PMP PMI-002

PMI-002
Exam
PMI-002
Title
Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)

Certification Practice Test
Updated
Product Type
04/18/2011
Q & A With Explanation 750
Best Material, Great Results. www.certkingdom.com
PMI-002
QUESTION 1
A contract cannot contain _____________.
A. Illegal activities
B. deadline for the completion of the work
C. Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
A contract cannot contain illegal activities. A contract can contain other options available.
QUESTION 2
Which one of the following comes first in the project plan?
A. Scope Statement
B. Quality Plan
C. WBS
D. Development Plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Scope statement comes first in the project plan. Scope statement is the written statement of
project. It contains: Project objectives, Project justification, Project deliverables
QUESTION 3
You are project manager of a project. During the process of selecting the sellers, you reject one
vendor because it doesn't have the manufacturing capability. This is an example of which
selection tool?
A. Weighting system
B. Screening system
C. Seller rating system
D. Expert judgment
Answer: B
Explanation:
A screening system rejects sellers that does not meet minimum requirements for the project.
QUESTION 4
______________ provides details about how the project scope may be changed.
A. Control Scope system
B. VeiirV Scope
C. Scope Charter
D. Scope Management plan
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Answer: D
Explanation:
The scope management plan provides details about how the project scope may be changed.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps to
prevent further occurrence?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Quality audits
C. Project audits
D. Risk audits
Answer: A
Explanation:
Root cause analysis: A technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps to
prevent further occurrence.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following provides the least accurate in estimating?
A. Rough order of magnitude
B. Budget estimate
C. WBS estimate
D. Definitive estimate
Answer: A
Explanation:
The rough order of magnitude is the least accurate approach, as it may vary from -25 percent to
+75 percent.
QUESTION 7
Who has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders?
A. Project Manager
B. Sponsor
C. Team Lead
D. Management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project Manager has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders.
QUESTION 8
What is a corrective action?
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A. An action that brings future project events Into alignment with the project plan
B. An action to correct something in the project
C. An action to prevent something in the project
D. Corrective action is not related to project
Answer: A
Explanation:
Corrective action: An action that brings future project events into alignment with the project plan
QUESTION 9
Assumptions are factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be ______.
A. True, real, or certain
B. True, real, or uncertain
C. Real
D. Verbal
Answer: A
Explanation:
PMBOK describes assumptions as "factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be true,
real, or certain."
QUESTION 10
A complete set of indexed project records is called __________.
A. Project archives
B. Index
C. sow
D. Project History
Answer: A
Explanation:
A complete set of indexed project records for archiving by the appropriate parties.
QUESTION 11
You are managing a project that will implement a new Insurance software package. Two project
team members have difficulty working together. They come to you, for help resolving the issues.
You immediately set up a meeting that includes the functional manager. After the meeting you and
the functional manager discuss the issues and agree on a solution. What type of organizational
structure you are working in?
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Piojectized
D. Strong Matrix
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Answer: B
Explanation:
Balanced matrix: Power is shared between both Functional and Project Manager. In this case you
include the functional manager in the meeting therefore it is Balanced matrix organization.
QUESTION 12
You have been with the organization; you constantly hear rumours about a certain CAPM failing to
live up to the CAPM Code. What you should do?
A. You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding
B. Confront the person immediately
C. Ignore the rumours
D. ^ass the rumours along
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding.
QUESTION 13
Who is responsible for issuing the project charter?
A. The project manager
B. The project sponsor
C. The Team lead
D. The nianagement
Answer: B
Explanation:
The project sponsor creates and issues the project charter.
QUESTION 14
In PMBOK, the seller is ________ to the project team.
A. Internal
B. External
C. Outside
D. Assigned
Answer: B
Explanation:
In PMBOK, the seller is External to the project team.
QUESTION 15
Project Quality Management includes:
A. Customer satisfaction
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B. Prevention over inspection

C. Continuous improvement
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Project Quality Management includes : Customer satisfaction, Prevention over inspection,
Continuous improvement, Management responsibility
QUESTION 16
You are the project manager of the MKTG Project. The project has a budget of $200,000 and is
expected to last 2 years. The project is now 20 percent complete and is on schedule. What is the
BAC?
A. $-00,000
B. $200,00
C. $50,000
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
The BAC is the budget at completion (Total budgeted cost), which is $200,000.
QUESTION 17
A Risk Register is a part of the ________.
A. Project Scope Statement
B. Project Management plan
C. Project Scheduling plan
D. Project Charter
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Risk Register is detailed part of the project management plan.
QUESTION 18
A Risk Register is a part of the ________.
A. Project Scope Statement
B. Project Management plan
C. Project Scheduling plan
D. Project Charter
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Risk Register is detailed part of the project management plan.
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QUESTION 19
Which type of network diagram is also referred to activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagrams?
A. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
B. Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD)
C. Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)
D. Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)
Answer: D
Explanation:
The arrow diagramming method (ADM) is also referred to as activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagramming
method. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also referred to as activity-on-node (AON)
diagramming method
QUESTION 20
Create Procurement document is done in _______.
A. Plan Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Answer: A
Explanation:
Create Procurement document is done in Plan Procurements process.
QUESTION 21
Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are
examples of ____________.
A. Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a project
B. Integral parts of the SOW
C. Ways to ensure stakeholder commitment
D. Project selection methods
Answer: A
Explanation:
Projects are seeded from the recognition of a regulatory or business need. Cost benefit analysis,
scorecard modelling , payback periods, and internal rate of return are examples of benefits
measurement methods when selecting a project. Best Option is A.
QUESTION 22
Most change requests are a result of _______.
A. Value added change (enhancements)
B. Schedule constraints
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C. Regulatory constraints
D. Improvement to the project scope
Answer: A
Explanation:
Most change requests (CRs) are a result of Value added change (enhancements).
QUESTION 23
Based on the PMBOK, who is ultimately responsible for the project quality?
A. Project team
B. Project manager
C. QA manager
D. Validation engineer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Project manager is ultimately responsible for the project quality.
QUESTION 24
The end of the project comes after which of the following?
A. Project charter
B. F'na' deliverable
C. Schedule
D. QA activities are done
Answer: B
Explanation:
Project will close after final deliverable.
QUESTION 25
The product description of a project can help to create procurement details. Which one of the
following best describes product description?
A. The product description defines the contracted work, based on the requirements of the project
customer
B. The product description defines the contracted work
C. The product description defines the requirements for the contract work
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
The product description defines the contracted work, based on the requirements of the project
customer
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QUESTION 26
During the planning phase of your project, your project team members have discovered another
way to complete a portion of the project scope. This method is safer for the project team, but may
cost more for the customer. This is an example of _______.
A. Alternative identification
B. "'s^ assessment
C. Alternative selection
D. Product analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Alternative identification is a planning process to find alternatives to completing the project scope.
QUESTION 27
What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?
A. Project task
B. wrl< package
C. sow
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
A work package is the lowest level of a work breakdown structure.
QUESTION 28
Administrative Closure should occur ___________.
A. At the end of each phase of the project
B. At the end of the whole project
C. At the end of 50% of the project
D. At the end of 100% of the project
Answer: A
Explanation:
Administrative Closure should occur at the end of each phase, not only at the end of the overall
project
QUESTION 29
In which phase project manager is assigned to a project?
A. During the initiation stage
B. During the planning stage
C. After approval of budget
D. After the project is proven feasible
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Answer: A
Explanation:
output of Initiation process : Project charter PM assigned Constraints Assumptions Project
manager is assigned to a project During the initiation stage.
QUESTION 30
Who gives project acceptance?
A. Sponsor
B. Customer
C. Project Manager
D. Team Lead
Answer: B
Explanation:
Customer gives project acceptance. Customer may be person or organization.
QUESTION 31
A requirement document is an input of __________ process?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Define Scope
C. Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Answer: B
Explanation:
A requirement document request is an input to Define Sco
QUESTION 32
Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. What are the two options?
A. Direct ar|d Indirect
B. Tactical and Strategic
C. Management and Project
D. 0n|y Tactical
Answer: A
Explanation:
Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. When doing this analysis, it should
include both direct and indirect costs so that the final decision is based on comparisons that are
equal.
QUESTION 33
Which of the following are the inputs of Define Scope?
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A. Requirements document created in collect requirements process

B. Project files from previous projects
C. Project Charter
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Define Scope - Inputs Requirements document created in collect requirements process, Project
Charter and Organizational Process Assets (Project files from previous projects, lesson learned)
QUESTION 34
Which document is best suited for tracking the assignment of all resources to specific tasks in a
project?
A. RACI mAl,x
B. sow
C. Staffing management plan D)0 CPI
Answer: A
Explanation:
The RACI matrix lists responsibilities of all resources. The staffing management plan only lists
types of resources and timing.
QUESTION 35
CORRECT TEXT
_________ is the international organization that controls the standards for quality.
Answer: A
QUESTION 36
CORRECT TEXT
The work breakdown structure is ________.
Answer: A
QUESTION 37
If a project with a SPI of 1.8, what you tell?
A. The project is running ahead of the schedule
B. The project is running behind of the schedule
C. Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
The SPI equals the earned value divided by the planned value. SPI = EV/PV A schedule
performance index of 1 or greater suggests that the project is ahead of schedule.
PMI-002
QUESTION 38
You are managing a project that will implement a new MARKETING software package. You have
assigned the resources and want to keep the IT manager in the loop by informing him or her of
your decisions. Which type of organizational structure are you working in?
A. Pi'ojectized
B. Strong Matrix
C. Weak Matrix
D. Functional
Answer: B
Explanation:
Projectized Organization: Any organizational structure in which the project manager has full
authority to assign priorities and to direct the work of individuals assigned to the project. Strong
Matrix: The project manager is assigned full time and has a full time support staff. Project manager
has the preeminent position of authority. Weak Matrix: Power reset with Functional Manager.
Functional: In this organization Project Manager has least power and all management is taken
care by functional manager like marketing engineer, sales engineer.
QUESTION 39
At what point in a project do you have the highest probability that it will fail?
A. The beginning of the project
B. ^ust before the end of the project
C. QA Phase
D. Execution phase
Answer: A
Explanation:
Risk and uncertainty are the highest at the beginning or a project.
QUESTION 40
From whom do you need to gain the formal acceptance at project closure?
A. The customer
B. The qualify director
C. Project management office
D. Project manager
Answer: A
Explanation:
need to gain this formal acceptance at project closure from the customer and sponsor.
QUESTION 41
Which statement is true about Bottom-up estimating?
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A. Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project
total.
B. Uses the actual cost of a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the
current project.
C. Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs.
D. Cost of quality can also be used to prepare the schedule activity cost estimate.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Bottom-up estimating: Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to
arrive at a project total. It is more accurate.
QUESTION 42
Which is not part of Project Plan?
A. Project Scope Management Plan
B. Schedule Management Plan
C. Cost Management Plan
D. Project Charter
Answer: D
Explanation:
All are part of Project Plan except project charter.
QUESTION 43
Which of the following is the most important task of the project manager during the Execution and
Control phase?
A. Information management
B. Maintain scope statement
C. Maintain Charter
D. Maintain Closing document
Answer: A
Explanation:
One of the most important tasks of the project manager during the Execution and Control phases
of the project is the management of information.
QUESTION 44
Which time estimating tools estimate the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively
determined by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Funding limit reconciliation
C. Reserves analysis
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Answer: A
Explanation:
Parametric Estimating: Estimating the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively determined
by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate.
QUESTION 45
You are project manager and now in middle of creating RFP (Request for proposal). RFP
(Request for proposal) is done in _______.
Answer: A
Explanation:
RFP (Request for proposal) is done in Plan Procurements process.
QUESTION 46
Which of the following statement is true about Strategic planning?
A. Strategic planning determines which projects will be choosing in order to achieve the
organizational goals
B. Strategic planning determines which projects will be sponsor in order to achieve the
organizational goals
C. Strategic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and funded
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Strategic planning determines which projects will be choose or sponsor in order to achieve the
organizational goals. Strategic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and
funded.
QUESTION 47
The Ishikawa diagram, Pareto chart, control charts, and statistical sampling are examples of
________.
A. Quality assurance
B. Quality control
C. Quality rules
D. CMM
Answer: B
Explanation:
PMI-002
The Ishikawa diagram, the control charts, Pareto chart, and statistical sampling are examples of
basic tools of quality control.
QUESTION 48
Which risk response is most likely to involve contingency reserves?
A. Acceptance
B. shaie
C. Mitigate
D. Transfer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Acceptance is when no change to the project is made for a risk. A contingency can be set aside to
offset the impact of the risk.
QUESTION 49
Which of the following does not provided by scope statement?
A. Project justification
B. Project product
C. Project manager authority
D. Project objective
Answer: C
Explanation:
The project charter provides the project manager with authority.
QUESTION 50
What is the communication channel delta if the members in the communication plan are increased
from 5 to 10?
A. 35
B. 5
C. 15
D. 75
Answer: A
Explanation:
Delta = n*(n-1)/2 - n1*(n1-1)/2 where n = individuals and n1 = new individuals 10-45 = 35 No of
communication channels: n*(n-1)/2 where n = individual
QUESTION 51
Collect Requirements process starts in Project Planning Phase and uses the outputs of the
__________.
A. Initiation Process
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B. Project closer Process

