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Fall 2008 IS310 Test 3 Name:: _________________

True/False 1 point each


Indicate whether the sentence or statement is True or False by placing a T or F in the blank provided.

__t_ 1. A communication protocol is a set of rules and conventions for communication.


_t__ 2. A complete cycle of a sine wave follows its full range from zero to positive peak, back to zero, to its negative
peak, and then back to zero again.
_f__ 3. The amplitude of an analog signal is measured in Hertz. (amplitude is the max distance between a wave peak
and its 0 value)
_f__ 4. Analog signals are widely used within computer systems due to their low susceptibility to transmission error.
[digital signal is most widely used: contain one of finite numbers]
_f__ 5. A multiplexer converts a digital signal to an analog signal for transmission over a voice-grade telephone line.
[A multiplexer selects one of many analog or digital input signals and forwards the selected input into a single
line]
__f_ 6. The signal-to-noise ratio of a communication channel is the difference between the highest and lowest
frequencies that can be transmitted. [StN is a mathematical relationship between the power of a carrier signal
and the power of the noise in the communication channel, measured in decibels]
_f__ 7. Accurate transmission requires that signal-to-noise ratio be less than or equal to zero. [high StN is better)
__t_ 8. Electromagnetic interference cannot interfere with signals sent through fiber optic cable. [EMI – noise
introduced to wires]
_t__ 9. Wireless transmission frequencies are regulated heavily, and regulations vary in different parts of the world.
__f_ 10. During full duplex transmission, sender and receiver exchange roles after a line turnaround is transmitted. [in
full duplex: receiver can communicate with the sender at any time over the second transmission line, while
data is still being transmitted in the first line]
__t_ 11. Packet switching is a type of time division multiplexing. [Packet switching: divides messages from all
users/applications into relatively small pieces called packets. Each packets contains a header that identifies
the sender, recipient, sequence number, and other information about its contents]
_t__ 12. Broadband transmission divides the capacity of a transmission medium to implement multiple channels.
__t_ 13. Type I error can only be decreased by increasing Type II error. [Type I error: Probability of not detecting a
real error. Type II error: probability of incorrectly identifying good data as an error.] Forces rechecking
_t__ 14. The control bus carries interrupts, read commands, and other control signals.
__t_ 15. Direct memory access (DMA) allows the transfer of data directly between memory and secondary storage
devices, without the assistance of the CPU.
_t__ 16. The operating system normally views any storage device as a linear address space, thus ignoring the device's
physical storage organization. [Linear address space: logical view of a secondary storage or I/O device as a
sequentially numbered set of storage locations]
_f__ 17. During a pop operation, one or more register values are copied to the top of the stack. [Pop operation:
process of removing an item from the top of a stack and copying its content to processor registers]

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__f_ 18. A cache controller is a hardware device that initiates a cache swap when it detects a cache hit. [Cache
Controller: processor or software that manages cache content. Cache: area of high-speed memory that holds
portions of data also held within another storage device. A cache improves the average speed of read and
write operations to or from its associated storage device]
__t_ 19. A level one primary storage cache is generally implemented on the same chip as the CPU. [Level one (L1):
within CPU; Level two (L2): on-chip; Level three (L3): off-chip]
__f_ 20. With a lossless compression method, compressing then decompressing a file produces a result different from
the original file.

Multiple Choice 1 point each.


Use the blank provided to identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the
question.

