answer:
secure and stow excess cable CORRECT
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8.
HF transmission of 10 MHz with a sideband of 1000 Hz which drifts 50 Hz.

The received audio tone would be
Your Answer:
1000 Hz CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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9. In Doppler radar with a moving aerial, the aerial

Your Answer:
is moved only manually INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
turns automatically to match aircraft track
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Page 174
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10. VOR capture can be determined by

Your Answer:
computation from the vectorial summation of the course error

and radio deviation signals INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from

the selected radial
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Fundamentals. Jeppesen Pages 320, 328
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1. GPS receiver Navigation Message frequency is

Your Answer:
50 Hz CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
External website...
External website... (See Navigation Message).
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A CVR installed on a helicopter first certified after 1st August 1999 with two
2. engines, with a max. certificated take-off mass over 3175 kg, must begin
recording
Your Answer:
after the first engine is started but before the main rotor is
engaged INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
as early as possible during the cockpit checks prior to engine

start
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Comment/Reference:
JAR OPS 3 3.700 (c)
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3. How many satellites are required for GNS?

Your Answer:
8 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin Page 319
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4. Microwave Landing System operates on what frequency?

Your Answer:
5031-5090.7 MHz CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Principles of Avionics Third Edition Albert Helfrick Page 97

Avionic systems operation & maintenance. James Wasson.
Jeppesen. Page 119
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5. 121.5 MHz is what frequency?
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
VOR INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
VHF
Comment/Reference:
118-137 MHz is VHF frequency. Jeppesen A&P Technician

Airframe Textbook Page 12-13
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6. GPS works on the principle of

Your Answer:
the angle at which the signals are received from the satellites
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
information received from satellites is cross referenced against

other signals received to calculate position
Comment/Reference:
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7. 112.1 MHz is what frequency?

Your Answer:
ILS INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
VOR
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112-118 MHz is VOR frequency. Less than 112 MHz odd

decimals are ILS. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook
Page 12-14
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8. An ILS 'Back Beam' approach uses

Your Answer:
glideslope only if the BC button is selected INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
no glideslope
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9. In MLS, what is the beam angle away from runway?

Your Answer:
1 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
15
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10. Accuracy of a GPS system used in aircraft navigation systems is

Your Answer:
16 Meters or less CORRECT
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1. During initialisation, INS uses to calculate local vertical

Your Answer:
accelerometers only CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Avionics: Systems and Troubleshooting T K Eismin page

379
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2. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading?

Your Answer:
QDH INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
QFU
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3. On a fibreglass aerial, what paint should be used?

Your Answer:
Cellulose only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Not cellulose
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs RL/2-2
8.1.2
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4.
000
An aircraft with 8.33 kHz separation VHF communication system

communicates using
Your Answer:
single channel duplex INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
single channel simplex
Comment/Reference:
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5. How is a DME station identified?
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
Jitter INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Morse
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6. A Doppler radar antenna is moved

Your Answer:
automatically to heading INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
automatically to track
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems Powell, Page 174
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7. FMCS outputs to
Your Answer:
the air traffic system INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
GPWS
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Comment/Reference:
Avionics: Systems and Troubleshooting, Eismin Page 414
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8. On a Back Beam approach, which error signal would not be used?

Your Answer:
Glideslope CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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9. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated

Your Answer:
at any time INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
after glideslope capture
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 346. G0-around is

armed when glideslope is captured or flaps are not up
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10. IRS obtains basic position information by

Your Answer:
integrating twice the accelerometer output CORRECT
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1. A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to

Your Answer:
2500 ft. CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin Page 323 - 324
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2. 112.1 MHz is
Your Answer:
a VOR frequency CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
112 - 118 MHz are VOR frequencies. Jeppesen A&P Technician

Airframe Textbook Page 12-14
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3. What does a Decca Navigation system operate on?

Your Answer:
Very High Frequency INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Low Frequency
Comment/Reference:
Decca navigation is low frequency.
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4. Which of the following has a hyperbolic curve?

Your Answer:
Loran C CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Loran C is a type of LF Navigation. Jeppesen Avionic

Fundamentals Page 153. Also Aircraft Radio Systems by James
Powell Page 101
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5. The ground run monitor (GRM) presents
000
Your Answer:
distance to go INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ground speed and distance to go
Comment/Reference:
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6. Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to

Your Answer:
aerial work and transport category aircraft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
transport category aircraft only
Comment/Reference:
ANO Schedule 4 Scale N
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7.
An RMI in VOR mode, its pointer is showing a course of 000. If the course
knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?
Your Answer:
Move left INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Move right
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8. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is

Your Answer:
50 ohms CORRECT
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9. A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause

Your Answer:
poor volume output INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
poor channel selectivity
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10. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of

Your Answer:
1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1030mhz and 1090mhz respectively
Comment/Reference:
Page 12 of An Introduction to TCAS 2 Version 7 (download in

Tutorial Support section)
Wyatt page 278
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1.
When the VOR reference and variable phases are in phase quadrature, the
aircraft is at the
Your Answer:
180 radial INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
090 radial
Comment/Reference:
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2. The doppler VOR beacon reference signal

Your Answer:
frequency modulates the sub carrier frequency INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
amplitude modulates the carrier frequency
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell page 62
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3. Suppressor line is required for

Your Answer:
TCASs only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
all L band equipments including TCAS
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems. Powell Page 126
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4. Differential GPS requires

Your Answer:
4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitter
Comment/Reference:
000
Avionics: Systems and Troubleshooting, Eismin. Pg 490
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5. GPS has
Your Answer:
4 satellites in each of 6 orbits CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Communications and Navigation Systems,

Tooley and Wyatt page 219
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6. In ACARS, if an upcoming message is received

Your Answer:
a chime sounds in the cockpit INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a selcal light along with a chime comes on
Comment/Reference:
External website...
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7. A hyperbolic system is
Your Answer:
ILS INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
LORAN C
Comment/Reference:
Loran C is a type of Omega Navigation. Jeppesen Avionic

Fundamentals Page 153
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8. In regard to the aircraft transponder, what is the pulse frequency?

Your Answer:
Amount of times reply signal is sent per second CORRECT
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9. Align light flashes during alignment of an inertial navigation system.

Your Answer:
A fault has occurred and system needs to be turned off fore

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
It is attracting operators attention
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Circuits EHJ Pallett Page

275
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10. High range resolution is obtained by

Your Answer:
high PRF INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
shorter pulse width
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1. In weather radar, short range targets are missed by

Your Answer:
larger beam width INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
larger pulse width
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2. If an aircraft is east of VOR beacon, the reference and variable phases are
Your Answer:
phase quadrature CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Avionics Fundamentals. Jeppesen Page 165 and Pallett,

Automatic Flight Control, page 188
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3.
In a radio altimeter system, if you decide to increase the TX cable and RX

cable each by 3 inch the total correction factor is
Your Answer:
3 inch INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
9 inch
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4. Radiated interference of current carrying cables can be minimized by
000
Your Answer:
having filters in power supply lines INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
putting the affected cable in a single conduit
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition, Pg 65
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5.
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If two aircraft decide to issue the same RA for a potential conflict, which
aircraft changes the decision?
Your Answer:
Neither changes the decision INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The one with the higher address
Comment/Reference:
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6. GPS antenna is
Your Answer:
circular polarized CORRECT
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7. How many programs can a FMC store?

Your Answer:
Two. One active and one standby CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 399

on. Boeing 757 chapter 34-61-00 page 201.
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8. EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at

Your Answer:
approach INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
take off
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page

286
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9. How does an IRS calculate velocity?

Your Answer:
Differentiation of laser gyro INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Integration of accelerometers
Comment/Reference:
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10. Use of a diplexer in a receiver is

Your Answer:
to amplify the RF signal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to enable signals to be distributed to different receivers
Comment/Reference:
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1. The quadrantal error in ADF is maximum at a heading of

Your Answer:
090 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
045
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2. Track mode of an Rad. Alt. is operational

Your Answer:
from 0 to 2,500 feet CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
The radio altimeter is operational from 0 - 2500 ft Jeppesen

Avionic Fundamentals Page 223
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3. How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?

Your Answer:
1 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Comment/Reference:
Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance page 160
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4. Wavelength of X band radar is
000
Your Answer:
10 m INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
3 cm
Comment/Reference:
Introduction to Avionics Dale Cundy Page 82
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5. Precipitation static is caused by
Click the image for

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textbook shown
Your Answer:
skin to air particle collisions CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics - Eismin page 211
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6. HF aerials have weak points designed at

Your Answer:
both ends INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the back end
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs RL/2-2 para 2.2.4
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7. What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?

Your Answer:
1030 MHz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1090 MHz
Comment/Reference:
Avionic Fundamentals page

211
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8. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated on the WXR by a

Your Answer:
green colour INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
yellow colour
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-43 p691
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9. The international emergency frequency used in VHF Comms is

Your Answer:
131.55 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
121.5
Comment/Reference:
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10.
When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft, what is the
distance that VHF Com can cover?
Your Answer:
100 nm INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
120 nm
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1. Glideslope deviation signals are

Your Answer:
DC positive going only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
DC polarity sensitive
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2. What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?

Your Answer:
Blue INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Amber
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Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen - Avionics Fundamentals, Page 219 fig 14-2
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3. A GPS system is formed from

Your Answer:
satellites, processing unit, display unit INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
space, control, user
Comment/Reference:
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4. The glideslope equipment operates in the
000
Your Answer:
HF band INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
UHF band
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin. Page 308 and table

on page 278
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5. For aircraft with dual CMCs, when only one CMC is available, it
Your Answer:
must be connected to the left side CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Fifth Edition Eismin Chap 13

page 271
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6. Laser gyros are

Your Answer:
aligned to the true north INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
aligned to the aircraft structure
Comment/Reference:
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7. Laser gyros
Your Answer:
have no movable parts INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
do not have rotational parts
Comment/Reference:

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8. DSR TK (desired track) means

Your Answer:
distance left or right from desired track INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control pallet page 193
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9. In a Doppler VOR, the 30Hz reference signal is

Your Answer:
FM Modulated INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
AM Modulated
Comment/Reference:
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10.
If an FM signal is modulated by an audio signal, the frequency of the audio

would relate to the
Your Answer:
amplitude INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
rate of frequency change
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin. Page 278
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1. Doppler flag comes on when it receives

Your Answer:
no signal CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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2. Omega ground stations

Your Answer:
are carrier modulated by three audio tones INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
transmit pulses of CW
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3. During testing of ATC altitude function, the pressure altimeter is set

Your Answer:
prevailing pressure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1013.25 mb
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4. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?

Your Answer:
When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1 CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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5. On an ILS approach, what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
Glideslope deviation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Radio deviation
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 184/185
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6.
If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB HF system what should you do with
the control switch? Select it to
Your Answer:
either USB or LSB INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
AM
Comment/Reference:
SSB transmissions require a modulating signal before any real

power is transmitted (the carrier wave is suppressed). Full AM
however, transmits power regardless of the modulation (if any)
and is normally used for VSWR measurements
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7.
How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse for
a Mode A transmission, ignoring the P2 pulse length?
Your Answer:
21 micro seconds INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
8 micro seconds
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Comment/Reference:
Mode A is 8 microseconds, mode C is 21 microseconds
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8. What is the wavelength of C band radar?

Your Answer:
3 cm INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
7 cm
Comment/Reference:
C Band is 4 - 8 cm. Most aircraft systems use about 5.6cm. Ref

Boeing and Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page
12-27
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, Jeppesen page 123
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9.
If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000 degrees
what will the TO/FROM indicator indicate?
Your Answer:
FROM INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
TO
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 61 RMI showing

000 implies that aircraft is on 180 radial and selected course is
000. Indicator must show 'TO' as aircraft is on reciprocal of
selected course
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10. What does the Radar contour button do?

Your Answer:
Alter the video amplifier CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell page 143/page 150

fig9.10/page 154 Contour on then signals are inverted if they
exceed a certain level to show cells of heavy precipitation as
dark holes within bright 'paint'.This changes video amp output
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1. What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet?

Your Answer:
130 nm INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
110 nm
Comment/Reference:

Note: Whilst the formula gives exactly 116 Nm, 120 Nm is outof-range.
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2. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1?

Your Answer:
c/a code and P code CORRECT
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3. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from

Your Answer:
approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
rad alt decrease
Comment/Reference:
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4. On power up, the IRS obtains position
000
Your Answer:
latitude from previous position INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
longitude from previous position
Comment/Reference:
External website...
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5. Carbon microphones require
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
no supply INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
DC supply
Comment/Reference:
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6. Microwave landing systems are modulated with

Your Answer:
phase shift keying CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Principles of Avionics, 3rd Edition, Helfrick Page 100
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7. A CVR is found to be unserviceable

Your Answer:
flights must not continue after 72 hours CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
JAA MEL Temporary Guidance Leaflet Number 26. After 72

hours have elapsed from the CVR becoming unserviceable you
cannot fly. Also cannot fly if combined CVR/FDR or no more
than 8 flying hours.
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8.
The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF is 060 degrees relative to aircraft

heading of 030 degrees. The RMI pointer indicates
Your Answer:
60 degrees INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
90 degrees
Comment/Reference:
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9. The pseudo-random code used by all civilian GPS users is

Your Answer:
the p code INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the c/a code
Comment/Reference:
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10.
The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and video amplifier, for
good pulse shape, should be
Your Answer:
wide and wide INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
narrow and wide
Comment/Reference:
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1. GPS frequency is
Your Answer:
1575 GHz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1575 MHz
Comment/Reference:
Avionics: Systems and Troubleshooting, Eismin. Pg 481
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2. Radio switches are normally

Your Answer:
latched on R/T, sprung on I/C INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
sprung on R/T, latched on I/C
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I/C R/T switch is latched to I/C for normal conversation on the

flight deck and sprung loaded for R/T so that you don't
continually transmit without intending to.
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3. What is ILS marker beacon frequency?

Your Answer:
50 MHz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
75 MHz
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett, 4th Edition Page

183/4
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4. On TCAS, with own aircraft below 1750 ft
000
Your Answer:
system is disabled INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
any other aircraft below 360 ft are deemed to be on the ground
Comment/Reference:
TCAS 2, Version 7 (download from Tutorial Support section).

Wyatt page 275
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5. TCAS is selected
Your Answer:
automatically INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
by a switch, by pilot on selector panel
Comment/Reference:

Wyatt page 275
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6. Mode S pulses. Which are used?

Your Answer:
F1, F2, F4, F5 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
s1, p1, p3, p4
Comment/Reference:
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7. In a superhet receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier is

Your Answer:
it couples noise factors INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
it improves signal to noise ratio
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8. Back beam is captured

Your Answer:
by manually selecting the back beam mode CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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9. The manual VOR input is for

Your Answer:
RMI INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
course deviation bar
Comment/Reference:
B737 MM Chapter 34-3102
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10. DME reply pulses are 63MHZ

Your Answer:
lower INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
higher or lower
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1. A radar response takes 309 micro seconds. How far away is the target?
Your Answer:
12 miles INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
25 miles
Comment/Reference:
1 nautical mile=12.36 micro secs so 309/12.36 = 25 Miles
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2. DME transponder transmits on receipt

Your Answer:
of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds CORRECT
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3. The RAD alt electrical length for a helicopter is

Your Answer:
16ft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
28ft
Comment/Reference:
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4. Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of
000
Your Answer:
64bits INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
24bits
Comment/Reference:

Wyatt page 262
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5. A mode C transponder
Click the image for

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textbook shown
Your Answer:
can be used for TCAS on ILS approach only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
can be used for TCAS
Comment/Reference:
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6. The audio select panel allows the crew to

Your Answer:
transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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7. The crew select DH on

Your Answer:
the altimeter INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the rad alt display
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Systems Operation and Maintenance:Wasson,

Jeppesen page 189
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8. When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should consider
Your Answer:
the diameter of cables INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the speed of propagation of rad alt signal
Comment/Reference:
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9. Audio select panel voice switch

Your Answer:
allows voice ident of DME INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
cuts 'beeps' from the DME signal
Comment/Reference:
Manual of Avionics: Kendal page 129
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10.
What is primary
radar?
Your Answer:
Radar that gives height and position INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse
Comment/Reference:
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1. What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver?

Your Answer:
Polarity sensitive AC INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Polarity sensitive DC
Comment/Reference:
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2. What does an INS calculate on power up?

Your Answer:
Longitude INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Latitude
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3. ADF is
Your Answer:
Rho INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Theta
Comment/Reference:
Rho-Theta = Distance-Angle. ADF is angle only.
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4. What is jitter used for in a DME transmission?
000
Your Answer:
To make an aircraft recognise a DME in a quiet area

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
To make an installation recognise its own transmission
Comment/Reference:
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5. What is audio clipping used for in voice communication?
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
To enable consonants to be heard better CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
External website...
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6. What is the difference between DME transmit and receive pulse frequency?
Your Answer:
60 MHz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
63 MHz
Comment/Reference:
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7. TCAS II is
Your Answer:
1 aircraft per square nautical mile INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
24 aircraft per 5 nautical mile radius
Comment/Reference:
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8. RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by a

Your Answer:
loop voltage CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Basic Electronics and Radio Installation Jeppesen page 6-3 & 64
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9. FMC changes movement via

Your Answer:
A/P actuator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
flight control computer
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10. Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere

Your Answer:
increase with the frequency CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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1. To carry out a database update on the FMS

Your Answer:
use the database loader CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page

400
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2. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?

Your Answer:
When the P2 pulse is anti-phase to P1 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio systems, Powell, page 126
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3.
How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse of a
Mode C transmission, ignoring the P2 pulse length?
Your Answer:
21 microseconds CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Mode A is 8 microseconds, but Mode C is 21 microseconds
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4. What does the Radar contour button do?
000
Your Answer:
Alter the beam shape INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Alter the video amplifier
Comment/Reference:
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5. A radar response takes 329 microseconds. How far away is the target?
Your Answer:
25 miles CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
1 nm round trip = 12.359 microseconds 329/12.359 = 25 nm

round trip approx.
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textbook shown
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6. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is

Your Answer:
50 ohms CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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7.
An RMI in VOR mode, its pointer is showing a course of 000. If the course
knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?
Your Answer:
Moves left then hard right INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Moves right
Comment/Reference:
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8.
An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an ADF signal 030 relative to

the aircraft, what is the ADF pointer indicating?
Your Answer:
090 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
060
Comment/Reference:
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9. A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for

Your Answer:
marker beacons INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
HF communications
Comment/Reference:
Jepessen A & P Technician Textbook p12-3 fig 12-2 shows HF

COMM as 2-30 MHz
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10. In what type of Doppler System do altitude holes appear?

Your Answer:
FM and Pulse CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, page 178
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1. On an HF radio set, the clarifier control is used

Your Answer:
an Americanism for volume INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RX
Comment/Reference:
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2. An 'O' ring in a wave guide is used to

Your Answer:
correct the VSWR INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
stop moisture entering the wave guide
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3. Loran C Uses
Your Answer:
100 Khz CORRECT
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4. GPS Telemetry consists of

Your Answer:
8 bits of preamble and position information INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
satellite position information
Comment/Reference:
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000
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5. A DME is in auto standby when
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Your Answer:
the ATC transponder is transmitting INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second
Comment/Reference:
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6.
The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90. What is the
RMI displaying?
Your Answer:
0 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
180
Comment/Reference:
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7.
The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation signal is lost.
The aircraft would
Your Answer:
continue flying on the localizer INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
fly parallel to the localizer
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8. The rate of G/S warning in GPWS

Your Answer:
changes with barometric altitude INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
changes with radio altitude
Comment/Reference:
Avionic Fundamentals page 263
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9. What frequency are VOR and ILS?

Your Answer:
VHF CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 426
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10. If one FMS fails in a dual system

Your Answer:
FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
FMS CDU on fail side goes blank
Comment/Reference:

406
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1. A secondary surveillance radar (SSR) interrogation operates on

Your Answer:
a frequency of 1090 MHz and pulse spacing 20.3 microseconds

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a frequency of 1030 MHz and pulse spacing depending on mode

of interrogation
Comment/Reference:
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2. The FMS navigation database is updated

Your Answer:
every 28 days CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett page 400
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3.
If the 90 Hz tone predominates in a localizer receiver, the deviation

indicator will show
Your Answer:
the flag INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
fly right
Comment/Reference:
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4. Localizer modulation depth is
000
Your Answer:
2% INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
20%
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5.
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textbook shown
The aerial element of a VHF comms transmitter/receiver should have a

midband length of
Your Answer:
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
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6.
The short circuit stub that is used for broadbanding a VHF whip must have a
length of about
Your Answer:
70cm INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
59cm
Comment/Reference:
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7. An isotropic radiator
Your Answer:
has a cardioid shaped polar diagram INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
has a perfectly spherical radiation pattern
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8.
The VSWR of a VHF system with a forward power of 100W and a reflected
power of 4W will be
Your Answer:
2:1 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1.5:1
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9.
When an ADF antenna is repositioned from the bottom of the fuselage to the
top, the wiring of the bearing indicator must be
Your Answer:
reverse R1+S2 connections INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
reverse R1+R2 connections only
Comment/Reference:
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10. In an IRS system you would expect to find

Your Answer:
three strap down accelerometers INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ring laser gyros
Comment/Reference:
Assuming they mean a strapdown system. (Note: in b, it is the

system which is strapdown, not the accelerometers, in c,
azimuth gyro is not the only type of gyro involved).
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1. The middle marker is keyed with

Your Answer:
dashes INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
alternate dots and dashes
Comment/Reference:
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2. What is the millivolt deflection per dot on ILS/VOR?

Your Answer:
75/75 CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Avionics fundamentals Page 200. Same instrument indicates

VOR and ILS so requires the same mV per dot.
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3. An accelerometer in an INS must be able to detect accelerations down to

Your Answer:
10-6 g CORRECT
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4. An accelerometer has
Your Answer:
high inertia, free suspension INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
high inertia, restrained
Comment/Reference:
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000
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5. Bandwidth of HF transmission is
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
1khz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
3khz
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6. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?

Your Answer:
either RA or TA INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
RA
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7. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?

Your Answer:
White diamonds, red squares and amber circles CORRECT
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8. VHF frequency is
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Your Answer:
108 - 118 MHz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
108 - 136 MHz
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9. The call system for the captain will have the audio signal of a
Your Answer:
horn INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
hi tone chime
Comment/Reference:
B737
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10. Channel 3 on a CVR records

Your Answer:
captain INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
flightdeck
Comment/Reference:
JAR 25.1457
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1. The mode S squitter pulse will

Your Answer:
contain the aircraft range and altitude information INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
contain the aircraft identity
Comment/Reference:
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2. In an INS system the accelerometer is a mass

Your Answer:
suspended between two springs in a tube CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 256.

(Note: the mass is suspended in fluid, and is not remote)
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3. When using the GPS

Your Answer:
once the database card has expired the system will continue to
operate with a warning message CORRECT
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4. In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used primarily for

Your Answer:
communications between the aircraft and base CORRECT
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5. When the ILS marker hi/lo switch is set to lo

Your Answer:
receiver sensitivity is reduced by 10 to 12db CORRECT
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6. In a CVR system, hot mics

Your Answer:
get their power supply from the selected Tx via the r/t switch
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
is a term applied to all the aircraft's mics
Comment/Reference:
External website...
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7.
A DME receives a ground transponder reply after 2472 microseconds, the

slant range to the transponder is approximately
Your Answer:
200 statute miles INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
196 nm
Comment/Reference:
2422/12.36 (remember to subtract the 50 microseconds hold

time)
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8. The most common type of gyro used in an INS is

Your Answer:
a displacement gyro to sense displacement and a rate gyro to

sense rate of displacement INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a single rate integrating gyro with viscosity damping
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 269
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9. A laser dither mechanism ensures that

Your Answer:
that the two contra rotating beams are each at different

frequencies INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
optical backscatter does not cause the contra rotating beams to

lock together
Comment/Reference:
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10.
DFDR [digital flight data recorder] ARINC 573 data bus has how many subframes?
Your Answer:
8 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Digital Electronic and computer Systems, Principles,

Operations and Maintenance, Mike Tooley, page 42
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1.
From where is bearing information received for display on the digitaldistance radio-magnetic indicator (DDRMI)?
Your Answer:
From ADF only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
From VOR and ADF systems
Comment/Reference:
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2. Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio communication?