C. Estimation Process
D. Closing process
Answer: A
Explanation:
Collect Requirements process starts in "Project Planning Phase" and uses the outputs of the
Initiation Process.
QUESTION 52
You are the project manager of a project that just went into extinction mode. This means that your
project __________.
A. Has ended before its stated objective
B. 's st'" cunning but missing resources
C. Will be closed due to lack of resources
Answer: A
Explanation:
A project that ends in extinction mode is a project that has ended before meeting its stated
objectives.
QUESTION 53
When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose to add the individual estimates for
the activities that comprise each phase. What type of estimation method are you using?
B. Bottom-up estimating
C. Top-down estimating
D. Analogous estimating
Answer: B
Explanation:
arrive at a project total: It is more accurate. Analogous estimating: Analogous estimating is also
called top-down estimating and uses the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for
estimating the cost of the current project. Parametric estimating: Using project characteristics (or
parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs (e.g., price per square meter).
QUESTION 54
Who is responsible for the creation of the final project plan?
A. Project Manager
B. Team Leader
C. Sponsor
D. Project Team
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Answer: A
Explanation:
Project Manager is responsible for the creation of the final project plan.
QUESTION 55
Who has the responsibility for Plan Quality?
A. Project manager
B. QA manager
C. Project planner
D. Team 'ead
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project manager has the responsibility for Plan Quality.
QUESTION 56
Assumptions in the project plan should be _________.
A. Written down
B. Understandable
C. Not understandable
D. No need to write
Answer: A
Explanation:
Assumptions that are not written down are the most dangerous.
QUESTION 57
Who applies project selection methods to decide whether to accept or reject a project?
A. Project sponsor
B. Project team
C. Project manager
D. Senior Management
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project sponsor must have the authority to select and fund the project.
QUESTION 58
Which of the following statement is true about project charter?
A. Provides a high level definition of the effort and its stakeholders
B. Announces who is the project engineer
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C. Tells the newspapers and media when the project will end
D. Announces who is the project sponsor
Answer: A
Explanation:
project charter: The project charter formally authorizes the project, assigns the project manager,
and gives a high-level definition of the projects and its deliverables.
QUESTION 59
Which of the following is NOT an input of close project process?
A. Project management plan
B. Contract documentation
C. Deliverables
D. WBS
Answer: D
Explanation:
WBS is NOT inputs of close project process.
QUESTION 60
Which of the following is conflict resolution technique?
A. Compromise
B. Smoothing
C. Foimal
D. Coercive
Answer: B
Explanation:
smoothing is a conflict resolution technique, the rest are forms of leadership power.
QUESTION 61
__________ is providing detailed plans for tasks that are about to start in the near future using the
most current information and revisiting future activities when they near their starting dates.
A. Rolling wave planning
B. Progressive elaboration
C. Milestone detail planning
D. Expert judgment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Rolling wave planning is providing detailed plans for tasks that are about to start in the near future
using the most current information and revisiting future activities when they near their starting
dates.
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QUESTION 62
Which of the following activities is not part of Plan Risk Management?
A. Updating risk register
B. Determining risk roles and responsibilities
C. Identifying risk categories
D. Developing a risk management plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Updating the risk register first happens in Identify Risks phase. Determining risk roles and
responsibilities, Identifying risk categories and developing a risk management plan are part of Plan
Risk Management.
QUESTION 63
PMI discusses procurement focusing on the ______ relationship.
A. Buyer or seller
B. Vendor or seller
C. Purchasing
D. SellinoAnswer: A
Explanation:
PMI discusses procurement focusing on the buyer or seller relationship
QUESTION 64
Administrative closure is the process that ________.
A. Closes all activities pertaining to a specific project
B. Collects user acceptance of the project product or service
C. Includes all the activities needed to validate the project products and services
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
Administrative closure: Closes all activities pertaining to a specific project
QUESTION 65
You are project manager of a project, which of the following is not your responsibility?
A. Quality in the organization
B. Acquiring HR resources for the project team
C. Overall responsibility for risk on the project
D. Al1 of the above
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Answer: A
Explanation:
Senior management is responsible for quality in the organization
QUESTION 66
Project success can be achieved only if:
A. There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the business strategy.
B. The project sponsor leads the initiatives.
C. The project manager is an expert in managing resources.
D. Team members like project manager.
Answer: A
Explanation:
There is no project for the sake of spending money. There is a clear link between the project
deliverables and the business strategy.
QUESTION 67
You are project manager of a project and as part of the team acquisition process; you hire a new
employee and assigns him to your project team. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, what
needs level he most likely is at?
A. Social need
B. Physical need
C. Safety and security
D. Security
Answer: A
Explanation:
as new to project he is most likely looking for acceptance and friendship. This comes under Social
need.
QUESTION 68
Which one of the following is not an output of contract closure?
A. c'ose contracts
B. Lessons learned documentation
C. Deliverable acceptance
D. Scope statement
Answer: D
Explanation:
All are output of contract closure: Close contracts ,Contract file,Lessons learned documentation
and Deliverable acceptance.
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QUESTION 69
The intent of the risk management process group is to ________.
A. Increase the probability of positive outcomes in the project
B. Announce project risks
C. Not consider risks affecting the company
D. Announce project deliverables
Answer: A
Explanation:
The risk management process group serves as the road map used to reduce its impact on the
project.
QUESTION 70
ISO Stands for __________.
A. International Organization for Standardization
B. International Standardized Organization
C. 'n Standardized Organization
D. Indiana Standardized Organization
Answer: A
Explanation:
ISO Stands for International Organization for Standardization.
QUESTION 71
The project baseline is _______.
A. Original plans plus the approved changes
B. Important in the project initiation phase
C. Initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization
D. Original plans and the approved major changes
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project baseline: original plans plus the approved changes.
QUESTION 72
Which of the following is not a form a leadership power?
A. Compromise
B. Smoothing
C. Foimal
D. Coercive
Answer: B
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Explanation:
smoothing is a conflict resolution technique, the rest are forms of leadership power.
QUESTION 73
___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or
results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.
A. Procurement Management
B. Planning Management
C. Scope Management
D. Control Management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Procurement Management is groups of processes required to purchase or acquire the products,
services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.
QUESTION 74
You are the project manager of a project. If there are approved changes to the original scope,
what you do with the old original scope?
A. Save the old versions
B. No need to save old version
C. Scrap the old version
D. Old version is not required
Answer: A
Explanation:
All the version you should keep in version control system.
QUESTION 75
Which of the following subsidiary plan contains the quality objectives for the project?
A. Quality baseline
B. Quality management plan
C. Process improvement plan
D. QA checklist
Answer: A
Explanation:
The quality baseline documents the quality objectives for the project.
QUESTION 76
Function of the __________ is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are recorded
and agreed to by the stakeholders.
A. Project Manager
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B. Sponsor
C. Team Lead
D. Management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Function of the project manager is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are
recorded and agreed to by the stakeholders.
QUESTION 77
Which of the following is an output of Verify Scope?
A. Formal acceptance
B. WBS template
C. sow acceptance
D. Rework
Answer: A
Explanation:
Output of Verify Scope is formal acceptance.
QUESTION 78
Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the __________.
A. Work Breakdown Structure
B. sow
C. Project Charter
D. Project Scope Statement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the WBS.
QUESTION 79
How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are
participating?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
No of communication channels: n*(n-1)/2 where n = individual. In this case 5*(5-1)/2 = 10
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QUESTION 80
Which of the following project document is best suited for tracking costs of resources?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. P'sk breakdown structure
C. Organizational breakdown structure
D. Resource breakdown structure
Answer: A
Explanation:
The resource breakdown structure organizes all resources in a hierarchical structure, allowing for
cost tracking also.
QUESTION 81
If a project with a CPI of 0.8, what you tell?
A. The project is consuming more resources than anticipated.
B. The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.
C. The project is falling behind.
D. The project is running ahead of schedule.
Answer: A
Explanation:
If your cost performance index is above 1.0, it indicates that you have costs that are less then
estimated. CPI = EV/AC (Earned value/ Actual cost)
QUESTION 82
Which monitoring or controlling activities would not result in preventive action being applied?
A. Control Scope
B. Manage project team
C. Quality control
D. Manage Scope statement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Scope, schedule, and Control Costs can all result in corrective action, but not preventive action.
QUESTION 83
_______ is the road map for the execution of the project.
A. Project plan
B. sow
C. WBS
D. Strategic planning
Answer: A
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Explanation:
Project plan is the road map for the execution of the project.
QUESTION 84
You are the project manager of a project and budgeted money to provide cash awards to team
members that exceed expectations. A project team member that is motivated by the chance to
earn cash reward can most accurately be explained by which theory
A. Hierarchy of needs
B. Expectancy theory
C. Achievement theory
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
The team member is working hard because he expects to be rewarded so it is Expectancy theory
QUESTION 85
Which of the following are input of close project process?
A. Project management plan
B. Contract documentation
C. Deliverables
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
All are inputs of close project process.
QUESTION 86
The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.
A. Assign the project manager to the project
B. Formally describe the project
C. Produce the project charter
D. Formally authorize the project
Answer: D
Explanation:
Output of project initiation is formally authorizing the project. Output of project scope initiation is:
Project charter PM assigned Constraints and Assumptions.
QUESTION 87
Which document formally authorizes a project?
A. The project charter
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B. Project scope statement

C. The P'oject contract
D. Project closing document
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project charter is the formal document for authorizes a project.
QUESTION 88
Project just went into inclusion mode. This means that project __________.
A. Has become part of the business processes
B. Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client
C. Will be closed due to lack of resources
Answer: A
Explanation:
inclusion mode: Has become part of the business processes. A contract cannot contain
_____________.
QUESTION 89
The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.
A. Assign the project manager to the project
B. Formally describe the project
C. Produce the project charter
D. Formally authorize the project
Answer: D
Explanation:
Output of project initiation is formally authorizing the project. Output of project scope initiation is:
Project charter PM assigned Constraints and Assumptions.
QUESTION 90
Who is responsibility for making sure that a message in the project team is understood
A. Project Manager
B. Sender
C. Project coordinator
D. Sponsor
Answer: B
Explanation:
The sender has to make sure that the receiver acknowledges the receipt and message is
understood, and the receiver needs to ensure that the sender received the acknowledgement.
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QUESTION 91
_________ is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined.
A. Cost plus incentive fee
B. F'xed P|ice
C. Time and material
D. "'s^ 's nc* 'elated to price
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cost plus incentive fee is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well
defined. Fixed price and purchase order are the best choice for buyer when the item is well
defined
QUESTION 92
participating?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION 93
Acceptance of the product should be ________.
A. Formal
B. Consistent
C. Personal
D. Verbal
Answer: A
Explanation:
The acceptance should be formal.
QUESTION 94
You are creating your WBS and keep decomposing tasks into smaller units. How can you tell
when you are done?
A. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that is small enough to reliably
estimate required resources and duration.
B. Keep decomposing work until you reach a predetermined number of hierarchy levels to keep
PMI-002
the WBS balanced.

C. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one
DAY.
D. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one
WEEK.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that is small enough to reliably
estimate required resources and duration.
QUESTION 95
If a project with a SPI of 0.8, what you tell?
A. The project is running ahead of the schedule
B. The project is running behind of the schedule
C. Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
The SPI equals the earned value divided by the planned value. SPI = EV/PV A schedule
performance index of 1 or greater suggests that the project is ahead of schedule.
QUESTION 96
A. The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated
Answer: A
Explanation:
If your cost performance index is above 1.0, it indicates that you have costs that are less then
estimated; so doing good . Option A is BEST fit for this CPI = EV/AC (Earned value/ Actual cost
QUESTION 97
What are the inputs for Initiation process?
A. Product description and Strategic plan
B. Selection criteria
C. Historical information
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
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Explanation:
Inputs for Initiation process : Product description Strategic plan Selection criteria Historical
information
QUESTION 98
Which of the following are parts of project scope management?
A. Verify Scope
B. Collect Requirements
C. Control Scope
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
There are following processes which are part of Project Scope Management. Collect
Requirements Define Scope Create WBS Verify Scope Control Scope
QUESTION 99
Project scope is _____________.
A. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service
B. The work that must NOT be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and
functions
C. Part ftne project charter
D. Part of sow
Answer: D
Explanation:
Project scope : The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service. The
work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions.
QUESTION 100
You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5,000 and is
expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years the expected worth of the
equipment is $2,000. Using straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written off
each year?
A. $600
B. $1200
C. $3000
D. Zero
Answer: A
Explanation:
The straight-line depreciation takes the purchase value of the item, minus the salvage price of the
item, divided by the number of time periods. Calculation is (5000-2000)/5 = $600
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QUESTION 101
Which of the following plans is not done during the writing of a project plan?
A. Executive Communication
B. Risk Management
C. Quality Management
D. Scope Statement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Executive Communication may be a part of your communication process but not in project plan.
QUESTION 102
Stakeholder influence is greatest at the ______ of the project.
A. Beginning
B. Closing
C. Controlling
D. Executing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Stakeholder influence is greatest at the beginning of the project
QUESTION 103
Which of the following is not part of project scope management?
A. Verify Scope
C. Create WBS
Answer: D
Explanation:
e are following processes which are part of Project Scope Management. Collect Requirements
Define Scope Create WBS Verify Scope Control Scope
QUESTION 104
You are the project manager for the software Project. This project must be completed within one
year. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Schedule
B. Assumption
C. Constraint
D. Planning process
Answer: C
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Explanation:
A project that must be completed by a deadline is dealing with time constraints. A is incorrect
since the condition does not offer a schedule. B is incorrect because the condition is not an
assumption. D is also incorrect because this is not a planning process.
QUESTION 105
The project management plan:
A. Identifies all the steps and processes that will be used after a project is initiated
B. Steps needed to complete a project task
C. Prepared at the beginning and fixed throughout the execution of the project
D. Includes project charter
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project Management Plan: The project management plan provides the overall plan for executing,
monitoring, and controlling, closing the project.
QUESTION 106
Which type of network diagram is also referred to Activity-on-Node (AON) diagrams?
B. Gantt Cnart Diagram (GCD)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The arrow diagramming method (ADM) is also referred to as activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagramming
method. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also referred to as activity-on-node (AON)
diagramming method
QUESTION 107
What are common types of cost-reimbursable contracts?
A. CPF
B. CPFF
C. CPIF
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Three common types of cost-reimbursable contracts are CPF, CPFF, and CPIF Cost-Plus-Fee
(CPF), Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF) and Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee (CPIF).
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QUESTION 108
Information should be communicated to __________.
A. Everyone in the communication plan
B. Everyone on the team
C. Sponsor
D. Team 'eacl
Answer: A
Explanation:
One of the most important tasks of the project manager during the Execution and Control phases
of the project is the management of information. All Information should be communicated to
everyone in the communication plan.
QUESTION 109
You are the project manager of a project. Your project just went into integration mode. This means
that your project __________.
A. Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client
B. Will be closed due to lack of resources
C. Resources are being assigned to other areas of the business
Answer: C
Explanation:
A project that ends in integration mode is the type of project where its resources are being
assigned to other areas.
QUESTION 110
You are working with an organization and you found that one stakeholder not disclosing all of the
costs involved with an upcoming project. Rather, this CAPM is constructing a WBS that does not
include all the tasks necessary to get the project done. What you should do?
A. Talk to the CAPM about the WBS to see if you can rework it to reflect actual costs of the project
B. Confront the other project manager immediately
C. Mail t0 PMI headquarters
D. Ignore it
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can talk to the CAPM about the WBS changes. If he or she refuses to change the WBS, you
have a responsibility to go to stakeholders and voice your concerns.
QUESTION 111
Which document formally authorizes a project?
A. The project charter
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B. Project scope statement

C. The P'oject contract
D. Project closing document
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project charter is the formal document for authorizes a project.
QUESTION 112
You are project manager of a project and you are offering an estimate that you know will be
changed after the contract is signed is ___________.
A. Bad practice
B. Unprofessional practice
C. Bacl fr both tne buyer and seller
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
It is both bad and unprofessional to knowingly offer an estimate that is incorrect
QUESTION 113
In PMBOK, the buyer is ________ to the project team.
A. Internal
B. External
C. Outside
D. Assigned
Answer: A
Explanation:
In PMBOK, the buyer is Internal to the project team.
QUESTION 114
Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable
components to __________.
A. Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates
B. Define a baseline for performance measurement and control
C. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable
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components to: Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates. Define a baseline for
performance measurement and control. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments.
QUESTION 115
Your company create software products, and introducing a new product. To determine the
characteristics and features of the new product line, you will have to perform ________.
A. Progressive elaboration
B. Stake holder's review
C. p'an project life cycle
D. Fast backing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The process of determining the characteristics and features of the product of the project is called
Progressive elaboration. Progressive elaboration is carried out via steps in detailed fashion.
QUESTION 116
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and
Define Scope. What should you do next?
A. Create WBS
B. Vei*<fy Scope
C. Value analysis
D. Control Scope
Answer: A
Explanation:
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.
QUESTION 117
Which process must occur after a project manager has been assigned to the project?
B. Develop the project charter
C. Develop the project statement of work
D. Develop project closing document
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Collect Requirements process occurs during project planning. Other options occur during
project initiation. Option D is associated with project closing. Collect Requirements is the best
option.
QUESTION 118
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Define Activities, activity
resources estimating, and Estimate Activity Durations processes. Which process have you left
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out?
A. Control Schedule
B. Create WBS
C. Sequence Activities
D. Operations
Answer: C
Explanation:
The PMBOK places Sequence Activities between Define Activities and Estimate Activity
Resources.
QUESTION 119
Which of the following is NOT an input of Estimate Costs?
A. Earn Value Analysis
B. Scope Baseline
C. P'sk Register
D. Human Resource Plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Earned value analysis is used during the execution of the project to determine resource
consumption versus planned
QUESTION 120
Which of the following is NOT input of Identify Risks?
A. Project Charter
B. Stakeholder Register
C. Pis'* Management Plan
D. Activity Cost Estimates
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project Charter is NOT input of Identify Risks.
QUESTION 121
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and
Define Scope. What should you do next?
A. Create WBS
B. Vei*<fy Scope
C. Value analysis
D. Control Scope
Answer: A
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Explanation:
QUESTION 122
If you are project manager for a Project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase as
possible. Of the following, which is the best source of information for your project?
A. Historical information
B. WBS
C. Business plans
D. RBS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Historical information is the best input of the choices available. B is incorrect since the WBS has
not been created at this point of the project. C is incorrect since business plans are not a likely
input to the initiation process
QUESTION 123
Which of the following activity is not performed as part of the direct and manage project execution
process?
A. Monitor implementation of approved changes
B. Validate deliverables
C. Staff, train, and manage the project team
D. Manage cisks and implement risk responses
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the direct and manage project execution process, approved changes are implemented but
monitoring of those changes is part of monitoring OR controlling project work.
QUESTION 124
You are the project manager and you have created a contract for your customer. The contract
must have ________.
A. Offer and consideration
B. Start date and acceptance of start date
C. Signatures and the stamp of a notary public
D. Signatures of all stakeholders
Answer: A
Explanation:
A contract must have Offer and consideration. Not all contracts demand signatures and notary
public involvement. Contract may specify a start date, but the Acceptance of the start date is not
needed for all contracts.
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QUESTION 125
A. The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated
Answer: A
Explanation:
A cost performance index of 1 or greater suggests that project in delivering more with less money;
so doing well. Option A is BEST fit for this. CPI = EV/AC (Earned value/ Actual cost)
QUESTION 126
Which is the most risky phase of a project?
A. Planning
B. Closing
C. Execution
D. Control
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Planning phase is the phase with the least risk attached. The Execution phase of the project
is when you are using your resources at their highest level .
QUESTION 127
Lessons learned session should be held at what point in a project?
A. At the project conclusion
B. At key milestones
C. When risk events occur
D. When sponsor want
Answer: B
Explanation:
Although lessons learned should be held at project conclusion, they should be held throughout the
project any time.
QUESTION 128
What are the outputs of Initiation process?
A. Project charter and PM assigned
B. Constraints
C. Assumptions
D. Al1 of the above
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Answer: D
Explanation:
output of Initiation process : Project charter PM assigned Constraints Assumptions
QUESTION 129
Which process group is for detailed resource assignments and responsibilities?
A. Human resources management plan
B. Project charter
C. Aplan
D. Project management plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Develop Human Resource Plan: Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles,
responsibilities, and reporting relationships to individuals or groups.
QUESTION 130
You are the project manager for a Project. Project is a global project. Some peoples are working
from US and some are from India. Client says budget should not cost more than $12 million.
Because of the global concerns, the final budget must be in U.S. dollars. This is an example of
which of the following?
A. Internationalization
B. Budget constraint
C. Management constraint
D. Quality constraint
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is an example of a budget constraint. The budget must not exceed $12 million.
QUESTION 131
You are the project manager of a project. Project is installing AC to hotel rooms. You have done
project cost and time estimates, told the customer that the estimates provided will be accurate if
the rooms meet the requirements like (wooden coated). This is an example of which of the
following?
A. Risk
B. Assumption
C. Constraint
D. Budget
Answer: B
Explanation:
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This is an example of an assumption because estimates provided will be accurate if the rooms
meet the requirements like (wooden coated). A and C are incorrect because the scenario did not
describe a risk or constraint.
QUESTION 132
When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose in a mathematical model to predict
estimate. What type of estimation method are you using?
B. Bottom-up estimating
C. Top-down estimating
Answer: A
Explanation:
arrive at a project total: It is more accurate. Analogous estimating: Analogous estimating is also
called top-down estimating and uses the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for
estimating the cost of the current project. Parametric estimating: Using project characteristics (or
parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs (e.g., price per square meter).
QUESTION 133
Purchasing insurance is an example of __________.
A. Transfer
B. Acceptances
C. Mitigation
D. Contingency
Answer: A
Explanation:
Purchasing insurance means transfer the risk to third party.
QUESTION 134
CORRECT TEXT
How many communication channels exist in a team of 10 members?
A) 45
B) 10
C) 30
D 20
Answer: A
QUESTION 135
The primary output of the project closing process ____________.
A. To formalize and distribute all information pertaining to the project closing
B. Lessons learned
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C. To get customer and sponsor approval

