1. ..... Indra and Dadan go to anandas village for holiday next year?.

a. will
b. did
c. does
d. are
2. Ikbal anda thomas ..... the soccer matches at Bung Karno next year.
a. would watch
b. will watch
c. watched
d. watching
3. Sarah and Istihori ..... employee of a company next year.
a. will
b. am
c. will be
d. would be
4. My mother and my father ..... to visit my grandpa last year.
a. want
b. goes
c. go
d. going
5. Lisa anda Dian ..... at home night.
a. are
b. is
c. was
d. were
6. Risda and Suci ..... new bags last later.
a. buy
b. buys
c. bought
d. buying
7. Rifa and Bundan ..... MIRWANTI friends.
a. is
b. are
c. was
d. were
8.Saddam ..... a smart person.
a. are
b. is
c. was
d. were
9. Aditya and Prio ..... to mosque every friday to pray.
a. wiil go
b. go
c. goes
d. going

10. Nick .... good work for his test every semester.
a. got
b. get
c. gotton
d. gets
11. Satya and Yusha ..... their researches to their advisor every month.
a. shows
b. showed
c. show
d. shown
12. Mr Rovi ..... Mahardibata's adviser for his research.
a. does not
b. do not
c. is not
d. are not
13. Fauziah ..... have his driving lisence yet.
a. does not
b. do not
c. is not
d. are not
14. ..... Sukesi and Selly design the program yet
a. did
b. does
c. do
d. doing
15. Active: Danang and Nining will watch a movie next saturday night.
Passive: a movie will be watched by them next saturday night.
16. Passive: Yudika is treated well by his classmates.
Active: His classmates treat Yudika well.
17. Passive: Evalina and Fachmi are greated by Reza every time they meet.
Active: Reza(he) greets evalina and fahmi every time they meet.
18. Passive: Nova was visited by Richie and Sheila last month.
Active: Richie and Sheila visited Nova last month.
19. Active: Risky and tony play soccer every sunday.
Passive: Soccer is played by Risky and Tony.
20. What ..... Raditya study his collage every monday?
a. does
b. did
c. do
d. Is

CONTOH-CONTOH SOAL TOEFL DAN PEMBAHASANNYA

1. The French Quarter is the most famous and the most old section of New Orleans.
A

Answer : C (most old)

The superlative form of a one-syllable adjective (old) is formed with the suffix -est: oldest.
2. Liquids take the shape of any container which in they are placed.
A

Answer : C (which)
in The preposition must precede the relative pronoun: in which.
3. The first recorded use of natural gas to light street lamps it was in the town of Frederick, New York, in
A

1825.
Answer : B (it was)
The use of the pronoun subject it is unnecessary; it should be omitted.
4. Physical therapists help patients relearn how to use their bodies after disease or injure.
A

Answer : D (injure)
A noun (injury), not a verb (injure), is required.
5. Not only ____________________ places of
beauty, but they also serve scientific and
educational purposes as well.
(A) are botanical gardens
(B) botanical gardens to be
(C) botanical gardens are
(D) to be botanical gardens
Answer : A (are botanical gardens)
A main verb, such as are, is required to complete the clause (to be is not a main verb), and the subject and verb must be
inverted because the clause begins with the negative phrase not only.
6. Many communities are dependent on groundwater __________ from wells for
their water supply.
(A) that obtained
(B) obtained
(C) is obtained
(D) obtain it
Answer : B (obtained)
The only correct way to complete this sentence is with a participle (obtained really meanswhich is obtained).

7. Before starting on a sea voyage, prudent navigators learn the sea charts, __, and memorize lighthouse locations to
prepare themselves for any conditions they might encounter.
(A) Sailing directions are studied
(B) Study the sailing directions
(C) To direct sailing studies
(D) Studies direct sailing
Answer : (B) Study the sailing studies
Grammar : Gerund
8. At the Seventh International Ballet Competitions, Fernando Bujones won the first gold medal ever _________ to a
United States male dancer.
(A) To be awarded
(B) To awards
(C) That awards
(D) Should be awarding
Answer : (A) to be awarded
Grammar : infinitive
9. In the south-western part of the United States, most of the watercomes
A

of the Colorado River and the manmade lakes created from it.
C

Answer : (C) comes of

Grammar : the correct answer is comes from because its explain prepositions of place positions
10. Bill Clinton, that won the 1992 presidential election, was
A

formerlygovernor of the state of Arkansas.

D
Answer : (A) that
Grammar : the correct answer is who because its explain adjective clause
11. In 1791, Quebec was divided into two sections, Upper Canada and Lower Canada,
_____________ were ruled by elected assemblies.
(A) they both
(B) both of them
(C) in which both
(D) both of which
Answer : D (both of which)
This choice correctly follows the pattern quantifier + of + relative pronoun.

12. _________________ the best car to buy is a Mercedes Benz.