Your Answer:
HF INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
VHF and UHF
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3. Directional property is exhibited by

Your Answer:
the loop antenna CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page

46
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4.
Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency (HF) communication

system?
Your Answer:
To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum

matching of impedance CORRECT
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5. In an ADF system, the goniometer
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
alternately selects signals from loop antenna and sense antenna

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
effectively simulates a rotating loop antenna
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page

46
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6.
What would be the purpose of an input from an inertial reference system

being connected to a weather radar?
Your Answer:
To place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance for

the display INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna
Comment/Reference:
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7. In an aircraft VOR receiver

Your Answer:
108 MHz reference signal is compared with 9960 Hz variable

phase signal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
30 Hz modulated reference signal is compared with 30 Hz

variable phase signal
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8.
Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground

Proximity Warning System (GPWS)
Your Answer:
Rudder/ailerons INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Flaps/undercarriage
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Fundamentals Jeppesen Page 269
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9. In CVOR, 9960 c/s AM subcarrier is used in the

Your Answer:
station identification Morse code INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
REF phase
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 59/62
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10. The DVOR is preferred in comparison to CVOR because

Your Answer:
DVOR is compatible for digital processing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
DVOR is relatively insensitive to SITE errors
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1. In an amplitude modulated wave, the intelligence is contained in the

Your Answer:
carrier only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
sidebands only
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2. ILS and VOR operate in which range

Your Answer:
VHF CORRECT
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3. LOC signal modulation is

Your Answer:
50 % INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
20 %
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4. FMC secondary flight-plan is selected

Your Answer:
in the air by the pilot CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
FMC has a primary (active) and a secondary (alternative)

stored flight plan.
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5. ADF operates within which frequencies?

Your Answer:
200 KHz - 1000 KHz CORRECT
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6. FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is

Your Answer:
LNAV INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
CRZ
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. EHJ Pallett Page

405
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7. Mode C response is
Your Answer:
21 microseconds INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
20.3 microseconds
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell. Page 123 Fig 8.4
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8.
Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude reporting

system?
Your Answer:
Check the altitude code with the correct alt/code table

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Read the altitude directly from ATC-600 panel
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9. The components of an ILS are

Your Answer:
a localizer and the marker beacons INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons
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10. A DGPS system installed on an aircraft requires

Your Answer:
1 ground station and 6 satellites INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1 ground station and 4 satellites
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1. In ILS, the glideslope provides

Your Answer:
lateral steering INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
vertical steering
Comment/Reference:
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2.
If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer receiver predominates, the

deviation indicator will show
Your Answer:
fly right CORRECT
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101
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3. On a WX radar display, the time base is a

Your Answer:
trapezoidal wave form INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
saw tooth wave form
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4.
000
Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost when following
the FD commands. Aircraft will
Your Answer:
follow the course with scalloping or bracketing CORRECT
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5. Flight director on G/S capture, the pitch integration is

Your Answer:
to maintain GS signal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to increase GS signal
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. 4th Edition EHJ Pallett page 187
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6.
If the inductance in a parallel tuned circuit is increased in value, the

resonant frequency
Your Answer:
increases INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decreases
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7. When an AM carrier is modulated, its bandwidth

Your Answer:
increases CORRECT
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8. An inertial navigation unit uses pin programming for

Your Answer:
magnetic orientation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
location
Comment/Reference:
Pin programming for IRU`s and INU`s are carried out on the
aircraft rack mounted side. The purpose being to tell the
installed unit which position it is serving within the aircraft i.e
left, ctr or right side! The unit is universal for all
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9. In audio clipping
Your Answer:
there is no change in relative strength of vowels INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal
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10. How can it be verified if FMC update is correct?

Your Answer:
Dataplate on the FMC INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
FMC via CDU
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1. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses

Your Answer:
amplification first then attenuation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
attenuation first then amplification
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems. Powell, page 38/39
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2. In a DME system, how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid?
Your Answer:
Blocking oscillator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Decoder
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Comment/Reference:
Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance page 138 139
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3.
Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected to a dipole of

120 ohms. While checking with an ohmmeter, the reading will be
Your Answer:
200 ohms INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
more than 20 megohms
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4. GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:
000
Your Answer:
Pressure altimeter INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Radio altimeter
Comment/Reference:
Of the three, GPWS has only connection to the RA. It does use
barometric vertical speed however.
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5.
Click the image for

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textbook shown
In a large transport aircraft, to check VSWR of a HF system with a long

aerial feeder, the VSWR meter has to be connected
Your Answer:
between the transmitter and the ATU (transmitter end)

CORRECT
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6. With no.1 HF system transmitting the interlock circuit

Your Answer:
does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, Pg31
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7. Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90. The RMI indicates
Your Answer:
180 CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Fundamentals by Jepperson Pg 188 Fig 1036
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8.
An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236 microseconds after

transmitting the interrogation. What is the slant range to the station?
Your Answer:
100 nautical miles INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
96 nautical miles
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 106 R=(T-50)/12.359
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9. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off-track is the aircraft?
Your Answer:
2.5 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
10
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Fundamentals Page 183 and 192
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10. What frequency range does ACARS operate in?

Your Answer:
2-30 MHz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
118-136 MHz
Comment/Reference:
Avionic Systems and Troubleshooting, Eismin, Pg 426
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1. INS has mercury switches on

Your Answer:
outer gimbal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
all gimbals
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2. An FM signal would have its sideband signals

Your Answer:
No sidebands present CORRECT
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3. A Doppler VOR station's transmissions

Your Answer:
can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR

receiver INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems. Powell Page 61/62
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4.
A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro
to simulate a right bank, the antenna
Your Answer:
will move down CORRECT
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5. Standing waves in a co-axial feeder cable are proportional to
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna CORRECT
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6. Reducing radar beam-width improves

Your Answer:
range resolution INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
bearing resolution
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft radio systems by Powell Page-143
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7.
If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an ILS approach, the
aircraft must fly
Your Answer:
down CORRECT
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8. What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ILS?

Your Answer:
150 Hz left of runway centerline, 90 Hz right of runway

centreline INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of runway

centreline
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9.
In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system
operate?
Your Answer:
190 - 1759 KHz CORRECT
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10.
How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment

reply from those for other aircraft?
Your Answer:
By using an alternate frequency INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs

of the interrogation signal
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1. GPS L1 and L2 signals are

Your Answer:
10.2 KHZ send rate INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Bi-phase 50 bit/sec
Comment/Reference:
Principles of Avionics, Helfrick 3rd Edition Page 136-137
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2. Voice/Range switch selected to range

Your Answer:
allows NAV/ADF and DME through, and cancels out voice

spectrum CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powel Page 38
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3. Audio select panel voice switch

Your Answer:
allows NAV and ADF through CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
737 AMM 23-51-00 Page 3. Download in Tutorial Support

section
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4. In ADF, quadrature error are eliminated by placing attenuators

Your Answer:
Across goniometer INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Across loop aerial
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5. With AGC inoperative, sensitivity will be effected to signals with

Your Answer:
both high and low signal strength INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
low signal strength
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6. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses

Click the image for
details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
amplification first then attenuation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
attenuation first then amplification
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7. In audio clipping
Your Answer:
vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal
Comment/Reference:
External
website
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8.
For a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimbal would be moved to
correct the pitch movement?
Your Answer:
Lateral INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Longitudinal
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9. Decca navigation uses

Your Answer:
VHF INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
LF
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10.
A Mode S transponder makes a Mode A/C only call, what is the length of
the P2 pulse?
Your Answer:
2 s INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
0.8 s
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1. Tx output stages are normally run in class C

Your Answer:
as higher gains can be obtained INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
because the efficiency is high
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Page 281
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2. Which of the following has the best frequency stability?

Your Answer:
Hartley INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Colpitts
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3. A quartz crystal has the characteristics of a

Your Answer:
resistive bridge network INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
high 'Q' resonant circuit
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4. Time base of PPI display is
000
Your Answer:
a ramp INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a trapezoid
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5. The image channel ratio is

Your Answer:
response at image channel frequency over response at wanted

signal frequency INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
response at wanted channel frequency over response at image

channel frequency
Comment/Reference:
Click the image for
details of the
textbook shown
Also known as 'image response ratio' or 'image

response rejection ratio'.
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6.
Second channel interference could occur if the I/P frequency was at twice
the
Your Answer:
I F and on the opposite side of the selected frequency

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
I F and on the opposite side of the local oscillator frequency
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7. Single Side Band filters are

Your Answer:
1Khz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
3Khz
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 32, 34
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8. Delayed Automatic Gain Control is inoperative, the sensitivity of the receiver

Your Answer:
increase for high signal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increase for low signal
Comment/Reference:
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9.
An I F amplifier unit consists of four amplifiers. The amplifiers are normally

coupled by
Your Answer:
transformer coupling CORRECT
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10. Man made noise causes interference

Your Answer:
only in the LF band INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
mainly below 12 Mhz
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1.
With a Vertical Gyro simulated to aircraft right bank, the scanner in left hand
position will
Your Answer:
tilt right INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
tilt down
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2. A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system would be

Your Answer:
Mode A INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Mode S
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Comment/Reference:
Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport

FAA Page 17 (Target Surveillance)
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3. GPS
Your Answer:
uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
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4. A single side band transmission is equal to
000
Your Answer:
One half of the high level modulation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Low level modulation
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5. Three RF amplifiers of 10dB and 10KHz are in cascade, what is the output?
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
30dB and 10KHz CORRECT
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6.
Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected by placing mercury

switches
Your Answer:
on both gimbal rings INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
on inner gimbal ring
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7. Voice clipping
Your Answer:
maintains an average depth of modulation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decreases the depth of modulation of high amplitude voice

signals
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Comment/Reference:
Manual of Avionics page 51\52
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8. The IRS laser gyro is a

Your Answer:
displacement gyro INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
rate gyro
Comment/Reference:
Rate integrated gyro. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Ed.

Eismin Page 373
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9. A padder capacitor has most efficiency at

Your Answer:
the middle frequency of the L O INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the lowest frequency of the L O
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10. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?

Your Answer:
either RA or TA INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
RA
Comment/Reference:

FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection)
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1. The ATC aerial has a polar diagram which is

Your Answer:
directional CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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2. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?

Your Answer:
White squares, red diamonds and amber circles INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
White diamonds, red squares and amber circles
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Comment/Reference:

FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection)
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3. The speech clipping modulating circuit

Your Answer:
cuts out high tone sounds CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Manual of Avionics page

53
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4. The laser ring gyro

Your Answer:
has a stabilized platform INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
does not have gimbal and rotating parts
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Ed. Eismin Page 373
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5. Radio waves are said to have line-of-sight propagation
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
not below 1000MHz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
above about 100MHz
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6.
VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for maximum

power transfer is
Your Answer:
25 to 75 ohms INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
50 ohms
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 28 and 30
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7. A valid interrogation will

Your Answer:
disable the RX, disable the encoder and enable the DME
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
disable the RX, enable the encoder and disable the DME
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8. To check side lobe suppression

Your Answer:
use a ramp test set CORRECT
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9. On an FMCS CDU, you can select

Your Answer:
N1 Thrust CORRECT
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10. What is an Ideal VSWR on a Radio Transmission line?

Your Answer:
1:1 CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Basic Electronics and Radio Installation Jeppesen page 5-12
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1. The plane of polarisation is defined as the plane in which the

Your Answer:
E field lies CORRECT
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2. The stability of an RF oscillator can be improved by

Your Answer:
tight coupling to an RF amplifier INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a buffer amplifier
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3. How is the next database on the FMC activated?

Your Answer:
Manually, on the ground INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Automatically by due date
Comment/Reference:
External website.. See 'I've loaded the new navdata update,

but the FMS still shows the old expiration date?'
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4.
000
When terminating an aluminium cable, what preparations would be carried

out before crimping?
Your Answer:
Just terminate INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Apply a mixture of 50% petroleum jelly and zinc oxide
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5. The distance over which VHF communication may be achieved is limited
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
to conditions in the ionosphere INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to radio line of sight
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6. At its resonant frequency, a parallel tuned circuit has

Your Answer:
minimum impedance INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
maximum impedance
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7. Crystals operate reliably at fundamental frequencies up to

Your Answer:
1000 MHz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
30 MHz
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8. The RF resistance of an inductor

Your Answer:
increases as frequency is increased CORRECT
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9. At its resonant frequency, a parallel tuned circuit

Your Answer:
has maximum circulating currents CORRECT
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10. In a dual FMS, a failure of one computer will result in

Your Answer:
down-grade of the landing category INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
no effect on the CDU
Comment/Reference:
The word COMPLETEY makes a) incorrect. The word CDU is

displayed on the CDU and it can be selected to a different
source.
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1. DME works on the frequency of

Your Answer:
HF INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
UHF
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 310 and 278
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2. TCAS will issue a traffic advisory if

Your Answer:
a collision is within 25-35 seconds of occurring INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a collision is within 35-40 seconds of occurring
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Communications and Navigation Systems - Elsevier

page 272 and 273
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3. A radial is referenced
Your Answer:
to a VOR INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
from a beacon
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4. ADF works by using
000
Your Answer:
sense aerial INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
both loop and sense aerial
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5. The auto gain voltage of a weather radar is set
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
by adjusting the gain control until optimum picture quality is

obtained INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
by the manufacturer
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6. A GNS satellite system transmissions are

Your Answer:
vertically polarised INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
right hand circular
Comment/Reference:
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A receiver having an IF of 465 kHz is tuned to 1300 Khz. Which of the

7. following signals could interact with the LO second harmonics to produce a
receiver output if no RF amplifier was used?
Your Answer:
3995 KHz CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
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To work out possible 2nd channels use (2xlo)+(IF of Receiver

given) in this case (2x1765)+465=3995 or (2 x 835)
+465=2135
Aircraft Radio Systems Powell pages 1 - 17
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8. On the ASP how many Rx and Tx can be selected at any one time?
Your Answer:
Only one Rx and only one Tx INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Multiple Rx and only one Tx
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems Powell page 128-129 page 39 fig 2.17
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9. The frequency range 300KHz - 3MHz is called the

Your Answer:
VHF band INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
MF band
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems Powell table 1.2 page 4
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10. DME squitter comes from

Your Answer:
test set INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
DME station
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems Powell page 107 2nd para
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1.
A receiver in which selected signals of any frequency are converted to a

single frequency is called a
Your Answer:
superhet receiver CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
External website...
Basic Electronics And Radio Installations Jeppesen page 5-5 &
5-6
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2.
The noise factor of a receiver whose I/P signal to noise ratio is 15:1 and O/
P signal to noise ratio is 12:1 is
Your Answer:
1.25 CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Radio Systems for Technicians 2nd Edition DC Green
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3. A receiver with a high IF will successfully reject

Your Answer:
the 2nd channel / image frequency CORRECT
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4. The frequency spectrum of noise is

Your Answer:
infinitely wide CORRECT
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5. Man made noise causes interference

Your Answer:
mainly below 12Mhz CORRECT
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6. Rad Alt failure effects which system?

Your Answer:
GPWS CORRECT
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7.
A Mode S equipped aircraft has its RA area breached by a Mode A only

equipped aircraft. What warning does the Mode S aircraft get?
Your Answer:
RA visual and climb or descend aural warning INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
TA visual and Traffic Traffic aural warning
Comment/Reference:
BAE 146 \RJ TCAS Flight crew and Engineer training notes
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8. A Loran C transmission consists of

Your Answer:
6 pulses with a total pulse train length of 8.27ms INCORRECT
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Correct Answer:
8 pulses each 270 microseconds long
Comment/Reference:
Principles of Avionics Helfrick page 68

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9. ARINC 629 operates at which speed?

Your Answer:
1300 Kb/s INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
2000 Kb/s
Comment/Reference:
Principles of Avionics Helfrick page 285 2000Kb/s =2Mb/s
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10. Transmission line losses have what effect on VSWR?

Your Answer:
Do not affect CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
VSWR is as a result of incorrect termination of the load. If the

loss in the line changes it affects both forward and reflected
waves equally. VSWR is therefore not affected by line losses.
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1. What is Track angle?

Your Answer:
The angle, measured clockwise, between true north and the

aircraft longitudinal axis INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The angle, measured clockwise, between true north and the

aircraft ground track
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2. RNAV accuracy is
Your Answer:
+/- 5nm INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
+/- 5nm 95%
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3. In colour WXR AGC is set

Your Answer:
automatically on receiver noise level CORRECT
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4. With an ATC code of 0600 selected, the pulses transmitted are

Your Answer:
B2 and B4 CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, page 123 Table 8.1
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000
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5. What is needed for RHO-RHO navigation?

Your Answer:
1 VOR/DME signal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
2 DME signals
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6.
The relationship between LORAN master and slave transmitters. Master

frequency is
Your Answer:
same as slave CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, page 101
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7. The loop aerial polar diagram is a

Your Answer:
cardioid INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
figure 8
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, pages 46 & 47
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8. Single Side Band filters are
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Your Answer:
1Khz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
3Khz
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9.
Delayed Automatic Gain Control is inoperative, the sensitivity of the receiver

will
Your Answer:
decrease for low signal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increase for low signal
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website
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10.
A radar pulse takes 308 microseconds to return, what is the target

distance?
Your Answer:
12.5 Nautical miles INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
25 Nautical miles
Comment/Reference:
1 nm round trip = 12.36 microseconds 308/12.36 = 25 nm

round trip approx.
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1.
When the pilot depresses the IDENT button, where does the ident pulse
appear?
Your Answer:
4.35 seconds after the last frame pulse CORRECT
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2. A magnetron can be used as an

Your Answer:
amplifier only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
oscillator only
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3.
Which of the following navigation system is not a hyperbolic navigation

system?
Your Answer:
Doppler CORRECT
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4. The length of a resonant antenna dipole is
000
Your Answer:
lambda INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
lambda/2
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5. The pulse repetition frequency (PRF) should be

Your Answer:
low for long ranges CORRECT
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6. Radio altimeter normally indicates the altitude of

Your Answer:
plus-minus 2500 feet INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
0 to 2500 feet above the ground level
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7. GPS consists of 24 orbiting satellites located

Your Answer:
in a 10900 nautical miles high orbit CORRECT
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8.
The path of a point which moves such that the difference in distance from
two fixed points is equal, is called
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Your Answer:
parabola INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
hyperbola
Comment/Reference:
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9. A selcal signal transmits

Your Answer:
two pair of tones - one pair after the other CORRECT
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10. The frequency of 111.1 MHz is used by

Your Answer:
VOR INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ILS localiser
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1. ATC altitude readout is

Your Answer:
series transmitted with octal encoding INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
series transmitted with binary encoding
Comment/Reference:
The mode C altitude is binary and serial
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2. Attenuation in a co-axial cable

Your Answer:
decreases with frequency decrease INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increases with frequency increase
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3. An electro-magnetic microphone requires which type of input?

Your Answer:
None CORRECT
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4.
000
How does a receiver know whether an ILS or a VOR frequency has been
selected?
Your Answer:
A different receiver is used INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Logic control circuit in control unit
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5.
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An aircraft is on course on an ILS Localiser. What is the difference in depth

of modulation (DDM)?
Your Answer:
20% INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
zero
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, Jeppesen, page 70
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6. How is the flightdeck informed of an ACARS transmission?

Your Answer:
ONSIDE VHF T/R INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
A double chime
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7.
The flight data recorder underwater locator beacon operates at a frequency

of thirty seven kilo-hertz
Your Answer:
and has a maximum detection range of two thousand to four

thousand feet INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
with an operational time of at least thirty days
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Comment/Reference:
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CAA Airworthiness spec no 12, para 2 e/f...acoustic operating

life not less than 30 days, or answer b by A300-600 AMM 3131-00 pg 17
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8. Alert Height is
Your Answer:
where a decision of whether to land is made based on aircraft

characteristic and its fail operational landing system CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
JAR-AWO Page 3-3
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9. A resistance-capacitor low pass filter will have

Your Answer:
the output taken across the resistor INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the output taken across the capacitor
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin Page 288
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10. Buffer amplifiers are used when

Your Answer:
high amplification factors are required CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Fundamentals - Jeppesen Page 24
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TCAS Tutorial PDF - Allow it to load in the pop-up, then click Save, to save it to your computer for offfile:///C|/Documents%20and%20Settings/Jeremiah%20O'Brien/My%20Documents/40.htm (3 of 4)4/14/2008 9:27:31 AM
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1. How many satellites comprise the space segment for GPS?

Your Answer:
4 satellites in each of six orbits CORRECT
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2. What type of system is an ADF?

Your Answer:
rho-theta INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
theta
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3.
Peak power is 10kW, pulse period 6s and duty cycle is 2.4 ms. What is the
average power transmitted?
Your Answer:
25W CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
If the pulse period is 6 micro seconds and the duty cycle is 2.4
ms then the power o/p is transmitted for only 6 micro seconds
in every 2400 microseconds or in other words one 400th of a
second. Therefore you multiply the total power by the amount
of time (10000w X 1/400 sec )giving the answer 25W
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4.
In a triple RAD ALT installation on a large aircraft, interference is prevented

by
Your Answer:
varying the modulating frequency of each system CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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5. In a Loran navigation system, master station transmitter frequency
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Your Answer:
higher than the slave INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the same as the slave
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems. James Powel Page 101
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6.
Data communication between the aircraft and the operational control centre
is possible through
Your Answer:
selcal system INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ACARS system
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7.
Communication between the aircraft earth station (AES) and the satellite is
on
Your Answer:
S band INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
L band
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8. The monopulse aerial system is used to provide T.C.A.S with

Your Answer:
bearing Information CORRECT
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9.
In an interrogator Mode S addressing format when does the first synch

phase reversal occur?
Your Answer:
1.25 seconds after P2 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
2.75 seconds after P2
Comment/Reference:
Principles of Avionics 3rd Edition Page 184
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If a ground station interrogating an aircraft transmits P1, P2 and P6

10. through the rotating beam antenna and P5 is radiated by omni-directional
antenna, which mode is it addressing?
Your Answer:
Mode A and C only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Mode S only
Comment/Reference:
Principles of Avionics 3rd Edition Page 182
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1. In VOR the manual phase shift resolver is a

Your Answer:
1020 Hz signal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
30 Hz signal
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2. The impedance of an HF aerial is

Your Answer:
75 ohms INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
50 ohms
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft radio system, Powell Page 30
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3. On an RMI, the input to the ADF pointer is fed via

Your Answer:
a differential synchro INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a synchro
Comment/Reference:

196
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4. Full scale deflection on a VOR system is
000
Your Answer:
5 degrees INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
10 degrees
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5. A VHF comm blade aerial has a length of
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Your Answer:
a half wavelength INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a quarter wavelength
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6. Doppler VOR, when received by a conventional VOR receiver

Your Answer:
has normal reception but no ident signal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
has normal reception with an ident signal
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7. At resonance in a series tuned circuit the impedance is

Your Answer:
reactive INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
low
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8. A mode 'S' transponder utilises a

Your Answer:
linear amplifier INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
logarithmic amplifier
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9. What is the time taken for one radar nautical mile?

Your Answer:
11.03 s INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
12.36 s
Comment/Reference:
12.36 microseconds is for 1nm
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10. What is the main cause of standing waves in waveguide?

Your Answer:
Mismatch of impedance CORRECT
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1.
The horizontal angle contained between the true and the magnetic meridian
at any place is
Your Answer:
declination CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instrument & Integrated System - Pallett Chap - 3 Pg

79
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2. To obtain an accurate GPS fix, the GPS receiver must be in line of sight of
Your Answer:
3 satellites INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
4 satellites
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Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 319. 4

satellites are required to provide height information as well as
position.
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3. Glideslope frequency is
Your Answer:
328.6-335.4 MHz CORRECT
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4.
000
Which of the following systems is inhibited when a test is performed of the

rad. alt. system?
Your Answer:
altitude alert INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
GPWS
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5. ADF operation range is at

Your Answer:
VHF band INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
MF band
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6. ADF system sense aerial is

Your Answer:
rotating figure of 8 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
null cardioid
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powel Page 47
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7. Outer marker frequency is

Your Answer:
3000 hz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
400 hz
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8. The GPS satellite system consists of

Your Answer:
20 satellites and 5 standby satellite INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
21 satellites and 3 standby satellites
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 318 and 319
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9. A Mode C transponder gives the following information

Your Answer:
Altitude CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Fundamentals Page 211

Aircraft Electricity & Electronics Eismin Fifth Edition page 321
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10. FMC provides data envelope for

Your Answer:
TCAS INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
GPWS
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity & Electronics Eismin page 325 fig 15-48
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1. DME interrogation is carried out

Your Answer:
63 MHz below transmitted frequency INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
63 MHz above or below transmitted frequency
Comment/Reference:
Depends whether it is and X or Y system. Aircraft Radio

Systems Powell Page 110
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2.
In ground mode, the FMS uses which of the following for velocity
calculations?
Your Answer:
IRS CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
B737 CL MM 36-42-01 Page 44
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3.
Confirmation of the correct operation of an ATC transponder ident function,

is verified by
Your Answer:
use of a ramp test set CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Modern Aviation Electronics Helfric Page 281
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4. IRS serviceability for in-service drift is ascertained by
000
Your Answer:
CDU fault code interrogation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
3+3t
Comment/Reference:
B737 CL MM 34-28-01 Page 111 (will differ as per customer)
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5. In an IRS system, the accelerometer is double integrated for

Your Answer:
distance CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

257 Fig 10.8
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6. During an ACARS transmission, a 1 is generated by

Your Answer:
the -ve half of a 1200hz waveform CORRECT
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7. ACARS transmits its data using

Your Answer:
hexadecimal code INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
binary code
Comment/Reference:
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8. In flight mode, the FMS preference of data source is
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Your Answer:
RHO-RHO, IRS, RHO-THETA INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
IRS, RHO-RHO, RHO-THETA
Comment/Reference:
B737 CL MM 34-62-01
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9. RNAV uses which inputs?