D. Milestone list
Answer: A
Explanation:
The primary output of the project closing process is to formalize and distribute all the information
pertaining to the closing of the project.
QUESTION 136
Which type of network diagram allows you to depict four types of dependencies (finish-to-start,
finish-to-finish, start-to-start, and start-to-finish)?
B. Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The precedence diagramming method (PDM) supports finish-to-start, finish-to-finish, start-to-start,
and start-to-finish dependencies.
QUESTION 137
Which of the following best describes project scope?
A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and
functions
B. The description of the project deliverables
C. The authorizing document that allows the project manager to move forward with the project and
to assign resources to the tasks
D. The process of planning and executing all of the required work to deliver the project
Answer: A
Explanation:
project scope: The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features
and functions.
QUESTION 138
In which phase you define the final deliverable?
A. Closing
B. Execution
C. Planning
D. Initiation
Answer: A
PMI-002
Explanation:
Project will close after final deliverable. Final deliverables are defined in the closing phase.
QUESTION 139
The activity that is most concerned with the current status of the project schedule is called
___________.
A. Project time management
B. Control Schedule
C. Monitoring and controlling
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
Control Schedule: The activity that is most concerned with the current status of the project
schedule.
QUESTION 140
Your project team is composed of team members in three countries plus a contractor team in a
fourth country. What tool would optimize communication?
A. Extranet-based electronic document repository
B. Manual filing system
C. War loom
D. Verbal
Answer: A
Explanation:
An electronic document repository allows all team members access to the documents, regardless
of location.
QUESTION 141
Conformance to specifications document is one description of _________.
A. Quality
B. Scope
C. Integration
D. Procurement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Quality on a project means that you are conforming to a standard that is set before you start the
project.
QUESTION 142
Customer formally accepts the deliverables of each project phase. This process is known as
________.
PMI-002
A. Verify Scope
B. Quality Assurance
C. Quality Control
D. Quality Measurement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Verify Scope is the process of formally accepting the deliverable of a project or phase. A is
incorrect because EVM measures project performance. C is incorrect because quality control is
concerned with the correctness of the work, not the acceptance of the work. QA is incorrect
because this described the quality program for the organization as a whole.
QUESTION 143
_________ is the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined.
A. Cost plus incentive fee
B. F'xed P|ice
C. Time and material
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cost plus incentive fee is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well
defined. Fixed price and purchase order are the best choice for buyer when the item is well
defined.
QUESTION 144
You are the project manager of a project and the project is a month into the executing phase.
There are some cliques forming among the team members. Which leadership style you follow for
best outcome?
A. Supporting
B. Delegating
C. Coaching
D. Directing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Situational leadership style is coaching. Coaching is best fit for this situation.
QUESTION 145
When the version control numbers should change?
A. Any change occurs
B. Major changes are made
C. Any change related to scope only
PMI-002
D. Only if minor changes are made

Answer: A
Explanation:
If any change occur , the version control numbers should change.
QUESTION 146
participating?
A. 45
B. 12
C. 10
D. 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION 147
Market conditions are a part of ________.
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Project management concerns
C. Organizational process assets
D. Cost factor
Answer: A
Explanation:
Market conditions will influence all factors of procurement.
QUESTION 148
Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are
examples of:
A. Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a project
B. Integral parts of the SOW
C. Ways to ensure stakeholder commitment
D. Project selection methods
Answer: A
Explanation:
Projects are seeded from the recognition of a regulatory or business need.
QUESTION 149
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?
PMI-002
A. PBS
B. Project Scope statement
C. WBS Template
D. Constraints
Answer: B
Explanation:
Output of Define Scope is Project Scope statement.
QUESTION 150
The buyer and seller are bound by the ________.
A. Contract
B. Responsibilities
C. WBS
D. Identification
Answer: A
Explanation:
The buyer and seller are bound by the contract.
QUESTION 151
CORRECT TEXT
Which is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration:
Contract change control system
Contract negotiation
Payment system
Performance rating
Answer: B
QUESTION 152
CORRECT TEXT
Which describes how cost variances will be managed?
Cost management plan
Cost baseline
Cost estimate
Chart of accounts
Answer: A
QUESTION 153
A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.
A. Project plan
B. Process
C. Schedule
PMI-002
D. Flowchart
Answer: B
Explanation:
Process
QUESTION 154
CORRECT TEXT
A Project Cost Management plan is created as a part of:
Develop Project Management Plan process
Control Costs process
Determine Budget process
Estimate Costs process
Answer: A
QUESTION 155
__________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model
A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modelling
D. Bottom up estimating
Answer: C
Explanation:
Parametric modeling : Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to
predict costs (e.g., price per square foot).
QUESTION 156
Adjusting Leads and Lags is a technique for:
A. Develop Schedule
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities
Answer: A
Explanation:
Adjusting Leads and Lags: Since the improper use of leads or lags can distort the project
schedule, the leads or lags are adjusted during schedule network analysis to develop a viable
project schedule. Tools and Techniques for Develop Schedule are : Mathematical
analysis,Duration compression,Simulation,Resource -leveling ,Project management
software,Adjusting Leads and Lags and Coding structure.
QUESTION 157
Analogous Estimate Costs is _________.
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A. Generally Accurate
B. Generally less accurate
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
Analogous Estimate Costs is Generally less accurate . Analogous Estimate Costs Uses Expert
Judgment . It is used when reference projects are similar . It is useful in early phases of the
project.
QUESTION 158
With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The
mean is _____.
A. 30.0
B. 22.5
C. 25.0
D. 27.5
Answer: A
Explanation:
mean = (20+30+40)/3= 30
QUESTION 159
You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5,000 and is
expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years, the expected worth of the
equipment is $2,000. Using the straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written off
each year?
A. $600
B. $1200
C. $3000
D. $100
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. The straight-line depreciation takes the purchase value of the item, minus
the salvage price of the item, divided by the number of time periods. Calculation is (5000-2000)/5
= $600.
QUESTION 160
Which of the following is an output of a Verify Scope process?
A. Formal acceptance
B. WBStemplate
PMI-002
C. SOW acceptance
D. Rework
Answer: A
Explanation:
Output of Verify Scope is formal acceptance.
QUESTION 161
What involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.
A. Resource planning
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Resource planning :Planning , identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles,
responsibilities, and reporting relationships to individuals or groups.
QUESTION 162
Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?
A. Gantt chart
B. Milestone chart
C. fishbone diagram
D. network diagram
Answer: C
QUESTION 163
A Change Control Board should be _______?
A. flexible
B. Include the project manager
C. appropriate authority
D. al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
CCB should have all the mentioned characteristics.
QUESTION 164
Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of ________ which will adversely affect
project objectives.
A. Likely events
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B. Complex activities
C. Complex schedules
D. Uncertain occurrences
Answer: D
Explanation:
Uncertain occurrences can affect project objective.
QUESTION 165
Which of the following is not a tool or technique for a Source Selection?
A. Contract negotiation
B. Weighting system
C. Payment system
D. Screening system
Answer: C
Explanation:
Payment system is not a tool or technique for Source Selection. Other options are .
QUESTION 166
Which of the following is ensuring that all features and functions are included in a product or
service
A. Project scope
B. Project verification
C. Project control
D. Product scope
Answer: B
Explanation:
Project verification ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service
QUESTION 167
A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that the activity duration must be _____.
A. Statistically dependent
B. Variance distributed
C. Statistically independent
D. Deterministic
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statistically independent
PMI-002
QUESTION 168
Which of the following is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project
budget?
A. Management Contingency Reserve
B. Management Overheads
C. Project Management Planing
D. Activity Cost Contingency Reserve
Answer: A
Explanation:
The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is
Management Contingency Reserve. Management Contingency Reserve is not part of project cost
baseline.
QUESTION 169
In an optimal organization structure, the project manager is:
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Piojectized
D. Dedicated project team
Answer: D
Explanation:
Dedicated project team
QUESTION 170
Which of the following is not a part of the Earned Value calculations?
A. Unknown Unknowns
B. Project Budget
C. Known Unknowns
D. Amount of work completed
Answer: A
Explanation:
Unknown Unknowns is not part of the Earned Value calculations.
QUESTION 171
What is the purpose of the WBS?
A. To show which work elements have been assigned to organizational units.
B. To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common framework.
C. To show the organizational structure of a program.
D. all of the above
PMI-002
Answer: B
QUESTION 172
A Project Scope Management includes :
A. Initiation
B. Project Plan Execution
C. Overall Change Control
D. Report Performance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project scope management includes: Initiation, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Verify Scope
and Control Scope
QUESTION 173
At which stage, stakeholders have the maximum influence on a project?
A. Initial stage
B. Closing stage
C. Execution stage
Answer: A
Explanation:
It is easy to make changes to project goals and approach at the initial stage. Stake holders have
maximum influence at Initial stage.
QUESTION 174
An activity that consumes no time or resource and shows only that a dependency exists between
two activities is called:
A. A milestone
B. A hammock
C. A dummy activity
D. a and c
Answer: C
QUESTION 175
A change requests can occur due to:
A. An external event such as a change in government regulation.
B. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product.
C. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.
D. all of the above
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Answer: D
QUESTION 176
Another term for top down estimating is:.
C. Parametric modeling
Answer: A
QUESTION 177
A Reserve Analysis is a technique for:
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Define Activities
Answer: A
QUESTION 178
The scope management provides:
A. A basis for future decisions about the project.
B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures.
C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION 179
A project plan is:
A. A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project control.
B. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority
to apply organizational resources to project activities.
C. A narrative description of products or services to be supplie
D. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company.
Answer: A
QUESTION 180
Which of the following relationship is used in the Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM] :
A. Start-to-Finish
B. Finish-to-Start
C. Start-to-Start
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D. Finish-to-Finish
Answer: B
QUESTION 181
When should a project manager be assigned to a project?
A. As early in the project as feasible.
B. Preferably before much project planning has been done.
C. At least prior to the start of project plan execution.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION 182
Which of the following tools and techniques are commonly used in a Define Scope Process?
A. Product analysis
B. Expert Judgment
C. Alternative Identification
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 183
Your project has a budget of $240,000 and is expect to last for 1 year, with the work and budget
spread evenly across all months. The project is now in the fourth month, the work is on schedule,
but you have spent $120,000 of the project budget. What is your COST Variance percentage in
this case?
A. -50%
B. 50%
C. 40%
D. 20%
Answer: A
QUESTION 184
Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions?
A. Cost and staffing are low at the start, higher towards the end. and drop rapidly as the project
nears completion.
B. The probability of successfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project.
C. Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of
the project.
D. a and b
Answer: A
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QUESTION 185
A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission
for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style:
A. Hierarchal
B. Authoritarian
C. Charismatic
D. Associative
Answer: C
QUESTION 186
Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.
A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Control Schedule
D. Project controls
Answer: B
QUESTION 187
Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which of the following process:
A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Define Activities
D. Estimate Activity Durations
Answer: A
QUESTION 188
Which is the most important element of a Project Management Plan that is useful in the Develop
Human Resource Plan process:
A. Risk Management activities
B. Activity Resource requirements
C. Budget Control activities
D. Quality Assurance activities
Answer: B
QUESTION 189
In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?
A. Projectized organization
B. Balanced Matrix organization
C. Strong Matrix
D. Weak Matrix organization
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Answer: A
QUESTION 190
In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?
B. Balanced Matrix organization
C. Strong Matrix
D. Weak Matrix organization
Answer: A
QUESTION 191
A Trend Analysis is best described as:
A. Examining project performance over time
B. Calculating Earned Value
C. Calculating Cost Variance
D. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time
Answer: A
QUESTION 192
To calculate the late start and late finish dates for a set of tasks , you must do :
A. An analysis of the critical path
B. A forwards pass
C. A backwards pass
D. a and g
Answer: C
QUESTION 193
Which is not included in Performance improvements :
A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked
B. Improvements in individual skills
C. Improvements in team behaviours
D. Improvements in team capabilities
Answer: A
QUESTION 194
Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days, what
is the PERT weighted average?
A. 6
B. 4
C. 6.3
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D. 6.1
Answer: A
QUESTION 195
A scope management plan In which of the following scope management processes is the scope
management plan prepared?
A. Initiation
C. Define Scope
D. Verify Scope
Answer: A
QUESTION 196
Project scope is:
A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and
functions.
B. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service.
C. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract.
D. a and b
Answer: A
QUESTION 197
The planning processes are:
A. Define Scope, Resource planning, Estimate Costs, Schedule development. Define Activities
B. Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk management
C. Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk control
D. Define Scope, Team development, Control Schedule, Budget control, Contract administration
Answer: A
QUESTION 198
A Resource Leveling is a technique for:
A. Develop Schedule
Answer: A
QUESTION 199
A process that is not part of a Project Risk Management is:
A. Identification
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B. Solicitation
C. Quantification
D. Response Development
Answer: B
QUESTION 200
An example of a project is:
A. Billing customers
B. Managing an organization
C. Constructing a building
D. Providing technical support
Answer: C
QUESTION 201
A modification of a logical relationship that allows an acceleration of the successor task is
represented by:
A. Lead time
B. Lag time
C. Negative Lag
D. a or g
Answer: D
QUESTION 202
Which of the following is an output of the Define Scope process?
A. Accepted deliverables
B. Change Requests
C. Project document updates.
D. Project scope statement
Answer: D
QUESTION 203
Knowledge of best practices in a particular area is most likely to give rise to which of the following
dependencies:
A. Finish-to-Start dependency
B. External dependency
C. Mandatory dependency
D. Soft Logic
Answer: D
QUESTION 204
A complex project will fit best in what type of an organization?
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A. Functional
B. Cross-functional
C. Matrix
D. Balanced
Answer: C
QUESTION 205
___________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan.
A. Work Breakdown Structure
B. Resource planning
C. Resource leveling
D. Executing process
Answer: D
QUESTION 206
Dummy relationships or dummy activities can be used in which Sequence Activities technique ?
A. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
B. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
C. Fragment Network
D. All of the above
Answer: A
QUESTION 207
Which of the following includes the process required to ensure that the project includes all the
work required, and only the work required, to complete a project successfully.
A. Project plan update
B. Project scope management
C. Control Scope
D. Product description
Answer: B
QUESTION 208
Activity Resource Requirements is an input to ____________ :
B. Control Schedule
D. Estimate Activity Resources
Answer: A
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QUESTION 209
Activity Resource Requirements is an input to ____________ :
B. Control Schedule
Answer: A
QUESTION 210
A period of time in work weeks which includes non-working days is called:
A. Elapsed Time
B. Duration
C. Effort
D. Earned Time
Answer: A
QUESTION 211
You are a project manager of a company. You are taking over a project during the planning
process, and you discovered that many individuals have signed the project charter. Which of the
following should be areas of concern for you?
A. Who will be a member of the change control board?
B. Who are the stakeholders for the project?
C. Need to spend more time on configuration management.
D. Determining the reporting structure.
Answer: C
QUESTION 212
Which of the following is an output of the Control Scope process ?
A. Scope statement
B. Change Requests
C. Formal acceptance
D. Work breakdown structure
Answer: B
QUESTION 213
Which of the following models of conflict resolution allows a cooling off period, but seldom resolves
the issue in the long term?
A. Problem solving
B. Withdrawal
C. Forcing
D. Smoothing
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Answer: C
QUESTION 214
The process of identifying and defining a product or a service is called:
A. Procurement planning
B. Source selection
C. Contract administration
D. Contract closeout
Answer: A
QUESTION 215
The "To Complete Performance Index" (TCPI) is calculated by:
A. Subtracting the actual costs to date from the estimate at completion
B. Dividing the budgeted cost of the remaining work by the difference between the estimate at
completion and actual costs to date
C. Multiplying the estimate at completion by the cumulative cost performance index
D. Adding the estimate at completion to the actual costs to date and multiplying by the cumulative
cost performance index
Answer: B
QUESTION 216
Contract close out contains:
A. Contract documentation
B. Procurement audits
C. Formal acceptance and closure
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 217
Key Management skills include:
A. Leading
B. Communicating
C. Negotiating
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 218
The amount of time that an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the project
end date is called:
A. Negative Float
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B. Total Float
C. Float
D. c and b
Answer: D
QUESTION 219
Outputs of the initiation process are:
A. Project manager identified
B. Constraints
C. Assumptions
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 220
A program is defined in the PMBOK as:
A. A program consists of a related group of projects and Program management is the process of
managing multiple on going projects
B. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to
ensure the completion of a desired outcome
C. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcome
D. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments
Answer: A
QUESTION 221
According a PERT weighted average computation, what is the probability of completing the project
within plus-or-minus 3 standard deviations of the mean?
A. 68%
B. 99.74%
C. 95%
D. 75%
Answer: B
QUESTION 222
What is the difference between a Verify Scope process and quality control?
A. There is no difference.
B. Verify Scope is primarily concerned with the correctness of work results while quality control is
primarily concerned with the acceptance of work results.
C. Verify Scope is concerned with ensuring that changes are beneficial while quality control is
concerned that the overall work results are correct.
D. Verify Scope is primarily concerned with the acceptance of work results while quality control is
primarily concerned with the correctness of work results.
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Answer: D
QUESTION 223
Which devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business need that the
project was undertaken to address.
A. Development process
B. Scoping process
C. Planning process
D. Information development process
Answer: C
QUESTION 224
Which of the following is NOT an output of the Control Schedule:
A. Schedule updates
B. Revisions
C. Corrective action
D. Lessons learned
Answer: B
QUESTION 225
The review of key deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is
called:
A. phase exit
B. Ml point
C. state gate
D. all of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 226
Which of the following Enterprise Environmental factors are not the inputs for the Develop Human
Resource Plan process:
A. Organizational Chart Tempates
B. Reduced Training Funds
C. Hiring Freeze
D. Technical competencies of project staff
Answer: A
QUESTION 227
Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days. What
is the standard deviation for the estimates?
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A. 1
B. 2
C. 1-5
D. 0-5
Answer: A
QUESTION 228
Reserve Analysis technique is NOT used during __________.
A. Control Costs
B. Estimating Activity Duration
C. Determine Budget
D. Estimate Costs
Answer: A
QUESTION 229
Which of the following is NOT output of Qualitative Risk Analysis ?
A. R'sk Register updates
B. Root Cause Analysis
C. R'sk Urgency Assessment
D. Risk Categorization
Answer: B
QUESTION 230
During the Develop Schedule process, a Project Manager may have to go through several
iterations of the schedule before establishing the schedule baseline. All of the following are tools
and techniques that may be used during this process:
A. Critical Path Method, GERT, Resource Requirements
B. Resource Levelling Heuristics, Mathematical Analysis, Calendar!
C. Duration compression, Resource Leveling Heuristics, PERT
D. GERT, PERT, Leads and Lags
Answer: C
QUESTION 231
Control Costs is concerned with:
A. Managing changes when they occur
B. Resource rates
C. Chart of accounts
D. Organizational policies
Answer: A
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QUESTION 232
A RAM is:
A. Random access memory
B. Rapid and movement
C. Responsibilities and methods
D. Responsibility assignment matrix
Answer: D
QUESTION 233
A Project with a total funding of $70,000 was finished with a BAC value of $60,000. What term can
best describe the difference of $10,000?
A. Cost Variance
B. Management Overhead
C. Management Contingency Reserve
D. Schedule Variance
Answer: C
QUESTION 234
A document which describes how project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be
integrated into the project is: (choose the best answer)
A. A project plan
B. A risk analysis
C. A scope management plan
D. A scope statement
Answer: C
QUESTION 235
A document which describes how project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be
integrated into the project is: (choose the best answer)
A. A project plan
B. A risk analysis
C. A scope management plan
D. A scope statement
Answer: C
QUESTION 236
Which of the following is not used to document team member roles and responsibilities ?
A. Text-oriented Format
B. Functional Chart
C. Hierarchical-type Organizational Chart
D. Matrix-based Responsibility Chart
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Answer: B
QUESTION 237
What are you likely to see as a project progresses in a schedule with must fix dates and little or no
slack?
A. Lots of free float
B. Idle resources
C. Negative float
D. Positive float
Answer: B
QUESTION 238
An input of the Collect Requirements process is a/an:
A. Project Charter
B. Project schedule
C. Strategic plan
D. Historical information
Answer: A
QUESTION 239
_______ is the most accurate Estimate Cost technique.
A. Parametric modelling
B. Bottom up estimating
C. Analogous estimating
D. None
Answer: B
QUESTION 240
Change requests are made against the ____________?
A. Project baseline
B. SOW
C. Charter
D. Executive summary
Answer: A
Explanation:
All change requests are made against a project plan that has the project baseline.
QUESTION 241
A Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of:
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A. Estimate Costs process