____ 21. The ____ implements the media access control protocol functions, including listening for transmission
activity, detecting collisions, and retransmitting messages in CSMA/CD networks.
a. Internet Protocol (IP for packet switching c. repeater ()
and routing)
b. token d. network interface unit (physical network
interface device used by a single computer
system)

____ 22. A(n) ____ scans packets on each network for destination addresses of nodes on another network and copies
those packets onto the other network.
a. hub c. bridge (device that copies or repeats
packets from one network segment to
another)

b. token d. socket

____ 23. A physical connection between two different networks can be implemented using any of the following except
a ____.
a. bridge (device that copies or repeats c. cap ()
packets from one network segment to
another)
b. router (device that examines packet d. switch (device that exists in one of two
destination addresses and forwards them states and can be instructed to alternate
to another network segment, if necessary) between them. network mode that quickly
router packets among network segments
with switching technology)

____ 24. A(n) ____ creates a new virtual LAN for each packet and destroys the virtual LAN as soon as the packet has
reached its destination.
a. bridge c. router (device that examines packet
destination addresses and forwards them
to another network segment, if necessary)

b. hub (network interface device that serves d. switch


as the network connection point for

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multiple computer systems)
____ 25. A switch dramatically improves network performance because ____.
a. Connection decisions are made by hardware based only on the destination address

b. Each virtual LAN has many sending and one receiving nodes

c. Both a and b

d. Neither a nor b

____ 26. The ____ model defines a generic set of software and hardware layers for networks and distributed systems.
a. Media Access Control (MAC – set of c. Asynchronous Transfer (transmission
rules that regulate access to a transmission method in which sender and receiver do
medium) not continually synchronize their clocks)

b. Routing Information (RIP – IP for d. Open Systems Interconnection (OSI –


exchange of routing information among standardized seven layer architecture for
network nodes) computer network and hardware)

____ 27. TCP uses a(n) ____ as the basic unit of data transfer.
a. frame () c. token (control packet that regulates access
to a communication channel)

b. socket d. datagram (smallest unit of data transfer


defined by the TCP)

____ 28. Packet loss cannot always be detected by a receiver if a(n) ____ protocol is in use.
a. connection-oriented c. routing information

b. connectionless d. transport control

____ 29. A socket is a(n) ____. (Internet standard for service identification that combines an IP with a service port
number, such as 129.24.8.4:53)
a. combination of an IP address and a service port number

b. standard network cable connector

c. node that connects two or more networks or network segments

d. TCP connection with a unique integer number

____ 30. What is the oldest and most widely deployed VoIP protocol suite?
a. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple c. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol
Access//Collision Detection – media – IP for message exchange among
access control protocol that allows gateways and routers)
message collisions to occur but defines a
recovery method.)
b. H.323 d. X.500 ()

____ 31. Which network type is based on the IEEE 802.3 standard?

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a. Ethernet (widely implemented local area c. TCP/IP (IP for translating messages into
network standard family) packets and guaranteeing their delivery)

b. SMDS (Switched multimegabit data d. Token Ring ()


service)
____ 32. An individual display element of a video display surface is called a(n) ____.
a. point (one seventy-second of an inch. c. dither (simulating continuous color tones
measurement unit for font size) using patterns of dots containing a finite
set of colors)

b. pixel (abbreviation for “picture element”. d. bit (value represented in a one position of
single unit of data in a graphic image. a binary number. Number than can a value
Single point on a display image) of 0 or 1. Abbreviation for binary digit)

____ 33. The printing industry generally uses inks based on the subtractive colors, which are ____.
a. red, green, and magenta c. cyan, magenta, and yellow

b. red, yellow, and cyan d. cyan, magenta, and blue

____ 34. Storing an 500 x 500 16-bit color image requires how many KB of storage?
a. 100 c. 500 (500x500 = 250000 * 16bit / 8bits =
500000/1000 = 500)

b. 250 d. 750

____ 35. A monitor is connected to a(n) ____ which is, in turn, connected to the system bus.
a. DMA controller (dedicated processor that c. channel (synonym of I/O channel.
manages data transfers during direct Shortened form of communication
memory acess operations) channel)

b. video controller (device connected to the d. cache (processor or software that manages
system bus and a video monitor that cache content)
accepts input from the CPU or main
memory and generates output appropriate
to the video monitor)
____ 36. The ____ of a monitor is the number of times per second that the screen contents are redrawn.
a. scanning rate c. refresh rate (number of times per second a
refresh operation occurs on a video display
service)

b. vector display rate () d. sampling rate

____ 37. A keyboard controller generates output called a(n) ____ when one or more keys are pressed.
a. control code () c. control character

b. escape code () d. scan code (coded output generated by a


keyboard for interpretation by a processor
or keyboard controller)