Your Answer:
IRS, ADF, VOR, DME INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
IRS, VOR, GPS, DME
Comment/Reference:
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10. Janus in Doppler radar

Your Answer:
allows adjustment for antenna pitch CORRECT
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1. The alignment position of an IR Mode Selector unit enables

Your Answer:
the accelerometers to correct the axes INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
gyro run up, levelling, azimuth determination
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft instrument's and Integrated systems Pallett pages 279,

280
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2. Pin Programming is allowed

Your Answer:
to provide reference to FMS computer as to which side of datum

it is fitted to CORRECT
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3. The Janus beam is for

Your Answer:
working out acceleration INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to compensate for attitude changes
Comment/Reference:
To compensate for pitch attitude change. Manual of Avionics

Kendal Page 224 fig 56 and pg 223
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4. Sonar Locator Beacons are a
000
Your Answer:
Company Requirement INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ICAO Requirement
Comment/Reference:
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5. INS power is provided by
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Your Answer:
AC normal and DC emergency CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

248
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6. Aircraft is 9000ft. When is it out of VHF range?

Your Answer:
120 nm CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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7. CVR is unserviceable.
Your Answer:
The aircraft can fly for 4 days since unserviceability

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The aircraft can fly for 72 hours since unserviceability
Comment/Reference:
737 NG MEL 23-10
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8. Before processing an AM USB signal, what needs to be done?

Your Answer:
Carrier added CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
External website... towards the bottom of the page it talks

about re-inserting the carrier in order to process the recieved
signal in a SSB transmission
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9. On power up, IRS

Your Answer:
obtains both from previous position INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
compares longitude from previous position
Comment/Reference:
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10. When performing an ADF bearing check, commercial stations

Your Answer:
can not be used as they are the wrong frequency INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
can be used in addition to ADF nav stations
Comment/Reference:
Providing their position on the map is known
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1. There are two FMS installed on the aircraft. If one FMS fails during flight
Your Answer:
it has no effect, because the second FMS was in the stand-by

mode, now it is active. INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the failed FMS has a blank screen
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 406
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2. ATCRBS reply pulses are

Your Answer:
0.45 s wide CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Principles of Avionics, Helfrick 3rd Edition Page 177
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3. What is the time between the F2 framing pulse and the SPI?
Your Answer:
4.35 s CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Principles of Avionics, Helfrick 3rd Edition Page 178
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4. Range resolution in a radar system is improved by

Your Answer:
longer pulses INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
shorter pulses
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 141
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5. Which of the following has priority over TCAS warnings?

Your Answer:
Resolution Advisories INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Stall warning
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6. What is the time between the framing pulses F1 and F2 in an ATCRBS reply?
Your Answer:
20.3 s CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 122
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7.
Slewing of the INS gimballed platform simulates in-flight attitude changes

up to
Your Answer:
71 in pitch and 180 in azimuth CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

280
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8. The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to
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Your Answer:
the CDI offset bar CORRECT
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9. A flat plate antenna is a

Your Answer:
a Doppler antenna INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a series of slots and wave guides
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin page 342
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10. The term 'oblate spheroid' refers to

Your Answer:
flattening at the polar regions CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

250
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1. The number of different radials provided by a ground station is

Your Answer:
360 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
infinite
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2. Which of the following frequencies is allocated to VOR?

Your Answer:
127.2 MHz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
114.3 MHz
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Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 58 All frequencies

between 112.00 and 117.95 MHz (High Power VORs) and all
even 1/10 MHz between 108.00 and 111.95 MHz (Terminal
VORs)
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3. Aerial masts may be damaged by

Your Answer:
water INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Skydrol hydraulic fluids
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4. Most radio aerial masts are
000
Your Answer:
not bonded INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
bonded
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Training: Systems, Installation and Troubleshooting,

Len Bulkwalter page248-249
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5.
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When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic) towards a VOR station the
reference and variable signals will be
Your Answer:
in phase INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
180 out of phase
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft is due South of the station
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6. The middle marker modulation is keyed with

Your Answer:
dots INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
alternate dots and dashes
Comment/Reference:

Wyatt page 155
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7. The modulation of the outer marker is

Your Answer:
400 Hz CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 311-312
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8. The approximate distance of the middle marker from the runway threshold is
Your Answer:
3500 ft. CORRECT
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9. Marker information is usually provided to the pilot

Your Answer:
both visually and aurally CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 311
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10. An over station sensor (OSS) detects

Your Answer:
radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a VOR

transmitter INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion
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1. Incompatible Flight Director modes are

Your Answer:
VOR and glidepath INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
altitude hold and ILS
Comment/Reference:
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2. The VOR system comprises

Your Answer:
reference phase signal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
variable and reference phase signals
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 3o6 and 307
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3. The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is

Your Answer:
ILS CORRECT
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4.
If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR station, the TO/
FROM indicator would show
Your Answer:
from CORRECT
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5.
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textbook shown
How does the flight director computer differentiate between VOR and ILS
frequencies?
Your Answer:
Trigger pulse from ground station INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Frequency discriminator in receiver
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6. The glideslope transmitter operates on

Your Answer:
the UHF band CORRECT
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7.
A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment

will have
Your Answer:
a decision height depending on RVR INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
no decision height
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8. During ATC transponder operation, side lobe suppression acts to

Your Answer:
supply altitude readout INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
mute the DME operation during transmit phase
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems By James Powell P126
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9. During operation of a twin HF radio system transceiver

Your Answer:
#1 HF system can transmit but not receive INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
#1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation
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10. L band DME transmits on a frequency of

Your Answer:
4133 MHz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1090 MHz
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1. A Class 3 fault reporting failure

Your Answer:
does not have an operational consequence but may do if a

second failure occurs INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
has no consequences on aircraft safety
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2. Audio frequency range is

Your Answer:
20 to 200,000 Hz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
20 to 20,000 Hz
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3. A signal at 120 MHz freq will normally propagate by means of

Your Answer:
space waves CORRECT
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4. The length of a resonant antenna dipole is

Your Answer:
lambda/4 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
lambda/2
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5. In a vertically polarized electromagnetic wave
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
both electric and magnetic are vertical INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the electric field vectors are vertical
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6. In yagi-array antenna, the signal is fed through a cable to

Your Answer:
both dipole and parasitic elements INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
dipole
Comment/Reference:

Wyatt page 21-22
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7. Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier, the pilot must
Your Answer:
insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into the
INS INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS
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8.
A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system has the acceleration force

balanced by a
Your Answer:
linear force CORRECT
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9.
An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to detect accelerations down

to
Your Answer:
10-3 g INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
10-6 g
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10. A laser gyro output is

Your Answer:
inversely proportional to angular turning rate INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
directly proportional to angular turning rate
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1.
In a secondary radar system, at what frequency does the interrogator

transmit on?
Your Answer:
1090 KHz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1030 MHz
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2. In the OBS, the printing report system is activated

Your Answer:
manually INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
either manually or automatically
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3.
In the downlink 11 format a 0.5 per second pulse in the first half of the slot
represents
Your Answer:
the start of the preamble INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a logic one
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4. The uplink 11 format utilises
000
Your Answer:
Differential Phase Shift Keying CORRECT
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5. In a universal all-call transponder interrogation P2 is radiated by the

Your Answer:
omnidirectional aerial CORRECT
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6. Group countdown in a transponder receiver changes the

Your Answer:
fidelity INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
sensitivity
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7. T.C.A.S transmits squitter pulses on a frequency of

Your Answer:
1030 MHz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1090 MHz
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8.
T.C.A.S considers another aircraft to be on the ground at a difference height

between the barometric altimeter and rad/alt of
Your Answer:
180 ft CORRECT
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9. In a radio altimeter installation, the aerial spacing between aerials must be

Your Answer:
12 feet INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
8 feet
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10. ACARS is used to transmit

Your Answer:
on the ground INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
both in flight and on the ground
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1. Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal modulation is

Your Answer:
150 Hz INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
90 Hz
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, page 181, Fig.6.6 and Aircraft

Radio Systems, Powell, Page 72, top of L/H column
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2.
The correct sense demand generated for a selected heading 180, when
the aircraft heading is 150 is
Your Answer:
turn right CORRECT
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3.
When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre line of the runway it is
in the
Your Answer:
150 Hz modulation sector INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
equi-signal sector
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4. The localiser system offers approach guidance to the runway in terms of
000
Your Answer:
the vertical plane INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the horizontal plane
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5. The glideslope transmitter is located
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
at the end opposite to the approach end of the runway

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, page 181 (bottom of the

page) and Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, page 72, Fig. 5.5
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6. The glideslope and localiser frequencies

Your Answer:
have to be selected separately INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, page 71 and Avionics

Fundamentals, Jeppesen, page 206
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7. The glideslope system offers approach guidance to runways in terms of

Your Answer:
the horizontal plane INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the vertical plane
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8. The glideslope equipment operates in the

Your Answer:
HF band INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
UHF band
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9. The localiser equipment operates in the

Your Answer:
HF band INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
VHF band
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10.
The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a ground station by

comparing
Your Answer:
the amplitude of two 30 Hz modulations INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the phase of two 30 Hz modulations
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 59 and 60 and Radio

Aids, R.B.Underdown and David Cockburn Page 72
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1. Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays

Your Answer:
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difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left

of the desired track CORRECT
Page 88
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2. INS wind speed is calculated from

Your Answer:
the vectorial addition of TAS and GS CORRECT
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3. Centripetal error compensation is achieved by

Your Answer:
an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel

the centripetal error CORRECT
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4. Transport Rate compensation is achieved by

Your Answer:
an additional signal added to the N/S accelerometer output

depending on heading INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal
Comment/Reference:
000
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5. If the battery fails on the ground (INS System)

Your Answer:
Comment/Reference:
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details of the
textbook shown
a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds

CORRECT
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6. An IRS alignment
Your Answer:
takes 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present

position is used for the alignment INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time

during the alignment
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7. The localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes from the
Your Answer:
VHF nav system CORRECT
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8. The heading error signal used in the heading select mode

Your Answer:
comes direct from the compass system INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
is the difference between the desired heading and the actual

heading
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9. The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC modes is displayed by the
Your Answer:
selected course counter INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading
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10. VOR left-right deviation signals come from the

Your Answer:
VHF nav set CORRECT
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1. A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of

Your Answer:
84.4 seconds INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
84.4 minutes
Comment/Reference:

Page 86
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2. An IN system requires data from the

Your Answer:
Doppler system INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
air data computer
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3. When in manual mode, the C.D.U. alert lamp of the IN system will flash
Your Answer:
when an error is detected INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
two minutes before the next waypoint
Comment/Reference:

Page 89
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4. The output of an INS can be fed to

Your Answer:
attitude indicators CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

Page 85
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5. The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are mounted
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
parallel to each other INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
90 to each other
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6. A basic I.N.S. platform has

Your Answer:
3 accelerometers and 2 gyros (pitch and roll) INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
2 accelerometers and 3 gyros
Comment/Reference:

Page 78
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7. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies

Your Answer:
course directed by ground station INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
great circle arc
Comment/Reference:

Page 81
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8. What must be entered in to the I.N.S. before the aircraft moves?

Your Answer:
Waypoints INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Present position
Comment/Reference:

279
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9. Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to ATT REF is made
Your Answer:
when navigation information is lost CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

Page 85
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10.
For the INS, the Battery Unit provides standby

power
Your Answer:
only when on the ground, to maintain the alignment phase

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
both when airborne and on the ground
Comment/Reference:

Page 85
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1. The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from acceleration by

Your Answer:
a differential followed by an integration INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
two successive integrations
Comment/Reference:

Page 81
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2. Coriolis effect is corrected for by

Your Answer:
torquing the gyros INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs
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3. In an IN system, the output of the accelerometer is linear because of a

Your Answer:
force balance system CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

Page 76
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4. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted

Your Answer:
120 degrees apart INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
orthogonally
Comment/Reference:
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5. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to

Your Answer:
stop the gyros from toppling INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers
Comment/Reference:

Page 77
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6. The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a

Your Answer:
displacement gyro INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
rate integrating gyro
Comment/Reference:

Page 77
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7. Earth rate is approximately

Your Answer:
15 degrees per hour CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

Page 37
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8. In a gimbal system, the stable platform is the
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Your Answer:
roll gimbal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
azimuth gimbal
Comment/Reference:

Page 77/78
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9. To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform it is normal to use

Your Answer:
four gimbals CORRECT
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10. When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like a Schuler pendulum
Your Answer:
the platform rotates with respect to the aircraft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical
Comment/Reference:

Page 86
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1.
Function of ADF/VOR and DME in navigation system with reference to

aircraft and beacon is;
Your Answer:
the first provides distance between aircraft and beacon and

latter provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter
provides distance between aircraft and beacon
Comment/Reference:
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2. Which two frequencies are paired?

Your Answer:
Localizer and DME INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Glideslope and localizer
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3.
Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges of beam are apart at
the runway threshold by
Your Answer:
700 ft CORRECT
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4.
What happens if frequency decreases without altering the physical length of

aerial?
Your Answer:
The aerial becomes inductively reactive INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The aerial becomes capacitively reactive
Comment/Reference:
External website this link gives the formulas for inductive and
capacitive reactance so you can see that by simply reducing
the frequency the capacitive reactance will increase and
inductive reactance will decrease, hence the aerial becomes
capacitively reactive
000
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5.
Click the image for

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textbook shown
What happens if frequency increases without altering the physical length of

aerial?
Your Answer:
The aerial becomes inductively reactive CORRECT
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6.
Aerials provide optimum output at one particular frequency, when its load is
purely
Your Answer:
resistive CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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7. Most aerials are

Your Answer:
made from non-conductive material INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
bonded
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8. The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?

Your Answer:
Blue INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Amber
Comment/Reference:
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9. Laser gyros have

Your Answer:
no rotating parts INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
moving parts
Comment/Reference:

Wyatt page 207
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10. Laser gyros are aligned to

Your Answer:
true north INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
aircraft structure
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1. The three voltages of a three phase generator are

Your Answer:
90 degrees apart INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
120 degrees apart
Comment/Reference:
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2.
To restore the level of electrolyte which has been lost due to normal gassing
during battery charging
Your Answer:
electrolyte of the same specific gravity as that contained in the

battery must be added INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
distilled water must be added
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Comment/Reference:
CAIPS EEL/1-1 4.6.1
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3. A 12 volt lead-acid battery

Your Answer:
has 24 cells INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
has 6 cells
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-1 2.1
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4.
000
The active component of an A.C. circuit is 4 amps and the reactive is 3 amps.
Ammeter reading will be
Your Answer:
3.4 amps INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
5 amps
Comment/Reference:
Total current is the vector sum of active (real) and reactive

currents. 3, 4, 5 triangle in this case
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5. In a delta connected generator
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
line volts equals phase volts CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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6.
The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an

aircraft generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the
Your Answer:
speed at which the armature rotates INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
strength of the magnetic field
Comment/Reference:
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7. As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will
Your Answer:
remain constant and the amperage output will increase

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decrease and the amperage output will increase
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Comment/Reference:
Assuming no voltage regulator is considered, otherwise b is the

answer
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8. When checking the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a battery

Your Answer:
only the end cells need be checked as they contain the

terminals INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
each cell should be checked as the readings may differ
Comment/Reference:
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9. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the

Your Answer:
S.G. reaches 1.180 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-1 4.7
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10. Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V AC?
Your Answer:
Windscreen heating CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Any heating or lighting circuit can be frequency wild
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After engine start using a Ni-Cad battery, the pilot observes on the battery
1. charger indicator, an initial high current draw followed by a rapid decrease
in current
Your Answer:
no cause for concern CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
This is normal
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2. Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ

Your Answer:
is only allowed in the shop INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
is not allowed
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Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-3 Para

6.4.
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3. In a lead-acid battery after numerous checks, one cell has low reading.
Your Answer:
It needs topping up INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
It is defective
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4.
000
A short range passenger aircraft has complete electrical failure. What time
duration would the battery be expected to power essential equipment?
Your Answer:
60 minutes INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
30 minutes
Comment/Reference:
AWN 81 para 3.1.2 - now transferred to CAP 747 GR no 4
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5. An external power plug has two short pins. These are used for
Your Answer:
a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the interlock circuit
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page

290
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details of the
textbook shown
6. The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is

Your Answer:
to monitor total current load INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 51 and

52
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7. To confirm the state of charge of a ni-cad battery

Your Answer:
subject the battery to load, check voltage and check the SG of

each cell INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
measure the discharge time
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Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.6 and 4.7
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8. Circulating currents are associated with

Your Answer:
AC generators in parallel CORRECT
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9. Generator brush bedding

Your Answer:
should not be done on the aircraft CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-4 4.3.6 (Does not say that it cannot be done on

the aircraft - but would be difficult)
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10. A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause

Your Answer:
one generator to always come on line before the other

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time
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1. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the

Your Answer:
SG and voltage remain constant for specified period CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-1 4.4.8 and Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition

Page 23
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2. A diode across a contactor

Your Answer:
reduces contact arcing CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
External website... Para 7.1
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3. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant

Your Answer:
current CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-3.
4.5.1
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4. The power supply for aircraft is

Your Answer:
28VDC, 115VAC, 400Hz CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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5. On a Direct Current circuit, Current Limiters

Your Answer:
prevent overheating by limiting current to load CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, pg 201
000
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6. When a current transformer is disconnected from its load
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
a resistor should be placed across the terminals INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the terminals should be shorted together
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems, EHJ Pallett page 61
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7. Where is a commutator found?

Your Answer:
A DC alternator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
A DC generator
Comment/Reference:
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8. Calculate the battery terminal voltage of a NiCad battery with 15 cells

Your Answer:
30 V INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
18 V
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Comment/Reference:
15 x 1.2V = 18V
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9. Reactive electrical loads are adjusted by

Your Answer:
varying the frequency circuit INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
adjustment of the regulator output
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 50/51
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10. IDG oil is used for

Your Answer:
internal hydraulic functions only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
cooling, lubrication and internal hydraulic functions
Comment/Reference:
B737 AMM 24-11-00 Pg1 (Config 1) or 24-11-00 Pg6 (Config 2)

(Download from the Tutorial Support section)
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1. Trip signals for a GCR are

Your Answer:
overfrequency and undervoltage INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
differential protection and undervoltage
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2.
Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing

indications of
Your Answer:
High oil temperature / low oil quantity INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
high oil temperature / low oil pressure
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Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook , page 7-50
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3. Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with

Your Answer:
PVC INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Teflon
Comment/Reference:
This is probably referring to the Teflon tape referred to in

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics by Eismin 5th Edition Page
69.
Also AC43 Para.11.96 z and Appendix 1 (Teflon is Dupont
tradename for PTFE).
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4.
000
High voltages on a generator in a parallel system should be prevented

because
Your Answer:
it will damage the drive shaft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
it will cause high circulating current in the bus / other generators
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5.
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time taken to trip the GCU
depends on
Your Answer:
time delay circuit INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
amplitude of voltage
Comment/Reference:
Inverse time delay - 'time delay circuit' could also be

considered correct. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin,
page 203
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6. Speed of an HMG is controlled by a

Your Answer:
ID unit INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
swashplate
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7. Circulating currents are caused by unbalanced

Your Answer:
AC and DC generators INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
AC generators
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'Balancing' refers to three phase generators. Hence AC
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8. A permanent magnet should have

Your Answer:
low retentivity, low coercivity INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
high retentivity, low coercivity
Comment/Reference:
A permanent magnet should have a low coercivity (so it is easy

to magnetise) and high retentivity (so it is difficult to
demagnetise)
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9. Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to

Your Answer:
excessive charging voltage INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
excessive charging current
Comment/Reference:
Excessive charge current will cause bubbling and evaporation

of the electrolyte
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10.
What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes

overheated?
Your Answer:
The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
B737 switches to trickle charge. However, see Pallett Aircraft

Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Figure 1.32 for charger
disconnect system
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1.
In a merz-price protection system of a single phase, if when a fault occurs

only one relay contactor opens,
Your Answer:
then it is probable that one of the relays has failed short circuit
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
only the relay on the side which has the fault will energise
Comment/Reference:
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2. A fuse-type current limiter

Your Answer:
limits current flow to a load INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded
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Comment/Reference:
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See Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 112, or,
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin Page 99. However,
another type of current limiter holds the current but does not
open the circuit. See Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin
Page 202.
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3. When a load is shed from a busbar, the

Your Answer:
current consumption from the bar decreases CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, Page 241. Load

shedding reduces current consumption
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4.
In unparalleled AC generation systems, the phase rotation of one generator

in relation to the others
Your Answer:
is unimportant CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Phase relationship is unimportant in an unparalleled system

(although answer b says it will be paralleled, thereby changing
the question???)
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5.
In a multi-generator system, the generator which takes more than its

reactive power share is protected by
Your Answer:
over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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details of the
textbook shown
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6.
In a pulsed width modulating type voltage regulator, the generator output

voltage is increased by
Your Answer:
decreasing the mark to space ratio INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increasing the mark to space ratio
Comment/Reference:
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7. Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC generators is controlled by

Your Answer:
Comment/Reference:
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equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the

generators CORRECT
Changing the speed would also change the frequency and thus
the phase relationship. Generators are always controlled by
adjusting the field strength
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8. Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by

Your Answer:
rotating field diode failure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
weak spring tension
Comment/Reference:
Weak spring tension of the brushes can cause excessive

sparking
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9. Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from an aircraft

Your Answer:
carry out a capacity test INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
take the temperature of the electrolyte
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-1
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10. On an AC external power plug, the interlock circuit is controlled by pins

Your Answer:
AB INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
EF
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page

72
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1.
What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative density
of a lead acid battery?
Your Answer:
The temperature CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
The temperature changes the volume. SG = mass/volume
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2. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking

Your Answer:
one cell at a time until all cells are completed CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Ni-cad battery cells are isolated from each other. All cells must
be checked
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3. Distilled water should be added to a ni-cad battery

Your Answer:
only in the battery workshop CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIP EEL/1-3 para 4
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4. Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates

Your Answer:
low electrolyte temperature INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
excessive charging current
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Page 7-31, 7-32
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5. During a normal engine shutdown, generator tripping is initiated by

Your Answer:
underfrequency INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
undervoltage
Comment/Reference:
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textbook shown
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6. What would you use to neutralise nicad battery spillage?

Your Answer:
Boric acid CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Boric acid
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7.
Before operating generators in parallel, their voltages should be matched to

prevent
Your Answer:
large circulating currents developing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines
Comment/Reference:

52.
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8. Consumer loads are connected to a busbar

Your Answer:
in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
All loads are connected in parallel with each

other
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9.
A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of a generator is

for
Your Answer:
negative sequence protection INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
differential current protection
Comment/Reference:
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10. Differential protection as applied to AC generation systems compares

Your Answer:
generator voltage to busbar voltage INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
generator current to busbar current
Comment/Reference:

121
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1. Sparking in a generator would be caused by

Your Answer:
low spring tension CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Sparking can be caused by low spring tension
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2. In an AC generation system, the frequency and phase rotation

Your Answer:
must be synchronised prior to paralleling CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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3.
What should be done to a transformer secondary connections which are

open circuit?
Your Answer:
Put a set resistance across the terminals INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Leave the terminals open circuit
Comment/Reference:
The secondary of a transformer should always be open circuit

or on load (except for a current transformer, which should be
shorted).
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4. Diodes are placed across a contactor to

Your Answer:
ensure smooth contactor operation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
speed up operation by reducing back EMF
Comment/Reference:
External website... Para 7.1
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5. Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will
000
Your Answer:
isolate the battery from the main busbar CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
The Battery master switch simply connects the battery to the

main busbar, allowing it to be charged from the generator(s).
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6.
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators, it is

important to maintain generator outputs at the same voltage
Your Answer:
to prevent CSD shock loading INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude

developing between two or more generators
Comment/Reference:
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7. A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field

Your Answer:
uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin page 199200
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8. CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally indicate

Your Answer:
low oil pressure, low oil temperature INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
low oil pressure, high oil temperature
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Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook , page 7-50
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9.
The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is

controlled by
Your Answer:
an IDG INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
an hydraulically actuated swash plate
Comment/Reference:
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10. An AC generator used with a CSD

Your Answer:
does not need a voltage controller because voltage is kept

constant INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing

load
Comment/Reference:
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1. Over-voltage protection circuits are activated

Your Answer:
after a fixed time delay INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage
Comment/Reference:

119
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2. A diode connected across a coil will

Your Answer:
prevent back EMF and allow faster switching INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
suppress arching when relay is opening and closing
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Comment/Reference:
External website... Para

7.1
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3. Differential protection in a generating system

Your Answer:
detects current difference between source and load CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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4. Open phase sensing on a current transformer

Your Answer:
is detected on generator neutral circuit CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121, & B737
Manual
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5. To flash a generator field the

Your Answer:
generator rotates but is not on line INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
generator must be stationary
Comment/Reference:
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details of the
textbook shown
6. Voltage is controlled by
Your Answer:
the constant speed drive INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the voltage regulator
Comment/Reference:
The voltage is controlled by the voltage regulator.
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7. The ground interlock pins are numbered

Your Answer:
E and F CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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8. A GCR will trip if what is detected?