B. Determine Budget process
C. Control Costs process
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cost management plan : Describes how cost variances will be managed and Part of the overall
project plan. Output of Estimate Costs process is : Cost estimates and Cost management plan
QUESTION 242
The __________ task relationship is defined by the activity duration:
A. Start-to-start
B. Finish-to-finish
C. Start-to-finish
Answer: D
Explanation:
All the above relationship is defined by Sequence Activities
QUESTION 243
Which of the following Project Scope Management processes involves subdividing the major
project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components?
B. Initiation
C. Control Scope
D. Define Scope
Answer: D
QUESTION 244
The closing process scope includes:
A. Contract closeout
B. Final reporting
C. Activity List
D. Exit interview
Answer: A
Explanation:
closing process scope includes Contract closeout
QUESTION 245
Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can be
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used to:
A. See what mistakes others have made
B. See how others have solved problems
C. "Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives"
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
All of the above
QUESTION 246
The Staffing Management Plan ___________, will be formal or informal.
A. Depending on the size and complexity of the project
B. Depending on the management
C. Depending on the project manager
D. Depending on the size only
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. The Staffing Management Plan Depending on the size and complexity of
the project, will be formal or informal
QUESTION 247
Which is the Estimate Costs technique used most frequently in the early stages of a project.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Analogous estimating : Analogous estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses the
actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.
QUESTION 248
Which of the following is an input to a Develop Human Resource Plan?
A. Activity resource requirements
B. Costbaseline
C. Cost management plan
D. Chart of accounts
Answer: A
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Explanation:
Develop Human Resource Plan Inputs : Enterprise Environmental Factors, Organizational Process
Assets and Activity resource requirements.
QUESTION 249
You are the Project Managers of ABC company. The Project team members are from the finance
and accounts. The team members report to Finance and Account Managers respectively, and you
have limited control over them. What type of organizational hierarchy does ABC company follow?
A. Matrix organization
B. Projectized organization
C. Functional organization
D. None
Answer: C
Explanation:
Projectized organization : The project manager has total control of projects. Personnel are
assigned and report to a project manager. Functional organization : Project Manager has least
power and all management is taken care by functional manager like Finance and Account
Managers. Matrix organization : The team members report to two bosses the project manager and
the functional manager.
QUESTION 250
Parametric Estimating is done as a part of which of the following process:
A. Develop Schedule
Answer: B
Explanation:
Tools and Techniques for Estimate Activity Durations are : Analogous estimates , Parametric
Estimating, Three-Point Estimates and Reserve Analysis.
QUESTION 251
The Critical Path Method of scheduling is:
A. A mathematical analysis technique for Develop Schedule
B. A technique that uses weighted averages to calculate project duration
C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule
D. A technique that allows for probabilistic treatment of both network logic and activity duration
estimates
Answer: C
Explanation:
Critical Path Method (CPM): Calculates a single, deterministic early and late start and finish date
PMI-002
for each activity, to be used to determine which activities must be completed on time to avoid
impacting the finish date of the project
QUESTION 252
Which of the following is controlling changes to the budget.
A. Control Costs
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
Control Costs is controlling changes to the budget.
QUESTION 253
A resource pool description provides:
A. The unit cost for each resource
B. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns
C. Performance of the pool resources
D. Duration of the project
Answer: B
Explanation:
A resource pool description : What are the resources are available, at what times and in what
patterns
QUESTION 254
What is the primary purpose of a milestone chart?
A. To show task dependencies.
B. To show resource constraints.
C. To show significant events in the project such as completion of key deliverables.
D. To highlight the critical path.
Answer: C
QUESTION 255
You are in charge of developing a new product for a bank. Your quality metrics are based on the
80th percentile of each of the last three products developed. This is an example of:
A. Statistical sampling
B. Metrics
C. Benchmarking
D. Operational definitions
Answer: B
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QUESTION 256
Project Managers have maximum authority in which type of organization?
A. Weak Matrix organization
B. Strong Matrix
C. Balanced Matrix organization
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
Weak Matrix : Power reset with Functional Manager. Strong Matrix: Power rest with Project
Manager. Balanced Matrix :Power is shared between both Functional and Project Manager.
QUESTION 257
Which is a technique for Define Activities?
A. Rolling Wave Planning
B. Mandatory Dependencies
C. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM
D. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
Answer: A
Explanation:
Rolling wave planning is a technique for Define Activities. Other options are technique for
Sequence Activities.
QUESTION 258
The Collect Requirements process is:
A. Developing a plan from major stakeholders
B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions
C. Formalizing acceptance of the project scope
D. Planning project milestones
Answer: B
Explanation:
Collect Requirements :Process of progressively elaborating and documenting the project work that
produces the product of the project
QUESTION 259
Who should contribute to the development of a project plan?
A. Project manager
B. Entire project team including project manager
C. Senior management
D. Just the planning department
PMI-002
Answer: B
QUESTION 260
Scoring models, comparative approaches and benefit contribution are all part of:
A. Constrained optimization models for selecting a project
B. Benefit measurement models for selecting a project
C. Quality measurement techniques
D. Distribute Information tools
Answer: B
QUESTION 261
Which of the following is an output of a Verify Scope process?
A. Accepted deliverables
B. Change Requests
C. Project document updates.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
All are output of verify scope.
QUESTION 262
All are output of verify scope.
A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
B. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)
C. Expert judgment
D. Network templates
Answer: C
Explanation:
Expert judgment is not used in Sequence Activities. Sequence Activities : Identifying and
documenting interactivity logical relationships.
QUESTION 263
Constraints do not include:
A. Impacts of weather
B. Organizational structure of the performing organization
C. Collective bargaining
D. Expected staff assignments
Answer: A
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Explanation:
Impacts of weather
QUESTION 264
Which of the following is not true for a Resource Leveling:
A. Project's Critical path may be altered
B. Reverse resource allocation scheduling
C. Resource based scheduling method
D. None
Answer: D
Explanation:
All are true about Resource Levelling . Resource Levelling is another tool in Develop Schedule.
Resource Levelling removes the peaks and valleys of resource allocation. This technique also
examines resource over allocation and critical resource allocation. This technique lets the
schedule and cost slip.
QUESTION 265
A Reserve Analysis involves:
A. Estimating by multiplying the quantity of work by productivity rate
B. Adding resource reserves to the activity resource estimates
C. Developing project schedule with contingency reserves as a recognition of the schedule risk
D. Incorporating time buffers into the activity duration estimates
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reserve Analysis ( Contingency ): Project teams may choose to incorporate an additional time
frame, called time reserve, contingency or buffer, that can be added to the activity duration or
elsewhere in the schedule as recognition of schedule risk.
QUESTION 266
Technical associations and consultants of a project are two examples of __________ ?
A. Expensive additions
B. Scope managers
C. Expert judgment
D. External Resources
Answer: C
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. Expert judgment is most effective way of dealing with questions
concerning choices of projects. Expert Judgment: Expert judgment related to how equivalent
projects have managed scope is used in developing the project scope management plan.
PMI-002
QUESTION 267
What is not among the tools and techniques of an Organizational Planning?
A. Staffing management plan
B. Templates
C. Human resource practices
D. Organizational theory
Answer: A
Explanation:
Staffing management plan is not tools and techniques of an Organizational Planning. Other
options are true.
QUESTION 268
What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?
A. Project task
B. Work package
C. sow
D. none
Answer: B
Explanation:
A work package is the lowest level of a work breakdown structure.
QUESTION 269
Which of the following documents the characteristics of a product or service that the project was
undertaken to build.
A. Resource plan
B. Project charter
C. Project description
D. Scope statement
Answer: C
Explanation:
Project description documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was
undertaken to build.
QUESTION 270
A graphic display of resource usage hours is called a/an_________________.
A. Organizational chart
B. Responsibility matrix
C. WBS
D. Histogram
PMI-002
Answer: D
Explanation:
histogram that is useful in determining how much time is expected from the various team members
and or functions.
QUESTION 271
When the project team directs staff assignments, which of the following is not considered in the
selection of a staff?
A. Previous experience
B. staff age
C. Availability
D. Personal interest
Answer: B
Explanation:
Staff age is not considered in the selection of a staff
QUESTION 272
Staffing requirements do not define:
A. What types of skills are required
B. What time frames
C. What kinds of individuals or groups
D. What type of resource planning is required
Answer: D
Explanation:
Staffing requirements do not define What type of resource planning is required.
QUESTION 273
The unique identifiers assigned to each item of a WBS are often collectively known as:
A. The work package codes
B. The project identifiers
C. The code of accounts
D. The element accounts
Answer: C
QUESTION 274
Resource reallocation from non critical to critical activities is an example of which of the following
Project Scheduling technique:
A. Resource Leveling
B. Schedule Compression
C. Critical Path Method
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D. What if Analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Resource Leveling :Allocate scare resources to critical path activities first .
QUESTION 275
Inputs of Develop Project Team include all EXCEPT:
A. Project staff
B. Reward and recognition systems
C. Resource calendars
D. Project plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
Inputs to Team Development include all except Reward and recognition systems.
QUESTION 276
The Project Procurement Management includes:
A. Procurement planning
B. Solicitation planning
C. Solicitation
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Project Procurement Management includes: Plan Purchases and Acquisitions. Plan Contracting.
Request Seller Responses. Select Sellers. Contract Administration. Contract Closure.
QUESTION 277
Which of the following involves estimating the cost of individual work items:
A. Computerized
B. Bottom up estimating
D. Square foot
Answer: B
Explanation:
Bottom-up estimating : Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to
arrive at a project total , more accurate
QUESTION 278
Change requests should be ______ ?
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A. Formal
B. Interesting
C. Short
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
Record of changes request should be maintained.
QUESTION 279
The process that is not a part of time management is:
A. Define Activities
B. Resource Planning
C. Develop Schedule
Answer: B
Explanation:
Time management includes : Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations,
Develop Schedule and Control Schedule
QUESTION 280
Risk event is the description of what may happen to the _____ of the project.
A. Manager
B. harm
C. Schedul
D. Budget
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk event is the description of what may happen to the harm of the project.
QUESTION 281
The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions
is:
A. Project scope
B. Project verification
C. Project control
D. Product scope
Answer: A
Explanation:
PMI-002
Project Scope: The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features
and functions.
QUESTION 282
Which process is not included in the Project Time Management process?
B. Sequence Activities
C. Develop Schedule and Control Schedule
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Work breakdown structure (WBS) is not included in Project Time Management but all other
options provided in Project Time Management.3/7/2009
QUESTION 283
A Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) uses which of the following dependencies
A. Finish-to-start
B. Start-to-start
C. Finish-to-finish
D. Start-to-finish
Answer: A
Explanation:
Finish-to-start An activity must finish before the next activity begins. Finish-to-finish An activity
must finish before the next activity can finish. Start-to-start An activity must start before the next
activity can start. Start-to-finish An activity must start before the next activity can finish.
QUESTION 284
Which of the following statements concerning a scope statement are true?
A. H provides a documented basis for making future project decisions and for developing common
understanding of the project scope among stakeholders.
B. Scope statement and Statement of work are synonymous.
C. Project justification and project objectives are not included or referenced in the scope
statement.
D. Once written, the scope statement should never be revise
Answer: A
QUESTION 285
The team members report to two bosses: the project manager and the functional manager. Which
type of organization this is ?
A. Matrix organization
PMI-002
C. Functional organization
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
Projectized organization : The project manager has total control of projects. Personnel are
assigned and report to a project manager. Functional organization : Project Manager has least
power and all management is taken care by functional manager like Finance and Account
Managers. Matrix organization : The team members report to two bosses the project manager and
the functional manager.
QUESTION 286
The major project scope management process includes:
A. Change order control
B. Initiation
C. Program evaluation
D. Scope statement
Answer: B
Explanation:
Initiation included in major project scope management processes
QUESTION 287
Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a CAPM.
A. Project Management Policy of Ethics
B. Project Management Professional Standards
C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics and Standards
D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by PMI.
QUESTION 288
A Three-Point Estimates include_________.
A. Most Likely
B. Optimistic
C. Pessimistic
D. All
Answer: D
Explanation:
Three-Point Estimates includes Most likely, Optimistic and Pessimistic.
PMI-002
QUESTION 289
Contingency planning is a means to _____ risks to the project through a formal process and
provides the resources to meet the risk events.
A. Address
B. Classify
C. Assign
D. Resolve
Answer: A
Explanation:
Contingency Planning :The development of a management plan that identifies alternative
strategies to be used to ensure project success if specified risk events occur.
QUESTION 290
Which of the following is NOT true about Analogous Estimate Costs ?
A. Does not require high expertise on part of estimators as estimates are based on previous
projects
B. Uses Expert Judgment
C. Useful in early phases of the project
D. Used when reference projects are similar
Answer: A
Explanation:
Analogous Estimate Costs is Generally less accurate . Analogous Estimate Costs Uses Expert
Judgment . It is used when reference projects are similar . It is useful in early phases of the
project.
QUESTION 291
The most rapid Estimate Costs technique is:
A. Square foot estimating
B. Template estimating
C. Computerized estimating
Answer: C
Explanation:
Computerized estimating rapid Estimate Costs technique
QUESTION 292
If you are a project manager and a change request has been denied, you should:
A. Record it and save it.
B. Pass on to the project team.
PMI-002
C. Forget it
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
You have to keep track of all change requests.
QUESTION 293
Which is generally the least accurate.
A. Using stakeholders to predict cost
B. Parametric modelling
D. Computerized estimating
Answer: C
Explanation:
Analogous estimating : Analogous estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses the
actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.
QUESTION 294
A Reserve Analysis technique is NOT used during __________.
A. Control Costs
B. Estimating Activity Duration
C. Determine Budget
D. Estimate Costs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reserve analysis is used during Estimate Costs to calculate contingency buffers that apply to
individual or group of activities. Reserve analysis is used during Determine Budget to calculate
management contingency buffers that apply to the entire project. Reserve analysis is done during
Activity Duration estimation in order to calculate duration buffers for individual or group of
activities.
QUESTION 295
In crashing a schedule, you would focus on:
A. Accelerating as many tasks as possible
B. Accelerating just the non-critical tasks
C. Accelerating the performance of tasks on the critical path
Answer: C
PMI-002
QUESTION 296
The two closing procedures are called:
A. Contract close out and Verify Scope
B. Contract close out and administrative closure
C. Project closure and product verification
D. Project closure and lessons learned
Answer: B
QUESTION 297
Which is not a technique for Sequence Activities ?
A. Rolling Wave Planning
B. Mandatory Dependencies
C. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM
D. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
Answer: A
Explanation:
Rolling wave planning is a technique for Define Activities. Other options are technique for
Sequence Activities.
QUESTION 298
Which of the following could be an appropriate WBS code for a work package at the fourth level in
a WBS where the top level code is 1.0?
A. 1.4
B. 1.1.1.1
C. 1.2.3.4
D. b and c
Answer: D
QUESTION 299
Which ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking
corrective action when necessary.
A. Project controls
B. Controlling process
C. Control logs
D. Project chart
Answer: B
Explanation:
: Controlling process ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring
progress and taking corrective action when necessary.
PMI-002
QUESTION 300
Which is not included in General Management :
A. Finance and accounting
B. Strategic planning
C. Sales and marketing
D. Developing a new product or service
Answer: D
Explanation:
Developing a new product or service is not included in General Management.
QUESTION 301
A project is considered successful when _______________.
A. The project meets or exceeds the expectations of the stakeholders
B. The product of the project has been manufactured
C. The project sponsor announces the completion of the project
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. A project is considered successful when stakeholder needs and
expectations are met or exceeded
QUESTION 302
Which of the following is not an input into organizational planning?
A. Recruitment practices
B. Project interfaces
C. Staffing requirements
D. Constraints
Answer: A
QUESTION 303
Which of the following is true about pure risk?
A. The risk can be deflected or transferred to another party through a contract or insurance policy.
B. Pure risks involve the chance of both a profit and a loss.
C. No opportunities are associated with pure risk, only losses.
D. Botn A and c are correct.
Answer: D
QUESTION 304
Which of the following statements are FALSE about the Rolling Wave plan?
PMI-002
A. Rolling Wave Planning is a phased iterative approach to project development.