____ 38. Which of the following reduces CPU and computer system performance?

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a. Wait state (idle processor cycle consumed c. Storage medium (device or substance
while waiting for a response from another within a storage device that physically
device) stores data)

b. Registers d. Device controller (processor that control


the physical actions of one or more
storage devices)

____ 39. Access time is typically stated in ____ for secondary storage devices and nanoseconds for primary storage
devices.
a. microseconds (one millionth) c. milliseconds (one thousandth)

b. nanoseconds (one billionth of a second) d. picoseconds (one trillionth)

____ 40. The speed at which data can be moved over a communication channel is called the channel's ____.
a. cycle time (duration of one cycle; single c. access time (elapsed time between the
operation, functions, or transfers, as receipt and completion of a read or write
performed by a processor, storage device, command by a storage device)
or communication channel)
b. data transfer rate (aka BCR; rate at which d. clock speed (stated in hertz)
data is transmitted through a medium or
communication channel, as measured in
data units per time interval)
____ 41. The data transfer rate of a primary storage device is computed by dividing 1 by the access time and
multiplying the result by the ____.
a. rotational delay (waiting time for the c. unit of data transfer ()
desired sector of a disk to rotate beneath a
read/write head)
b. head-to-head switching time (elapsed time d. track-to-track seek time (time required to
required to switch shared read/write move a disk read/write head between two
circuitry between two adjacent read/write adjacent tracks)
heads)
____ 42. Tape drives are ____ access devices.
a. direct (DMA – method of data transfer c. random (ability of a storage device to
that enables direct data movement access storage location directly, or in any
between main memory and a storage or desired order)
I/O device, bypassing the CPU)
b. serial (access technique where data items d. average (Average Access Time –
are read and written in an order statistical average, or elapsed time,
corresponding to their position within required by a storage device to respond to
allocated storage locations)
a read or write command)

____ 43. Secondary storage is ____ than primary storage.


a. slower c. more volatile

b. more expensive d. faster

____ 44. What type of RAM requires frequent refresh cycles to maintain its data content?
a. dynamic () c. synchronous (Read-ahead RAM that

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breaks read and write operations into a
series of simple steps that can be
completed in one bus clock cycle.)
b. static (SRAM - RAM that implements d. enhanced (EDRAM – electronic memory
bit storage with a flip-flop circuit) circuit composed of DRAM but
supplemented with a small SRAM cache)

____ 45. The contents of most forms of RAM are ____, thus making them unsuitable for long term data storage.
a. dynamic (DRAM – type of electronic c. static ()
memory circuit that implements bit
storage with transistors and capacitors)
b. volatile (cannot reliably hold data for long d. fragmented (file or storage device
periods) characteristic in which noncontiguous
storage locations are allocated to one or
more files)

____ 46. Software programs permanently stored in a read only memory (ROM) are called ____.
a. software c. hardware

b. firmware () d. vaporware ()

____ 47. The number of bits used to represent a memory address determine the amount of a CPU’s ____ memory.
a. addressable (maximum amount of c. segmented (memory allocation and
memory that can be addressed physically partitioning based on equal sized
by the CPU) segmented memory addresses)

b. physical (physical primary storage d. flat (memory organization and access


capacity of a computer system, in contrast method in which memory locations are
to virtual memory capacity and described by single unsigned integers that
addressable memory)
corresponds to linear position)

____ 48. Data that are stored on magnetic media for long periods of time may be lost due to ____.
a. magnetic leakage (reduction in strength of c. helical scanning (tape recording method in
a stored magnetic charge because of which data is read and written by rotating
interference from one or more adjacent the read/write head at an angle, moving
magnetic charges of opposite polarity) from tape edge to tape edge)

b. coercivity (ability to hold and accept a d. indirect addressing (addressing method


magnetic charge) where a program’s memory address
operands do not necessarily correspond to
physical memory storage locations)