Your Answer:
Over frequency and under current INCORRECT
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Correct Answer:
Over current and over frequency
Comment/Reference:
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9.
In a vibrator type voltage regulator the resistor

is
Your Answer:
in series with the field CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett 3rd Edition Page 11.

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10.
When changing the brushes on a DC generator, the brushes must be

bedded first. This can be done
Your Answer:
with the generator fitted to the aircraft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the
bench
Comment/Reference:
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Generator brushes are never bedded in on aircraft because an

engine driven genny has too high an rpm and the brushes
would glaze the commutator and render the genny unusable
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1. A silver oxide cell has a voltage of

Your Answer:
1.55 V INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1.85 V
Comment/Reference:
External website...
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2. Lithium cells
Your Answer:
have an unlimited re-charge cycle capacity INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
are not rechargeable
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Comment/Reference:
External website...
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3. On a split bus electrical system, the bus tie breakers are

Your Answer:
only closed in an emergency INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
always open in flight
Comment/Reference:

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4. Parallel electrical system bus tie breakers are
000
Your Answer:
closed on ground and open in flight INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
always closed in flight
Comment/Reference:
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5. The aircraft's structure is used as a return path for
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
DC only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
both AC and DC
Comment/Reference:
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6. When a current transformer is disconnected, what should be done?

Your Answer:
Resistor placed across terminals INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Terminals shorted
Comment/Reference:
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7. What does the differential sensing coil sense?

Your Answer:
Power INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Current
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Comment/Reference:
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8.
If, on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently low.

Battery needs
Your Answer:
replacing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
recharging
Comment/Reference:
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question
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9. What happens when battery master is switched off in flight?

Your Answer:
No effect INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Battery is disconnected from charge circuit
Comment/Reference:
If the generator is functional, switching the battery switch to

OFF isolates the battery bus bar and prevents the battery
charging
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question
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10. Galley loads are wired in

Your Answer:
Comment/Reference:
parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption

CORRECT
All loads on an aircraft are wired in
parallel
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question
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1. When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery, the SG will

Your Answer:
decrease CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Since volume increases, but mass remains constant, with

temperature, density decreases.
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question
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2. A CSD is monitored for

Your Answer:
high temperature and low oil pressure CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett third Edition Pg. 37
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question
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3. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by

Your Answer:
high charge current INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
excessive electrical loading
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett 3rd Edition page 21
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question
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4.
The specific gravity readings of a lead-acid cell taken twice after charging
shows a substantially lower value.
Your Answer:
You replace the cell INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Cell is defective
Comment/Reference:
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question
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5. IDG output voltage
000
Your Answer:
voltage is regulated by IDG INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
voltage is regulated by GCU
Comment/Reference:
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6.
Click the image for
details of the
textbook shown
On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting, where would you

adjust it?
Your Answer:
By means of a remote trimmer CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Adjusted with a remote trimmer.
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question
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7. Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is

Your Answer:
by angle of swash plate CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Control of an HPG is via a swashplate
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question
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8. In a modern aircraft, power distribution of generators are controlled by

Your Answer:
PCDU (power control distribution unit) INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
BPCU
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Comment/Reference:
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9. When a ni-cad battery is fully charged

Your Answer:
the electrolyte level is higher level than normal CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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question
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A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120VAC in its primary and has 1600
10. Ohms resistance in its secondary. What is the current drawn from the
source?
Your Answer:
0.3 A INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1.2 A
Comment/Reference:
Find current in secondary I = V/R = 480/1600 = 3/10A. Next

find current in Primary = 4 x 3/10 = 12/10 = 1.2A
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1. Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline battery

Your Answer:
when the battery is fully charged INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
in the charging room only
Comment/Reference:
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2. When removing the load from a current transformer

Your Answer:
leave the terminals open INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
short the terminals
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett Page 61
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3. On AC ground power the interlock system is operated by pins

Your Answer:
A and B INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
E and F
Comment/Reference:
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question
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4. Pitot tubes are heated by

Your Answer:
AC or DC CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett 3rd

edition Page 32.
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question
000
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5. When paralleling two AC generators
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in

either ABC or CBA INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on

in sequence ABC
Comment/Reference:
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6. Paralleling is used for

Your Answer:
DC electrical generators only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
AC and DC electrical generators
Comment/Reference:
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7. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA

Your Answer:
Chapter 24 Section 31 CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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question
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8. In a carbon pile regulator, the resistive element is

Your Answer:
in series with the field and changes resistance with changing

length INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area
contact
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.1
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9. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is

Your Answer:
115 degrees C INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
46 degrees C
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems By Pallett Page 31
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10. If an aircraft has no battery charger, the battery is charged by

Your Answer:
constant current INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
constant voltage
Comment/Reference:
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1. What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?

Your Answer:
To speed up the operation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil
Comment/Reference:
The diode is to prevent the high current flow in the coil due to
induction as the relay switches off
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2. Eddy currents are

Your Answer:
caused by resistance of the coil INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
circulating currents
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Comment/Reference:
External website...
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3. The small pins in the power connector plug are

Your Answer:
positive CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 70
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4. When an overvolt is present on an AC generator system, the tripping circuit

Your Answer:
trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt

amplitude CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 119/120
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question
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5. In an AC distribution system, the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to

Your Answer:
provide interconnection between the generator load busbars

CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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6. Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is

Click the image for
details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
across the generator output CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-2 Page 5, Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 11.
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7.
A current transformer connected across the neutral of a 3 phase generator is

for
Your Answer:
differential protection CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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8. Zener diodes are for

Your Answer:
voltage stabilisation INCORRECT
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Correct Answer:
voltage regulation
Comment/Reference:
An old Module 4 question. Although Zener diodes can be used

(back-to-back) to protect equipment from voltage spikes
(voltage stabilisation) they are more commonly associated with
voltage regulation.
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9. AC generator output indications are measured in

Your Answer:
KW & KVAR CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
An AC generator is rated in KVA and KW (or KVA and power

factor, from which KW can be calculated). However, flightdeck
indications are KVAR and KW.
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10.
A shunt wound generator fitted on an aircraft, a preset potentiometer is

fitted
Your Answer:
in parallel with the field winding INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
in series with the field winding
Comment/Reference:
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1.
If the output of the generator starts to fall, a pulse width modulated field
supply will
Your Answer:
decrease the mark-to-space ratio INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increase the mark-to-space ratio
Comment/Reference:
An increased mark-to-space ratio increases the generator

output
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2. In a starter generator, which coil is used for starting?

Your Answer:
Shunt, series and compensating windings CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 157
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3.
If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment,

which procedure should be followed?
Your Answer:
Rinse the affected area thoroughly with clean water

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected area followed

by a water rinse
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-1 4.1.4
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4.
000
Which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a lead-acid storage

battery electrolyte is true?
Your Answer:
The hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the

capacity of the battery regardless of the electrolyte temperature
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature

correction if the electrolyte temperature is 60F
Comment/Reference:
Report problem with
question
CAIPS EEL/1-1 4.3.4 (American Text such as Jeppesen AandP

Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-27 specify 80F as the
standard, but CAIPs specifies 60F as standard - take your pick)
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5.
Click the image for
details of the
textbook shown
An increase in the speed of a DC generator will cause the voltage to rise with
the following resultant action in the voltage regulator:-
Your Answer:
The volts coil to exert more pull thus increasing the current in
the generator field INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus decreasing the
field excitation
Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-2 3.1.1
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6. The equalizing coils on voltage regulators will

Your Answer:
Comment/Reference:
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be connected to each other when the generators are paralleled

CORRECT
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Thomas Eismin 5th Edition
page 200
Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Pages 15 and 16
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7.
A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze until extremely low
temperatures are reached because
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Your Answer:
increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to

prevent freezing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
most of the acid is in the solution
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-1 4.6.2
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8.
What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery
while it is being charged by a constant voltage source?
Your Answer:
The ampere-hour capacity of the battery INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The state-of-charge of the battery
Comment/Reference:
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9. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes

Your Answer:
constant current and constant voltage INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
constant voltage and varying current
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 52. CAIPs EEL/13 4.5.1
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The presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate deposits on the top

10. of nickel-cadmium battery cells that have been in service for time is an
indication of
Your Answer:
excessive gassing CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 23 and Aircraft Electricity and

Electronics Eismin Page 50 but see also CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.2 (h)
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1. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is

Your Answer:
stationary CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.1.1
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2. In a transistor voltage regulator, the voltage output is controlled by

Your Answer:
transformers and transistors INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
zeners and transistors
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Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.3.1
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3. Increasing the real load primarily

Your Answer:
decreases output voltage INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decreases frequency
Comment/Reference:
Increasing the current drawn will initially decrease the voltage

(before the voltage regulator kicks in) and decrease the
frequency (due to dragging the generator torque), before the
load controller kicks in.
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4. Inductive reactive load causes
000
Your Answer:
no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated

CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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5. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of

Your Answer:
apparent power from the generator that does work INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
real power from the generator that does work
Comment/Reference:
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details of the
textbook shown
6. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to

Your Answer:
prevent engine overload INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
enable generators to be paralleled
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page

37
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7.
In an undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely

consequence is
Your Answer:
activation of the time delay circuit CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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8.
If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be

an indication that the
Your Answer:
phase sequence detection circuit has operated INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
CSD driveshaft had sheared
Comment/Reference:
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9. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft, they are connected in

Your Answer:
series INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
either parallel or series and switched between as an option
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett Page 23/26/27
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10. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?

Your Answer:
Positive to external power relay CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett Page 70
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1. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in

Your Answer:
parallel INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
either parallel or series and switched between as an option
Comment/Reference:
Option is available on some aircraft e.g. Shorts Skyvan (please

report other examples you know of).
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2. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?

Your Answer:
Positive to battery relay INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Positive to external power relay
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett. Page 70
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3. Load shedding allows

Your Answer:
more current to the busbar INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
less current to the busbar
Comment/Reference:
Load shedding is carried out to reduce current (voltage is

constant).
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4. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is

Your Answer:
115F CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems By Pallett Page 31
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5. How may the output of a transistorised voltage regulator be described?
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
Variable AC INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Pulse width modulated DC
Comment/Reference:
A voltage regulator has two outputs, one to the generator field

(pulse width modulated on a transistorised regulator) and one
to the busbar (constant voltage but variable current depending
on load). The answer here depends upon which output they are
referring.
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6. If an aircraft has no battery charger, the battery is charged by

Your Answer:
constant voltage CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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7.
In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC split bus-bar

generation system, how is power maintained to the essential AC bus-bar?
Your Answer:
By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 78 Fig. 5.2
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8. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA
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Your Answer:
Chapter 31 Section 21 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Chapter 24 Section 31
Comment/Reference:
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9. In a carbon pile regulator, the resistive element is

Your Answer:
in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing

length INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area
contact
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.1
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10. In what units are static inverters rated?

Your Answer:
kVA CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
VA or KVA, just like an AC generator
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1. A vibrating type voltage regulator uses a volts coil

Your Answer:
in series with the current coil INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
in parallel with the generator output
Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-2 3.2.1
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2. The purpose of the economy contacts in a relay is to

Your Answer:
close the auxiliary contacts before the main contacts

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed
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Comment/Reference:
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3. A vibrating contact voltage regulator has

Your Answer:
a volts coil in parallel with the points INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a resister in parallel with the points
Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-2 Figure 3
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4. Brush bedding-in on a starter generator can be carried out

Your Answer:
only off the aircraft CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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5. Tripping the GCR will
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
trip the GCB INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
both (a) and (b)
Comment/Reference:
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6. In a synchronous motor the rotor is

Your Answer:
excited by DC CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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7. The difference between synchronous speed and rotor speed is called

Your Answer:
loss INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
slip
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Pg 185
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8. A squirrel cage rotor will be found in
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Your Answer:
a hysteresis motor INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
an induction motor
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Pg 184
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9. What would be the cause of a low electrolyte level in a nicad battery?

Your Answer:
Evaporation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Over charging current
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1.3 Page 3 Para 3.4.1
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10. An AC generator connected to a CSD requires

Your Answer:
no voltage regulator as the CSD will control the voltage

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a separate voltage regulator
Comment/Reference:
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1. The economy coil on a relay

Your Answer:
reduces current required to close INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
reduces current required to hold closed
Comment/Reference:
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2. What does a current limiter fuse do?

Your Answer:
React when the circuit gets warm INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Limit current to a predetermined level to prevent circuit damage
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 99, Aircraft

Electrical Systems Pallett Page 112, CAIPs EEL/1-9 Para 3.2
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3. What is the function of the generator control relay?

Your Answer:
Bring the generator on-line CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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4. The current consumed by a DC starter motor will

Your Answer:
remain constant INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decrease as the engine speed increases
Comment/Reference:
Decreases due to the back EMF as engine speed increases
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question
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5. A neutralising agent for sulphuric acid is

Your Answer:
citric acid INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
sodium bicarbonate
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook p 7-30 refers
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question
Click the image for
details of the
textbook shown
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6. In a split bus power distribution system

Your Answer:
power is split between 115V AC and 28V DC INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in

normal operation
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, 5th Edition, Eismin. Pg 238
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7. Flashing a generator field

Your Answer:
decreases resistance INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
restores magnetism
Comment/Reference:
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8.
When checking SG of electrolyte of lead acid battery, what should be taken

into account?
Your Answer:
Electrolyte temperature CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-1 4.3.4
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9. How do you check condition of Ni-Cad battery in situ?

Your Answer:
By voltmeter connected to the battery terminal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
By voltmeter in the cockpit, when battery is on load
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 23
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10. The reactive load circuit in a multi-engined AC generator system

Your Answer:
modifies generator field excitation current CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page

49
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1. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is

Your Answer:
fluctuating INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
stationary
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-2
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question
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2. In a transistor voltage regulator, the voltage output is controlled by

Your Answer:
zeners and transistors CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.3.1
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question
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3. Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by

Your Answer:
current coil INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
voltage and current coil
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems by Pallett page 70/71 fig 4.5
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4.
000
The control of a hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator

frequency is by
Your Answer:
restriction valve INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
angle of swash plate
Comment/Reference:
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question
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5.
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
How is real and reactive load sharing achieved in an AC parallel generator

system?
Your Answer:
Real and reactive loads by control of the constant speed drives

only. Output voltage is controlled by adjustment of generator
fields INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Real load by control of the constant speed drives, reactive load

by adjustment of generator fields
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett page 48 and 49
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6. On engine shutdown, what prevents GCR being tripped?

Your Answer:
Under-current INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Under-frequency
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett page 120
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7. In a generator system, a stability winding is used

Your Answer:
to prevent voltage overshoot CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-2 3.4.5 (d)
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8. Differential protection in an AC system protects against

Your Answer:
line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults CORRECT
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9. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be

Your Answer:
rotating at idle INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
stationary
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10. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to

Your Answer:
prevent engine overload INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
enable generators to be paralleled
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1. How is RAT driven?

Your Answer:
Airstream CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Ram Air
Turbine
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2. How is an aircraft battery rated?

Your Answer:
Ampere hours CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircrfat Electrical Systems Pallett Page 21
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3. What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery?

Your Answer:
Fluctuations in the terminal voltage INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 23
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4. How is the output of a constant speed drive fed AC generator controlled?

Your Answer:
Hydraulic feedback to a governor INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
By a swashplate
Comment/Reference:
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5. What should be taken into account when measuring the SG of a battery?

000
Your Answer:
Charge state of the battery INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Electrolyte temperature
Comment/Reference:
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6. DC power into the GCU comes from

Click the image for
details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
main battery bus CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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7.
A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor driving a constant load will

result in
Your Answer:
reduced torque and increased speed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increased torque and speed
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 138 (reduces Back EMF)
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8. Speed control on an emergency hydraulic driven generator is via the

Your Answer:
IDG INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
swash plate
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9. What are the 2 short prongs on an AC plug for?

Your Answer:
Comment/Reference:
To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection

CORRECT
The short prongs are for DC. Aircraft Electrical System, Pallett
pg 72
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10. A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a shunt winding and a

Your Answer:
voltage regulating coil in parallel INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
voltage regulating coil in series
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett Page 11

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1.
In a undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely

consequence is
Your Answer:
energise the bus tie relay INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
activation of the time delay circuit
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2.

Your Answer:
bus tie interlock is inoperative INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
CSD driveshaft had sheared
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3.
Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load

increases, generator output voltage will
Your Answer:
remain constant and amperage output increases CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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4.
000
Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft battery or its charging system,
when is the charger switched off automatically?
Your Answer:
When the battery is used for excessively high discharge

currents such as in starting CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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5. The trimmer resister in a carbon pile volts regulator is

Your Answer:
in series with the generator field INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
in series with the generator volts coil
Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-2 Fig 1
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6. When a field relay trips the generator off-line, it can be reset

Your Answer:
on the ground only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
after the fault has been cleared
Comment/Reference:
Boeing opps manual states that you are allowed to attempt to

reset the field after checking all parameters are now normal, as
it may have been a transient fault Boe 747 classic 10.20.02
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7. When loads are shed from a busbar automatically

Your Answer:
bus bar voltage rises INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
bus bar current decreases
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8. What controls output from the generator?

Your Answer:
GCU CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, has full descriptions

of all 3 units.
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9. Specific Gravity in a lead acid battery should give an indication of

Your Answer:
electrolyte temperature INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
charge
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10. During normal engine shut-down, the generator

Your Answer:
control relay is tripped only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
breaker is tripped only
Comment/Reference:
B737 AMM 24-21-00 Page 21 Para I

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1. During a system overload, load shedding will first affect

Your Answer:
IFE INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
galley services
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics (Fifth Edition), Eismin, page

241
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2. A RAT provides AC power of around

Your Answer:
28 VAC INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
7.5 kVA
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3.

Your Answer:
bus tie interlock is inoperative INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
CSD drive shaft has sheared
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics (Fifth Edition), Eismin, Page

221
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4. Paralleling in AC constant frequency is effected by
000
Your Answer:
Bus Tie Bar (BTB) CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

239
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5. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of

Your Answer:
apparent power from the generator that does work INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
real power from the generator that does work
Comment/Reference:

90
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6. Parallel distribution systems can typically be found on all

Your Answer:
twin-engined aircraft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
aircraft with 3 or more engines
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics (Fifth edition), Eismin, page

238
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7. Aircraft generators are connected in

Your Answer:
series to the busbar, parallel to the load and the loads parallel
to each other INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
series to the busbar, series to the load and the loads parallel to
each other
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and electronics, (Fifth edition), Eismin, page

235, figure 12-4
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8. Non-essential loads such as galleys and cabin lighting operate from the
Your Answer:
Ground handling bus INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Transfer bus
Comment/Reference:
Boeing System
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9. The generator warning light will come on when

Your Answer:
voltage is below battery voltage CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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10. When replacing a current transformer

Your Answer:
voltage/current selection must be made prior to fitting

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
it can only be fitted one way round
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1. Battery SG is measured using a

Your Answer:
hygrometer INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
hydrometer
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2.
A battery for use on aircraft must have a capacity

of
Your Answer:
80% CORRECT
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3. When connecting aircraft batteries, the last lead to connect is the

Your Answer:
positive earth INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
negative
Comment/Reference:
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4. Battery capacity is checked by
000
Your Answer:
discharging while maintaining the voltage constant by varying a

resistor in the circuit and checking the time to be discharged
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
discharging at a constant current and checking the time taken

to reach the discharged state
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5. The frequency of an AC generator is dependant on the
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
number of conductors and the field strength INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor
Comment/Reference:
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6.
To adjust the voltage output of an AC generator, whilst maintaining constant

frequency, it is necessary to
Your Answer:
alter the driving speed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
alter the field current
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7. In a paralleled AC generation system load sharing is for

Your Answer:
real and reactive load CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems, EHJ Pallett page 48 & 49
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8. Single phase components in a 3 phase system may be connected between

Your Answer:
phases A and B only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
any phase and earth or between any two phases
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9. A frequency wild supply would be suitable for

Your Answer:
deicing loads CORRECT
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10. Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in series would give

Your Answer:
36V 120Ah INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
36V 40Ah
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1.
If a nickel cadmium aircraft battery is not required for immediate service, it

should be stored
Your Answer:
in the fully discharged condition CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-3 8
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2.
The correct way to determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium

battery is
Your Answer:
by a complete discharge and a measured recharge CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-3 4.5.6
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3.
A DC generator will be connected to the busbar after the RCCO contacts

close due to
Your Answer:
increasing battery voltage INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increasing generator voltage
Comment/Reference:
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4. Spillage of a lead acid electrolyte is detected by
000
Your Answer:
indicating paper that turns red CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Acid turns litmus paper red
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5. To restore electrolyte after spillage
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
add a mixture of acid and water of the same s.g. as that in the
battery CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-3, 4.3
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6. When a DC generator fails, the pilot will receive the following indications:Your Answer:
An audio bell and red PFWL INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL
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7. The purpose of an inverter is to convert

Your Answer:
AC to DC INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
DC to AC
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8.
With a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator the adjustment of generator

voltage is carried out by
Your Answer:
alteration of the field resistance INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
alteration of contact spring tension
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 12, and Aircraft

Electricity and Electronics - Eismin Page 199
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9. GCU power derives its power supply from

Your Answer:
generator's own supply INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
initially a trickle voltage from the permanent magnet
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10. GCU is reset

Your Answer:
automatically INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
manually
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1. To prevent corrosion at the terminals of a lead-acid battery

Your Answer:
copper connectors are used INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-1 4.2 (vi)
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2.
Before taking S.G. readings of a lead-acid battery recently removed from an

aircraft
Your Answer:
a period of 1 hour should have elapsed to allow the S.G. to

stabilize INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the electrolyte temperature must be noted
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3. The output of a DC generator is controlled by varying the

Your Answer:
armature current INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
field current
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4.
000
A generator rated at 30 kVA power factor 0.8 has a maximum continuous

power output of
Your Answer:
30 kW INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
24 kW
Comment/Reference:
PF = TP/AP 0.8 = TP/30 TP = 24
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5. The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery

Your Answer:
remains constant with changes in the state of charge but is a

useful guide to the amount of acid contained in the electrolyte
INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of

the state of charge
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6.
A battery which is assumed to be 100% efficient and to have a capacity of

60 ampere-hours at the 10 hour rate will deliver
Your Answer:
60 amps for 10 hours or 6 amps for 10 hours depending upon

the rate of demand INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
6 amps for 10 hours
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7. Small pins on an AC GPU receptacle

Your Answer:
prevent arcing when inserting or removing the connector

CORRECT
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8. Constant speed drive is monitored in the cockpit for

Your Answer:
oil pressure and quantity INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
low oil pressure and high oil temperature
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9. Two 12V 25 ampere batteries connected in series will produce

Your Answer:
12V with 50 ampere hour capacity INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
24V with 25 ampere hour capacity
Comment/Reference:
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10. As an installed battery becomes fully charged by the aircraft generator

Your Answer:
the generator voltage decreases to supply the steadily

decreasing current INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging

current decreases
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1. Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in parallel would give

Your Answer:
36V 120Ah INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
12V 120Ah
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2. An inverter can be an AC generator driven by

Your Answer:
either an AC or DC motor INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a DC motor
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3. When mixing electrolyte for lead acid batteries

Your Answer:
add acid to water CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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4. The RPM of a 6 pole, 400 Hz alternator is

Your Answer:
4000 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
8000
Comment/Reference:
400/3 x 60
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5. The ratio between apparent power and true power is the

Your Answer:
power rating INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
power factor
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6. Apparent power is measured in

Your Answer:
Volt Amps CORRECT
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7.
A Ni-Cad battery consists of 19, 1.2 volt cells. What will be the nominal
battery output?
Your Answer:
22V CORRECT
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8. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant
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Your Answer:
voltage INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
current
Comment/Reference:
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9. When the GPU is connected to the aircraft

Your Answer:
it is paralleled with the aircraft generator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator
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A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series (no-load voltage = 2.1

10. volts per cell) furnishes 10 amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. The
internal resistance of the battery in this instance is
Your Answer:
0.52 ohms CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
OCV = 2.1 x 12 = 25.2 CCV = 10 x 2 = 20. Internal voltage

drop = 5.2 V. Internal R=V/I = 5.2/10 = 0.52
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1.
The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries

together in the same service area is likely to result in
Your Answer:
normal battery service life INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
contamination of both types of batteries
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/2-1 Page 1 Para 2.11
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If the current drawn from No.1 generator of a twin generator DC system is

2. less than that drawn from No.2 generator, the current in the No.2 generator
equalizing coil will flow
Your Answer:
in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil,

increasing the output of No.2 generator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil,

reducing the output of No.2 generator
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Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.2 (h)
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3.
On a C.S. driven generator, operation of the Disconnect Solenoid will

disconnect the generator drive and
Your Answer:
it will automatically reset itself when the fault is rectified

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
resetting can only be carried out on the ground
Comment/Reference:
B737 AMM 24-11-00 Pg10 (Download from the Tutorial Support

section).
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4.
000
In a constant frequency AC system, real load sharing is achieved by

regulating the
Your Answer:
generator drive torque INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
generator speed
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 48-49
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5. A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
for when it is disconnected from the generator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
for low oil pressure
Comment/Reference:
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6. The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is

Your Answer:
in a discharged condition CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-3
3.4.2
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7.
Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will
show a low fluid level because the
Your Answer:
fluid evaporates through vents INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates
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Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen AandP Technician Airframe Textbook page 7-32 and

7-33. a) could also be correct
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8. The purpose of an inverter is to convert

Your Answer:
DC to AC CORRECT
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9.
What is the purpose of the current transformer on a Neutral phase of an AC

generator?
Your Answer:
Differential protection CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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10. How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium battery be determined?