(A) Because of its durability and economy
(B) Because it lasts a long time, and it is very economical
(C) Because of its durability and it is economical
(D) Because durably and economy wise it is better than all the others.
Answer : (A) because of its durability and economy
Grammar : Adverbial clause of Reason
13. Those students do not like to read novels _______________ text books.
(A) In any case
(B) Forgetting about
(C) Leaving out the questions
(D) Much less
Answer : (D) much less
Grammar : clause of contrast
14. A number of the materials used in manufacturing paint are potential dangerous if mishandled.
A

Answer : C (potential)
An adverb (potentially), not an adjective (potential), is needed.
15. __________ experimental studies of the
aging process, psychologist Ross McFarland
determined that people could work
productively much longer than had
previously been thought.
(A) In that
(B) Through
(C) Since
(D) Into
Answer : B (Through)
This sentence can be correctly completed only with an introductory prepositional phrase (Through experimental studies).
1. The first recorded use of natural gas to light street lamps it was in the town of Frederick, New York, in
A

1825.
Answer : B (it was)
The use of the pronoun subject it is unnecessary; it should be omitted.

2. The French Quarter is the most famous and the most old section of New Orleans.
A

Answer : C (most old)

The superlative form of a one-syllable adjective (old) is formed with the suffix -est: oldest.
3. Liquids take the shape of any container which in they are placed.
A

Answer : C (which)
in The preposition must precede the relative pronoun: in which.
4. Physical therapists help patients relearn how to use their bodies after disease or injure.
A

Answer : D (injure)
A noun (injury), not a verb (injure), is required.
5. In the south-western part of the United States, most of the watercomes
A

of the Colorado River and the manmade lakes created from it.
C

Answer : (C) comes of

Grammar : the correct answer is comes from because its explain prepositions of place positions
6. Bill Clinton, that won the 1992 presidential election, was
A

formerlygovernor of the state of Arkansas.

D
Answer : (A) that
Grammar : the correct answer is who because its explain adjective clause
7. The hard palate.. between the mouth and nasal passage
a. Forming a partition
b. A partition forms
c. Forms a partition
d. A form and partition
(C) Because it uses the present tense using the verb 1 and to be is
8. .. the outermost layer of skin, is abaout as thick as sheet of paper over most of the skin
a. It is epidermis
b. The epidermis
c. In the epidermis
d. The epidermis is

(D) Because it uses the present tense using the verb 1 and to be is
9. During the Precambrian period, the earths curst formed, and life. In the seas
a. First appeared
b. The first appear
c. The first appearance
d. Appearing first
(A) Because using the verb 3
10. Before the statue of liberty in the united states, newspaper invited the public to help determine where.. .placed after
its arrival
a. Should the statue be
b. The statue being
c. It should be the statue
d. The statue should be
(D) Because the use of past continuous tense is future shoud +be
11. Seismic reflection profiling has.. the ocean floor is underlain by a thin layer of nearly transparent sediments.
a. Reveal that
b. Revealed that
c. The revelation of
d. Revealed about
(B) Because using the present perfect tense is to use has + verb 3
12. ..and terrifying, coral snakes can grow to 4 feet (1.2 meters) in length
a. They are extremely poisonous
b. The posion is extreme
c. Extremely poisonous
d. An extreme amount of poisonous
(a) Because it uses the present tense using the verb 1 and to be is
13. As in greek and roman mythology, harpies were frightful monsters that were half woman and half bird
a. Described
b. To described
c. Description
d. Describing
(B) Due to be added as a complement as to
14. D.w grifitth pioneered many of the stylistic features and filmmaking techiniques.. as the hollywood standard
a. That estabilished
b. That became estabilished
c. What estabilished

d. What became estabilished

(B) Because it has happened in the past
15. By the end of this month, I my assignment
a. Will finish
b. Will have finished
c. Finish
d. Am finishing
(b) Because the use of present future perfect tense is future S+will/shall+V3
Soal TOEFL Structure
1. Amanda Way's career as a social reformer____ in 1851 when, at an antislavery meeting in Indiana, she called for a
state woman's rights convention.
(A) begin
(B) began
(C) have begun
(D) to have begun
2. The celesta, an orchestral percussion instrument, resembles___.
(A) a small upright piano
(B) how a small upright piano
(C) a small upright piano is
(D) as a small upright piano
3. Thomas Paine, _____, wrote Common Sense, a pamphlet that identified the American colonies with the cause of
liberty.
(A) writer of eloquent
(B) whose eloquent writing
(C) an eloquent writer
(D) writing eloquent
4. Although beavers rarely remain submerged for more than two minutes, they can stay underwater ___fifteen minutes
before having to surface for air.
(A) as long
(B) as long as
(C) so long
(D) so long that
5. Protein digestion begins in the stomach ____ends in the small intestine.
(A) while
(B) and
(C) how
(D) because
6. When natural gas burns, its___ into atoms of carbon and hydrogen.
(A) hydrocarbon molecules, breaking up
(B) broke up by hydrocarbon molecules
(C) hydrocarbon molecules break up
(D) broken up hydrocarbon molecules