____ 49. Average access time can usually be improved by ____ the data content of a disk.
a. defragmenting c. offsetting

b. randomizing d. recharging

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____ 50. Compared to magnetic hard disk drives, the read/write performance of most optical discs is ____.
a. 10 times faster c. 10 times slower

b. 100 times faster d. 100 times slower

_____ 51. Many personal computers use memory packaged on small standardized circuit boards called ____.
a. DIPs (Dual in-line package - An early c. DRAMs
form of packaging for CPU and
memory circuits with two rows of
electrical contact pins)
b. SIMMs/DIMMs (single in-line memory d. SRAMs
module – small printed circuit board
with memory chips on one or both
sides and electrical contacts on one
edge; dual in-line memory module)
__c_ 52. The areas of a CD-ROM that store single bit values are called ____ or pits, depending on whether the data
content is a zero or one.
a. sectors (Smallest accessible unit of disk c. lands ()
drive. For most disk drives, 512 bytes.)
b. flats (Flat memory model is memory d. fields (component data item of a record)
organization and access method in which
memory locations are described by single
unsigned integers that corresponds to
linear position)
__d_ 53. The bus ____ governs the format, content, and timing of data, memory addresses, and control messages sent
across the bus.
a. master c. arbitration unit

b. slave d. protocol ()

__c_ 54. The CPU is always capable of being a(n) ____, thus controlling access to the bus by all other devices in the
computer system.
a. bus arbitration unit (processor that c. bus master (any device attached to a bus
mediates competing demands for control that can initiate a data transfer operation
of or access to a bus) or send a command to another device.
Device that controls a data transfer
operation during a specific bus clock
cycle)

b. bus slave (device that is incapable of d. peripheral processing unit (synonym of


acting as a bus master) I/O channel, particularly as applied to
minicomputers and mainframes not
manufactured by IBM)

__b_ 55. A(n) ____ is a signal to the CPU or operating system that some device or program requires processing
services.
a. pop c. push (process of copying register values to
the top of a stack)

b. interrupt (a signal to the CPU or operating d. cache swap (operation that copies data

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system that some device or program from a cache to its associated storage
requires processing services) device and then overwrites the cache copy
with new data)

__a_ 56. During interrupt processing, register values of a suspended process are stored ____.
a. on the stack c. in a buffer

b. in a cache d. in a linear address space

__b_ 57. During a(n) ____ operation, one or more register values are copied to the top of the stack.
a. pop (process of removing an item from the c. swap (area of secondary storage used to
top of a stack and copying its content to hold virtual memory pages that cannot fit
processor registers) into primary storage)

b. push d. shift

__b_ 58. The ____ is a register that always contains the address of the topmost stack element.
a. interrupt register (register in the control c. machine state (current processing state of
unit that stores an interrupt code received program or the CPU, as represented by the
over the bus or generated by the CPU) values currently held in registers)

b. stack pointer (register that always contains d. instruction register


the address of the topmost stack element)
__d_ 59. A buffer is not required when ____. [Buffer: primary storage that temporarily stores data in transit from a
sender to a receiver]
a. input and output data unit sizes are not equal

b. input data must wait until the device controller can gain access to the bus

c. output data must wait until the device controller can gain access to the bus

d. data transfer rates differ

__c_ 60. The difference between a cache and a buffer is ____.


a. data is removed from a cache as it is read

b. buffers are only used for storage device accesses

c. cache (but not buffer) content is intelligently managed

d. buffers are usually much larger than caches

__a_ 61. A cache controller is a hardware device that initiates a cache swap when it detects a(n) ____.
a. cache miss (access to data in a storage c. interrupt
device that is not also stored in cache)
b. cache hit d. stack overflow (condition that occurs
when an attempt is made to add data to a
stack that is already at its maximum
capacity)