Your Answer:
By the level of the electrolyte INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
By measuring discharge
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.6
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1. The rating of an aircraft alternator is 40 KVA at PF 0.8 lagging.

Your Answer:
The maximum load under all conditions is 40KW. INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
The maximum load permitted is 32KW
Comment/Reference:
PF = TP/AP 0.8 = TP/40 AP = 40 x 0.8 = 32 KW
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2. An I.D.G (integrated drive generator)

Your Answer:
incorporates the alternator and CSD as one unit CORRECT
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3.
A P.M.G (Permanent Magnet Generator) is a small built in generator

which
Your Answer:
provides initial excitation CORRECT
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4.
To parallel an alternator with another alternator the alternators must have

the same
Your Answer:
frequency, voltage and phase relationship CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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5. Speed of an alternator may be controlled by

Your Answer:
CSDU (constant speed drive unit) CORRECT
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6. The real load of an alternator is directly related to

Your Answer:
output voltage INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
output shaft torque
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7.
How is initial voltage build-up ensured in a brushless generating system,

before full output is available from the voltage regulator?
Your Answer:
Excitation form the DC busbars is automatically provided during

the start sequence INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles
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8. Insulation resistance of electrical machines is

Your Answer:
normally lower when the machine is hot INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
normally higher when the machine is hot
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9. The purpose of a thermistor in a brushless AC generator is to

Your Answer:
compensate for temperature changes in the main AC stator

windings INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying

temperatures
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 45 and diagram.
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10.
One lamp is connected across corresponding phases of two alternators.

They will be synchronised when
Your Answer:
the lamp is either at maximum brightness or is extinguished

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the lamp is extinguished
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1. The danger of random paralleling is the possibility of
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crash engagement CORRECT
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2. What is monitored in a constant speed drive?
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Hi oil temperature and low oil press CORRECT
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3. The CSD or IDG speed governor setting

Your Answer:
is not allowed to be adjusted INCORRECT
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is adjusted with the engine stationary
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4. An external ground power supply can be used for

Your Answer:
only the ground handling busbar services INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
all normal services required by flight and ground crew
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5. The impedance on a run of co-axial cable is
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inversely proportional to the length of cable INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
not affected by length of cable
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6. Galley loads are supplied from the
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main bus bar CORRECT
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7. A ni-cad battery is stored in the

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fully discharged condition CORRECT
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8. A 6-diode Transformer rectifier unit (TRU) changes

Your Answer:
three phase AC to direct current CORRECT
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CAAIPS Leaflet 6-4 Page 13

Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Pages 6567
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9. A frequency wild AC generator is used for
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deicing loads CORRECT
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10.
What should you do if the electrolyte is found to be low in one cell of a lead
acid battery?
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Top-up the individual cell with distilled water CORRECT
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1. Battery charging on an aircraft

Your Answer:
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may produce excessive charging initially, especially if the

battery charge is low CORRECT
Assuming no charger is used (none is mentioned in the
question).
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2. A vibrating contact voltage regulator

Your Answer:
has a resistor in series with the voltage coil INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
has a resistor in parallel with the two contacts
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EEL/1-2 fig 3
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3.
On a DC shunt generator without a voltage regulator, if the load increases

the generator output voltage will
Your Answer:
decrease CORRECT
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4. For battery charging, the electrical supply connected to the battery must be
Your Answer:
DC CORRECT
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5.
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When using A.C. power on the bus bar you require 28V D.C. for battery
charging
Your Answer:
an A.C. inverter would be required INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
an A.C. transformer and rectifier would be required
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6. Two similar 12V batteries connected in parallel will produce

Your Answer:
12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery CORRECT
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7. If a nicad battery overheats, it is an indication of

Your Answer:
thermal runaway CORRECT
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8. When checking a nicad battery in situ for serviceability
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Your Answer:
a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted

CORRECT
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9. The output from an AC generator is taken from

Your Answer:
connections on the stator CORRECT
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10. Load sharing on a DC generation system is achieved by

Your Answer:
tachogenerators varying the generators outputs as the engine

speed varies INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage

trimming
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1.
What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not

fully charged?
Your Answer:
No adverse results since water may be added anytime

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.3
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2. How do you reset a GCR trip?

Your Answer:
Manually at the GCU CORRECT
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3. In nickel-cadmium batteries, a rise in cell temperature

Your Answer:
causes an increase in internal resistance INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
causes a decrease in internal resistance
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.8 (a)
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4.
000
When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells

emit gas only
Your Answer:
toward the end of the charging cycle CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.5
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5. The equalising coil in the carbon pile regulator
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Your Answer:
becomes inoperative when the undervolt relay energises

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, 5th Edition, Eismin Pg 200
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6.
In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is achieved by

regulating the
Your Answer:
voltage regulator CORRECT
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7. Under-frequency in an AC supply would cause

Your Answer:
overheating of inductive devices CORRECT
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Inductive devices will pass more current if it is lower frequency
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8. The electrolyte in a lead-acid battery contains

Your Answer:
hydrochloric acid INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
sulphuric acid
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-1 4.1.4
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9.
In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid, neutralizing

may be carried out
Your Answer:
with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate CORRECT
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10. Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per

Your Answer:
revolution INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
second
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1. Information on galley equipment can be found in

Your Answer:
CAAIPS INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Airworthiness Notice 99
Comment/Reference:
Now removed and included in CAP 747, but is still asked on the
exam. Download it from the Tutorial Support Section
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2. Inspection proof testing of seat-belts is carried out to

Your Answer:
9g CORRECT
file:///C|/Documents and Settings/Jeremiah O'Brien/My Documents/1.htm (1 of 4)3/27/2008 7:11:47 AM
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CS 25.561
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3. A fire detection system should be

Your Answer:
designed to withstand vibration and mechanical loads sustained

during normal operation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
positioned in a location determined by the manufacturer during

the design
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4. What type of brakes are employed on a galley cart?
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A single pedal bar INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Two colour-coded pedals
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5. Which areas of a civil transport aircraft would have smoke detectors fitted?
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passenger cabins and integral fuel tanks INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Freight holds, baggage compartments and equipment bays
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6. If seat belt stitching is worn, where are the replacement stitches placed?
Your Answer:
Over the originals CORRECT
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7.
Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of

emergency equipment should be carried on an aircraft
Your Answer:
BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
JAR OPS
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JAR OPS subpart K. Download a copy at External website...
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8.
What is the EASA regulation of the minimum separation between a seat and
another seat or structure?
Your Answer:
10 inches INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
There is no EASA guideline
Comment/Reference:
Seat spacings come under National regulations. For UK, they

are in CAP747 Appendix 1 GR.2
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9.
What is the minimum distance between a seat cushion and the seat in-front
of it?
Your Answer:
5 inches INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
7 inches
Comment/Reference:
CAP 747 Appendix 1. GR.2
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10. Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be found in

Your Answer:
Maintenance Manual INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
JAR OPS
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JAR OPS
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1. When the captain calls the attendant
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a low chime and blue light comes on INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a high/low chime and pink light comes on
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2. PTV type entertainment equipment

Your Answer:
is not the part of maintenance schedule INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques
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PTV = Personal Television
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3.
Attendant call is achieved by pressing a button on the passenger service unit

(PSU). To reset the light
Your Answer:
a reset switch on the attendants panel is operated INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the button is pushed again
Comment/Reference:
Boeing 737 AMM 33-25-00 Pg 3 (Download in the Tutorial

Support section)
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4. Cabin assistance when activated from the toilet

Your Answer:
activates a high chime and an amber light CORRECT
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Boeing 737 AMM 33-25-03 Pg 1 (Download from Tutorial

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5. Seat belts sign is accompanied by

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high / low chime INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
low chime
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6. A typical emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
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Your Answer:
transmit 3 frequencies CORRECT
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Boeing 737 ELT 23-24-00 121.5MHz, 243.0MHz, 406MHz
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7. The VHF aeronautical emergency frequency is

Your Answer:
121.5 MHz CORRECT
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1. Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft, then the

Your Answer:
aircraft tends to roll to the right INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
aircraft tends to go nose up
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2.
The outboard ailerons on some

aircraft
Your Answer:
are isolated to improve sensitivity INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
are isolated to prevent aileron reversal
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3. Versine is generated by
Your Answer:
synchro resolvers CORRECT
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4. In a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using
Your Answer:
LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces CORRECT
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5.
A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists

of
Your Answer:
electronic engine control unit and all its sensors CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
TTS FADEC booklet
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6. A FADEC system does not have the following system?

Your Answer:
An automatic starting capability INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers
Comment/Reference:
TTS FADEC booklet
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7. What controls are used in response to the PVD?

Your Answer:
Ailerons INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Nose-wheel steering or rudder pedals
Comment/Reference:
PVD = Para Visual Display
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8. Versine is used in which channel?
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Yaw INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Pitch
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9. FADEC system gets its power supply from

Your Answer:
channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated

Generator CORRECT
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See Total Training Support FADEC booklet
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10. In a fully fly by wire system, if the rudder becomes disconnected

Your Answer:
its control is maintained by electric trim INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
it is centralised by the airflow
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1. Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the
Your Answer:
maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag CORRECT
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2.
What must happen to the CL when flaps are deployed while maintaining a
constant IAS in straight and level flight?
Your Answer:
Increase INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Decrease
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3. Stick shaker stall warnings should be activated at

Your Answer:
1.05 VS CORRECT
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4. The cyclic stick in a helicopter is

Your Answer:
in the centre CORRECT
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5. Purpose of the bellcrank is to

Your Answer:
reverse direction and transmit motion CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
A bellcrank transmits motion and reverses

direction of a control run.
The Aviation Dictionary by Jeppesen. Page44
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6. If the 'Q' feel in a powered control system fails

Your Answer:
the pilot feels air loads lower than normal CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
The 'Q' feel system is to simulate air

loads
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7. When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they come in contact
Your Answer:
before the primary stops INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
after the primary stops
Comment/Reference:
Secondary stops (usually at the cockpit end of the control run)

make contact AFTER the primary stops.
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8. Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the right, the

Your Answer:
pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and shorten in

another INCORRECT
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Correct Answer:
rotating aerofoil tilts to the right
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-47 p82
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9. A spring balance control system you

Your Answer:
cannot move the control surface on the ground INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
can move the control surface on the ground
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10.
In normal flight, if the control column is pulled back, a servo tab fitted to
the elevator will
Your Answer:
move up INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
move down
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1. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by

Your Answer:
feedback from the servo motor INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
fitting a tachogenerator
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control by E.H.J.Pallett 3rd edition, page-157

(feedback, para 2)
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2. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by

Your Answer:
10.321% INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
7%
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin 5th Edition Page-370
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3. With a spring balance control system you can

Your Answer:
move the control surface only by moving the tab INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
move the control surface on the ground
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4.
000
If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the aileron to
rudder crossfeed be?
Your Answer:
Left Rudder CORRECT
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5.
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If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what will
happen to the tab?
Your Answer:
It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface
Comment/Reference:
A and P Mechanics Airframe Handbook Page 23
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6. If a stall is approaching, what indication does the pilot get?

Your Answer:
Stick Nudger INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Stick Shaker
Comment/Reference:

74 (although the other answers could also be correct on some
aircraft types, but stick shaker is most common)
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7. A wing mounted stall warning vane

Your Answer:
moves up at impending stall CORRECT
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8. During an autopilot controlled turn

Your Answer:
ailerons, rudder and THS will move INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ailerons, rudder and elevators will move
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9. The neutral shift system augments control of the

Your Answer:
elevator CORRECT
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10.
If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right, where does the pilot feed in this
command?
Your Answer:
Rudder Pedals INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Control Wheel
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, 4th Edition, Pallett and Coyle, page 30
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1. A yaw damper system operates on

Your Answer:
all yaw frequencies INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
low range frequencies
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2. When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted
Your Answer:
a clearance exists at the secondary stops CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
The clearance is on the secondary stops
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3. A flying control static friction check

Your Answer:
can only be carried out during flight INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system

inertia and move the controls
Comment/Reference:
A static friction check demonstrates the force the pilot requires

to overcome system inertia and move the controls
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4. What is true regarding deployment of Slats / Krueger flaps?
000
Your Answer:
Krueger flaps increase the critical angle of attack, Slats do not

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not
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5.
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On a swept back wing, in which of the following locations would Krueger

Flaps be fitted?
Your Answer:
Outboard leading edge INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Inboard leading edge
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6. Stall warning will be given at speeds

Your Answer:
that are higher than stall speed CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
As the aircraft slows, the stall warning is given 'prior to' the
stall. That's why it's called a WARNING
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7. When working on a hydraulic operated flight control, it is sensible to

Your Answer:
pull the appropriate CB INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
remove/disconnect hydraulic power
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Comment/Reference:
Removing/disconnect hydraulic power will ensure that the

system is safe
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8. On the ground, spoilers/speedbrakes deploy to

Your Answer:
30 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
60
Comment/Reference:
Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Page 5-6. In the

air - 30 degrees and a further 15 degrees with ailerons.
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9. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of the tail
Your Answer:
the down movement authority of the elevators is effected

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the up movement authority of the elevators is effected
Comment/Reference:
Moving the wheel back moves the trim surface DOWN, which
moves the elevator surface UP and reduces the range available
to the pilot in that direction
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10. During a left turn

Your Answer:
Comment/Reference:
ball is to be maintained in centre of turn and slip indicator

CORRECT
Normally a small amount of rudder is used to produce a more
coordinated turn.
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1. Pushing the left rudder pedal

Your Answer:
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yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise
CORRECT
The aircraft will yaw to left, making the right wing rise due to
its increased speed
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2. A plain flap
Your Answer:
when extended rotates on a simple hinge as if to bend the

trailing edge of the wing down CORRECT
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3. Trim indicators are set by

Your Answer:
LVDTs INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
synchros
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4. A control system in the parallel mode,
000
Your Answer:
when the rudder moves the control pedals stay in position

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the pedals deflect with the rudder deflection
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5. A full time yaw damper system detects
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
band pass frequencies INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
all frequencies
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 222 on.
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6. Which side of the pilot is the collective lever?

Your Answer:
In-between legs INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Left
Comment/Reference:
A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 1-63. Automatic Flight

Control, Pallett, Page 63
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7. If flaps try to move asymmetrically on selection they

Your Answer:
drive to the up position and lock INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
stop moving and stay in the same position
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8. The purpose of a yaw damper is to

Your Answer:
block the Dutch roll frequency CORRECT
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9. Dutch roll is eliminated by

Your Answer:
differential ailerons INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the yaw damper
Comment/Reference:
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10. Automatic trim is used to

Your Answer:
maintain level flight INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
prevents standing loads on the elevator
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 371-372
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1. An artificial feel system is necessary in a powered flying control system to

Your Answer:
provide the pilot with simulated stick forces CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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2.
In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system, a requirement of

the manual reversion is that it must be
Your Answer:
operated by the standby hydraulic system INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
automatic and instantaneous
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3. The purpose of control cable regulators is to

Your Answer:
compensate for high temperature only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
maintain preset cable tensions during flight
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4. Range of movements of power operated flying control surfaces are limited by
000
Your Answer:
travel of the jack body INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
mechanical stops in the control system
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5. The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the
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Your Answer:
elevator CORRECT
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6. The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the

Your Answer:
elevator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
rudder
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7. The purpose of the Servo Valve in a power operated control is

Your Answer:
to provide pressure to operate the control INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilot's

control in cockpit
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook page 12-38
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8. A stick shaker is a device which

Your Answer:
gives a short period of extra lift to assist take off INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
vibrates the control column near stalling speed
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9. An anti-balance tab is moved

Your Answer:
hydraulically INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
via a fixed linkage
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10. A servo tab is operated

Your Answer:
automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main

control surfaces INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the

main control surfaces
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1. One of the main purposes of using flaps during approach and landing is to
Your Answer:
decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed
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2.
The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to fly
at a slower speed because
Your Answer:
the laminar part of the boundary layer gets thicker INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack
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3. What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps?

Your Answer:
Increase the critical angle of attack CORRECT
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4. The lift coefficient CL of a wing at a given angle of attack

Your Answer:
is increased by the use of high lift devices CORRECT
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5. Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing

Your Answer:
CD is increased and CL is decreased CORRECT
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6. Speed brakes are a device used on large transport category aircraft

Your Answer:
for speed reduction after landing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to increase drag in order to maintain a steeper gradient of

descent
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7. The stabiliser is set to high setting when

Your Answer:
the flap are moving up INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the flaps are moving down
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 215 fig 7.8, and page
219
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8. Mach trim threshold are set by the
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Your Answer:
engineer using aircraft maintenance manual INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
manufacturer
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9. Yaw damping rate changes with

Your Answer:
flap position INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
airspeed
Comment/Reference:
Avionic Fundamentals page 292
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10. If a pointer is not centralised on a trim indicator, it means that

Your Answer:
the indicator is not serviceable INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the control system is out of trim
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, Page 230/231
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An aeroplane has the following flap settings: 0, 15, 30 and 45. Slats can
1. be selected too. Which of the above selections will produce the greatest
negative influence on the CL/CD ratio?
Your Answer:
Flaps from 30 to 45 CORRECT
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2.
When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at constant IAS, the
lift coefficient will eventually
Your Answer:
increase INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
remain the same
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3. When spoilers are used as speed brakes

Your Answer:
at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased

CORRECT
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4.
When a trailing edge flap is lowered during flight from take-off position to
fully down position, one will experience
Your Answer:
a large increase in lift and a small increase in drag INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a small increase in lift and a large increase in drag
Comment/Reference:
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5. What is the purpose of an auto-slat system?
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
Provide automatically slat IN selection after take-off

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Extend automatically when a certain value of angle of attack is

exceeded
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6.
Which of the following series of configurations has an increasing critical

angle of attack?
Your Answer:
clean wing, flaps only extended, slats only extended

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended
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7.
To avoid moments bending the root of the wing, the aircraft will be fitted
with
Your Answer:
integrated fuel monitoring system INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
symmetrical flight control trim
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Probably referring to Load Alleviation Function. Jeppesen

Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-29.
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8.
If the flaps are lowered but the airspeed is kept constant, to maintain level
flight
Your Answer:
the nose must be pitched up INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the nose must be pitched down
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9. 'Q' feel for the stabiliser requires

Your Answer:
pitot only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pitot and static
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10. The effects of leading edge slats

Your Answer:
increase boundary layer energy, move suction peak on to slat

and increase CLmax angle of attack INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increase boundary layer energy, increase suction peak on main

wing section, move CLmax to a higher angle of attack
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1.
On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight, if a column is moved

forward, the elevons will
Your Answer:
both move up INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
both move down
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2. Artificial feel is gained by using a

Your Answer:
spring bias unit CORRECT
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3. A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by

Your Answer:
increasing only the camber of the aerofoil INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the

boundary layer
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4. When a trailing edge flap is lowered fully

Your Answer:
the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is decreased

CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
000
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5. Which statement is correct?
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
Extension of flaps will increase (CL/CD)max, causing the

minimum rate of descent to decrease INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall speed, the

maximum glide distance also reduces
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6.
Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a

helicopter. The primary control method is
Your Answer:
inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
design of engine and gearbox supports
Comment/Reference:
Engine and gearbox rotate faster than the rotor.
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7. What is the most effective flap system?

Your Answer:
Fowler flap CORRECT
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8.
Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger

flaps and slats is correct?
Your Answer:
Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying

a Krueger flap does not INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Deploying a slat will form a slot deploying a Krueger flap does

not
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9.
During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane
starts to: (all other factors of importance being constant)
Your Answer:
sink suddenly. INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
climb
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10. Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will

Your Answer:
turn down, then move aft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
move aft, then turn down
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1. A helicopter needs to re-trim

Your Answer:
indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude

indicator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
indication is shown on the API
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett page 237/238
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2. Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by

Your Answer:
C of G movement INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
continued pitch input
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Comment/Reference:
If the elevator is deflected over a long time, the AFCS trims the
horizontal stabilizer to eliminate the elevator deflection load
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3. Differential aileron control will

Your Answer:
cause a nose up moment INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input
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4. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by
000
Your Answer:
10.321% INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
7%
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics by Eismin 5th Edition Page370
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5.
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When a hydraulic system is un pressurised, the position of flight control

surfaces are
Your Answer:
droop CORRECT
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6. Elevons combine the functions of both

Your Answer:
rudder and elevator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
elevator and aileron
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-16 Fig 1-36
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7. A differential aileron system is designed to

Your Answer:
minimise flutter INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
prevent adverse yaw
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8. An artificial feel system is required

Your Answer:
for proportional control systems INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
for power operated control systems
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9. A tandem P.F.C.U.
Your Answer:
has the actuator rams co-axial CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
External website...
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10. What is the purpose of a differential Frise aileron?

Your Answer:
To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn

CORRECT
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1.
With a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens when the
control surface is moved?
Your Answer:
It moves in the same direction as the control surface

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 43. Assuming it is a

balance tab, or a combined balance/trim tab.
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2. If the cyclic is moved to the right

Your Answer:
POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the rotor blades on the right flap down
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Rotor blades on right flap down to tilt the rotor disk to right.
Due to precession, the controlling POM for this manoeuvre are
fore and aft.
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3.
What would happen to an aircraft at low speed, at high angle of attack, if it

had an aileron going down?
Your Answer:
Increase stall speed CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Deflecting aileron down decreases local stall angle, thus

increasing local stall speed.
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4. Active load control involves

Your Answer:
varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft

CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 292
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5. Active load control uses

Your Answer:
aileron and spoiler CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Transport Category Aircraft Systems 5-29 (Load Alleviation

Function)
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6. What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left?
Your Answer:
Elevator up, left aileron down INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Elevator up, right aileron down
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7.
If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the control
surface will
Your Answer:
remain at the same place INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
move up
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8. Spring tabs
Your Answer:
cannot be adjusted in flight CORRECT
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9. Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to

Your Answer:
prevent adverse yaw in a turn CORRECT
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10. A 'q' feel system supplies

Your Answer:
aerodynamic damping INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed
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1. What is the effect of lowering leading edge and trailing edge flaps in flight?
Your Answer:
Cl increases, Cd increases and the stalling angle of attack

increases INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Cl decreases, Cd increases and the stalling angle of attack

reduces
Comment/Reference:
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2. How are spoilers normally operated?