7. _____ ballet dancers learn five basic positions for the arms and feet.
(A) All of
(B) Of every
(C) All
(D) Every
8. Some colonies of bryozoans, small marine animals, form ___with trailing stems.
(A) creeping colonies
(B) which colonies creep
(C) creeping colonies are
(D) colonies creep
9. Ruth Bader Ginsburg argued six women's rights cases before the United States Supreme Court in the 1970's,____
(A) of five winning them
(B) five winning of them
(C) of them five winning
(D) winning five of them
10. Natural selection is defined as the process ___the course of evolution by preserving those traits best adapted for an
organism's survival.
(A) to which directs
(B) of which directs it
(C) directs it
(D) that directs
11. ____ 363 miles between the cities of Albany and Buffalo in New York State, the Eric Canal helped link the Atlantic
Ocean with the Great Lakes.
(A) The extension of
(B) The extension
(C) Extending
(D) Extends
12.The chief sources of B12, a water-soluble vitamin ____ stored in the body, include meat, milk and eggs.
(A) is not
(B) that is not
(C) not that is
(D) that not
13. ____ is rooted in experiments in iron and steel conducted in the nineteenth century.
(A) While the history of twentieth-century architecture
(B) The history of twentieth-century architecture
(C) That the history of twentieth-century architecture
(D) Both twentieth-century architecture and its history
14.The primary source of energy for tropical cyclones is the latent heat released when ____
(A) does water vapor condense
(B) condensed water vapor
(C) water vapor condenses
(D) the condensation of water vapor

15. Maufacturing is Canada's most important economic activity, ____17 percent of the workforce.

(A) engages
(B) and to engage
(C) that it engage
(D) engaging
Kunci jawaban dari soal TOEFL structure di atas yaitu: BACBB CCADD CBBCD. Di bawah kami telah berikan
pembahasan terkait soal-soal TOEFL tersebut. Semoga dapat membantu kecakapan Anda dalam menajwab soal-soal
TOEFL ke depannya terutama pada hari ujian.
Pembahasan Soal TOEFL
1. Jawaban (B) began.
Kalimat tersebut terdiri dari dua clause:
1. Amanda Way's career as a social reformer____ in 1851 when
2. she called for a state woman's rights convention.
Anda bisa lihat bahwa clause pertama kehilangan verb (kata kerja) olehnya yang harus kita cari yaitu verb yang bisa
mengisi clause tersebut. Jawaban A salah. Clause ke dua menggunakan kata kerja bentuk past (called) jadi begin yang
berbentuk present tidak paralel dengan clause ke dua tersebut. Kalimat harus paralel. Jawaban C berbentu past perfect.
Ingat past perfect tak akan menggunakan kata keterangan waktu yang pasti seperti pada kalimat ini. Kata keterangan
waktu yang pasti pada klaimat ini yaitu in 1851. Jawaban D lebih jelas tak sesuai.
2. Jawaban (A) a small upright piano.
Kalimat ini membutuhkan objek dari kata kerja resemble = mirip.
3. Jawaban (C) an eloquent writer.
Di antara ke dua koma stelah subject itu membutuhkan appositive yang menjelaskan terkait identitas subject Thomas
Paine.
4. Jawaban (B) as long as.
as long as = and.
5. Jawaban (B) and.
dua kata kerja begins dan ends. jadi dibutuhkan kata penghubung and untuk menghubungkannya.
6. Jawaban (C) hydrocarbon molecules break up.
Kata its membutuhkan Noun (phrase) setelahnya. Phrase hydrocarbon molecules sesuai dengan persyaratan in, sementara
kata break up menjadi verb dari its hydrocarbon molecules.
7. kunci jawaban (C) All.
Jika menggunakan jawaban A maka seharusya all of the ballet dancers. Jawaban D salah. Kata every harus bertemu noun
singular sementara dancers berbentuk jamak.
8. Jawaban (A) creeping colonies.
Kata kerja form membutuhkan object.
9. Jawaban yang benar yaitu (D) winning five of them.
Hanya saja saya kurang yakin bagaimana cara menjelaskannya. Kalau saya lihat-lihat bentuk ini masuk di reduction
(adverb clause). Jadi winning five of them itu merupakan phrase yang direduksi (hasil reduction) dari adverb
clause. Hanya saja yang saya lihat di buku referensi saya -Betty semua contoh Phrase hasil reduction dari adverb clause
posisinya di depan kalimat. Jadi itulah mengapa saya kurang yakin dengan penjelasan terkait soal ini. Menurut saya inilah
soal TOEFL. Kalau kita perhatikan di buku-buku akademik tingkat advanced banyak kalimat yg menurut kita agak aneh.
10. Jawaban yang sesuai adalah (D) that directs.
Jawaban soal ini terkait penggunaan adjective clause yang menjelaskan kata the process.

11. Jawaban yang benar yaitu (C) Extending.

Pelajari tentang reduction dalam adverb clause.
Extending 363 miles between the cities of Albany and Buffalo in New York State. merupkan hasil reduction dari the Eric
Canal extends 363 miles between the cities of Albany and Buffalo in New York State.
12. Jawaban yang tepat ialah (B) that is not.
Ada dua clause:
1. The chief sources of B12 include meat, milk and eggs.
2. a water-soluble vitamin ____ stored in the body.
Clause ke dua menjelaskan subejct dari clause pertama. Clause ke dua tersebut membutuhkan verb.
13. Jawaban yang benar yaitu (B) The history of twentieth-century architecture.
Kalimat ini membutuhkas subject.
14. Jawaban yang benar yaitu (C) water vapor condenses.
Sudah jelas
15. Jawaban (D) engaging.
Mirip dengan bentuk soal no. 9.