__a_ 62. When a read operation accesses data already contained within the cache, the access is called a(n) ____.
a. cache hit (access to data in a storage c. cache swap (operation that copies data
device that is also stored in cache)

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from a cache to its associated storage
device and then overwrites the cache copy
with new data)

b. cache miss d. cache bypass

__c_ 63. If the bus clock rate is 250 MHz, what is the duration of each bus cycle? [MHZ = 1 million cy. per sec] [Bus
Cycle - period of time required to perform one data transfer operation on a bus. Elapsed time between two
consecutive pulses of a bus clock]
a. 2 nanoseconds c. 4 nanoseconds

b. 3 nanoseconds d. 5 nanoseconds

__c_ 64. The output resolution of a graphic display device (e.g., a laser printer) is normally measured in ____.
a. tracks per inch c. dots per inch (DPI)

b. bits per inch d. lines

__a_ 65. The primary colors for video display are ____.
a. red, green, and blue c. red, yellow, and green

b. red, yellow, and blue d. red, yellow, and cyan

__b_ 66. The ____ format is a commonly used method of compressed storage for motion video.
a. JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group) c. CMYK (Cyan, magenta, yellow, black)

b. MPEG (Moving Pictures Experts Group) d. MIDI (Musical Instrumental Digital


Group)

__b_ 67. The process of converting analog sound waves to digital form is called ____.
a. Dithering (a process that generates c. sampling (process of measuring and
color approximations by placing small digitally encoding one or more parameters
dots of different) of analog signal at regular time intervals.
Process of digitally encoding analog
sound waves)

b. scanning (the process of converting analog d. phoneme extraction (individual vocal


sound waves to digital form) sound comprising a primitive component
of human needs)

__c_ 68. Which of the following statements is not true?


a. A grayscale display can display black, white, and many shades of gray in between.

b. The number of gray shades that can be displayed decreases with the number of bits used to
represent a pixel.

c. Chromatic depth depends on the number of bits used to represent each color’s intensity.

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[Chromatic Depth: number of distinct colors or gray shades that can be displayed]

d. A monochrome display can display one of two colors and thus requires only one bit per
pixel.

__b_ 69. A monitor is connected to a(n) ____ which is, in turn, connected to the system bus.
a. DMA controller(allows the transfer of c. channel
data directly between memory and
secondary storage devices)
b. video controller d. cache

__a_ 70. The number of refresh cycles per second is normally stated in ____.
a. Hertz c. pixels

b. bytes (string of 8 bits) d. dpi

__a_ 71. What type of signal can carry one of an infinite number of messages during one unit of time?
a. analog c. digital – signal in which one of discrete or
countable set of values can be encoded by
modulating one or more carrier wave
parameters. Synonym of binary signal.

b. binary d. discrete – synonym of digital signal.

__a_ 72. Which of the following signal types is most susceptible to transmission error?
a. analog (signal in which any value of an c. digital
infinite set is encoded by modulating one
or more carrier waves parameters in direct
proportion to the encoded value. Signals
that varies continuously in one or more
carrier waves parameters, such as
frequency or amplitude)
b. binary d. discrete

__b_ 73. What characteristic of an analog signal is measured in Hertz, or cycles per second?
a. amplitude (magnitude, highest value, of c. phase
wave peaks of a waveform)
b. frequency d. skew (timing differences in the arrival of
signals transmitted simultaneously on
parallel communication channels)