Your Answer:
Air pistons INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Hydraulic actuator
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3. Lowering the inboard flaps causes the wing Centre of Pressure

Your Answer:
to move outboard towards the wing tips INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to move inboard towards the wing root
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4. Slats
000
Your Answer:
de-energise the boundary layer, thereby decreasing the stalling

angle of attack INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
re-energise the boundary layer thereby increasing the stalling

angle of attack
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5. When deploying the flaps the effective angle of attack
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Your Answer:
increases CORRECT
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6.
If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final approach, the possible cause may
be
Your Answer:
flap motor internal leakage CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-19
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7.
After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the
flaps. Why?
Your Answer:
Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed

with relatively less drag INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed

with relatively less drag
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8.
In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst

the flaps are being retracted, the angle of attack will
Your Answer:
increase CORRECT
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9.
If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the
magnitude of tip vortices will eventually: (flap span less than wing span)
Your Answer:
remain the same INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decrease
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10. The trailing edge flaps, when extended

Your Answer:
worsen the best angle of glide CORRECT
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1.
When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper will apply
corrective rudder to
Your Answer:
the left INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the right
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2. A yaw damper gain could be fitted with

Your Answer:
decreases sensitivity for increased speed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increased sensitivity for increased speed
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3. Flaps are used in order to

Your Answer:
decrease stalling speed and reduce max angle of attack thereby

achieving a more nose down attitude near and at stalling speed
CORRECT
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4. A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to

Your Answer:
rate of yaw CORRECT
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5. Deflection of leading edge flaps will

Your Answer:
increase critical angle of attack CORRECT
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6.
During flap down selection in a continuous straight and level flight at

constant IAS and weight
Your Answer:
the centre of pressure moves aft CORRECT
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7. CLmax may be increased by the use of

Your Answer:
slats INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
both flaps and slats
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8.
Compared with the flap up configuration the maximum angle of attack for
the flaps down configuration is
Your Answer:
unchanged INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
smaller
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9.
Compared with the flap down configuration the maximum angle of attack for
the flaps up configuration is
Your Answer:
unchanged INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
larger
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10.
How is the pitching moment affected if flaps are deployed in straight and
level flight?
Your Answer:
Pitch up INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Depends on wing position
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1. In a parallel rudder system,

Your Answer:
the rudder pedals are disconnected INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement
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2. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder

Your Answer:
controls the aircraft in trim INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
remains in the previous position
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3.
On a full fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is

controlled by the
Your Answer:
flight management and guidance computer INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
flight control computer
Comment/Reference:
Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-26
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4. In a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls the roll spoilers?
000
Your Answer:
Flight management computer INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Flight control computer
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5. On a full time fly-by-wire system, a nose up command causes

Your Answer:
the two elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move

up CORRECT
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6. If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine generator give?
Your Answer:
Left rudder INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Up Elevator
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7.
In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft, ground spoilers are deployed automatically

when the aircraft is on ground and
Your Answer:
weight on ground switch is activated INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
thrust reversers are deployed
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Comment/Reference:
A320 Ground Spoiler Logic diagram - also, External website...
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8. In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft, rudder trim is nulled by the

Your Answer:
electric flight control unit INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Flight Augmentation Computers
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9. In an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when

Your Answer:
flaps are retracted CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Fundamentals by Jepperson Pg 371
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10. On a modern aircraft about to stall

Your Answer:
the flaps retract automatically INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the outboard slats extend automatically
Comment/Reference:
B737 AMM 27-83-00 Download from the Tutorial Support

section
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1. When moving the control column

Your Answer:
sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
sensors located under the control column produces a signal
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2.
To transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control surfaces,
in a fly-by-wire system
Your Answer:
synchros are used INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
an LVDT is used, hence ensuring interchangeability
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Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 36 and 211. Example of

spoilers is given.
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3. Main electric pitch trim is controlled by

Your Answer:
a switch on control wheel CORRECT
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4. What is the authority of series actuator on a helicopters autopilot?

Your Answer:
10% CORRECT
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5. What is a versine signal attenuated with?

Your Answer:
Increase in airspeed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Increase in altitude
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Fundamentals 314 - 315
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6. Electrical stabilizer trim switches are found on the

Your Answer:
control column CORRECT
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7. The neutral shift sensor ensures that

Your Answer:
after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the

elevator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the

stabiliser
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8. The versine signal is used in the
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Your Answer:
pitch channel only CORRECT
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9. In fully Fly By Wire aircraft, wing root bending moments are reduced by
Your Answer:
operation of the elevator INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
symmetrical application of ailerons
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-2
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10. In a series rudder system

Your Answer:
the pilot can input to the system CORRECT
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1. Versine signal is governed by

Your Answer:
pitch INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
roll
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2. On a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls stabilizer trim?

Your Answer:
ELAC and SEC CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Transport Category Aircraft Systems 523
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3. In a fully fly by wire system, if the elevator loses all electrical power
Your Answer:
servos lock at last position INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
servos remain stationary and provide damping
Comment/Reference:
A319/A320/A321 Flight Crew Operating Manual
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4.
000
Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent weather conditions will

result in
Your Answer:
spoiler moving symmetrically upward INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ailerons moving symmetrically upward
Comment/Reference:

293
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5. The stall margin mode is controlled by
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Your Answer:
angle of attack and flap position sensors CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Page 143/4
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6. Versine signal is governed by

Your Answer:
roll CORRECT
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7. Stab trim goes into high speed mode when

Your Answer:
Flaps are retracted INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Flaps are extended
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 215 fig 7.8, and page
219
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8. The FBW system uses two elevator and aileron computers (ELACs),
Your Answer:
they provide alternate control of the elevators if spoiler and

elevator computers (SECs) fail INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
this is to provide redundancy
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, page 294/295 & fig.11.1
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9.
What achieves control and monitoring of the three-phase electric motors

which power the trimmable horizontal stabiliser (THS)?
Your Answer:
Flap and computer stall margin speed circuits to maintain the

correct angle of attack within the stall margin CORRECT
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10. A versine signal is typically fed from the roll channel

Your Answer:
and modified by aircraft attitude and pitch rate signals to limit

the pitch angle during approach INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
and modified by True Air Speed (TAS) and flap position signals
to adjust for loss of lift during a turn
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1.
In a FBW system, a complete failure of the electronic flight control system in

pitch
Your Answer:
would require the aircraft to be manually controlled in pitch

using pitch trim wheel CORRECT
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2.
If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire spoiler system, the spoiler
panels
Your Answer:
go to full up INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
go to down if any are not already down
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3. In a fly-by-wire control system, the follow-up transducer is fitted to

Your Answer:
the hydraulic actuator CORRECT
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4. Alpha floor protection to the autothrottle will

Your Answer:
withdraw flaps INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increase speed
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High thrust stall warning is activated when the thrust of opposite engine
reads
Your Answer:
greater than 50% INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
greater than 75%
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6.
The alpha vane signal can be fed to __________ when the aircraft is close to
stall
Your Answer:
throttle lever CORRECT
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1. The down position of the speed brake lever is detented to

Your Answer:
prevent inadvertent operation CORRECT
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2.
Asymmetric flap operation is prevented to keep to a minimum the tendancy

of
Your Answer:
yawing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
rolling
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3. The frequency of dutch roll oscillations are

Your Answer:
medium INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
low
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4. A series yaw damper

Your Answer:
moves the rudder only CORRECT
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5. The purpose of a yaw damper is to prevent
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Your Answer:
adverse yaw INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
dutch roll
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6. A series type yaw damper

Your Answer:
moves the rudder pedals and the rudder INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
moves the rudder only
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7. A stick shaker
Your Answer:
Comment/Reference:
is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and

mounted on the control column CORRECT
AL/3-21 page 22 para 13.3.2 and Transport Category Aircraft
Systems Page 211
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8. If the control column is moved forward and to the left

Your Answer:
left aileron moves up, right aileron down, elevator down

CORRECT
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9.
When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to counteract a

tendency to fly left wing low, an aileron trim tab fitted to the port aileron will
Your Answer:
move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right
aileron to move down to a lesser degree INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and
the right aileron to move up
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10. An interrupter arm incorporated in a flying control locking mechanism

Your Answer:
restricts movement of the throttles CORRECT
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The Dutch roll filter used on most yaw damper systems operates with a
1. demodulator and modulator in series, between which is an electronic circuit.
this circuit is a
Your Answer:
wide band pass filter featuring a differentiated output

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
narrow band filter featuring a differentiated output
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2.
During tests on the yaw damper servo actuator, the output shaft constantly
over-runs its desired displacement. A probable cause is that the
Your Answer:
the rate feedback circuit is open-circuit CORRECT
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3. Gust Load Alleviation Function in a FBW system

Your Answer:
uses the high speed computer responses to compensate for

sudden gusts CORRECT
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4. Active load control on a large transport aircraft's aileron system is fitted to
000
Your Answer:
increase roll control authority of the autopilot INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
improve fatigue life, due to aeroelasticity and high lift loads
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5. Powered flying control actuators
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Your Answer:
provide feedback to the pilot INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
transmit pilot input to the control surfaces
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6. A stick shaker operates

Your Answer:
just before the stall CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems Page

168
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7. Irreversibility of a fully powered control surface is provided by

Your Answer:
the jack ram being attached to structure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
nulling of the servo valve
Comment/Reference:
Nulling the servo valve produces a hydraulic lock.
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8. 'Q' feel units use

Your Answer:
static pressure only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pitot and static pressures
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Fundamentals pg 257 fig 17-31
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9. Powered flight control systems are used on transport aircraft

Your Answer:
because the pilot has too many tasks to perform INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft
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10. A lift transducer is normally fitted

Your Answer:
on the elevator control system INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
on the leading edge of the wing
Comment/Reference:
Lift transducer, also known as a stall sensor
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1. To fill a Dead Weight Tester

Your Answer:
remove platform and fill cylinder INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir
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2.
With an aircraft on the ground and QNH set on the millibar scale of the
altimeter, the altimeter will read
Your Answer:
zero INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the airfield height
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3. When checking a sensitive altimeter on a pre-flight inspection

Your Answer:
the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
QFE is set and it should read airfield height

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4. The HSI compass card is positioned by the

Your Answer:
aircraft ADF system INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
compass system
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5. The applied pressure to an A.S.I. varies with the

Your Answer:
square of the speed CORRECT
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6. The supply to an A.S.I.

Your Answer:
is static pressure only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
are pitot and static pressure
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7. The capsule for an A.S.I. will be expanding when the aircraft is

Your Answer:
decelerating INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
accelerating
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8.
The deflection of the ADI command bars when flying a localiser approach is
proportional to
Your Answer:
the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations

CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control EHJ Pallett page 181
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9. If an aircraft is flying straight and level in still air, airspeed will be

Your Answer:
greater than the ground speed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
equal to the ground speed
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10.
If an aircraft flying in still air at 400 knots, encounters a head wind of 50

knots, its ground speed is
Your Answer:
450 knots INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
350 knots
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1. How many bits make up the mode 'S' address?

Your Answer:
36 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
24
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2. The applied pressure to an ASI varies with the

Your Answer:
cube root of the speed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
square of the speed
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Comment/Reference:
An ASI measures 1/2 x density x velocity-squared
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3. Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of

Your Answer:
capsule shape INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
capsule elasticity
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 50/1
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4. Radio marker information is displayed on
000
Your Answer:
EICAS INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ADI
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 358
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5. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system would cause
Your Answer:
aircraft to overbank CORRECT
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6. Angle of Attack alarm is sounding too close to stall. Rectification is to

Your Answer:
move probe down INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
move probe up
Comment/Reference:
Move probe up, closer to the Leading Edge stagnation point, so

it operates sooner
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7. Where is alpha angle used?

Your Answer:
Accelerometer INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Angle of attack
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instrument and Integrated Systems - Pallett Page 73.
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8. In a capacitive fuel gauging system, an increase in fuel level would

Your Answer:
decrease capacitance INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increase capacitance
Comment/Reference:

328/329
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9. A float type fuel gauge system

Your Answer:
is adjusted when tanks are full INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
cannot be adjusted
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10.
With engine stopped, engine blanks fitted, EPR indicator reads slightly
above 1.
Your Answer:
You would adjust the gauge CORRECT
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1.
The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs
to issue a warning?
Your Answer:
A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Fundamentals. Jeppesen Page 266/267

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2. If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing was found
Your Answer:
a leak test is never required INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found
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Comment/Reference:
CAIPS Leaflet AL/10-1 p14 para 15.5
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3.
When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried out it

will be aligned with an error of plus or minus
Your Answer:
1 degree INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
3 degree
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/10-5 Para 9 - If using a datum compass 3-5 degrees

is allowed (CAAIP Leaflet 8-2 para 10.3)
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4. The electrical artificial horizon has a movement of
000
Your Answer:
360 in roll and 110 in pitch INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
360 in roll and 85 in pitch
Comment/Reference:

110
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5. A unit with two springs and a mass pick-off is
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Your Answer:
a gyroscope INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
an accelerometer
Comment/Reference:

266
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6. The units of vibration are measured in

Your Answer:
phons INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
relative amplitude
Comment/Reference:

375
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7.
A fuel flow measurement

system
Your Answer:
cannot be adjusted CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 367375
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8. A machmeter works
Your Answer:
above 10,000 ft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
always
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9. Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between

Your Answer:
true north and magnetic north CORRECT
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10. GPWS mode 1 is excessive

Your Answer:
rate of ascent INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
rate of descent
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1. A Compass Swing would be required after replacing a

Your Answer:
compass Amplifier INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
compass sensing unit
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2.
When carrying out an insulation check on a fuel probe, what is the maximum
voltage to use
Your Answer:
30 V CORRECT
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3. Where is the attitude director gyro stator situated?

Your Answer:
Inside the rotor CORRECT
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4. What is the error in the lubber line called?

Your Answer:
Coefficiant P INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Index error
Comment/Reference:
The Lubber line is the vertical white line painted on the front of
the compass. If there is an error in that, there is an error in
the compass mounting position. AL/10-5 para.2 a) refers
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5. An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:Your Answer:
Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on CORRECT
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6. Millibar is used to express what kind of pressure?

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Your Answer:
Barometric pressure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Ambient pressure
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7.
The maximum deviation on a standby magnetic compass must not be more

than
Your Answer:
3 CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-5 9.2.8
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8. Compass base classification Class 2 is periodically re-surveyed every
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Your Answer:
1 year INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
2 years
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-4 4(c)
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9.
The aircraft heading is 270. The magnetic compass deviation is -1. The
pilot should fly
Your Answer:
270 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
271
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-5 Table 1 Columns 7 and 8
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10.
Which instrument are you most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in
pressure, when carrying out a pitot-static leak check?
Your Answer:
Altimeter INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
vertical speed indicator
Comment/Reference:
VSI is most sensitive to rapid pressure changes
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1. Vertical gyros are limited to 85 degrees movement in pitch to prevent

Your Answer:
gyro topple INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
gimbal lock
Comment/Reference:

110
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2.
An altimeter in a pressurised aircraft at altitude has a case leak. The

altimeter will
Your Answer:
under read CORRECT
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3.
On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system, Radio deviation is

shown on
Your Answer:
EHSI INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
EHSI & EADI
Comment/Reference:
Radio deviation is VOR or ILS. The deviation indicator is

duplicated. It is on the EHSI and EADI
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4. An electrical gyro has usually a speed of
000
Your Answer:
20,000 RPM CORRECT
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What must you know when carrying out a test on a capacitive fuel quantity
indication system?
Your Answer:
If the probes are wet or dry CORRECT
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6.
In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, Mach information is derived

from
Your Answer:
indicated air speed and total air temperature CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

162
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7. What instrument connects to pitot pressure?

Your Answer:
The airspeed indicator CORRECT
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8.
In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), the rate of climb of an aircraft is

produced in the
Your Answer:
Altitude Module CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

162
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9. In a Central Air Data Computer, altitude is produced from

Your Answer:
static air pressure CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

162
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10.
In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is

produced from
Your Answer:
static pressure only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pitot and static air pressure
Comment/Reference:

162
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1.
The CX and CT rotors of a control synchro are 90 degrees shifted. The output
is
Your Answer:
low INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
zero
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems, Pallett, page 140
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2. If, during an autoland, the GPWS fails

Your Answer:
there is a visual warning only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
there is an aural plus a visual warning
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3.
In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, True Air Speed (TAS) is
derived from the Mach information and
Your Answer:
Static Air Pressure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Total Air Temperature
Comment/Reference:
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4. Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at
000
Your Answer:
1 000 ft radio alt. INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
2 500 ft radio alt.
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5. When testing using a thermocouple test set
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Your Answer:
a 28 VDC supply is required INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a serviceable battery is required
Comment/Reference:
A & P Powerplant handbook EA-AC-65-12A Page 494

Battery operation or 115V AC input
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6. What is the maximum radio altimeter track altitude?

Your Answer:
10,000 ft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
2,500 ft
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin p323-324
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7. A positive coefficient A adjustment of a compass will give a heading

Your Answer:
increase on all headings CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/10-5 9.2.7
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8. A silica gel desiccant is required to be replaced

Your Answer:
when all blue INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
when half pink and half blue
Comment/Reference:
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9. Component C is
Your Answer:
(DEV on S - DEV on N) /2 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
(DEV on N - DEV on S) /2
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-5 Table 1
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10. What could cause fluctuations in instruments?

Your Answer:
Pitot blocked INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Water in static line
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1.
Which of these barometric instruments uses a restrictor to compute its

output?
Your Answer:
Machmeter INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
VSI
Comment/Reference:

114
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2. A standby ADI uses

Your Answer:
an earth gyro INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a vertical gyro
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3. Slat asymmetry may be monitored by using

Your Answer:
spring actuators INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
position pick-offs
Comment/Reference:
AMM 767 27-88-00
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4. An important air data used with the IRS is

Your Answer:
TAS CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems, Pallett, page247 fig

10.1
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5.
A standby compass has a pair of magnets for adjustment. They are initially
placed
Your Answer:
parallel with each other CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems Pages 94/95 Fig 3.9

Pallett
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6. Component P affects
Your Answer:
coefficient C INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
coefficient B
Comment/Reference:
Download the notes on Standby Compass in the Tutorial

Support section. Read about Components P, Q and R, then
read about Coefficients A, B and C. Interesting stuff!
Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems, Pallett, page 91 fig
3.7
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7. A gyro spinning on a vertical axis will detect the aircraft's

Your Answer:
yaw and pitch INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
roll and pitch
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems EHJ Pallet page 102

Figure 4.4 & text below
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8. The aneroid capsule in an altimeter

Your Answer:
does not change with altitude INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
expands at higher altitudes
Comment/Reference:
Aneroid means evacuated, so the pressure is 'outside' the

capsule.
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9. In HUMS systems, what is used to pick up vibration levels?

Your Answer:
Magnetic pick-ups INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Accelerometers
Comment/Reference:
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10. An artificial horizon uses

Your Answer:
a directional gyro INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a vertical gyro
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1. Pitot pressure is also known as

Your Answer:
total pressure CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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2. The rigging of a non magnetic proximity sensor requires

Your Answer:
checking the target clearance in the FAR position against

reference figures INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
checking the target clearance in the NEAR position against

reference figures
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3. How do you detect and locate a leak in a pitot-static system?

Your Answer:
Pressurize the system and use the soap bubble detection

method CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems, Pallett, page 28
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4.
000
Following replacement of a separately mounted compass corrector box, a

compass calibration swing will be required
Your Answer:
only if the correctors are not matched to the ones being

removed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
without exception
Comment/Reference:
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5. A +/. symbol on a compass system indicates
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
compass card and directional gyro are being synchronised

CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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6. In the Earth's magnetic field, the term 'inclination' is

Your Answer:
the difference between true north and magnetic north

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the bending of the earth magnetic flux lines near the poles
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett, Pg 78/79
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7. During climb the pressure in the VSI capsule will be

Your Answer:
equal to the pressure in the case INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
lower than the pressure in the case
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8. A rate gyro has how many degrees of freedom?

Your Answer:
2 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett, pg 129
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9. Corrections to a mechanical ASI are for

Your Answer:
square law and temperature INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
square law error and temperature
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10. Two fundamental properties of a gyro are

Your Answer:
rigidity and precession CORRECT
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1. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation, you would carry out
Your Answer:
damping and alignment checks INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
damping and pivot friction check
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/10-5 5.1, 5.2
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2. Where is the spinup/rundown brake on a gyro instrument?

Your Answer:
Inner gimbal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Outer gimbal
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Comment/Reference:

196
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3. On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would

Your Answer:
align the aircraft onto its 'A' coefficient so that no error is

induced INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position
as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was removed from
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-6 para5
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4. In Airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?
000
Your Answer:
QFE INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1013.25
Comment/Reference:
1013.25 mb or QNE. A & P Technician Airframe Textbook Chap

XIII page 592
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5. Equivalent airspeed is
Your Answer:
indicated airspeed corrected for instrument error and pressure

error INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility
Comment/Reference:
Calibrated Airspeed is indicated airspeed corrected for position

installation error (IE). Equivalent Airspeed is calibrated
airspeed corrected for compressibility. Equivalent airspeed will
always be lower than calibrated airspeed.
External website...
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6. Acceleration error produces

Your Answer:
a false indication of climb CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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7. The compensator in a fuel tank measures

Your Answer:
K value of fuel CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:

333
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8. Vibration monitoring signals are sent

Your Answer:
direct to the gauge INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
via a signal conditioner to the gauge
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen Aircraft Instruments and Avionics Page 90
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9. A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in the inlet. This is to

Your Answer:
prevent FOD ingestion INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
dampen sudden pressure changes
Comment/Reference:
The restriction is to damp out surges in pressure
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10. Flight director command bars indicate

Your Answer:
direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

219
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1. Mode S has
Your Answer:
12 address bits INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
24 address bits
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Communications and Navigation Systems, Principles,

Maintenance and Operation, Mike Tooley and David Wyatt,
Page 262
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2. In RVSM, the error allowed is

Your Answer:
500 ft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
80 ft
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3. The hot junction of thermocouple is

Your Answer:
aft of combustion chamber CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/10-3 Para 6.3.4
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4.
If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter reading would
be
Your Answer:
lower mach number CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen - Avionics Fundamentals Page 235
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5. In a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is defective

Your Answer:
one CDU blanks CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

406
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6.
While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static is leaking, the
VSI would
Your Answer:
not be affected INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
indicate decent
Comment/Reference:
If there is a static leak,(i.e. pressure is increasing), the capsule

in the VSI will increase in size, leading to a descent indication.
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett page 57
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7.
In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check, which

instrument is most likely to be effected by over pressure?
Your Answer:
ASI INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
VSI
Comment/Reference:
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8. The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compass

Your Answer:
is to rotate clockwise CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/10-5 CAAIP Chap 8-2 Para 5.5
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9.
During a compass swing, using a datum compass, the error permitted in

aligning the aircraft is
Your Answer:
5 degree CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/10-5 Para 9
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10.
In an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer by means of

transformer coupling. The purpose of this arrangement is
Your Answer:
to minimise power losses INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computer
Comment/Reference:
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1. What is the calibration law of a ratiometer?

Your Answer:
Material of the indicator needle INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Material of the sensing element
Comment/Reference:
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2.
If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the same level
above sea level then
Your Answer:
it will not need resetting and will read zero INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
it will probably not need resetting and will read zero
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'Probably' is used since there is a small chance that the

ambient pressure is different between the airfields, even
though they are at the same elevation
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3. capacitance fuel quantity indication test set is connected

Your Answer:
by replacing capacitance probes CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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4. A thermocouple
Your Answer:
capacitance and inductance cannot be added INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
cannot be shortened
Comment/Reference:
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5. How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a compass?
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
Alcohol is used as it does not get effected by temperature

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Bellows and diaphragm
Comment/Reference:
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6. The apparent wander for directional gyros is

Your Answer:
maximum at the pole INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
compensated by applying a constant torque
Comment/Reference:

105
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7. What is lapse rate?

Your Answer:
Temperature changes with altitude CORRECT
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8. The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for

Your Answer:
toppling INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
drift
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9. Where is the placement of a mercury switch?

Your Answer:
Gyro case INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Outer gimbal
Comment/Reference:

and 117
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10. In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains

Your Answer:
2 capsules CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page

355/357
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1. Random drift of a gyro is caused by

Your Answer:
error in roll when aircraft is turning INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
gyro friction and unbalance
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 104
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2. What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure?

Your Answer:
Altimeter INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
ASI
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3. If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will

Your Answer:
increase CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Mechanics of Flight by A.C. Kermode page 64/65
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4.
000
Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars) exert the most amount
of influence
Your Answer:
when parallel to each other INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
when 90 degrees apart
Comment/Reference:
Angle between flinders bars determines their correcting

influence.
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5. What does a vibration type sensor measure?

Your Answer:
Frequency of deflections CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

376
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6. Which is used for compass damping fluid compensation?

Your Answer:
No damping due to alcohol low temperature co-efficient

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Bellows or diaphragm
Comment/Reference:
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7. The result of the equation (Dev E - Dev W)/2 is known as

Your Answer:
Coefficient A INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Coefficient B
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8.
If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen to the
precession?
Your Answer:
Increase CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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9. Coefficient A is adjusted
Your Answer:
on any heading CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-5 9.2.7
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10. With an aircraft which has more than one compass system
Your Answer:
master and slave adjusted, correction card for master only

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected

compass card
Comment/Reference:
Al/10-5 9.2 Note.
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1. In a horizontal gyro, the random precession of the inner ring is corrected by

Your Answer:
mercury switches on the inner ring INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
flux valve slaving
Comment/Reference:
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2. Index error is
Your Answer:
coefficient B INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
misalignment of compass lubber line
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Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/10-5 page 1
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3. When a rad. alt. reaches 2,500 ft. what happens to the display?
Your Answer:
Rad. alt. flag in view INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Rad. alt. goes out of view
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 195
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4. Pitot tubes are heated

Your Answer:
electrically CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/10-1 Para 3.2
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5. EICAS indicates
Your Answer:
engine performance only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions
Comment/Reference:

378
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6. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?