B. Rolling Wave Planning is a cost and schedule planning technique used in the Define Activities
process.
C. Rolling Wave Planning is the process of decomposing each work package within the WBS into
the corresponding schedule activities required to produce the work package deliverables.
D. Rolling Wave Planning describes a form of progressive elaboration planning where the work to
be performed in the near time is planned in detail at a low level of the WBS, while work far in
future is planned for WBS components that are relatively at a high level of WBS.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which of the following statements are FALSE about the Rolling Wave plan?
QUESTION 305
The normal risk of doing business that carries opportunities for both gain and loss is called
_______________.
A. Favourable risk
B. Opportunity risk
C. Pure risk
D. Business risk
Answer: D
QUESTION 306
Which of the following is best for handling cross-functional project needs for a large, complex
project?
A. A strong matrix organization
B. A project coordinator
C. A project expediter
D. Direct executive involvement
Answer: A
QUESTION 307
AON refers to __________.
A. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
B. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
C. Fragment Network
D. All of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. PDM is also known as Activity On Nodes (AON).
PMI-002
QUESTION 308
A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a neutral third party hear the
dispute and make a decision is called ____________.
A. Negotiation
B. Arbitration
C. Smoothing
D. Forcing
Answer: B
QUESTION 309
________ must be measured regularly to identify variance from the plan.
A. Project performance
B. Stakeholder requirements
C. Schedule progress
D. Cost and schedule
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. Variance Analysis: Project performance measurements are used to
assess the magnitude of variation.
QUESTION 310
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding various Activity Scheduling tools?
A. PDM allows for conditional branching and iteration of activities.
B. PDM uses activity-on-node (AON) diagramming method.
C. PDM allows for conditional branching and iteration of activities.
D. PDM uses analogous methods as an estimation technique.
Answer: B
QUESTION 311
A tool which links the project roles and responsibilities to the project Define Scope is called
____________.
A. Define Scope Matrix
B. Responsibility Assignment Matrix
C. Roles Assignment Matrix
D. Project Scope and Roles Matrix
Answer: B
QUESTION 312
What percentage of sales is estimated to be the cost of non-quality?
A)0 3-5%
PMI-002
A. 12-20%
B. 30-40%
C. 6"8%
Answer: B
QUESTION 313
The sending or conveying of information from one place to another is the process of
_______________.
A. Networking
B. Transmitting
C. Encrypting
D. Promoting
Answer: B
QUESTION 314
From a buyer's standpoint, which of the following is true?
A. Procurement planning should include consideration of potential subcontracts.
B. Procurement planning does not include consideration of potential subcontracts since this is the
duty of the contractor.
C. Subcontractors are first considered during the Solicitation Process.
Answer: A
QUESTION 315
The independence of two events in which the occurrence of one is not related to the occurrence of
the other is called ________________.
A. Event phenomenon
B. Independent probability
C. Statistical independence
D. Statistical probability
Answer: C
QUESTION 316
Which of the following Project Scope Management Process defines how scope will be verified?
A. Control Scope
B. Verify Scope
C. Define Scope
D. Collect Requirements
Answer: D
Explanation:
PMI-002
Collect Requirements defines the scopes. Define Scope involves subdividing the major project
deliverables into smaller. Verify Scope is the process of obtaining formal acceptance of the project
scope by the stakeholders. Control Scope process is a part of "Project Controlling Phase".
QUESTION 317
The receiver filters messages based on all but the following:
A. Culture
B. Semantics
C. Language
D. Distance
Answer: D
QUESTION 318
A document or tool which describes when and how human resources will be brought onto and
taken off the project team is called ____________.
A. Staffing Management Plan
B. Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)
C. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)
D. Resource Assignment Chart
Answer: A
QUESTION 319
When a risk should be avoided?
A. The risk event has a low probability of occurrence and low impact.
B. The risk event is unacceptable - generally one with a very high probability of occurrence and
high impact.
C. It can be transferred by purchasing insurance.
D. A risk event can never be avoided.
Answer: B
QUESTION 320
Management reserves are used to handle which type of risk?
A. Unknown unknowns
B. Known unknowns
C. Business risks
D. Pure risks
Answer: A
QUESTION 321
Estimated at Completion is determined by which of the following?
A. ETC + ACWP
PMI-002
B. BAC"ETC
C. BAC/CPI
D. Both A and c
Answer: D
QUESTION 322
In communications management, to assimilate through the mind or senses is the process of
________________.
A. Receiving
B. Decoding
C. Comprehending
D. Understanding
Answer: A
QUESTION 323
Most schedule simulations are based on some form of which of the following?
A. DelPhi
B. PERT
C. CPM
D. Monte Carlo Analysis
Answer: D
QUESTION 324
Life cycle costing __________________.
A. Includes acquisition, operating, and disposal costs when evaluating various alternatives
B. Includes only the cost of the development or acquisition of a product or service
C. Does not take into consideration the effect of project decisions on the cost of using the resulting
product
D. Botn B and c are correct
Answer: A
QUESTION 325
CIP is ___________.
A. Continuous improvement process
B. A sustained, gradual change
C. Includes constancy of purpose and commitment to quality as part of its focus
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 326
Which of the following are inputs to the Source Selection process?
PMI-002
A. Evaluation criteria
B. Organizational policies
C. Procurement documents
D. Both A and B
Answer: D
QUESTION 327
The sender is responsible for ____________.
A. Confirming the message is understood
B. Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message
C. Scheduling communication exchange
D. Presenting the message in the most agreeable manner
Answer: A
QUESTION 328
Which of the following is true regarding NPV?
A. NPV assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.
B. NPV assumes reinvestment at the prevailing rate.
C. NPV assumes reinvestment at the NPV rate.
D. NPV decisions should be made based on the highest value for all the selections.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. Net present value (NPV) assumes reinvestment is made at the cost of
capital.
QUESTION 329
What-if scenario analysis is done as a part of __________ process.
A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Control Schedule
D. Define Activities
Answer: B
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. What-If Scenario Analysis is an analysis for the question "What if the
situation represented by scenario 'X' happens? ". It is part of Develop Schedule.
QUESTION 330
Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except _________.
A. Team building
PMI-002
B. Analysis of alternatives
C. Convergent thinking
D) Q Uninhibited verbalization
Answer: C
QUESTION 331
Which of the following are NOT outputs of the Activity Duration Estimation process?
A. Activity duration estimates
B. Schedule baseline
C. None of the choices are correct
D. Updates to activity attribute
Answer: B
QUESTION 332
An example of risk mitigation is ____________.
A. Using proven technology in the development of a product to lessen the probability that the
product will not work
B. Purchasing insurance
C. Eliminating the cause of a risk
D. Both A and B
Answer: D
QUESTION 333
Under what circumstances is it better for a contractor to subcontract?
A. The subcontractor possesses special technical and engineering skills that the contractor does
not have.
B. The work to be subcontracted represents almost all of the overall work effort.
C. The subcontractor can perform the work at a lower cost than the contractor.
D. Both A and c
Answer: D
QUESTION 334
An approved change request is an input to which of the following processes?
A. Define Scope
B. Verify Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Integrated Change Control
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. And approved change request input to Define Scope.
PMI-002
QUESTION 335
A schedule activity may start 5 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an example of
______________.
A. Finish-to-Start
B. Finish-to-Finish
C. Start-to-Start
D. Start-to-Finish
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Finish-to-start: An activity must finish before the next activity begins.
Finish-to-finish: An activity must finish before the next activity can finish. Start-to-start: An activity
must start before the next activity can start. Start-to-finish: An activity must start before the next
activity can finish.
QUESTION 336
A tight matrix is ___________________.
A. A balanced matrix organization
B. Where all team members are brought together in one location
C. Where functional managers operate in a dual reporting structure reporting to both their own
departments and to the project manager
D. Both A and c
Answer: B
QUESTION 337
A cost-plus-incentive-fee (CPIF) contract has an estimated cost of $150,000 with a predetermined
fee of $15,000 and a share ratio of 80/20. The actual cost of the project is $130,000. How much
profit does the seller make?
A. $31,000
B. $19,000
C. $15,000
Answer: B
QUESTION 338
Which of the following are inputs of Develop Project Charter process?
A. Project statement of work, Contract, Business case and organizational process assets
B. Project SOW, project selection methods, and enterprise environmental factors
C. Contract, project selection methods, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational
process assets
D. Contract, project SOW, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets
PMI-002
Answer: A
Explanation:
Inputs to the Develop Project Charter process are Project statement of work, Contract, Business
case and organizational process assets.
QUESTION 339
Project Risk Management includes all of the following processes except ______________.
A. Risk Quantification
B. Identify Risks
C. Risk Analysis
D. Risk Response Development
Answer: C
QUESTION 340
The one document that should always be used to help identify risk is the
_____________________.
A. Risk Quantification
B. Identify Risks
C. Risk Analysis
D. Risk Response Development
Answer: B
QUESTION 341
Which process involves monitoring, measuring, and taking corrective action?
A. Executing processes
B. Planning processes
C. Controlling processes
D. Closing processes
Answer: C
Explanation:
Planning Processes: Approach to executing project. Executing processes: Coordinating people
and other resources. Controlling Processes: Monitoring, measuring, and taking corrective action.
Closing processes: Formal product acceptance and end of project.
QUESTION 342
___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or
C. Scope Management
PMI-002
Answer: A
Explanation:
Procurement Management is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products,
services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.
QUESTION 343
Mathematical models using linear, dynamic, integer, or algorithm models are considered
_____________.
A. Project selection methods
B. Project selection criteria
C. A form of expert judgment
D. A form of historical information
Answer: A
Explanation:
Mathematical models are one of the methods described in the project selection methods tool and
technique of the Develop Project Charter process.
QUESTION 344
Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is part of which of the following risk response
categories?
A. Mitigation
B. Acceptance
C. Avoidance
D. Analysis
Answer: A
QUESTION 345
Which of the following techniques accounts for path convergence and generally estimates project
durations more accurately?
A. CPM
B. PERT
C. Schedule simulation
D. Path convergence method
Answer: C
QUESTION 346
Which of the following statements concerning compromise as a conflict resolution is false?
A. Neither party wins but both parties get some degree of satisfaction.
B. Important aspects of the project may be hindered in order to achieve personal objectives.
C. Compromise is generally considered a lose-lose situation.
PMI-002
D. A definitive resolution is seldom achieved.