__d_ 74. What modulation type encodes data by varying the magnitude of wave peaks within a carrier wave?
a. phase (characteristic of an analog wave c. frequency (number of complete waveform
that indicates its current cycle position (in transitions, change from positive to
degrees) with respect to the cycle origin) negative to positive energy peak, that
occur in once second)

b. packet (fundamental unit of data d. amplitude

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communication in a computer network)
__b_ 75. What is the bandwidth (in Hertz) of a channel with a minimum frequency of 1,000 Hertz and maximum
frequency of 10,000 Hertz?
a. 5,000 c. 10,000

b. 9,000 (bandwidth=max-min fq) d. 11,00

__d_ 76. What signal-to-noise ratio is required for accurate data transmission?
a. infinite c. zero

b. negative d. positive

__a_ 77. Which cable type has the highest bandwidth?


a. fiber optic (transmission medium for c. twisted pair (transmission medium
optical signal propagation, generally consisting of two electrical conductors
consisting of one or more plastic or glass (wires) twisted around one another)
fibers sheathed in protective plastic
coating)
b. synchronous (reliable high speed method d. coaxial (transmission medium composed
of data transmission in which data are sent of single strand of wire surrounded by an
in continuous data streams) insulator, a braided return wire, and tough
outer coating)

__a_ 78. Fiber optic cable segments can be longer than copper cable segments because optical signals experience less
____.
a. attenuation (process of determining or c. multipath distortion ()
verifying the identity of a user or process
owner)
b. compensating errors () d. S/N ratio

__a_ 79. What transmission method sends bits one at a time using a single transmission line?
a. serial c. RF – radio frequency

b. parallel (simultaneous transmission of d. infrared


multiple parts of single message over
multiple transmission media or channels)
__c_ 80. What transmission type divides the capacity of a transmission medium to implement multiple channels?
a. asynchronous c. broadband

b. synchronous d. baseband

__c_ 81. What transmission type uses start bits?


a. synchronous c. asynchronous

b. broadband (communication channel with a d. baseband (transmission method that uses


wide frequency range and high data the entire bandwidth of a communication
transmission capacity. Transmission channel to carry one signal or data stream.
method in which multiple digital signals Local Area Network transmission method
are carried over a single channel through in which multiple digital signals are
frequency division multiplexing) carried over a single communication
channel through time division

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multiplexing)

__c_ 82. What form of error checking uses a single check bit per transmitted character or byte?
a. block checking (synonym for longitudinal c. parity checking (act of validating data by
redundancy checking; parity checking recomputing the value of a parity bit)
method in which parity bits are
determined based on equivalent bit
positions in a group of bytes or characters)
b. cyclical redundancy checking (technique d. none of the above
for detecting errors in data transmission
based on redundant data computed with a
complex algorithm)
__b_ 83. ____ waves are the preferred method of digital data transmission over relatively short distances, for example,
on a computer system bus.
a. Sine c. Digital

b. Square d. Cosine

__d_ 84. Microwave and satellite transmissions are broadcast as ____ through space.
a. pulse code modulation (signal coding c. phases
method under which bit values are
represented as bursts of light or electrical
voltage)
b. parity-bits (bit appended to a small data d. radio frequency radiation
unit, such an ASCII character, that stores
redundant information used for error
checking. See even parity and odd parity)
__c_ 85. A(n) ____ can extend the range of an electrical signal by boosting signal power to overcome attenuation.
a. repeater c. amplifier (hardware device that increases
the amplitude or power of signal or
waveform)

b. return wire (transmission line that d. signal wire (component of an electrical


completes an electrical circuit between the communication channel (circuit) used to
sending and the receiving device) transmit a carrier wave signal)

__a_ 86. A network using a physical ____ topology connects all nodes to a central point (e.g., a hub or wiring
concentrator).
a. star (physical network connection pattern c. bus
in which all nodes are attached to a central
node)
b. ring d. logical (path that messages traverse as
they travel among network nodes)

__b_ 87. When two messages are transmitted at the same time a(n) ____ is said to have occurred.
a. connection (connection oriented protocol c. load balance
– communication protocol that requires
sender and receiver to establish a
connection prior to transmitting any data)