Your Answer:
It stays fixed on magnetic north INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
It move as the aircraft moves
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen - Avionics Fundamentals Page 107

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7. What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?

Your Answer:
Red, blue, green CORRECT
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8.
In air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director pitch
command bar signifies
Your Answer:
height decrease INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
speed decrease
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen, Avionics Fundamentals Page 356/7 and 364 together.
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9. Flight director incompatible modes are

Your Answer:
heading and altitude hold INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
VOR and glideslope
Comment/Reference:
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10. Deviation from the HSI lubber line is known as

Your Answer:
true A INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
apparent A
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 91.

Coefficient A is deviation by non-magnetic causes - HSI is a
non-magnetic instrument.
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1.
Alpha vane signal could be fed to _________________ ________________

when close to stall.
Your Answer:
fast/slow switch INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
thrust levers
Comment/Reference:
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2.
An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratiometer would

cause
Your Answer:
the pointer to read mid scale INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the pointer to read full scale
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Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, Pallett page 35/36
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3. The instantaneous VSI is designed to

Your Answer:
overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer

CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated systems, Pallett page 59
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4.
000
When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft equipped with

RVSM system, and a quick release disconnect connection is disturbed
Your Answer:
a full test of the system should be carried out INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a full test of the system should be carried out only if the aircraft
manufacturer recommends to do so
Comment/Reference:
Download TGL No.6 in the Tutorial Support section.
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5. With a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession will
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
decrease with a lower rotor speed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decrease with a higher rotor speed
Comment/Reference:

99
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6.
For aircraft certificated after 1997 and with RVSM, the maximum tolerance
for the system would be
Your Answer:
+/- 500 feet for the system overall INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
+/- 200 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument error
Comment/Reference:
Download TGL No.6 at External website Para.8.3
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7.
A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor located about
the gyroscope's
Your Answer:
vertical axis INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
lateral axis
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett page 117

fig 4.15
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8.
In a flight director system, the radio signal outputs from the navigation
receiver are
Your Answer:
AC INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
DC
Comment/Reference:

219
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9. A fuel quantity test set consists of

Your Answer:
resistance decade INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
capacitance bridge
Comment/Reference:
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10. The HSI provides information on

Your Answer:
VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Attitude is on the EADI
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1.
What colour is the autoland indication lights next to the pilots instruments,
with excess deviation?
Your Answer:
Amber CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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2. What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a turn?
Your Answer:
They disappear out of view CORRECT
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3. What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure?

Your Answer:
1000 psi INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
3000 psi
Comment/Reference:
Transport Category Aircraft systems, Jeppesen, Thomas Wild

chap 7 pages 5, 7, 30, 31
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4. What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?
000
Your Answer:
Space INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Tied down
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-2 A rate gyro has only 2 axis of freedom. Aircraft

Instruments & Integrated Systems Pallett page 129
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5. What does a piezoelectric type vibration sensor detect?

Your Answer:
Pressure changes CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

last paragraph and also refers you to page 165
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6.
An Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator indicates instant values of

vertical speed by
Your Answer:
blocking off pitot pressure and by using an accelerometer

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator
Comment/Reference:
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7. What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed?

Your Answer:
Horn sound INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Clacking sound
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Comment/Reference:

and Fig 2.40
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8. A Boost Gauge reads

Your Answer:
above or below ambient atmospheric pressure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
absolute pressure
Comment/Reference:

355
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9. A radio altimeter system can be self tested

Your Answer:
in the air only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
on the ground only
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Systems: Operation and Maintenance, Wasson,

Jeppesen page 198
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10. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system?

Your Answer:
100 KHz CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett, Pg

160.
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1. EICAS provides the following

Your Answer:
engine parameters INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
engine parameters and system warnings
Comment/Reference:
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2. The sensing element of the flux valve

Your Answer:
aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it has

stabilised INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure
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Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen - Avionics Fundamentals Page 106-110
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3. An RMI requires the following inputs:

Your Answer:
Course and radio deviation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Heading and radio deviation
Comment/Reference:

196
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In a compass swing:
4.
North error -2 degrees, South error - 2

degrees.
The coefficient C is
000
Your Answer:
0 degrees CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-5 page 6 table 1 (-2)-(-2)/2 = 0
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5. Magnetic heading errors will be
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
positive if easterly CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/10-5
Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems Pallett page 88
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6.
When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing, the maximum allowable

error is
Your Answer:
3 degrees INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
5 degrees
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-5 9 note.
Leaflet 8-2 12 note
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7.
For a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimbal would be moved to
correct the pitch movement?
Your Answer:
Longitudinal CORRECT
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8. A Master Warning is issued when

Your Answer:
engine fire and generator trip occurs INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
overspeed and cabin altitude occurs
Comment/Reference:
Boeing 757 has overspeed and cabin altitude as red master

WARNINGS, although engine fire is a red master WARNING,
GEN trip is a ORANGE master CAUTION
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9.
What altitude, relative to sea level, does the pressure in the standard
atmosphere halve?
Your Answer:
5,000ft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
18,000ft
Comment/Reference:
A+P Technician Airframe Textbook page 11-11
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10. At which two points on a gas turbine engine is EPR measured?

Your Answer:
Combustion chamber and jet pipe INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Compressor inlet and jet pipe
Comment/Reference:

365
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1. The needle of a resolver is connected to

Your Answer:
two coils and an electromagnet INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
two coils only
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2. The capacitance fuel contents system works on the principle of

Your Answer:
capacitive reactance INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
capacitance
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Comment/Reference:
Pallett Aircraft instruments page 326
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3.
What is the maximum value of insulation tester that may be used on a fuel
contents system?
Your Answer:
250 Volt INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
You cannot use one on the fuel contents system
Comment/Reference:
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4. An aircraft landing on QFE, the altimeter will
000
Your Answer:
read local area pressure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
read zero on touchdown
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page54
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5. A rate gyro has

Your Answer:
a calibrated spring between inner gimbal and case INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a calibrated spring to restrain movement about the longitudinal

axis
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page129
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6.
Using the fast erection switch on a standby horizon prior to the flag clearing
may cause
Your Answer:
the instrument to erect to a false datum INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
application of a large current to the control phase windings

causing failure
Comment/Reference:
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7. Water contamination in a capacitance fuel system will

Your Answer:
cause contents to under read INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
cause contents to overead
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The dielectric constant of water is 81.07 fuel is around 2 the

system over reads Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems Pallett page 328
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8. An ILS indicator is
Your Answer:
series with filters CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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9. In a dual FMS, a failure of one computer will result in

Your Answer:
a down grade of the landing category INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a blank display on one CDU
Comment/Reference:

406
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10. When a compass is in the slave mode

Your Answer:
azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the

flux valve CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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1. A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a compass?

Your Answer:
20 inches INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
24 inches
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-5 9.2
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2. An uncorrected ADI is affected by

Your Answer:
climb INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
roll
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Comment/Reference:

120
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3. Which pitot probe provides information to the captains instruments?

Your Answer:
Upper CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
External website...
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4. On the CWP, what does amber indicate?

Your Answer:
Warning INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Cautionary info
Comment/Reference:
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5. Which instrument shows Decision Height?

Your Answer:
ADI CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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6. Where does the HSI receive GND speed information from?

Your Answer:
INS CORRECT
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7. Transformer coupling between an ADI and a flight director computer is

Your Answer:
to protect the FD computer in case of an ADI failure

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failure
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8. When power is switched off, the gimbal brake
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Your Answer:
restricts outer gimbal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
restricts inner gimbal
Comment/Reference:
Used for gimbal lock prevention. Energised off.
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9. On an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warning

Your Answer:
would initiate a Go-Around INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
would be an audio and visual warning
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10.
When more than one D.R. compass is fitted on an aircraft or where a D.R.
compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass
Your Answer:
all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made

simultaneously on each heading CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/10-5 9.2 Note
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1.
A remote compass compensator unit is replaced. Which of the following is

correct?
Your Answer:
No swing is required if the new heading is within 5 degrees of

the old INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
A compass swing must be performed
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-5 10
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2.
A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree. To steer a true heading of

180 degrees the pilot must steer
Your Answer:
179 degrees CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
AL/10-5 Table 1 columns 7 and 8
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3. How is a leading edge flap position indicated in the cockpit?

Your Answer:
Servomotor INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Torque synchro
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4.
000
In a capacitive fuel contents system, changes in temperature are

compensated by
Your Answer:
placing a resistor in series with the tank unit capacitance

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
placing a capacitor in parallel with the tank unit capacitance
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated systems Pallett page 331 333
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5. In an EICAS system, operation of the cancel switch
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
removes advisory messages INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
removes caution and advisory messages
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instrument's and Integrated systems Pallett page 383
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6.
The true airspeed output from a CADC will be determined by information fed
from
Your Answer:
The Mach unit and Temperature Sensor CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instrument's and Integrated Systems Pallett page 167

and diagram page 162
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7. Absolute pressure of 25 PSI is

Your Answer:
39.7 PSI INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
10.3 PSI
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Comment/Reference:
Gauge Pressure = Absolute Pressure - Atmospheric

Pressure
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8.
JAR OPS states that the time an FDR recording must be kept after an
accident or incident
Your Answer:
60 days CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
JAR OPS 1.160
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9. Coefficient A correction is carried out

Your Answer:
before C after B INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
after B and after C
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/10-5 Para 9
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10. A combined ASI indicates Mach

Your Answer:
above 10000 feet INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
all the time airspeed is present
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1. When servicing an RVSM aircraft

Your Answer:
the alt. hold must be serviceable INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the alt. alert must be serviceable
Comment/Reference:
JAR Ops 1 Subpart L 1.872
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2. Compared to air driven gyros, the electric gyro runs

Your Answer:
same speed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
faster
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3. An ASI compressibility error correction will be

Your Answer:
negative CORRECT
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4. A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from

Your Answer:
compressor outlet INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
reservoir
Comment/Reference:
External website...
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5. What is apparent drift due to?
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
Errors when aircraft banking INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Earths rotation
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6. Compass error 'Q' corrections correct

Your Answer:
C error CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Pages 88

and 92
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7. ICAO Standard Atmosphere is

Your Answer:
taken from data measured at 45 degrees North CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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8. An aircraft airspeed indicator has
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Your Answer:
Comment/Reference:
pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule
CORRECT
Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems EHJ
Pallet page 42
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9. Above 2500 ft. the rad. alt.

Your Answer:
pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view

CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance Page 189
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10. A typical ratiometer indicating system would use

Your Answer:
3-phase AC INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
single phase AC for indicator and transmitter
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems by EHJ Pallett

p316/7
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1. A Mach meter
Your Answer:
compensates for square law CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

page 43/45
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2.
An aircraft increases in altitude The ASI indication remains constant. What

will happen to the True airspeed value?
Your Answer:
Decrease INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Increase
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Comment/Reference:

page 42
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3. How does a machmeter work?

Your Answer:
True airspeed and speed of sound CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Kermode Mechanics of Flight 10th edition p339, and Flight

Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, Harris Page 20
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4. Air density compensation requires

Your Answer:
OAT INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
altitude and OAT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett, page 42,

Fig.2.15
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5. What aircraft system supplies power to the standby artificial horizon?

Your Answer:
Battery Bus CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
B757 AMM chap 34-24-00 (actually called standby bus)
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6.
Flight Director bars move up in slow increments, what controls their rate/
speed?
Your Answer:
Position feedback INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Instrument amplifier gain
Comment/Reference:
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7.
If the static pressure is varied at too great a rate. The instrument that is
most affected is the
Your Answer:
altimeter INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
rate of change indicator
Comment/Reference:
The Rate of Change (VSI) is most sensitive
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8. The flux detector element

Your Answer:
gives heading with respect to magnetic north CORRECT
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9. If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit, position indication will
Your Answer:
oscillate CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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10.
When calibrating an electronic fuel capacitance indicating system, what

piece of test equipment would you use?
Your Answer:
A potentiometer INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
A bridge
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1. How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?

Your Answer:
As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and

the reception of its echo from the ground directly below the
aircraft CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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2.
In a compass system, what senses the horizontal component of the earths

magnetic field and where is it normally fitted?
Your Answer:
Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips CORRECT
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3. An RMI has inputs from VOR and

Your Answer:
an azimuth gyro CORRECT
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4. In a modern HSI, the displays are

Your Answer:
course and attitude INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
course and direction
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5. Which modes of the GPWS may be inhibited?
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
modes 1, 3, 4a, 6 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
modes 4b, 5
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6. The vocal repetition for Mode 6 warnings are repeated

Your Answer:
twice only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
once only
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7. When a compass is in the slave mode

Your Answer:
azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the

flux valve CORRECT
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8. A flux valve becomes permanently magnetized. What will be the effect?

Your Answer:
Remote compass will indicate in one direction only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
More deviation
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9. At what height does the rising runway appear?

Your Answer:
500 ft. INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
200 ft.
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10. An H on the EHSI indicates

Your Answer:
ILS approach INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
DME hold
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1.
Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on
the deviation card should not exceed
Your Answer:
5 degrees INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
3 degrees
Comment/Reference:
CAAIPS Lft 8-2 Para 14.8 5
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2. If one FMS fails in a dual system

Your Answer:
FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
FMS CDU on fail side goes blank
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3. If the compass fluid has bubbles at low altitude

Your Answer:
this is due to insufficient de-aeration CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
External website...
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4. Cyclic shift of the stator connections in a torque synchro results in

Your Answer:
data to coincide INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
output datum advanced 240 deg
Comment/Reference:

139
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5. Gimbal lock in a displacement gyro occurs when
Click the image for

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textbook shown
Your Answer:
bearing friction causes gimbal system to unbalance INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
spin axis becomes coincident with any of the axis of freedom
Comment/Reference:

106
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6. In a turn coordinator, the output axis of the rate gyro is

Your Answer:
parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
set at 30 to the longitudinal axis
Comment/Reference:

133
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7. All 'fly-to' information in an EFIS system is displayed in

Your Answer:
green INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
magenta
Comment/Reference:

298
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8.
In an EICAS display, all scales, normal operating range of pointers and

digital readouts are displayed in
Your Answer:
green INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
white
Comment/Reference:

379
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9. The scratch pad in an FMS CDU occupies

Your Answer:
24 character spaces of the bottom line INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
first 12 character spaces of the bottom line
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instrument System - Pallett Chap - 17 Pg 403
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10.
Thermocouple combination mostly used for exhaust gas temperature

indications are
Your Answer:
Iron-Constantan INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Chromel-Alumel
Comment/Reference:

321
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1.
Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on
the deviation card should not exceed
Your Answer:
2 degrees INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
3 degrees
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/10-5 9.2.8
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2. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called

Your Answer:
apparent error INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
residual error
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Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/10-5 9.2.8
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3.
Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover

glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce
Your Answer:
surface reflection CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs AL/10-1 14.2
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4.
A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for electrical cables
carrying electrical current is
Your Answer:
24 inches CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-5 4.1.2
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5.
Click the image for

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textbook shown
The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried
out with
Your Answer:
micrometer INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
an inclinometer
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6.
The manufacturer of a pitot head gave a specification indicating 2 inches dia.

This is the
Your Answer:
external dia. of pitot head CORRECT
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7. On a VSI fitted on an aircraft, for climb and descent indication

Your Answer:
a set screw is provided for climb/descent increments

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a set screw is provided for zero adjustment
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Comment/Reference:
AL/10-1
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8. On an EADI the command bars show the

Your Answer:
required flight path compared to planned flight path

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
required flight path compared with aircraft position
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page

212/213
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9. The airdata computer inputs to

Your Answer:
mach meter, standby altimeter, ASI INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
altimeter, FMC, secondary radar
Comment/Reference:
FMC for nav. Secondary Radar is ATC transponder encoder.
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10. What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR system?

Your Answer:
2.5 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
10
Comment/Reference:
External website...
Note: VOR is 5 per dot. ILS is 2 1/2 per dot
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1. Angular momentum of a gyro rotor depends on

Your Answer:
angular velocity of the rotor INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor
Comment/Reference:

Page 33
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2. Air driven gyros, compared to electric gyros, generally rotate

Your Answer:
slower CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:

Page 41
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3. Gyro rigidity is proportional to

Your Answer:
mass, and radius of mass from spin axis INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
mass, speed and radius of mass from spin axis
Comment/Reference:

Page 33
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallet Page 99
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4. Gyro precessional force is
000
Your Answer:
inversely proportional to the applied force INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
directly proportional to applied force
Comment/Reference:

Page 33
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett, Pg 99
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5. The speed of a vacuum driven gyro horizon rotor is approximately
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
22,000 rpm INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
15,000 rpm
Comment/Reference:

Page 46
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6. A V.S.I. is connected to
Your Answer:
vacuum INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
static pressure
Comment/Reference:

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7. With a V.S.I. pointer at position 1 on the upper half of the scale it indicates
Your Answer:
1,000 ft/minute rate of descent INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1,000 ft/minute rate of climb
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Page 24
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After disconnecting the supply to an electrically operated gyro instrument it

8. is recommended that, to allow the gyro rotor to stop, before moving the
instrument
Your Answer:
fifteen minutes should elapse CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
AL/10.2 8.1 c)
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9. The Port and Starboard static vents on an aircraft are inter-connected to

Your Answer:
cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws
CORRECT
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10. Which of the following would cause a displacement gyro to topple?

Your Answer:
Inverting the gyro INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Running gyro at low speed
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1. Compass compensator units have greatest effect when the magnets are
Your Answer:
Parallel INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
90 apart
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2. In a Machmeter, what type of compensation is there?

Your Answer:
Square-Law compensation CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems - Pallett, page 45
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3. A gate valve is installed in a vacuum system to prevent

Your Answer:
back pressure due to engine surge INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
oil entering gyro when shut down
Comment/Reference:
A gate valve closes completely on engine shutdown
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4. Normal vertical minimum separation allowed is
000
Your Answer:
1000ft INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
2000ft
Comment/Reference:
External website... (note 'Normal' not RVSM)
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5. The venturi tubes in a vacuum instrument are measured in
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
Inches of Mercury CORRECT
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6. The instrument supplied with pitot and is affected by altitude is a

Your Answer:
Mach Meter CORRECT
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7. A fuel system that corrects fuel SG is calibrated in

Your Answer:
Pounds or KGs CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

331
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8. Component P relates to
Your Answer:
coefficient B CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:

91 Fig 3.7
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9. A standby artificial horizon uses a

Your Answer:
earth gyro CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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10. Pitot-static lines in helicopters

Your Answer:
must provide an accurate indication of the flight regime below

20 knots INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
must provide accurate information over the helicopter certified

flight envelope
Comment/Reference:
JAR 29.1323 implies that this is the correct answer
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1. In level flight, a V.S.I. will indicate

Your Answer:
horizontal to left CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

Page 22
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2. On descent, the pressure in a V.S.I. capsule

Your Answer:
is the same as case pressure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
leads the case pressure
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Page 22
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3.
A small constant leak in the case of V.S.I. fitted in a pressurized aircraft

would, during level flight, cause the instrument to indicate
Your Answer:
zero CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

Page 22
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4.
When a force is applied to a horizontal gyro, the precession of the rotor will
continue until
Your Answer:
as long as the force is applied INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force
Comment/Reference:

Page 33
109
000
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5. An artificial horizon has
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
the inner gimbal pivoted vertically INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the inner gimbal pivoted laterally
Comment/Reference:

Page 47
Aircraft instruments & Integrated systems by EHJ Pallett p109
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6. A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to

Your Answer:
14.7 PSI CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
A+P Technician Airframe Textbook page 11-3 fig 11-4
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7. In the directional gyro

Your Answer:
the outer gimbal is pivoted laterally INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically
Comment/Reference:

Page 42
126 fig.4.20
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8. The millibar is a unit of

Your Answer:
pressure altitude INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
barometric pressure
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9. In the Turn and Slip indicator

Your Answer:
the spin axis is vertical INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the spin axis is lateral
Comment/Reference:

Page 53
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10. In an altimeter, the

Your Answer:
capsule is evacuated and sealed CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

Page 6
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1. EGPWS mode 2 announces

Your Answer:
sink rate INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
whoop whoop pull up
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Harris Page 160
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2.
Leakage of a static line during a pitot static test (altitude increasing) would
be indicated by
Your Answer:
VSI showing rate of descent INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
VSI showing rate of climb
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Comment/Reference:
Although there would be some error, since the static pressure

sensed would not be that of the static port position
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3. Alpha angle relates to which system?

Your Answer:
Angle of attack system CORRECT
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4.
000
When a standby compass is replaced, on installation the compensator

magnets should be set to
Your Answer:
the same setting as the removed compass INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the neutral setting on the new unit
Comment/Reference:
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5. Compensator magnets in a standby compass exert greatest influence at
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
when parallel to each other INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
90
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6.
If the static vent is leaking into cabin pressurised space when the aircraft is
at altitude, a mach meter will indicate
Your Answer:
no change INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a decrease
Comment/Reference:
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7.
EFIS display, SG1 + SG2 are for captain and FO displays. What is the
purpose of SG3?
Your Answer:
ECAM upper display INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Backup for SG 1 and 2
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8. The compensator tank unit in a fuel system adjusts fuel readings for
Your Answer:
permittivity CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
737 AMM 28-41-00 Pg 6 (Download from Tutorial Support

section)
Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems Pallett page 333
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9.
The flight recorder accelerometer used in the DFDR system measures

vertical acceleration as one of its parameters to values between
Your Answer:
Comment/Reference:
plus six 'g' and minus three 'g' with a null output of one point
eight volts plus or minus twenty five millivolts dc CORRECT
IHums book for Super Puma AS332 Chap 31-3200
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As part of the checks on the DFDR system, you are required to carry out a
10. check using the self-test switch on the aircraft integrated data system
(AIDS) printer. Actuation of the switch causes the printer to print in
Your Answer:
forty column mode CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
A320 MM chapter 31-36-00 page 17 para 4
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1. The erection system on a directional gyroscope has

Your Answer:
a switch on the outer gimbal controlling a motor on the inner

gimbal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer

gimbal
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Comment/Reference:

David Harris Page 46/7
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2.
In a rate gyro used to detect movements about a vertical axis, the amount
the gimbal ring moves would be increased if the
Your Answer:
angle through which the gyro moves in azimuth increases

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
rotor speed decreases
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3. The Turn and Slip indicator employs

Your Answer:
a rate gyro CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

Page 54
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4. In a Turn and Slip indicator, the effect of increasing the rotor speed would be
Your Answer:
it would have no effect INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
it would over read
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5. How is the information on a directional gyro outer gimbal taken off?

Your Answer:
By a flux take-off device CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

Page 77/78
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6. Why is a directional gyro inner gimbal restricted to +/- 85?

Your Answer:
To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock CORRECT
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7. The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is approximately

Your Answer:
4,200 rpm CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

Page 53
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8. In a directional gyro, the inner/outer gimbal is corrected to

Your Answer:
15 sine longitude INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
15 sine latitude
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Comment/Reference:

Page 37/8
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9. The electrolyte switches used in gyro systems rely upon

Your Answer:
change in voltage applied to operate INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
change in resistance to operate
Comment/Reference:

Page 50/51
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10. Precession of a gyro depends on

Your Answer:
angular velocity of the rotor only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
both moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor
Comment/Reference:

Page 53
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1. The units on the calibrated scale of a V.S.I. are expressed in

Your Answer:
hundreds of feet per minute CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
(Light aircraft only - large aircraft are 1000s ft/min)
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2. A standby air supply for gyro operation could be obtained from

Your Answer:
a pitot head INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a venturi
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Page 40
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3. At the lowest point of each vent line you would normally find a
Your Answer:
self draining non-return valve CORRECT
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4. A rate two turn is

Your Answer:
180 degrees per minute INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
360 degrees per minute
Comment/Reference:

Page 54,
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 131.
Note error on Page 134 of Pallett book.
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5.
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textbook shown
The rate of turn information from a turn coordinator (compared to a Turn

and Slip) is
Your Answer:
more instantaneous INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
more accurate
Comment/Reference:

Page 55
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6. Temperature correction in a sensitive altimeter mechanism is provided by a

Your Answer:
balance weight INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule
Comment/Reference:

Page 8
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7.
The capsule in a vertical speed indicator will be expanded when the aircraft
is
Your Answer:
in level flight INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
descending
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Page 22/23
figure 2.28 Vertical speed indicator presentation
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8. After replacing an instrument of the pitot-static group, it is necessary to

Your Answer:
calibrate the instrument concerned INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s)
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-1 15.5
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9.
If the pitot and static pipe lines were cross connected at the instrument
panel connection, application of pressure to the pitot head would cause the
Your Answer:
altimeter reading to increase, vertical speed indicator to

indicate descent INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to

indicate descent
Comment/Reference:
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10. A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a vertical gyro would cause
Your Answer:
a pitch error and gyro topple INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a continual precession in roll
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1. Which is not displayed on an attitude director indicator (ADI)?