SECTION 3
READING COMPREHENSION
Time-55 minutes
(including the reading of the directions)
Now set your clock for 55 minutes.
This section is designed to measure the ability to read and understand short passages similar in topic and style to those
found in North American universities and colleges.
Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of questions about it. You
are to choose the one best answer, A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Read the following passage:
John Quincy Adams, who served as the sixth president of the United States from 1825 to 1829, is today recognized for his
masterful statesmanship and diplomacy. He dedicated his life to public service, both in the presidency and in the various
other political offices that he held. Throughout his political career he demonstrated his unswerving belief in freedom of
speech, the antislavery cause, and the right of Americans to be free from European and Asian domination.

Example I
To what did John Quincy Adams devote his life?
(A) Improving his personal life

(B) Serving the public

(C) Increasing his fortune
(D) Working on his private business
According to the passage, John Quincy Adams "dedicated his life to public service." Therefore, you should choose (B).
Example II
In line 4, the word "unswerving" is closest in meaning to
(A) movable
(B) insignificant
(C) unchanging
(D) diplomatic
The passage states that John Quincy Adams demonstrated his unswerving belief "throughout his career." This implies that
the belief did not change. Therefore, you should choose (C).
Now begin work on the questions.
Questions 1-9
Carbon tetrachloride is a colorless and inflammable liquid that can be produced by combining carbon disulfide and
chlorine. This compound is widely used in industry today because of its effectiveness as a solvent as well as its use in the
production of propellants.
Despite its widespread use in industry, carbon tetrachloride has been banned for home use. In the past, carbon
tetrachloride was a common ingredient in cleaning compounds that were used throughout the home, but it was found to be
dangerous: when heated, it changes into a poisonous gas that can cause severe illness and even death if it is inhaled.
Because of this dangerous characteristic, the United States revoked permission for the home use of carbon tetrachloride in
1970. The United States has taken similar action with various other chemical compounds.
1. The main point of this passage is that
A. carbon tetrachloride can be very dangerous when it is heated
B. the government banned carbon tetrachloride in 1970
C. although carbon tetrachloride can legally be used in industry, it is not allowed in home products.
D. carbon tetrachloride used to be a regular part of cleaning compounds
2. The word widely in line 2 could most easily be replaced by
A. grandly
B. extensively
C. largely
D. hugely
3. The word banned in line 4 is closest in meaning to
A. forbidden
B. allowed
C. suggested
D. instituted
4. According to the passage, before 1970 carbon tetrachloride was
A. used by itself as a cleanser
B. banned in industrial use
C. often used as a component of cleaning products
D. not allowed in home cleaning products

5. It is stated in the passage that when carbon tetrachloride is heated, it becomes

A. harmful
B. colorless
C. a cleaning compound
D. inflammable
6. The word inhaled in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A. warmed
B. breathed in
C. carelessly used
D. blown
7. The word revoked in line 8 could most easily be replaced by
A. gave
B. granted
C. instituted
D. took away
8. It can be inferred from the passage that one role of the U.S. government is to
A. regulate product safety
B. prohibit any use of carbon tetrachloride
C. instruct industry on cleaning methodologies
D. ban the use of any chemicals
9. The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses
A. additional uses of carbon tetrachloride
B. the banning of various chemical compounds by the U.S. government
C. further dangerous effects of carbon tetrachloride
D. the major characteristic of carbon tetrachloride
Questions 10-19
The next artist in this survey of American artist is James Whistler; he is included in this survey of American artist because
he was born in the United States, although the majority of his artwork was completed in Europe. Whistler was born in
Massachusetts in 1834, but nine years later his father moved the family to St. Petersburg, Russia, to work on the
construction of a railroad. The family returned to the United States in 1849. Two years later Whistler entered the U.S.
military academy at West Point, but he was unable to graduate. At the age of twenty-one Whistler went to Europe to study
art despite familial objections, and he remained in Europe until his death.
Whistler worked in various art forms, including etchings and lithographs. However, he is most famous for his paintings,
particularly Arrangement in Gray and Black No. 1: Portrait of the Artists Mother or Whistlers Mother, as it is more
commonly known. This painting shows a side view of Whistlers mother, dressed I black and posing against a gray wall.
The asymmetrical nature of the portrait, with his mother seated off-center, is highly characteristic of Whistlers work.
10. The paragraph preceding this passage most likely discusses
A. A survey of eighteenth-century art
B. a different American artist
C. Whistlers other famous paintings
D. European artists
11. Which of the following best describes the information in the passage?
A. Several artists are presented
B. One artists life and works are described
C. Various paintings are contrasted