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b. collision (result of simultaneous d. transparent access
transmission by two senders on a shared
communication channel)
__b_ 88. Which of the following logical network topologies is most commonly in use when the CSMA/CD media
access strategy is employed?
a. ring (network configuration in which each c. star
network node is connected to two other
network nodes, with the entire set of
connections and nodes forming a closed
ring)
b. bus d. physical (physical placement of cables and
connections in a network topology)

__c_ 89. A(n) ____ is a special purpose packet, representing the right to originate network messages.
a. control packet c. token

b. ticket d. switch

__a_ 90. ____ transmits at 10, 100, or 1000 Mbps over twisted pair cabling.
a. Ethernet c. ATM ()

b. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple d. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol


Access//Collision Detection – media – IP for message exchange among
access control protocol that allows gateways and routers)
message collisions to occur but defines a
recovery method.)

Define the following acronyms 1 point each:

NAS Network Attached Storage - Architecture in which a dedicated storage server is attached to a
general-purpose network to service storage access requests from other servers.
SAN Storage Area Network – high speed interconnection among general-purpose servers and a separate
storage server.
POTS Plain Old Telephone Service
QOS Quality of Service – guaranteed minimum data transfer throughput between a sender and receiver.
USB Universal Serial Bus -
RAID Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks – use of a small set of simple central processing unit
instructions that cannot be decomposed into other processor instructions. Processor architecture that
emphasizes short, primitive instruction set computing.
DDR Double data rate -
SRAM Static Random Access Memory – type of RAM that implements bit storage with a flip-flop
circuit.

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CSMA/CD Carrier Sense Multiple Access//Collision Detection – media access control protocol that
allows message collisions to occur but defines a recovery method.
TCP/IP Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol – IP for translating messages into packets and
guaranteeing their delivery.
RAID 1 through RAID 5

Essays follow Points as marked:

Compare and Contrast NAS and SAN as to purpose, implementations and costs and management issues. (10

points.)

Compare and Contrast RAID levels 0, 1, and 5 as to how each works and the associated fixed and unit costs as
well as other aspects of capacity and reliability. In your explanation use calculations based upon a
250GB hard drive costing $50. (15 Points).

Compare and Contrast Star, Ring and Bus topologies. Include in your answer aspects of logical and physical
considerations for each. (15 Points).

Fall 2008 310 T3


Answer Section

TRUE/FALSE

1. ANS: T REF: 303


2. ANS: T REF: 305
3. ANS: F REF: 305
4. ANS: F REF: 309-311
5. ANS: F REF: 318
6. ANS: F REF: 320
7. ANS: F REF: 320
8. ANS: T REF: 322
9. ANS: T REF: 324
10. ANS: F REF: 326-327
11. ANS: T REF: 331
12. ANS: T REF: 332
13. ANS: T REF: 340
14. ANS: T REF: 217
15. ANS: T REF: 219
16. ANS: T REF: 221

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17. ANS: F REF: 230
18. ANS: F REF: 237
19. ANS: T REF: 238
20. ANS: F REF: 247

MULTIPLE CHOICE

21. ANS: D REF: 367-368


22. ANS: C REF: 368
23. ANS: C REF: 367
24. ANS: D REF: 369
25. ANS: A REF: 370
26. ANS: D REF: 370
27. ANS: D REF: 373
28. ANS: B REF: 375
29. ANS: A REF: 375
30. ANS: B REF: 376
31. ANS: A REF: 379
32. ANS: B REF: 261
33. ANS: C REF: 263
34. ANS: C REF: 265
35. ANS: B REF: 272
36. ANS: C REF: 273
37. ANS: D REF: 282
38. ANS: A REF: 170
39. ANS: C REF: 170
40. ANS: B REF: 171
41. ANS: C REF: 171
42. ANS: B REF: 172
43. ANS: A REF: 173
44. ANS: A REF: 177
45. ANS: B REF: 177
46. ANS: B REF: 179
47. ANS: A REF: 181
48. ANS: A REF: 186
49. ANS: A REF: 196-197
50. ANS: C REF: 201

15

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