Your Answer:
VOR lateral deviation CORRECT
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2. An engine vibration indicator system uses

Your Answer:
AC/DC in the transmitter INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
2 filters in the indicator
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Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett page

376 Figure 15.19 Vibration monitoring system. Block diagram
has a box labeled Amplifier & Filters.
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3. A turn and slip needle/pointer moves to the left. What is the aircraft doing?
Your Answer:
rolling left INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
turning left
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Intruments & Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett page 130

Figure 4.22 Turn-and-bank/slip indicator. Figure (a) (b)
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4. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?
Your Answer:
Comment/Reference:
000
Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession

CORRECT
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5. A gyroscopic body has its rigidity increased by
Click the image for

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textbook shown
Your Answer:
decreasing the mass of the rotor INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increasing the rotor speed
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6. If a constant torque is applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession

Your Answer:
increases with a lower rotor speed CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

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7. Random drift of a gyro is caused by

Your Answer:
aircraft turning with an error in roll INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro
Comment/Reference:

David Harris Page 33 (Real Drift)
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8.
A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a gyro horizon works on the
principle of
Your Answer:
decreased reaction of the air from a fully open port INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
increased reaction of the air from a fully open port
Comment/Reference:

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9. The pitch/bank erection system is used in an electrical gyro horizon to

Your Answer:
Comment/Reference:
to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to

centrifugal effects during a turn CORRECT
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10.
The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon must not be used for a
set period after switching on because
Your Answer:
excessive hunting will take place CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-2 9.3.2 a)
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1.
When the 'busy' indicator lamp flashes on the QAR in a DFDR system, this
indicates that the
Your Answer:
data is not being received and the cartridge can be ejected

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
cartridge is loaded correctly and the QAR is ready for use
Comment/Reference:
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2.
In digital flight data recorder (DFDR) system, low speed playback of

currently received data can be achieved at
Your Answer:
the flight compartment test connector through the digital flight

data acquisition unit (DFDAU) CORRECT
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3.
During a change to a lower altitude, the piston unit in an IVSI

(instantaneous vertical speed indicator) will create, for an instant
Your Answer:
more pressure to the capsule only CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems, Pallett, page 59-60
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4. Adding 3 feet of cable to both TX and RX aerials on a rad alt would give you
Your Answer:
9 feet error CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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5.
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
A leak in the static line in a pressurised part of an aircraft can cause the
mach indication to
Your Answer:
no change INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
decrease
Comment/Reference:
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6. The full testing of a FDR system is accomplished by

Your Answer:
real time monitoring of system with ground test equipment

CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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7. GPWS Mode 7 Windshear is activated at

Your Answer:
2500 feet rad alt for take-off and landing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1500 feet rad alt for take-off and landing
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8. A mach meter is
Your Answer:
compensated with square law screws and an arm CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

45
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9. A mach meter reads the correct value

Your Answer:
above 10,000 feet only INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
at any altitude
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10. A fuel system that measures SG will be displayed in

Your Answer:
Lbs or kgs CORRECT
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1. A pitot or static leak check is carried out

Your Answer:
whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-1
15.5
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2.
The temperature of boiling water at standard pressure on the Fahrenheit

and Centigrade scale is
Your Answer:
212 deg. and 100 deg. respectively CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
External website... listed under Intermolecular

Interactions...
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3. A temperature of 59F is equivalent to

Your Answer:
15C CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
External website
External website
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4. Aircraft heading (HDG) is

Your Answer:
the angle between True North and the actual track INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the
aircraft
Comment/Reference:
000

Page 87
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5. Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
limit the outer gimbal movement INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
prevent gimbal lock
Comment/Reference:
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6. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is

Your Answer:
by a control synchro CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Fundamentals Page 93 Fig 5-20
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7. Agonic lines link places of

Your Answer:
equal variation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
zero variation
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. EHJ

Pallett Page 80
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8. Position error is caused by

Your Answer:
mechanical imperfections in an instrument INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pitot head position
Comment/Reference:

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9. To convert degrees Centigrade to degrees Kelvin

Your Answer:
add 112 degrees INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
add 273 degrees
Comment/Reference:
External website
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10. Damping on a RATE GYRO can be either

Your Answer:
viscous, eddy current or variable spring INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
viscous, eddy current or air dash pot
Comment/Reference:

134
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1.
Aircraft certified before 1997 with RVSM, maximum tolerance for the system
is
Your Answer:
+/- 500ft system tolerance INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
+/- 300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error
Comment/Reference:
Download TGL No.6 at External website Para.8.3
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2. Machmeters work on
Your Answer:
static INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
pitot and static
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett, Pg

45
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3. An aircraft with Mach warning will warn

Your Answer:
when Mcrit is reached CORRECT
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4. An HSI provides what information?

Your Answer:
VOR, ILS, plan, attitude INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
VOR, plan, ILS, map, radar
Comment/Reference:
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5. Compressibility error in a pitot head is caused by

Your Answer:
blockage in the pitot tube INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
compression of air in the tube at high speed
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris P17 ASI Errors (3)
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textbook shown
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6. There is an air bubble in the compass:

Your Answer:
It is required, to compensate for expansion of the fluid

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
It is due to high altitude
Comment/Reference:
External website...
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7.
A flux detector output is

a
Your Answer:
A.C. voltage at the same frequency as the excitation voltage

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
A.C. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage
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1. To provide a linear scale on an A.S.I., a

Your Answer:
ranging bar and screws are fitted CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 44 fig

2.18 and text below
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2. The moving element of a ratiometer has

Your Answer:
one coil INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
two coils
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186 Fig 7.4 and para below
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3.
When carrying out a pressure leak test on an altimeter, you are checking for
leaks in the
Your Answer:
instrument case CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Jepessen A & P Technician Textbook p11-9
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4.
If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1013.25 and the barometric

pressure at that time was 1020, the altimeter should read
Your Answer:
zero feet INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
below zero feet (negative altitude)
Comment/Reference:
Assuming aircraft is on the ground
000
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5. The command bars in a flight director system indicate
Click the image for

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textbook shown
Your Answer:
true horizon INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the required path with respect to actual path
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6.
When changing a windscreen panel which has a standby magnetic compass

located in the vicinity
Your Answer:
The attachment bolts should be tightened in an anti-clockwise

direction around the window INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts

are of the specified type
Comment/Reference:
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7.
On a conventional RMI the angle between the compass datum and the radio
pointer arrow is
Your Answer:
the complimentary bearing INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the relative bearing
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8. A compass is made aperiodic by

Your Answer:
locking INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
using fluid
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett, Pg 81,

Compass construction.
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9. Isogonal lines link places of

Your Answer:
zero variation INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
equal variation
Comment/Reference:
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10. In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused by

Your Answer:
bottom heaviness of inner gimbals CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

David Harris Page 49 (acceleration error)
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1. The fluid suitable for use in a Dead Weight Tester is

Your Answer:
kerosene INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
castor-oil
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2. The distance readout on an HSI is

Your Answer:
from the aircraft ATC system INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
from the aircraft DME system
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A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right angles to the plane of

3. rotation, and its gimbal restrained either electrically or by a spring, is known
as
Your Answer:
an earth gyro INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
a rate gyro
Comment/Reference:

Aircraft Instruments & Integrated systems EHJ Pallett pages
129, 130 & 131
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4. Pressure may be expressed in

Your Answer:
force per unit area CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
000
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5. One dot VOR deviation represents
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textbook shown
Your Answer:
2 miles INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
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6. An instrument used for measuring negative pressures

Your Answer:
has the Bourdon tube reversed within the case INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
has anti-clockwise pointer movement if Bourdon tube operated
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David

Harris Page 182
External website...
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7. An absolute pressure gauge measures

Your Answer:
pressures extremely accurately INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum
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8.
Gauge pressure as indicated on a direct reading Bourdon Tube pressure

gauge is equal to
Your Answer:
atmospheric pressure minus absolute pressure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure
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9.
The to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of which direction he is

tracking relative to
Your Answer:
a VOR station CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control EHJ Pallett pages 189 & 190
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10.
A pressure gauge, such as a hydraulic brake pressure gauge, indicates

1,000 p.s.i. In terms of absolute pressure, this represents
Your Answer:
985.3 p.s.i. INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
1,014.7 p.s.i.
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
Abosolute_Pressure#Absolute_and_gauge_pressure
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1. The capsule in an altimeter responds to

Your Answer:
absolute pressure CORRECT
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2. The aeroplane monitor on the artificial horizon is fitted to the

Your Answer:
rotor INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
instrument case
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David Harris Page 5
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3. True airspeed in an Air Data Computer is a function of

Your Answer:
airspeed and temperature INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
mach number and temperature
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems Pallet page 42

figure 2.15 and the text just below the figure
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4. The advantage of an instantaneous V.S.I. over a conventional one is

Your Answer:
it does not require pitot/static pressure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a

conventional one
Comment/Reference:
000

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5. For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with altitude, the T.A.S.
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Your Answer:
increases CORRECT
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6. The type of gyro used in a gyro compass is a

Your Answer:
rate gyro INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
directional gyro
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7. A desiccant used in the storage of instruments

Your Answer:
is silica-gel CORRECT
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8. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?
Your Answer:
Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession

CORRECT
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9. Bourdon Tubes have

Your Answer:
toroidal cross section INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
oval cross section
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control

Systems David Harris Page 182 Figure 7.1
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10. In a Bourdon tube

Your Answer:
one end is sealed and the other end open to atmosphere

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David

Harris Page 182
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1. Electrical driven gyros are

Your Answer:
rotated at the same speed as air driven gyros INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
rotated faster than air driven gyros
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2.
In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit, there is a break in the circuit

to the bulb. This will give
Your Answer:
full scale deflection CORRECT
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Think of it this way - resistance increases with temperature,

and that drives it toward fsd. If the bulb circuit is broken, the
resistance will be infinite
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3.
With the gyro at normal running speed, a torque applied to the inner gimbal
ring of a vertical gyro will cause the
Your Answer:
inner ring to move INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
outer ring to move
Comment/Reference:

110
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4. When an aircraft is descending, the pressure in the altimeter case
000
Your Answer:
will cause the aneroid capsule to contract CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

David Harris Page 5
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5. The supply of Desynn indicating system

Your Answer:
is direct current CORRECT
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6.
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details of the
textbook shown
A sensitive altimeter reading 100 ft. when the millibar scale is set to the
atmospheric pressure at airfield level (QFE)
Your Answer:
indicates that the aircraft is in a region of high pressure and the

reading must be corrected to I.S.A. standards INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
indicates that the instrument is unserviceable
Comment/Reference:

David Harris Page 9
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7.
After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in the aircraft static system
should be released to the atmosphere by
Your Answer:
removing the static connector from its static vent INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set
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8. An altimeter is operated
Your Answer:
by the static system CORRECT
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9. What is the purpose of the bimetallic strip in the altimeter?

Your Answer:
Corrects for capsule elasticity CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

David Harris Page 5
Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett pages 50
& 51
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10. Which axis does the directional gyro spin on?

Your Answer:
Both vertical and horizontal INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Horizontal
Comment/Reference:

David Harris Page 8
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1. If True Airspeed is 470 knots, what is the Equivalent Air speed?

Your Answer:
278 knots CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
True airspeed is always higher than EAS (or IAS) at any

altitude above Sea Level.
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2.
If the Airspeed Indicator reading is 300 Knots, what is the Calibrated

Airspeed?
Your Answer:
296 knots INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
304 knots
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3. In an Artificial Horizon, Erection Error is caused by

Your Answer:
displacement of erection control device CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity & Electronics (Fifth Edition) Eismin pages

307 308 & Figure 15-20 HSI Indicator
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4. A Vertical Speed Indicator metering unit consist of

Your Answer:
both an orifice and a capillary CORRECT
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5. The manual VOR input is for

Your Answer:
the course deviation bar CORRECT
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6.
After correction of the north-south heading reading on a compass swing, the

resultant correction is known as
Your Answer:
residual deviation CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-5 Para 9.2.6
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7. Apparent drift on directional gyro is corrected by

Your Answer:
an adjustment nut on inner ring CORRECT
Comment/Reference:

45
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8. If a micro adjuster is replaced in a compass system, you would

Your Answer:
set it up the same as the one removed INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
carry out a new compass swing
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In a compass swing:
9.
North error -2 degrees, South error + 2

degrees.
The coefficient C is
Your Answer:
0 degrees INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
-2 degrees
Comment/Reference:
AL/10-5 Table 1. This is not the same as a previous question.

Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems Pallett Page 92
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10. Purpose of Altitude Alerting is to warn the pilot of

Your Answer:
altitude information INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
approach to or deviation from selected altitude
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1. What is the minimum candelas of an anti-collision beacon?

Your Answer:
100 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
20
Comment/Reference:
CAP 393 Rules of the Air Section III Para 11 (2)
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2.
What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is switched to the on
position?
Your Answer:
Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate CORRECT
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3. Escape route lighting must not have more than

Your Answer:
10% obscured INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
20% obscured
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4. How many emergency lights are allowed to be inoperative?
000
Your Answer:
None INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
25%
Comment/Reference:
JAR 25.812 (l) (1), and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 2.11.1
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5. The angle of a runway turnoff light is
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
50 CORRECT
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6. Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with

Your Answer:
28 V AC INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
115 V AC
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-76 (figure

7-115)
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7.
In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency
lighting system during flight?
Your Answer:
OFF INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Armed
Comment/Reference:
Transport Category Aircraft Systems 11-23
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8. Dome lights on the flight deck are powered by the

Your Answer:
battery bus bar INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
battery bus bar or ground services
Comment/Reference:
Boeing 757 WDM 33-11-31 pg 1 shows 28vdc BAT Bus for

normal use, when the flight deck ovrd relay is energised the
28vac GND service bus powers the dome lights
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The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single
9. transverse vertical separation of the fuselage during crash landing the
maximum amount of emergency lighting that fails is
Your Answer:
10% INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
25%
Comment/Reference:
JAR 25.812
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10. Rear navigation lights have

Your Answer:
flashing white light with a viewing angle of 60 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
steady white light with a viewing angle of 140
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section)
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1.
Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory requirement and each light should be

spaced
Your Answer:
at 40 inch intervals CORRECT
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2. Tritium Gas is used in a

Your Answer:
self illuminating light CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-10 4.8.1
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3.
A strobe light is a light unit that takes the form of a glass tube filled with
which gas and its light colour is what?
Your Answer:
Xenon gas and blue-white CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-10 3.2.3
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4. The aircraft has a partial failure of its emergency lighting system

Your Answer:
continue with reduced passenger load CORRECT
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A club66 user who got this question in the CAA exam, queried
it with the CAA. He was told (by the CAA assessor) that the
answer is 'continue with reduced passenger load'. However, no
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5. Navigation lights are supplied by the following circuit:
000
Your Answer:
Single circuit CORRECT
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6. Automatic no smoking sign will illuminate
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
when landing gear is down CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
737 AMM 33-24-00
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1. Runway turn-off lights have a viewing angle of

Your Answer:
160 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
50
Comment/Reference:

section)
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2. A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of

Your Answer:
20 candelas CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para. 11 (2) (d)
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3. Service lights include

Your Answer:
avionics bay lights, engine scanning lights, baggage

compartment lights INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights, refuelling lights
Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-10 3.5
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4.
Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head, a time period must

elapse to avoid electrical shock or burning. That time period is at least
Your Answer:
2 minutes CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-10 5.5
000
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5.
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textbook shown
The rear light of an aircraft must be white and, in addition, must show
through an inclusive angle of
Your Answer:
140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para 2 a iii and CAIPs EEL/110 3.1 c)
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6. Self-illuminating signs
Your Answer:
are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark
adapted CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-10 4.8
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7.
If the common portion of the winding of a autotransformer used to supply a

26 VAC light bulb from a 115 VAC busbar goes open circuit the light bulb will
Your Answer:
blow CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
All current would divert through the bulb.
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8. In the CWS system, the caution light is coloured

Your Answer:
red INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
amber
Comment/Reference:
CAIPs EEL/1-10 4.4.1
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9. On a CWS, which has the highest priority?

Your Answer:
Hydraulic pump failure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Fire warning
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10. What inert gas is used in a typical strobe light?

Your Answer:
Freon INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Xenon
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett, Pg 147
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1. Runway turn-off lights have a beam width of

Your Answer:
10 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
50
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett 3rd Edition Page 146
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2.
When a helicopter lands, how does the pilot signal to the ground staff that it
is safe to approach the aircraft?
Your Answer:
Turning off the anti-collision lights CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
ANO Section 2 Section 111 Para 9 (3)
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3. What is the power supply to cabin flourescent tubes?

Your Answer:
115VAC CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook. 12-66 p584
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4. What is the arc of a landing light?

Your Answer:
15 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
11
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 146 Fig 10-1
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5. The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is

Your Answer:
110 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
140
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 146, and

JAR 25.1387
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6. Wing navigation lights must be visible through which angle?

Your Answer:
110 CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 146, and JAR 25.1387,

and EEL/1-10 301 a)
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7. Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the

Your Answer:
battery bus INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
battery bus and ground services bus
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin 5th edition page 256
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8. Wing steady light must be visible through
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Your Answer:
110 degrees CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett Page 146
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9. Upper and lower anti-collision lights are coloured

Your Answer:
red CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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10. Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by

Your Answer:
DC handling bus INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
AC handling bus
Comment/Reference:
BAe 146 AMM (AC ground service busbar) although other

aircraft (A340, B747) use 28VDC ground bus
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, Pg256, Other Lights.
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1. What colour is the strobe light on the PORT wing?

Your Answer:
Red INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
White
Comment/Reference:
Question says STROBE light. RTFQ
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2. Galley and cabin lighting operate from the

Your Answer:
GND services bus INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
AC bus
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Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin Page 258 fig 13-11
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3. With aircraft lights - which of the following is true?

Your Answer:
Starboard light green, port light red, tail light white CORRECT
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4. Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative, then

Your Answer:
the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base
Comment/Reference:
Can fly without passengers in accordance with the MEL. No

reference found
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000
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5. If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative
Click the image for

details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/
shut off INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can
be fixed
Comment/Reference:
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6. The tail navigation light. What angle of divergence should it have?

Your Answer:
120 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
140
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett Third Edition Pg.145
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7.
A white navigation light, as viewed in the horizontal plane, will be at

least
Your Answer:
20 candela CORRECT
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Comment/Reference:
CS 25.1391 Table
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8. A fluorescent tube contains

Your Answer:
orange coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
Comment/Reference:
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9. A white steady light is required

Your Answer:
of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees

either side of dead astern INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees

either side of dead astern
Comment/Reference:
CAP 393 Rules of the Air Rule 11 (2) (a) (iii)
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10. How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?
Your Answer:
25% CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
AWN 56 2.11
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1. A MCDU is
Your Answer:
to dialog with the central maintenance computer CORRECT
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2.
Priority messages in an aircraft centralised warning system, go in order of

(lowest to highest):
Your Answer:
TCAS, windshear, GPWS INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
TCAS, GPWS, windshear
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Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments & Automatic Flight Control

Systems Sixth Edition David Harris page 167
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3. What unit in a HUMS system carries out the data acquisition?

Your Answer:
FDR INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
MDR
Comment/Reference:
CAA Paper 2002/02

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4. The real time on a CMC is when
000
Your Answer:
fault history page is selected on the CDU INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
existing faults page is selected on the CDU
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5. One of the inputs in a CMC is autopilot controls. The data will be stored in
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details of the
textbook shown
Your Answer:
non-volatile memory CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page

271
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6.
In a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed and
provided by
Your Answer:
the engine indicating and crew alert system (EICAS)

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
the electronic interface units (EIU)
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7. What type of memory do CMCs have?

Your Answer:
Volatile INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
Non-volatile
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8. In an autoland aircraft fitted with a CMC

Your Answer:
all faults are recorded in Volatile memory INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory
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9. In a modern aircraft, a BITE is carried out

Your Answer:
only in the air INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
continuously when the systems are working
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10.
In case the aeroplane is wired for dual installation of the Central

Maintenance Computers and only one computer is to be installed
Your Answer:
it must be installed on RH side INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
it must be installed on LH side
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1.
With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central

maintenance function (CMF) is to
Your Answer:
log relevant maintenance data CORRECT
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2. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC, how do you get to the system pages?
Your Answer:
Through the ground test function CORRECT
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3. A modern aircraft CMC uses

Your Answer:
a CRT screen CORRECT
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4. Aircraft condition monitoring monitors
000
Your Answer:
with a fault detector and tells master warning computer

INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
certain parameters
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5.
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details of the
textbook shown
Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central maintenance computers, and you only
have one to dispatch the aircraft. Where do you fit it?
Your Answer:
RH side INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
LH side
Comment/Reference:
Eismin, Aircraft Electricity & Electronics, page 271
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6. A HUMS in a helicopter is
Your Answer:
Comment/Reference:
a system which monitors time period of components in service

and warns of a premature failure CORRECT
External website... and External
website...
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7. A Flight Data Recorder is activated when

Your Answer:
the helicopters engines are started CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
JAR Ops-3
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8. In a CMC, warning signals are generated by

Your Answer:
Warning computer CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Transport Category Aircraft Systems 11-5
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9. MCDUs
Your Answer:
store fault data INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
enable dialog with central maintenance computer
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10. The uploading function on an on-board maintenance system enables

Your Answer:
the on-board data base to be updated CORRECT
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1. An aircraft condition monitoring system
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Your Answer:
sends information to the central maintenance cell INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
stores information for long term error analysis
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2. ACMS quick access recorder

Your Answer:
can use previously if first bulk erased CORRECT
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1. A vacuum mercury gauge reads 5 in. is this pressure

Your Answer:
above ambient pressure INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
below ambient pressure
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2.
A fire test is carried out and the test button is released, but the light
remains on. This is because
Your Answer:
there is a fire INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
of a broken fire wire
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3. Mach trim operation is enabled by

Your Answer:
a mach trim actuator CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
Automatic Flight Control, 4th Edition, Pallett and Coyle, page

232
B737-3/4/500 AMM 22-11-00 para G. on page 8 (download
from Tutorial Support section)
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4. Deploying a secondary flight control surface will

Your Answer:
increase the angle of attack of the aerofoil CORRECT
Comment/Reference:
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000
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5. What is the arc of a landing light?

Your Answer:
20 INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
This is not covered in European legislation
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6. A shock wave is a very thin region in which there is a sudden decrease of

Your Answer:
temperature INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
velocity
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7. For a wing of low thickness-chord ratio the critical mach number will be
Your Answer:
the same as a wing of high thickness-chord ratio INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
higher than wing of high thickness-chord ratio
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8. Sweepback on the wing will
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Your Answer:
increase tendency to tip stall CORRECT
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9. A structure which if it failed would cause aircraft to crash is

Your Answer:
essential INCORRECT
Correct Answer:
primary
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10.
The method used on a work card to indicate the approximate location of a

component is
Your Answer:
zones CORRECT
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View Result Breakdown

1. Flutter can be reduced by using

a horn balance INCORRECT

(No Comment/Reference Available)

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2. An elevator provides control about the

lateral axis CORRECT

file:///C|/Documents%20and%20Settings/Jeremiah%20O'Brien/My%20Documents/18.htm (1 of 4)4/30/2008 6:53:24 PM

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3. The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft

are isolated to improve sensitivity INCORRECT

are isolated at high speeds

(No Comment/Reference Available)

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4. Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?

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5. Which flap will increase wing area and camber?

Click the image for

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 20

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6. Wing loading of an aircraft

decreases with density INCORRECT

Wing loading = aircraft weight/wing area

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7. An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is

(No Comment/Reference Available)

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file:///C|/Documents%20and%20Settings/Jeremiah%20O'Brien/My%20Documents/18.htm (2 of 4)4/30/2008 6:53:24 PM

right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted

(No Comment/Reference Available)

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9. A split flap increases lift by increasing

the camber of the top surface INCORRECT

the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion

Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-30

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pitch nose up INCORRECT

pitch nose down

Due to the centre of pressure moving aft

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Module Specific Links

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View Result Breakdown

1. The transition point located on the wing is the point where

the airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic flow

the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow

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2. The boundary layer is considered to be turbulent

just aft of the separation point INCORRECT

between the transition and separation points

file:///C|/Documents%20and%20Settings/Jeremiah%20O'Brien/My%20Documents/14.htm (1 of 4)4/30/2008 6:52:11 PM

Automatic Flight Control, 4th Edition, Pallett and Coyle, Page 9

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The advantage of a turbulent boundary layer over a laminar boundary layer

decreases energy INCORRECT

less tendency to separate