D. Whistlers family life is outlined.

12. Whistler is considered an American artist because
A. he was born in America
B. he spent most of his life in Americat
C. he served in the U.S. military
D. he created most of his famous art in America
13. The world majority in line 2 is closest in meaning to
A. seniority
B. maturity
C. large pices
D. high percentage
14. It is implied in the passage that Whistlers family was
A. unable to find any work at all in Rusia
B. highly supportive of his desire to pursue art
C. working class
D. military
15. The word objections in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A. protests
B. goals
C. agreements
D. battles
16. In line 8, the etchings are
A. a type of painting
B. the same as a lithograph
C. an art form introduced by Whistler
D. an art form involving engraving
17. The word asymmetrical in line 11 is closest in meaning to
A. proportionate
B. uneven
C. balanced
D. lyrical
18. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passsage?
A. Whistler work with a variety of art forms.
B. Whistlers Mother is not the official name of his painting.
C. Whistler is best known for his etchings.
D. Whistlers Mother is painted in somber tones.
19. where in the passage does the author mention the types of artwork that Whistler was involved in?
A. Lines 1-3
B. Lines 4-5
C. Lines 6-7
D. Lines 8-10
Questions 20-30
The locations of stars in the sky relative to one another do not appear to the naked eye to change, and as a result stars are
often considered to be fixed in position. Many unaware stargazers falsely assume that each star has its own permanent
home in the nighttime sky.

In reality, though, stars are always moving, but because of the tremendous distances between stars themselves and from
stars to Earth, the changes are barely perceptible here. An example of a rather fast-moving star demonstrates why this
misconception prevails; it takes approximately 200 years for a relatively rapid star like Bernard's star to move a distance
in the skies equal to the diameter of the earth's moon. When the apparently negligible movement of the stars is contrasted
with the movement of the planets, the stars are seemingly unmoving.
20. Which of the following is the best title for this passage?
a. What the eye can see in the sky
b. Bernard's star
c. Planetary Movement
d. The Evermoving stars
21. The expression "naked eye" in line 1 most probably refers to
a. a telescope
b. a scientific method for observing stars
c. unassisted vision
d. a camera with a powerful lens
22. According to the passage, the distances between the stars and Earth are
a. barely perceptible
b. huge
c. fixed
d. moderate
23. The word "perceptible" in line 5 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
a. noticeable
b. persuasive
c. conceivable
d. astonishing
24. In line 6, a "misconception" is closest in meaning to a (n)
a. idea
b. proven fact
c. erroneous belief
d. theory
25. The passage states that in 200 years Bernard's star can move
a. around Earth's moon
b. next to the earth's moon
c. a distance equal to the distance from earth to the moon
d. a distance seemingly equal to the diameter of the moon
26. The passage implies that from earth it appears that the planets
a. are fixed in the sky
b. move more slowly than the stars
c. show approximately the same amount of movement as the stars
d. travel through the sky considerably more rapidly than the stars

27. The word "negligible" in line 8 could most easily be replaced by

a. negative
b. insignificant

c. rapid
d. distant
28. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
a. starts do not appear to the eye to move.
b. the large distances between stars and the earth tend to magnify movement to the eye
c. Bernard's star moves quickly in comparison with other stars
d. although stars move, they seem to be fixed
29. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses
a. the movement of the planets
b. Bernard's star
c. the distance from earth to the moon
d. why stars are always moving
30. This passage would most probably be assigned reading in which course?
a. astrology
b. geophysics
c. astronomy
d. geography
Questions 31-40
It has been noted that, traditionally, courts have granted divorces on fault grounds: one spouse is deemed to be at fault in
causing the divorce. More and more today, however, divorces are being granted on a no-fault basis.
Proponents of no-fault divorces argue that when a marriage fails, it is rarely the case that one marriage partner is
completely to blame and the other blameless. A failed marriage is much more often the result of mistakes by both
partners.
Another argument in favor of no-fault divorce is that proving fault in court, in a public arena, is a destructive process that
only serves to lengthen the divorce process and that dramatically increases the negative feelings present in a divorce. If a
couple can reach a decision to divorce without first deciding which partner is to blame, the divorce settlement can be
negotiated more easily and equitably and the postdivorce healing process can begin more rapidly.
31. What does the passage mainly discuss?
a. Traditional grounds for divorce
b. Who is at fault in a divorce
c. Why no-fault divorces are becoming more common
d. The various reasons for divorces
32. The word "spouse" in line 1 is closest in meaning to a
a. judge
b. problem
c. divorce decree
d. marriage partner
33. according to the passage, no-fault divorces
a. are on the increase
b. are the traditional form of divorce
c. are less popular that they used to be
d. were granted more in the past
34. It is implied in the passage that
a. there recently has been a decrease in no-fault divorces