Answer: D
QUESTION 347
You are the project manager for a Software Development projects. You are creating a project
schedule network diagram for the code development component of the project. This is an example
of _________.
A. Fragment Network
C. Activity On Node [AON]
D. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
Answer: A
Explanation:
It is not clear what Sequence Activities technique you are using. However, you are developing a
schedule network diagram for only part of the project.
QUESTION 348
A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has
been performed is called _________.
A. Quality Policy
B. check List
C. Trenc' Analysis
D. Paieto Diagram
Answer: B
QUESTION 349
How much time does the typical project manager spend communicating both formally and
informally?
A. 40-60%
B. 50-70%
C. 60-80%
D. 75-90%
Answer: D
QUESTION 350
Completion of a product scope is measured against which of the following:
A. WBS and WBS Dictionary
B. Product Requirements
C. Project Management Plan
D. Product Management Plan
PMI-002
Answer: A
Explanation:
product scope is measured against WBS and WBS Dictionary. The planned work contained within
the lowest-level WBS components, which are called work packages, can be scheduled, cost
estimated, monitored, and controlled. SOW is not listed as one of the inputs to Collect
Requirements in PMBOK.
QUESTION 351
A is the correct answer. product scope is measured against WBS and WBS Dictionary. The
planned work contained within the lowest-level WBS components, which are called work
packages, can be scheduled, cost estimated, monitored, and controlled. SOW is not listed as one
of the inputs to Collect Requirements in PMBOK.
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Project coordinator
D. Project expediter
Answer: D
QUESTION 352
Which of the following can be used to determine what work is included in each work package for
each of your team members?
A. None of the choices are correct
B. WBS dictionary
C. RBS
D. Project scope statement
Answer: B
QUESTION 353
Which process involves Formal product acceptance and end of project?
C. Controlling processes
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION 354
The concept that it is easier and less costly to do the work right the first time is called
_______________.
PMI-002
A. Zero defects
B. Continuous improvement
C. DTRTRTFT
D. The customer is the next person in the process
Answer: C
QUESTION 355
Human resource adininistration is the primary responsibility of the_____________
A. Project Management Team
B. Human Resources Department
C. Executive Manager
D. Project Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION 356
The overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to quality as formally expressed
by top management is a ____________.
A. Quality Plan
B. Quality Statement
C. Quality Policy D)
D. TQM
Answer: C
QUESTION 357
Which of the following is true about the project charter?
A. The project charter should be published under the name of a manager external to the project.
B. The project charter should be published under the project sponsor's name.
C. The project charter should be published under the name of the project manager.
D. The project charter should be published under the name of the project champion.
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK Guide, the project charter should be published by a manager external to
the project but with sufficient power and authority to carry it off.
QUESTION 358
A series of consecutive points on the same side of the average is called __________.
A. Run
B. Trend
C. Outliers
D. Cycle
PMI-002
Answer: A
QUESTION 359
All of the following aid in achieving consensus EXCEPT _________.
A. Maintaining a focus on the problem, not each other
B. Avoiding conflict
C. Seeking facts
D. Avoiding voting, trading, or averaging
Answer: B
QUESTION 360
Your project is moving ahead of schedule. Management elects to incorporate additional quality
testing into the project to improve the quality and acceptability of the project deliverable. This is an
example of which one of the following?
A. Scope Creep
B. Change Control
C. Quality Assurance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Additional quality testing will require additional time and resources for the project. This is an
example of Integrated Change Control.
QUESTION 361
Project management processes organized into ______________.
A. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing
B. Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and closing
C. Designing, developing, testing, and implementing
D. Initiating, planning, contracting, developing, and closing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Within the structure of a project, there are five phases: Initiation, Planning, Execution, Control, and
Closing.
QUESTION 362
A leadership style in which the project manager shares problems with team members and
formulates solutions as a group is called ____________.
A. Autocratic
B. Consultation In a group
C. Consensus
PMI-002
D. One-to-one consultation
Answer: C
QUESTION 363
A tool that analyzes the inputs to a process to identify the causes of errors is called
____________.
A. Cause and Effect Diagram
B. Fishbone Diagram
C. Ishikawa Diagram
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Cause and effect diagram also called Ishikawa diagram or fishbone
diagram.
QUESTION 364
The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality
standards is called _______________.
A. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Control
C. plan Quality
D. Quality Review
Answer: B
QUESTION 365
Quality is _____________.
A. Zero defects found
B. Conformance to requirements
C. The totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that bear on its ability to
satisfy stated or implied needs
D. Both B and c
Answer: D
QUESTION 366
Make payment to seller is done in _________.
Answer: C
PMI-002
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. Make payment to seller is done in Administer Procurements.
QUESTION 367
C is the correct answer. Make payment to seller is done in Administer Procurements.
A. Sending, Receiving, Decoding, and Comprehending
B. Sender, Message, Medium, and Receiver
C. Communicator, Message, Receiver, and Decoder
D. Communicating, Transmitting, Receiving, and Comprehending
Answer: B
QUESTION 368
Reserve analysis is a tool or technique in all of the following processes EXCEPT:
A. Determine budget
B. Activity resource estimation
C. Monitor and control risks
D. Activity duration estimation
Answer: B
QUESTION 369
Which of the following statements are false about Expected Monetary Value Analysis (EMV).
A. EMV is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome of project outcomes based on
various assumptions and scenarios.
B. Decision tree analysis is a type of EMV analysis.
C. EMV is a tool/technique of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
D. EMV is calculated by multiplying the value of each possible outcome by its probability of
occurrence, and summing them together.
Answer: C
QUESTION 370
The three major types of communication are: ______________.
A. Written, verbal, and non-verbal
B. Verbal, formal documentation, and informal documentation
C. Verbal, written, and graphic
D. Verbal, written, and electronic
Answer: A
QUESTION 371
Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller?
A. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract
PMI-002
B. Cost plus-incentive-fee contract

C. Fixed-price-incentive contract
D. Firm-fixed-price contract
Answer: D
QUESTION 372
Collocation can mean _______________.
A. All, or almost all, team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the
project.
B. Active team members may be at different physical locations, but meet on a regular basis.
C. A war room is established where team members can meet periodically.
D. Both A and c are correct.
Answer: D
QUESTION 373
All of the following are communication tools EXCEPT ___________.
A. Memos
B. Verbal circulation of a rumour
C. videos
D. Inputting data into a spreadsheet
Answer: D
QUESTION 374
Communication is the PRIME responsibility of a Project ___________.
A. Manager in a weak matrix
B. Manager in a projectized environment
C. Coordinator
D. Expeditor
Answer: D
QUESTION 375
In which of the following contract types the seller's profit is limited?
A. Cost-plus-percentage-cost contract
B. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract
C. Fixed-price-plus-incentive
D. Both B and c
Answer: D
QUESTION 376
A risk response which involves eliminating a threat is called ________.
PMI-002
A. Mitigation
B. Deflection
C. Avoidance
D. Transfer
Answer: C
QUESTION 377
A mandatory prerequisite for team building is ___________.
A. Funding for staff development activities
B. Shared work ethics among team members
C. Commitment from top level management
D. Removal of troublesome individuals
Answer: C
Explanation:
A mandatory prerequisite for team building is ___________.
QUESTION 378
The concept of zero inventory is called ________.
A. Six Sigma
B. Continuous Improvement
C. 3ust in Time
D. Zero Defects
Answer: C
QUESTION 379
Which of the following is true concerning evaluation criteria?
A. Can often be found in procurement documents
B. Can be objective or subjective
C. Used to rate or score proposals
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 380
Which of the following is not a process of project human resource management?
A. Organizational Planning
B. staff Acquisition
C. Distribute Information
D. Team Development
Answer: C
PMI-002
QUESTION 381
Risks are accepted when ___________.
A. You develop a contingency plan to execute should the risk event occur
B. You accept the consequences of the risk
C. You transfer the risk to another party
D. Both A and B
Answer: D
QUESTION 382
Tools and techniques used during the Plan Quality process include ___________.
A. Benefit/Cost analysis
B. Benchmarking
C. Quality Audits
D. Both A and B
Answer: D
QUESTION 383
Which process involves coordinating people and other resources to carry out plan?
C. Controlling Processes
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION 384
Percent complete is calculated by ___________.
A. ACWP/BAC
B. BCWP-ACWP
C. BCWP/BAC
D. EAC/BAC
Answer: C
QUESTION 385
The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence
that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards is called _________.
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B. Quality Control
C. plan Quality
D. Quality Review
Answer: A
QUESTION 386
In which of the following organizations the project manager role is likely to be part-time?
A. Weak matrix
B. Functional
C. Balanced matrix
D. Both A and B
Answer: D
QUESTION 387
When should the project expeditor form of organization be used?
A. The project is extremely important to the organization.
B. A project's cost and importance are relatively low.
C. The project manager has a lot of responsibility and accountability.
D. The organization's primary source of revenue is derived from projects
Answer: B
QUESTION 388
Which of the following statements is false?
A. Uncertainty and risk are greatest at the start of the project and lowest at the end.
B. The amount at stake Is lowest at the end of the project and greatest at the start.
C. Expected monetary value can be expressed as the product of the risk event probability and the
risk event value.
D. Opportunities are positive outcomes of risk.
Answer: B
QUESTION 389
You are a project manager and now you are in the middle of comparing proposals received from
sellers. Comparing proposals received from sellers are done in _________.
Answer: B
Explanation:
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B is the correct answer. Comparing proposals received from sellers are done in Conduct
Procurements.
QUESTION 390
Estimate Costs ______________.
A. Involves developing an estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete project
activities
B. Includes identifying and considering various costing alternatives
C. Involves allocating the overall estimates to individual work items
D. Both A and c
Answer: D
QUESTION 391
Which of the following processes involves obtaining information (bids and proposals) from
prospective sellers?
A. Procurement Planning
B. Source Selection
C. Contract Administration
D. Solicitation
Answer: D
QUESTION 392
During project integration activities, a project sponsor's role can best be described as doing which
one of the following?
A. Helping the project manager and stakeholders to resolve any issues
B. Acting as a sounding board for the project stakeholders
C. Showing management the project progress and status reports
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project sponsor can help the project manager and the stakeholders resolve issues during
project integration management.
QUESTION 393
Which of the following is not considered a cost of non-conformance to quality?
A. Scrap
B. Rework
C. Expediting
D. Process control
Answer: D
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QUESTION 394
What impact does a matrix organization have on project team development?
A. No impact at all.
B. It complicates team development.
C. It simplifies team development.
D. It hinders team development completely.
Answer: B
QUESTION 395
A project Control Scope system is documented during which of the Project Scope Management
processes?
B. Define Scope
C. Verify ScoPe
D. Control Scope
Answer: B
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. A project scope management plan should document the Control Scope
system.
QUESTION 396
In which type of organization the team building is likely to be most difficult?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Project Expediter
Answer: C
QUESTION 397
A contingency plan is executed when _____________.
A. A risks is identified
B. An identified risk occurs
C. When a workaround is needed
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION 398
A cost-plus-percentage-cost (CPPC) contract has an estimated cost of $120,000 with an agreed
profit of 10% of the costs. The actual cost of the project is $130,000. What is the total
reimbursement to the seller?
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A. $143,000
B. $142,000
C. $140,000
D. $132,000
Answer: A
QUESTION 399
A unilateral contract under which the seller is paid a preset amount per unit of service is called
_________.
A. A cost reimbursable contract
B. A lumP sum contract
C. A unit price contract
D. A fixed price contract
Answer: C
QUESTION 400
A contingency plan is ______________.
A. A planned response that defines the steps to be taken if an identified risk event occurs
B. A workaround
C. A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part
D. Both A and c
Answer: A
QUESTION 401
AOA refers to _____________.
A. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
C. Fragment Network
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
PDM is also known as Activity On Nodes (AON). Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM) uses arrows
as activities, and nodes are used to connect and show dependencies. In other words, the lines in
between nodes are where you place the task name. Thus this method is also called Activity On
Arrows (AOA).
QUESTION 402
Which of the following relationships is rarely used in PDM (Precedence Diagramming Method)?
A. Start-to-Finish
B. Finish-to-Start
C. Start-to-Start
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D. Finish-to-Finish
Answer: A
Explanation:
Finish-to-start: An activity must finish before the next activity begins. Finish-to-finish: An activity
must finish before the next activity can finish. Start-to-start: An activity must start before the next
activity can start. Start-to-finish: An activity must start before the next activity can finish.
QUESTION 403
You are in process of identifying and documenting the project roles and responsibilities and create
staffing management plan. All of the following should be addressed when listing the roles and
responsibilities EXCEP:
A. Competency
B. Authority
C. Responsibility
D. Compliance
Answer: D
QUESTION 404
Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve, which of the following statements about
contingency reserves is false?
A. A contingency reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations which
may be planned for only in part.
B. Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns.
C. Contingency reserves may be set aside for unknown unknowns.
D. Contingency reserves are normally included in the project's cost and schedule baselines.
Answer: C
QUESTION 405
Analogous estimating ____________.
A. Uses bottom-up estimating techniques
B. Uses the actual costs from a previous, similar project
C. Is synonymous with top-down estimating
D. Both B and c are correct
Answer: D
QUESTION 406
On any project, who creates the Lessons Learned document?
A. Customers
B. Project team
C. Project sponsor
D. Stakeholders
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Answer: B
Explanation:
The project team contributes to the Lessons Learned document.
QUESTION 407
Which of the following is considered during the Procurement Planning Process?
A. Whether to procure
B. How to procure and how much to procure
C. What and when to procure
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 408
If a project has an 80% chance of having the scope defined by a certain date and a 70% chance of
obtaining approval for the scope by a certain date, what is the probability of both events occurring?
A. 75%
B. 65%
C. 50%
D. 56%
Answer: D
QUESTION 409
Which of the following is an example of indirect costs?
A. Salaries of corporate executives
B. Salaries of full-time project staff
C. Overhead costs
D. Both A and C
Answer: D
QUESTION 410
You are a project manager for your organization. Management has asked you to help them
determine which projects should be selected for implementation. In a project selection model,
which one of the following is the most important factor?
A. Business needs
B. Type of constraints
C. Budget
D. Schedule
Answer: A
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Explanation:
A is the correct answer. Projects are selected based on business needs first.
QUESTION 411
Which of the following are the outputs of Collect Requirements Process?
A. Requirements documentation
B. Requirements management plan
C. The requirements tractability matrix
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
The outputs of Collect Requirements Process are: requirements documentation (stakeholder's
needs), the requirements management plan (how the requirements will be analyzed and
documents), and the requirements traceability matrix (tracking of requirements throughout the
project).
QUESTION 412
Which of the following is true regarding IRR?
A. IRR is a constrained optimization method.
B. IRR assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.
C. IRR is the discount rate when NPV is greater than zero.
D. IRR is the discount rate when NPV is equal to zero.
Answer: D
Explanation:
IRR assumes reinvestment at the IRR rate and is the discount rate when NPV is equal to zero.
QUESTION 413
Which of the following is true about procurement documents?
A. Procurement documents are used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers.
B. Invitations for Bid and Request for Proposal are two examples of procurement documents.
C. Procurement documents should be structured to facilitate accurate and complete responses
from prospective sellers.
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 414
Which of the following can generate a milestone list?
B. Sequence Activities
D. Estimate Activity Durations
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Answer: A
Explanation:
Outputs of Define Activities: Activity list, Activity Attributes and Milestone List. PMBOK Page no
162.
QUESTION 415
Which of the following statements concerning acceptance sampling is false?
A. Used when expensive and time-consuming to test the product 100%.
B. The number of allowable defects before lot is rejected is predetermined.
C. Inspection and test standards must be established to ensure that procedures can adequately
determine conformance and non-conformance.
D. All of the above are true.
Answer: D
QUESTION 416
According to the PMBOK Guide, the project statement of work (SOW) should contain or reference
all the following elements except?
A. Business need, strategic plan, and product scope description
B. Requirements, business need, and stakeholder expectations
C. Strategic plan, product scope description, stakeholder influences, and business need
D. Project purpose, business case, stakeholder influences, and product scope description
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project SOW should contain the business need for the project and the product scope
description and should support the organization's strategic plan.
QUESTION 417
Which of the following is not true about change requests?
A. They always require additional funding.
B. They happen while the project work is being done.
C. They can be written or verbal.
D. They can be requested by a stakeholder.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Change requests do not always require more money. Approved changes may require more funds,
but not always.
QUESTION 418
The belief that management's high levels of trust, confidence and commitment to workers leads to
high levels of motivation and productivity on the part of workers is a part of which motivation
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theory?
A. Theory Y
B. Theory Z
C. Theory X
D. Contingency Theory
Answer: B
QUESTION 419
________ is listed as a technique of the Collect Requirements process described in the PMBOK.
A. Group Decision Making Techniques
B. Selection criteria
C. Historical information
Answer: A
Explanation:
Group Decision Making Techniques is listed as a technique of the Collect Requirements process
described in the fourth edition PMBOK.
QUESTION 420
The ability of a product to be used for different purposes at different capacities and under different
conditions determines its ____________.
A. Usability
B. Flexibility
C. Operability
D. Availability
Answer: B
QUESTION 421
Which of the following statements concerning bottom-up estimating is true?
A. The cost and accuracy of bottom-up estimating is driven by the size of the individual work
items.
B. Smaller work items increase both cost and accuracy.
C. Larger work items increase both cost and accuracy.
D. Both A and B are true
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which of the following statements concerning bottom-up estimating is true?
QUESTION 422
Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in _______.
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Answer: D
Explanation:
The complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in Close
Procurements.
QUESTION 423
Which of the following is part of the expectancy theory of motivation?
A. Clear, specific, and challenging goals generally motivate team members.
B. Project managers should ensure that tasks assigned to project participants match their skills
and the organizational climate is conducive to helping them meet their needs and achieving a
sense of competence.
C. People tend to be highly productive and motivated if they believe their efforts will lead to
successful results and that success will lead to personal rewards.
D. Both B and C are true.
Answer: C
QUESTION 424
Which of the following is output of the Plan Communications process?
A. Project records
B. Communications management plan
C. Performance reports
D. Formal acceptance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Communications management plan and Project document updates are output of Plan
Communications process.
QUESTION 425
A fixed-price-plus-incentive-fee (FPI) contract has a target cost of $130,000, a target profit of
$15,000, a target price of $145,000, a ceiling price of $160,000, and a share ratio of 80/20. The
actual cost of the project was $150,000. How much profit does the seller make?
A. $10,000
B. $15,000
C. $o
D. $5,000
Answer: A
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QUESTION 426
Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the project should be prepared and distributed
during which process?
A. Distribute Information
B. Administrative Closeout
C. Organizational Planning
Answer: B
QUESTION 427
Root Cause Analysis is related to ________.
A. Process Analysis
B. Quality Audits
C. Performance Measurements
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A
QUESTION 428
When Identify Risks should be performed?
A. During Concept Phase
B. During Development Phase
C. During Implementation Phase
D. Identify Risks should be performed on a regular basis throughout the project
Answer: D
QUESTION 429
Parametric Estimate Costs involves _____________.
A. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package
B. Using rates and factors based on historical experience to estimate costs
C. Using the actual cost of a similar project to estimate total project costs
D. Both A and B
Answer: B
QUESTION 430
When a project is being performed under contract, who provides SOW?
A. Buyer
B. Contractor
C. Project sponsor
D. Project manager
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Answer: A
Explanation:
The buyer provides SOW when projects are performed under contract.
QUESTION 431
Cost of quality includes ___________.
A. Cost of all work to build a product or service that conforms to the requirements
B. Training programs
C. Cost of all work resulting from non-conformance to the requirements
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 432
Employees in a balanced matrix often report to ______________.
A. Two or more managers
B. One manager
C. Only functional manager
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
Employees in a balanced matrix often report to two or more managers. Functional managers and
project managers share authority and responsibility for projects.
QUESTION 433
Employees in a balanced matrix often report to two or more managers. Functional managers and
project managers share authority and responsibility for projects.
A. Innovation
C. Just in time
D. Paradigm
Answer: A
QUESTION 434
Legitimate power is __________.
A. Power derived from a person's formal position in the organization.
B. Power bestowed due to a person's personal qualities and abilities.
C. Power earned based on a person's technical knowledge, skill, or expertise in a particular area.
D. Power to distribute information as one sees fit.
Answer: A
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QUESTION 435
All of the following are outputs from Report Performance EXCEPT _________.
A. Trend analysis
B. "S" curves, histograms, bar charts, and tables
D. Change requests
Answer: A
Explanation:
Trend analysis is a tool and technique used in Monitor and Control Risks.
QUESTION 436
Your selection committee is debating between two projects. Project A has a payback period of 20
months. Project B has a cost of $150,000, with expected cash inflows of $50,000 the first year and
$25,000 per quarter after that. Which project should you recommend?
A. Either Project A or Project B, because the payback periods are equal
B. Project A, because Project B's payback period is 24 months
C. Project A, because Project B's payback period is 20 months
D. Project A, because Project B's payback period is 21 months
Answer: B
Explanation:
Project B has a payback period of 24 months; $50,000 is received in the first 12 months, with
another $100,000 coming in over next 12 months.
QUESTION 437
Forcing as a means to manage conflict ______________.
A. Exerts one's view at the potential expense of another party
B. Emphasizes areas of agreement while avoiding points of disagreement
C. Establishes a lose-lose situation
D. Both A and c
Answer: A
QUESTION 438
You are the project manager for an organization. You are considering recommending a project
that costs $280,000; expected inflows are $10,000 per quarter for the first two years and then
$25,000 per quarter thereafter. What is the payback period?
A. 48 months
B. 40 months
C. 36 months
D. 50 months
Answer: A
PMI-002
Explanation:
Year 1 and 2 inflows are each $40,000 for a total of $80,000. Year 3 inflows are an additional
$100,000. Add one more quarter to this total, and the $280,000 will be reached in 4 years, or 48
months?
QUESTION 439
Which of the following is not a process of Project Communications Management?
A. Administrative Closure
B. Report Performance
D. Conflict Resolution
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION 440
A significant difference between independent estimates and proposed pricing could mean that
_________________.
A. The independent estimates are most likely incorrect and the proposed pricing correct
B. The sow was not adequate
C. The prospective seller either misunderstood or failed to respond fully to the SOW
D. Either B or C
Answer: D
QUESTION 441
The practice of ceasing mass inspections and ending awards based on price is credited to
_____________.
A. Edward Deming
B. PhiliP Crosby
C. Juran
D. Pareto
Answer: A
QUESTION 442
Which of the following is not a tool or technique used during the Risk Quantification Process?
A. Expected Monetary Value
B. Contingency planning
C. Decision Trees
D. Statistical sums
Answer: B
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QUESTION 443
A histogram ordered by frequency of occurrence that shows how many results were generated by
each identified cause is called ______________.
A. Statistical Histogram
B. Juran Histogram
C. Fishbone Diagram
D. Pareto Diagram
Answer: D
QUESTION 444
Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in order to minimize the effect of
personal prejudice on source selection?
A. Weighting system
B. Screening system
C. Selecting system
Answer: A
QUESTION 445
Which of the following are inputs that belong to Estimates Activity Resources?
A. Activity List
B. Resource Calendar
C. Activity Attributes
D. All of the above are inputs of Estimates Activity Resources
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. All of the above are inputs of Estimates Activity Resources.
QUESTION 446
80% of the problems are found in 20% of the work is a concept of _________.
A. Edward Deming
B. PhiliP Crosby
C. Juran
D. Pareto
Answer: D
QUESTION 447
Which of the following best describes a sub network?
A. Fragment Network
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B. ADM
C. PDM
D. A0N
Answer: A
Explanation:
ADM (Arrow Diagramming MethoD.r activities on arrows uses dummy activities to correctly show
all logical relationships. PDM (Precedence Diagramming Method) is also known as Activities on
nodes. PDM is also known as Activity On Nodes (AON).
QUESTION 448
A cost management plan is ____________.
A. A Plan for describing how cost variances will be managed
B. A subsidiary element of the project charter
C. An input to the Estimate Costs process
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
cost management plan is a plan for describing how cost variances will be managed.
QUESTION 449
A key barrier to team development is ______________.
A. A strong matrix management structure
B. Major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets
C. Team members are accountable to both functional and project managers
D. Formal training plans cannot be implemented
Answer: C
QUESTION 450
The project manager's leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental
level of the project team and should move through successive steps in the following order:
_____________.
A. Disciplinary, autocratic, and participative
B. Staff planning, team training, and performance monitoring
C. Team building, team development, and responsibility assignment
D. Directing, coaching, supporting, and delegating
Answer: D
QUESTION 451
Cost of quality includes ___________.
A. Cost of all work to build a product or service that conforms to the requirements
PMI-002
B. Training programs
C. Cost of all work resulting from non-conformance to the requirements
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cost of quality includes both cost of conformance and cost of non-conformance to quality
QUESTION 452
The ability of a product to be used for different purposes at different capacities and under different
conditions determines its __________.
A. Usability
B. Flexibility
C. Operability
D. Availability
Answer: B
QUESTION 453
Legitimate power is ____________.
A. Power derived from a person's formal position in the organization
B. Power bestowed due to a person's personal qualities and abilities
C. Power earned based on a person's technical knowledge, skill, or expertise in a particular area
D. Power to distribute information as one sees fit
Answer: A
QUESTION 454
A tool that analyzes the inputs to a process to identify the causes of errors is called
______________________.
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Fishbone diagram
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Cause and effect diagram is also called Ishikawa diagram or fishbone
diagram.
QUESTION 455
A project is defined as ________________.
A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan
B. Anendeavour, which is planned, executed, and controlled, performed by people and
PMI-002
constrained by limited resources