b. not all divorces today are no-fault divorces

c. a no-fault divorce is not as equitable as a fault divorce
d. people recover more slowly from a no-fault divorce
35. The word "proponents" in line 4 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
a. Advocates
b. Recipients
c. Authorities
d. Enemies
36. The passage states that a public trial to prove the fault of one spouse can
a. be satisfying to the wronged spouse
b. lead to a shorter divorce process
c. reduce negative feelings
d. be a harmful process
37. Which of the following is NOT listed in this passage as an argument in favor of no-fault divorce?
a. Rarely is only one marriage partner to blame for a divorce
b. A no-fault divorce generally costs less in legal fees
c. Finding fault in a divorce increases negative feelings
d. A no-fault divorce settlement is generally easier to negotiate
38. The word "present" in line 9 could most easily be replaced by
a. existing
b. giving
c. introducing
d. resulting
39. The word "settlement" in line 10 is closest in meaning to
a. development
b. serenity
c. discussion
d. agreement
40. The tone of this passage is
a. emotional
b. enthusiastic
c. expository
d. reactionary
Questions 41-50
Whereas literature in the first half of the eighteenth century in America had been largely religious and moral in tone, by
the latter half of the century the revolutionary fervor that was coming to life in the colonies began to be reflected in the
literature of the time, which in turn served to further influence the population. Although not all writers of this period
supported the Revolution, the two best-known and most influential writers, Ben Franklin and Thomas Paine, were both
strongly supportive of that cause.
Ben Franklin first attained popular success through his writings in his brother's newspaper, the New England Current. In
these articles he used a simple style of language and common sense argumentation to defend the point of view of the
farmer and the Leather Apron man. He continued with the same common sense practicality and appeal to the common
man with his work on Poor Richard's Almanac from 1733 until 1758. Firmly established in his popular acceptance by the
people, Franklin wrote a variety of extremely effective articles and pamphlets about the colonist's revolutionary cause
against England.

Thomas Paine was an Englishman working as a magazine editor in Philadelphia at the time of the Revolution. His
pamphlet Common Sense, which appeared in 1776, was a force in encouraging the colonists to declare their independence
from England. Then throughout the long and desperate war years he published a series of Crisis papers (from 1776 until
1783) to encourage the colonists to continue on with the struggle. The effectiveness of his writing was probably due to his
emotional yet oversimplified depiction of the cause of the colonists against England as a classic struggle of good and evil.

41. The paragraph preceding this passage most likely discusses

a. how literature influence the population
b. religious and moral literature
c. literature supporting the cause of the American Revolution
d. what made Thomas Paine's literature successful
42. The word "fervor" in line 2 is closest in meaning to
a. war
b. anxiety
c. spirit
d. action
43. The word "time" in line 3 could best be replaced by
a. hour
b. period
c. appointment
d. duration
44. It is implied in the passage that
a. some writers in the American colonies supported England during the Revolution
b. Franklin and Paine were the only writers to influence the Revolution
c. because Thomas Paine was an Englishman, he supported England against the colonies
d. authors who supported England did not remain in the colonies during the Revolution
45. The pronoun "he" in line 8 refers to
a. Thomas Paine
b. Ben Franklin
c. Ben Franklin's brother
d. Poor Richard
46. The expression "point of view" in line 9 could best be replaced by
a. perspective
b. sight
c. circumstance
d. trait
47. According to the passage, the tone of Poor Richard's Almanac is
a. pragmatic
b. erudite
c. theoretical
d. scholarly
48. The word "desperate" in line 16 could best be replaced by
a. unending
b. hopeless
c. strategic
d. combative

49. Where in the passage does the author describe Thomas Paine's style of writing?
a. lines 4-6
b. lines 8-9
c. lines 14-15
d. lines 18-20
50. The purpose of the passage is to
a. discuss American literature in the first half of the eighteen century
b. give biographical data on two American writers
c. explain which authors supported the Revolution
d. describe the literary influence during revolutionary America
Kunci Jawaban
CBAC ABDA BBBA DCAD BCDD CBAC DDBB ACCD ABAD BADC BCBA BAAB DD

ETS

On the recording, you will hear:

(woman)
(man)
(narrator)

I don't like this painting very much.

Neither do I.
What does the man mean?

In your test book, you will read:

A. He doesn't like the painting either.
B. He doesn't know how to paint.
C. He doesn't have any paintings.
D. He doesn't know what to do.
You learn from the conversation that neither the man nor the woman likes the painting. The best answer to the question,
"What does the man mean?" is A, "He doesn't like the painting either." Therefore, the correct choice is A.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. You will hear:
(man)
(woman)
(narrator)

Shall I lock up the computer lab now before I go home?

Don't bother. I'm not leaving for a while, I can check it on my way out.
What will the woman probably do?

You will read:

A. Lock the computer lab later.

B. Leave with the man.
C. Buy a new lock for the computer lab.
D. Show the man where the lab is.
2. You will hear:

(man)
(woman)
(narrator)
You will read:

Do you mind if I turn the television off?

Well, I'm in the middle of watching a program.
What does the woman imply?
A. The man should watch the program too.
B. The man should leave the television on.
C. The program will be over soon.

D. She'll watch television later.

3. You will hear:
(woman)
(man)
(narrator)

I heard the math requirements for graduation are being changed.

Yes. And I may be short one course.
What does the man mean?

You will read:

A. He isn't sure what course to take.

B. The math course is too short.
C. He may not meet the graduation requirements.
D. The graduation date has been changed.

Part B
Directions: In this part of the test you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation you will hear several
questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen.
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
SAMPLE CONVERSATION AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS
(narrator)
(man)
(woman)
(man)
(woman)
(man)
(woman)
(man)
(woman)
(man)

Questions 4 through 7. Listen to a conversation about a trip.

Are you ready for "The Big Apple"?
Excuse me?
You know, New York City. You are going to New York with us, aren't you? I wanted to show
everybody around my old neighborhood.
Oh...sure! I wouldn't miss it especially when the tour guide is a native New Yorker.
I thought we could start at the Museum of Modern Art. Right now there's an exhibit on twentiethcentury American painters.
Fine with me...but what were you saying about...a big apple?
"The Big Apple." It's a nickname for New York. I think I heard once that it started with jazz
musicians in the 20's.
Oh.
Whenever they played a concert in a city, they called that city an "apple." In those days, New York

was the biggest city in the country, so they called it "The Big Apple."
(woman)
(man)

Hey, I have an idea! Let's go to a jazz club while we're there.

Sounds good.

Questions:
4. You will hear:
(narrator)
You will read:

What is the man planning to see?

A. An art exhibit.
B. A Broadway play.
C. A modern dance production.
D. An opera.
5. You will hear:

(narrator)
You will read:

What can be inferred about the man?

A. He is a jazz musician.
B. He wants to join the woman's club.
C. He is in his twenties.
D. He was born in New York.
6. You will hear:

(narrator)

What does the word "Apple" in the phrase "The Big Apple" refer to?
You will read:

A. An instrument.
B. A city.
C. A theater.
D. A concert.
7. You will hear:

(narrator)

Who gave New York its nickname?

You will read:

A. Painters.
B. Tour guides.

C. Musicians.
D. Grocers.
Part C
Directions: In this part of the test you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will hear some questions. The talks and
questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen.
Here is an example.
On the recording, you will hear:
(narrator)

(man)

Listen to an instructor talk to his class about a television program.

I'd like to tell you about an interesting TV program that'll be shown this coming Thursday. It'll be
on from 9 to 10 p.m. on Channel 4. It's part of a series called "Mysteries of Human Biology." The
subject of the program is the human brain how it functions and how it can malfunction. Topics
that will be covered are dreams, memory, and depression. These topics are illustrated with
outstanding computer animation that makes the explanations easy to follow. Make an effort to see
this show. Since we've been studying the nervous system in class, I know you'll find it very helpful.

Here is an example.
You will hear:
(narrator)

What is the main purpose of the program?

In your test book, you will read:

A. To demonstrate the latest use of computer graphics.
B. To discuss the possibility of an economic depression.
C. To explain the workings of the brain.
D. To dramatize a famous mystery story.
The best answer to the question, "What is the main purpose of the program?" is C, "To explain the workings of the brain."
Therefore, the correct choice is C.

Here is another example.

You will hear:

(narrator)

Why does the speaker recommend watching the program?

In your test book, you will read:

A. It is required of all science majors.
B. It will never be shown again.
C. It can help viewers improve their memory skills.
D. It will help with course work.
The best answer to the question, "Why does the speaker recommend watching the program?" is D, "It will help with
course work." Therefore, the correct choice is D.
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
PRACTICE TALK AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS
(narrator)

Questions 8 through 10. Listen to a talk about animal behavior.

Today's discussion is about a common animal reaction the yawn. The dictionary defines a
yawn as "an involuntary reaction to fatigue or boredom." That's certainly true for human yawns,
but not necessarily for animal yawns. The same action can have quite different meanings in
different species.

(woman)

For example, some animals yawn to intimidate intruders on their territory. Fish and lizards are
examples of this. Hippos use yawns when they want to settle a quarrel. Observers have seen two
hippos yawn at each other for as long as two hours before they stop quarreling.
As for social animals like baboons or lions they yawn to establish the pecking order within
social groups, and lions often yawn to calm social tensions. Sometimes these animals yawn for a
strictly physiological reason that is, to increase oxygen levels. And curiously enough, when
they yawn for a physical reason like that, they do what humans do they try to stifle the yawn by
looking away or by covering their mouths.

Questions:
8. You will hear:
(narrator)
You will read:

What is the speaker's main point?

A. Animals yawn for a number of reasons.

B. Yawning results only from fatigue or boredom.
C. Human yawns are the same as those of other animals.
D. Only social animals yawn.
9. You will hear:

(narrator)

According to the speaker, when are hippos likely to yawn?

You will read:

A. When they are swimming.

B. When they are quarreling.
C. When they are socializing.
D. When they are eating.
10. You will hear:

(narrator)

What physiological reason for yawning is mentioned?

You will read:

A. To exercise the jaw muscles.

B. To eliminate fatigue.
C. To get greater strength for attacking.
D. To gain more oxygen.

Section 1 Listening Comprehension, Parts A, B and C

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. D
Structure
Directions: Questions 14 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked
A, B, C and D. Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Look at the following examples:
Example I

Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes _______ they both emit hot liquids from below the Earth's surface.
A. due to
B. because
C. in spite of
D. regardless of
The sentence should read, "Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes because they both emit hot liquids from
below the Earth's surface." Therefore, you should choose answer B.
Example II
During the early period of ocean navigation, ________ any need for sophisticated instruments and techniques.
A. so that hardly
B. where there hardly was
C. hardly was
D. there was hardly
The sentence should read, "During the early period of ocean navigation, there was hardly any need for sophisticated
instruments and techniques." Therefore, you should choose answer D.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Refrigerating meats ________ the spread of bacteria.
1. retards
2. retarding
3. to retard
4. is retarded
2. Throughout the animal kingdom, ________ bigger than the elephant.
1. whale is only the
2. only the whale is
3. is the whale only
4. only whale is the
3. The fact ________ money orders can usually be easily cashed has made them a popular form of payment.
1. of
2. that
3. is that

4. which is
4. The first article of the United States Constitution gives Congress ________ to pass laws.
1. the power
2. has the power
3. the power is
4. of the power
Written Expression
Directions: In questions 510, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the
sentence are marked A, B, C and D. Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the
sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds
to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Look at the following examples:

The sentence should read, "Guppies are sometimes called rainbow fish because of the males' bright colors." Therefore,
you should choose answer A.