C. A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product or service
D. An objective based effort of temporary nature
Answer: C
QUESTION 456
Which of the following is NOT considered as strategy for negative risk ?
A. Avoid
B. Transfer
C. Accept
D. ExPlot
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Exploit is considered as strategy for positive risk.Strategies for negative
risks are Avoid ,Transfer,Mitigate and Accept.
QUESTION 457
A tool which is used to illustrate links between work packages or activities and team members is
called _______.
A. Define Scope Matrix
B. Responsibility Assignment Matrix
C. Roles Assignment Matrix
D. Project Scope and Roles Matrix
Answer: B
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. A tool which is used to illustrate links between work packages or activities
and team members is called Responsibility Assignment Matrix
QUESTION 458
Management reserves are used to handle which type of risk?
A. Unknown unknowns
B. Known unknowns
C. Business risks
D. Pure risks
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. Management reserves are used to handle Unknown unknowns. Specific
unknown risks cannot be managed proactively; project team should create a contingency plan.
PMI-002
QUESTION 459
The ___________ documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was
undertaken to create.
A. Project charter
B. Scope statement
C. Product description
D. Technical article
Answer: C
QUESTION 460
The quality team for the project consists of several groups. Which of the following project
participants plays the most important role in the quality function?
A. Customer
B. Project Manager
C. Project Team
D. Vendors and Suppliers
Answer: A
QUESTION 461
Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique used during the Perform quantitative risk
analysis Process?
A. Expected Monetary Value Analysis
B. Risk Categorization
C. Interviewing
D. Sensitivity Analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. Risk Categorization is done in Perform qualitative risk analysis
QUESTION 462
Projects are typically authorized as a result of any of the following except:
A. Market demand
B. Successful RFP bidding
C. Regulatory requirement
D. Technological advance
Answer: B
QUESTION 463
Which of the following are inputs belong to Estimates Activity Resources?
A. Activity List
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B. Resource Calendar
C. Activity attributes
D. All of the above are inputs of Estimates Activity Resources
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. All of the above are inputs of Estimates Activity Resources.
QUESTION 464
Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is part of which of the following risk response
categories?
A. Transfer
B. Acceptance
C. Avoidance
D. Mitigate
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. transfer of a risk to another party (third party) is part of Transfer strategy
(Strategies for negative risks).
QUESTION 465
The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on
completion is the _______.
A. Owner
B. Sponsor
C. Customer
D. client
Answer: A
QUESTION 466
What are the four parts of the communications model?
A. Sending, Receiving, Decoding, and Comprehending
B. Sender, Message, Medium, and Receiver
C. Communicator, Message, Receiver, and Decoder
D. Communicating, Transmitting, Receiving, and Comprehending
Answer: B
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. four parts of the communications model are Sender, Message, Medium,
and Receiver
PMI-002
QUESTION 467
Maintenance should ________.
A. Be considered part of the project life cycle because it is part of the total life cycle costing
needed to do benefit/cost analysis in Collect Requirements
B. Be part of the work breakdown structure to give the total scope of the required activities and
effort
C. Not be considered as a part of the project life cycle
D. Be managed carefully because it is often a source of scope creep
Answer: C
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. Maintenance should not be considered as a part of the project life cycle
QUESTION 468
A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has
been performed is called __________.
A. Quality Policy
B. check List
C. Trend Analysis
D. Paieto Diagram
Answer: B
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that a
set of required steps has been performed is called Check List
QUESTION 469
Project management processes can be organized into the following:
A. Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and administration
B. Designing, developing, testing, and implementing
C. Initiating, designing, planning, executing, controlling, and implementation
D. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing
Answer: D
QUESTION 470
Decomposition is ___________.
A. What happens when changes to the project scope are ignore
B. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components
C. Defining a general product description into more discrete definitions of individual components
D. Subdividing the project into logical divisions of effort aligned within the performing
organization's functional areas
Answer: B
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QUESTION 471
In which of the following contract types the seller's profit is limited?
A. Cost-plus-percentage-cost contract
B. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract
C. Firm Fixed price contract
D. Fixed-price-incentive fee contract
Answer: B
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract and Cost-plus-incentive-fee contract where
seller's profit is limited
QUESTION 472
Which of the following is output of the Plan Communications process?
A. Project Records
B. Communications Management Plan
C. Performance Reports
D. Formal Acceptance
Answer: B
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. Communications Management Plan and Project document updates are
output of the Plan Communications process.
QUESTION 473
Cost of Quality is a project management concept that includes cost of _________.
A. Exceeding requirements
B. Changes to the requirements
C. Ensuring conformance to requirements
D. The quality control requirements
Answer: C
QUESTION 474
Work packages are described in the __________.
B. Work charter
C. Statement of work
D) Q Work project plan
Answer: A
PMI-002
QUESTION 475
Life cycle costing ________________.
A. Includes acquisition, operating, and disposal costs when evaluating various alternatives
B. Includes only the cost of the development or acquisition of a product or service
C. Does not take into consideration the effect of project decisions on the cost of using the resulting
product
D. Both B and c
Answer: A
QUESTION 476
Conflict resolution techniques that may be used on a project include ______________.
A. Withdrawing, compromising, controlling, and forcing
B. Controlling forcing smoothing, and withdrawing
C. Confronting, compromising, smoothing and directing
D. Smoothing, confronting, forcing, and withdrawing
Answer: D
QUESTION 477
Which process involves Monitoring, measuring, and taking corrective action?
Answer: C
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. Planning Processes: Approach to executing project. Executing processes:
Coordinating people and other resources. Controlling Processes: Monitoring, measuring, and
taking corrective action. Closing processes: Formal product acceptance and end of project.
QUESTION 478
A key barrier to team development is _________.
A. A strong matrix management structure
B. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets
C. When team members are accountable to both functional and project manager!
D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented
Answer: C
QUESTION 479
Wgich of the following is NOT considered as strategy for positive risk ?
A. Avoid
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B. Transfer
C. Accept
D. ExPlot
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Exploit is considered as strategy for positive risk.Strategies for negative
risks are Avoid ,Transfer,Mitigate and Accept.
QUESTION 480
The adjustment of task schedules in order to deploy human resource more effectively is called
resource _______.
A. Tracking
B. Loading
C. Crashing
D. Levelling
Answer: D
QUESTION 481
Tools and techniques used during the Plan Quality process include which of the following:
A. Benefit/cost analysis
B. Control charts
C. Cost of Quality
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. All are tools and techniques used during the Plan Quality process.
QUESTION 482
When Identify Risks should be performed?
A. During Concept Phase
B. During Development Phase
C. During Implementation Phase
D. On a regular basis throughout the project
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Identify Risks should be performed On a regular basis throughout the
project
QUESTION 483
Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller?
PMI-002
A. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract
B. Cost-plus-incentive-fee contract
C. Fixed-price-incentive fee contract
D. Firm-fixed-price contract
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Firm-fixed-price contract is good for buyer because product cost not
change unless scope of work not changes.
QUESTION 484
Which of the following is true concerning the evaluation criteria?
A. Can often be found in procurement documents
B. Can be objective or subjective
C. Used to rate or score proposals
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. All of the above are true
QUESTION 485
Percent complete is calculated by _________.
A. ACWP/BAC
B. BCWP-ACWP
C. BCWP/BAC
D. EAC/BAC
Answer: C
QUESTION 486
Which process involves Formal product acceptance and end of project?
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Planning Processes: Approach to executing project. Executing processes:
PMI-002
QUESTION 487
A document or tool which describes when and how human resources will be brought onto and
taken off the project team is called _______.
A. Staffing Management Plan
B. Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)
C. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)
D. Resource Assignment Chart
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. Staffing Management Plan :A document or tool which describes when and
how human resources will be brought onto and taken off the project team
QUESTION 488
A contingency plan is executed when _______.
A. A risk is identified
B. An identified risk occurs
C. When a workaround is needed
D. All of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. A contingency plan is executed when An identified risk occurs
QUESTION 489
Project initiation is all of the following except:
A. A process of formally recognizing that a new project exists
B. A process of formally recognizing that an existing project should continue into its next phase
C. It links the project to the ongoing work of the performing organization
D. Its inputs are product description, strategic plan, constraints, and assumptions
Answer: D
QUESTION 490
A series of consecutive points on the same side of the average is called ____________.
A. Run Chart
B. Trend Analysis
C. Outliers
D. Cycle
Answer: A
Explanation:
PMI-002
A is the correct answer. A Run chart is a line graph that shows data points in the order in which
they occur.A series of consecutive points on the same side of the average.
QUESTION 491
Which of the following techniques accounts for path convergence and generally estimates project
durations more accurately?
A. CPM
B. PERT
C. Schedule Simulation
D. Path Convergence Method
Answer: C
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. Schedule Simulation generally estimates project durations more
accurately.
QUESTION 492
The core planning processes include:
A. Collect Requirements, Sequence Activities, and Plan Communications
B. Plan Quality, Plan Communications, and Risk Response Development
C. Define Scope, Estimate Activity Durations, and Determine Budget
D. Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Estimate Costs, Plan Quality, and Plan Risk
Responses
Answer: C
QUESTION 493
When a risk should be avoided?
A. The risk event has a low probability of occurrence and low impact.
B. The risk event is unacceptable - generally one with a very high probability of occurrence and
high impact.
C. The risk can be transferred by purchasing insurance.
D. A risk event can never be avoided.
Answer: B
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. Most radical avoidance strategy is shutdown the project entirely.
QUESTION 494
Which of the following are not functions of the project kick off meeting?
A. Identifying project goals
B. Obtaining commitment
C. Presenting the project cost
D. Introducing the stakeholders
PMI-002
Answer: C
QUESTION 495
The most effective method in developing a project team within a matrix organization is to follow the
________.
A. Communications plan
B. Control Scope plan
C. Staffing management plan
D. Training development plan
Answer: C
QUESTION 496
___________ must be measured regularly to identify variance from the plan.
A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
Answer: B
QUESTION 497
80% of the problems are found in 20% of the work is a concept of ___________.
A. Edward Deming
B. PhiliP Crosby
C. Juran
D. Pareto
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Pareto law : A relatively small number of causes typically produce a
majority of the problems and defects. This is called 80/20 principle , 80% of the problems due to
20% of the causes.
QUESTION 498
The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions
is called __________.
A. Product scope
B. Staffing scope
C. The project
D. Project scope
Answer: D
PMI-002
QUESTION 499
A cost management plan is ______________.
A. A plan for describing howcost variances will be managed
B. A subsidiary element of the project charter
C. An input to the Estimate Costs process
D. Both A and C
Answer: A
QUESTION 500
Project Risk Management includes all of the following processes EXCEPT ________.
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Identify Risks
C. Risk Analysis
D. Plan R^ Response
Answer: C
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. Perform qualitative risk analysis and Perform quantitative risk analysis is
the process of Project Risk Management NOT Risk Analysis
QUESTION 501
Techniques for conducting product analysis include:
A. Technical benefit analysis
B. Value engineering
C. Expert judgment
D. Alternatives identification
Answer: B
QUESTION 502
Human resource administration is the primary responsibility of which of the following:
A. Project Management Team
B. Human Resources Department
C. Executive Manager
D. Project Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION 503
During the execution of a software project, the vendor proposes an upgrade of a part of project
without a change in the schedule or cost. After the change is approved, where would this change
BEST be documented?
A. Project charter
PMI-002
B. Procurement Management plan