The sentence should read, "Serving several terms in Congress, Shirley Chisholm became an important United States
politician." Therefore, you should choose answer B.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Section 2 Structure and Written Expression

1. A
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. D
10. D
Read the following passage:
The railroad was not the first institution to impose regularity on
society, or to draw attention to the importance of precise
timekeeping. For as long as merchants have set out their wares at

Line

daybreak and communal festivities have been celebrated, people

(5)

have been in rough agreement with their neighbors as to the time of

day. The value of this tradition is today more apparent than ever.
Were it not for public acceptance of a single yardstick of time,
social life would be unbearably chaotic: the massive daily transfers
of goods, services, and information would proceed in fits and

(10)

starts; the very fabric of modern society would begin to unravel.

Example I
What is the main idea of the passage?
A. In modern society we must make more time for our neighbors.
B. The traditions of society are timeless.
C. An accepted way of measuring time is essential for the smooth functioning of society.
D. Society judges people by the times at which they conduct certain activities.
The main idea of the passage is that societies need to agree about how time is measured in order to function smoothly.
Therefore, you should choose answer C.
Example II
In line 6, the phrase "this tradition" refers to
A. the practice of starting the business day at dawn
B. friendly relations between neighbors
C. the railroad's reliance on time schedules
D. people's agreement on the measurement of time
The phrase "this tradition" refers to the preceding clause, "people have been in rough agreement with their neighbors as to
the time of day." Therefore, you should choose answer D.
Now begin work on the questions.
PRACTICE PASSAGE
The Alaska pipeline starts at the frozen edge of the Arctic Ocean.
It stretches southward across the largest and northernmost state in
the United States, ending at a remote ice-free seaport village nearly
Line

800 miles from where it begins. It is massive in size and extremely

(5)

complicated to operate.
The steel pipe crosses windswept plains and endless miles of
delicate tundra that tops the frozen ground. It weaves through

crooked canyons, climbs sheer mountains, plunges over rocky

crags, makes its way through thick forests, and passes over or
(10)

under hundreds of rivers and streams. The pipe is 4 feet in diameter,

and up to 2 million barrels (or 84 million gallons) of crude oil can
be pumped through it daily.
Resting on H-shaped steel racks called "bents," long sections of
the pipeline follow a zigzag course high above the frozen earth.

(15)

Other long sections drop out of sight beneath spongy or rocky

ground and return to the surface later on. The pattern of the
pipeline's up-and-down route is determined by the often harsh
demands of the arctic and subarctic climate, the tortuous lay of the
land, and the varied compositions of soil, rock, or permafrost

(20)

(permanently frozen ground). A little more than half of the pipeline

is elevated above the ground. The remainder is buried anywhere
from 3 to 12 feet, depending largely upon the type of terrain and
the properties of the soil.
One of the largest in the world, the pipeline cost approximately

(25)

$8 billion and is by far the biggest and most expensive construction

project ever undertaken by private industry. In fact, no single
business could raise that much money, so 8 major oil companies
formed a consortium in order to share the costs. Each company
controlled oil rights to particular shares of land in the oil fields and

(30)

paid into the pipeline-construction fund according to the size of its

holdings. Today, despite enormous problems of climate, supply
shortages, equipment breakdowns, labor disagreements, treacherous
terrain, a certain amount of mismanagement, and even theft, the
Alaska pipeline has been completed and is operating.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. The passage primarily discusses the pipeline's
1. operating costs
2. employees

3. consumers
4. construction
2. The word "it" in line 4 refers to
1. pipeline
2. ocean
3. state
4. village
3. According to the passage, 84 million gallons of oil can travel through the pipeline each
1. day
2. week
3. month
4. year
4. The phrase "Resting on" in line 13 is closest in meaning to
1. Consisting of
2. Supported by
3. Passing under
4. Protected with
5. The author mentions all of the following as important in determining the pipeline's route EXCEPT the
1. climate
2. lay of the land itself
3. local vegetation
4. kind of soil and rock
6. The word "undertaken" in line 26 is closest in meaning to
1. removed
2. selected
3. transported
4. attempted
7. How many companies shared the costs of constructing the pipeline?
1. 3

2. 4
3. 8
4. 12
8. The word "particular" in line 29 is closest in meaning to
1. peculiar
2. specific
3. exceptional
4. equal
9. Which of the following determined what percentage of the construction costs each member of the consortium
would pay?
1. How much oil field land each company owned
2. How long each company had owned land in the oil fields
3. How many people worked for each company
4. How many oil wells were located on the company's land
10. Where in the passage does the author provide a term for an earth covering that always remains frozen?
1. Line 3
2. Line 13
3. Line 19
4. Line 32
Section 3 Reading Comprehension
1. D
2. A
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. D
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. C