C. Work breakdown structure
D. Quality assurance plan
Answer: B
QUESTION 504
Technical staffs tend to be particularly responsive to __________.
A. Referent power
B. Formal power
C. Functional power
D. Expert power
Answer: B
QUESTION 505
Which of the following approaches to quality improvement is LEAST likely to produce positive
results?
A. Continuous improvement
B. Increased inspection
C. Statistical quality control
D. IS09001 certified process
Answer: B
QUESTION 506
The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality
standards is called ______________.
B. Quality Control
C. Plan Quality
D. Quality Review
Answer: B
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they
comply with relevant quality standards is called Quality Control
QUESTION 507
Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except ___________.
A. Team building
B. Analysis of alternatives
C. Convergent thinking
D. Uninhibited verbalization
PMI-002
Answer: C
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. Group brainstorming does not encourages Convergent thinking
QUESTION 508
The principle states that "Employees who believe that their efforts will lead to effective
performance and who anticipate important rewards for their accomplishments become productive
stay productive." This principle illustrates which of the following theory?
A. Expectancy theory
B. Maslow theory
C. Herzberg theory
D. None
Answer: A
QUESTION 509
A work breakdown structure is a ______.
A. Result of the Collect Requirements process
B. Deliverable oriented grouping of project elements that organizes and defines the total scope of
the project
C. Structure that can be used to track the project's time, cost, and quality performance against a
defined baseline
D. Valuable communications tool, but cannot be used to establish the number of required
networks for Control Costs
Answer: B
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. WBS :Deliverable oriented grouping of project elements that organizes
and defines the total scope of the project
QUESTION 510
On a project, quality should generally be of ________.
A. Equal priority with schedule, but higher priority than cost
B. Higher priority than cost and schedule
C. Equal priority with cost, but higher priority than schedule
D. Equal priority with cost and schedule
Answer: D
QUESTION 511
A risk response which involves eliminating a threat is called
A. Mitigation
B. Deflection
C. Avoidance
PMI-002
D. Transfer
Answer: C
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. Avoidance is eliminating threat entirely. CAPMBOK Page no 303.
QUESTION 512
How much time does a typical project manager spend communicating both formally and
informally?
A. 40-60%
B. 50-70%
C. 60-80%
D. 75-90%
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. project manager spend 75-90% time to communicate both formally and
informally
QUESTION 513
Which process involves coordinating people and other resources to carry out plan?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. Planning Processes: Approach to executing project. Executing processes:
QUESTION 514
Project Procurement Management includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Administration
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Planning
D. Solicitation
Answer: B
QUESTION 515
Parametric Estimate Costs involves:
PMI-002
A. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package

B. Using rates and factors based on historical experience to estimate costs
C. Using the actual cost of a similar project to estimate total project costs
D. Both A and B
Answer: B
QUESTION 516
Collect Requirements includes alternatives identification, which can be conducted by the common
technique of
A. Lateral thinking
B. Value engineering
C. Cost/benefit analysis
D. Constraints analysis
Answer: A
QUESTION 517
Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in _______.
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done
in Close Procurements.
QUESTION 518
The practice of ceasing mass inspections and ending awards based on price is credited to which
of the following:
A. Edward Deming
B. Philip Crosby
C. Juran
D. Pareto
Answer: A
QUESTION 519
A scope management plan describes __________.
A. An assessment of the stability of the stakeholder environment
B. A highly detailed approach to managing the work breakdown structure scope
C. How the project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be integrated into the
project
PMI-002
D. The stakeholder's expectation on how changes will be identified and by what priority they will
be addressed
Answer: C
QUESTION 520
What is CI?
A. Continuous improvement
B. A sustained, gradual change
C. Constancy of purpose and commitment to quality as part of its focus
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Continuous Improvement : The plan-do-check-act is basis of quality
improvement as defined by Edward and modified by Deming.
QUESTION 521
During the execution phase, a resource is added to the project team. What effect will this have on
the project?
A. The effect cannot be determined
B. The project duration will be shortened
C. A scope change will be required
D. The quality of the project will be increased
Answer: A
QUESTION 522
In project communications, the sender is responsible for _____________.
A. Making the information clear, unambiguous, and complete so that the receiver can receive it
correctly
B. Ensuring information conveyed is accurate, clear, and timely so that it is useful to the receiver
C. Making sure that the information is received in its entirety and understood correctly
D. Identifying the proper choice of media, eliminating communications barriers, and utilizing the
appropriate style and tone
Answer: A
QUESTION 523
Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the project should be prepared and distributed
during which of the following process?
A. Distribute Information
B. Administrative Closure
C. Organizational Planning
PMI-002
Answer: B
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the project should be
prepared and distributed during Administrative Closure process
QUESTION 524
You are the project manager of a project. The project plan has been developed. A project end date
has been established. The customer later requesters additional work to be included in the project,
but will not renegotiate the end date. Cost is not a factor. What should the project team do
immediately?
A. Invoke the change control process
B. Initiate contingency plans
C. Modify the original project scope to include the additional work
D. Commit to original project scope and open a new project to handle additional work
Answer: A
QUESTION 525
The one document that should always be used to help identify risk is _______.
A. Risk Management Plan
B. WBS
C. Scope Statement
D. Project Charter
Answer: B
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. WBS always be used to help identify risk.
QUESTION 526
Which of the following are examples of indirect costs?
A. Salaries of corporate executives
B. Salaries of full-time project staff
C. Overhead costs
D. Both a and c
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Salaries of full-time project staff included in direct cost.
QUESTION 527
A contingency plan is ________.
A. A planned response that defines the steps to be taken, if an identified risk event should occur
PMI-002
B. A workaround
C. A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part
D. All of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. A planned response that defines the steps to be taken, if an identified risk
event should occur is called contingency plan
QUESTION 528
As part of the quality audit, the scope statement is checked against the work results to ensure the
conformance to the customer requirements. The results should be documented and used for
which of the following:
A. Estimating future projects
B. Changing the project scope
C. Defining future project tasks
D. Validating the quality process
Answer: C
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. quality audit can confirm the implementation of approved change
requests,Defining future project tasks.
QUESTION 529
Analogous estimating ___________.
A. Uses bottom-up estimating techniques.
B. Uses the actual costs from a previous, similar project
C. Is synonymous with top-down estimating
D. Both B and c
Answer: D
QUESTION 530
The independence of two events in which the occurrence of one is not related to the occurrence of
the other is called _______.
A. Event phenomenon
B. Independent probability
C. Statistical independence
D. Statistical probability
Answer: C
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. The independence of two events in which the occurrence of one is not
related to the occurrence of the other is called Statistical independence
PMI-002
A. Lead
B. client
C. Project manager
D. Change control board
QUESTION 531
CORRECT TEXT
In a large, complex project, the authority to accept or reject a requested change should rest with
the ________.
Answer: D
QUESTION 532
The BEST way to organize project activities for scheduling is by ________.
A. WBS
B. Critical Path
C. Task start date
D. Responsible organization
Answer: A
QUESTION 533
A project manager's role is likely to be part-time in which of the following organizations?
A. Weak matrix
C. Balanced matrix matrix
D. All of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. project manager's role is likely to be cordinator in weak or functional
matrix organization
QUESTION 534
Ideally, resource levelling should be limited to activities ________.
A. With negative float
B. Witn zero float
C. 0n tne critical path
D. With positive float
Answer: D
QUESTION 535
All of the following are outputs from Report Performance EXCEPT _________.
PMI-002
A. Trend analysis
B. "S" curves, histograms, bar charts, and tables
D. Change requests
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. Trend analysis is a tool and technique used in Monitor and Control Risks.
QUESTION 536
A is the correct answer. Trend analysis is a tool and technique used in Monitor and Control Risks.
A. Financial records
B. Inspection specifications
C. Project charter
D. Project reports
Answer: A
QUESTION 537
The major project scope management processes include:
A. Change order control
B. Initiation
C. Program evaluation
D. Scope validation
Answer: B
QUESTION 538
You are project manger of an existing project. You have been with your company for several years
but not in the area where this project is occurring. A Project Management Plan is in place. The
project has not exceeded many baseline change thresholds. The customer is not happy with the
status of the project. Which of the following is the BEST initial action?
A. Prepare a corrective action plan
B. Conduct team-building with all stakeholders
C. Verify the customer's needs and expectations
D. None
Answer: C
QUESTION 539
Which of the following statement is true about Quality control?
A. Monitoring specific project results to determineIf they comply with relevant quality standards
B. Evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis
C. Taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project
D. Identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project
PMI-002
Answer: A
QUESTION 540
A leadership style in which the project manager shares problems with team members and
formulates solutions as a group is called _________.
A. Autocratic
B. Consultation In a group
C. Consensus
D. One-to-one consultation
Answer: C
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. Consensus is related to Delphi technique.project manager shares
problems with team members and formulates solutions as a group.
QUESTION 541
Which of the following statements concerning compromise as a conflict resolution is false?
A. Neither party wins but both parties get some degree of satisfaction
B. Important aspects of the project may be hindered in order to achieve personal objectives
C. Compromise is generally considered a lose-lose situation
D. A Definitive resolution is seldom achieved
Answer: D
QUESTION 542
Who is the person responsible for obtaining funding for a new project's conceptual study?
A. Project manager
B. President
C. Chief financial officer
D. Project sponsor
Answer: D
QUESTION 543
An example of risk mitigation is:
A. Taking early action to reduce probably of risk ratherrepair the damage after risk has occurred.
B. Purchasing insurance
C. Eliminating the cause of a risk
D. You develop a contingency plan to execute in case the risk event occurs.
Answer: A
Explanation:
PMI-002
A is the correct answer. Taking early action to reduce probably of risk rather repair the damage
after risk has occurred is mitigation.
QUESTION 544
An input to the Control Scope process is ___________.
A. Work results
B. Work Performance information
C. Customer requirements
D. Product defects
Answer: B
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. Work Performance information is an input of Control Scope.
QUESTION 545
All of the following statements about the project charter are correct except:
A. It Is often an internal legal document.
B. It identifies the project manager's authority and responsibility.
C. It identifies management and/or customer approved scope of the project.
D. It usually does not identify cost and time estimates.
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. project charter includes budget summary and summary milestone
schedule also.
QUESTION 546
Estimated at Completion is determined by ___________.
A. ETC + ACWP
B. BAC - ETC
C. BAC/CPI
D. Both A and C
Answer: D
QUESTION 547
Which of the following statements concerning bottom up estimating is true?
A. The cost and accuracy of bottom-up estimating is driven by the size of the individual work items
B. Smaller work items increase both cost and accuracy
C. Larger work items increase both cost and accuracy
D. Both A and B are true
Answer: D
PMI-002
QUESTION 548
completion is the ___________.
A. Owner
B. Sponsor
C. Customer
D. client
Answer: B
QUESTION 549
The project manager should be assigned ___________ as an output from the Initiation process.
A. Once a budget has been approved
B. As early in the project as is feasible
C. After the stakeholders have approved the assignment
D. As soon as the project plan is ready to be executed
Answer: B
QUESTION 550
Correspondence, contract changes, and payment requests are ___________ of contract
administration.
A. Outputs
B. Tools
C. Functions
D. InPuts
Answer: A
QUESTION 551
Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in order to minimize the effect of
personal prejudice on source selection?
A. Weighting System
B. Screening System
C. Selecting System
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. Weighting System can be used Select a single seller that will be asked to
sign a contract and establishing a negotiating sequence by raking the proposals by the weighted
evaluation scores assigned to each proposal.
QUESTION 552
An individual's willingness to take a risk can be determined by which of the following:
PMI-002
A. Decision Treemodelling
B. Monte Carlo method
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. utility theory
Answer: D
QUESTION 553
Which of the following techniques is used to control the project schedule?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance measurement
C. Parametric modelling
D. Statistical sampling
Answer: B
QUESTION 554
The PERT method is MOST used in situations where
A. ifIs important to know the inter relationships of activities
B. Little is known about the cost estimated related to the project
C. Little experience exists on which to base estimated of activity duration
D. Resource requirements are well define
Answer: C
QUESTION 555
A relatively small number of causes typically produce a majority of the problems and defects is a
concept of ___________.
A. Edward Deming
B. phil'P Crosby
C. Juian
D. Pareto
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Pareto law : A relatively small number of causes typically produce a
majority of the problems and defects. This is called 80/20 principle , 80% of the problems due to
20% of the causes.
QUESTION 556
You are the project manager of a project. You have to determine the staffing requirements of the
project. Which of the following you need:
A. Resource breakdown schedule
B. Responsibility assignment matrix
PMI-002

D. Organization chart
Answer: C
QUESTION 557
A service or product's reliability and maintenance characteristics are MOST affected by which of
the following:
A. Function
B. Design
C. Cost
D. Fabrication
Answer: B
QUESTION 558
Which of the following is considered during the Plan Procurement Process?
A. Whether to procure
B. How to procure and how much to procure
C. What and when to procure
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 559
If a project has an 80% chance of activity will take 2 weeks or less. what is the probability of the
event?
A. 75%
B. 65%
C. 50%
D. 20%
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. 20% probability of exceeding 2 weeks - 80% chance of activity will take 2
weeks or less
QUESTION 560
Collect Requirements is:
A. Developing a comprehensive plan based on input from major stakeholders
B. The process of defining and documenting stakeholders needs to meet project objectives
C. The process which provides information for planning project milestones
D. Subdividing the project into smaller, more manageable components
Answer: B
PMI-002
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. Collect Requirements : The process of defining and documenting
stakeholders needs to meet project objectives
QUESTION 561
__________.
A. A cost reimbursable contract
B. A lump sum contract
C. A time and material contract
D. A fixed price contract
Answer: C
Explanation:
__________.
QUESTION 562
You are the project manager of a project .The senior executive of your company wants monthly
schedule update of your project. Which of the following would you send to the executive?
A. Milestone chart
B. Time scaled network diagram
C. Arrow activity diagram
D. PERT chart
Answer: A
QUESTION 563
Which of the following is a mandatory prerequisite for team building?
A. Funding for staff development activities
B. Shared work ethics among team members
C. Commitment from top level management
D. Removal of troublesome individuals
Answer: C
QUESTION 564
The belief that management's high levels of trust, confidence and commitment to workers leads to
high levels of motivation and productivity on the part of workers is a part of which motivation
theory?
A. Theory Y
B. Theory Z
C. Theory X
D. Contingency Theory
PMI-002
Answer: B
QUESTION 565
Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions is called
_________________.
A. Product Analysis
B. Define Scope
C. Project Development
D. Collect Requirements
Answer: D
QUESTION 566
During project lose out, the final task is __________.
A. Verify that contractual obligations were met
B. Transfer the deliverables to the client
C. Reassign team member
D. Complete lessons learned records
Answer: B
QUESTION 567
Which of the following is part of the expectancy theory of motivation?
A. Clear, specific, and challenging goals generally motivate team members
B. Project managers should ensure that tasks assigned to project participants match their skills
and the organizational climate is conducive to helping them meet their needs and achieving a
sense
of competence
C. People tend to be highly productive and motivated if they believe their efforts will lead to
successful results and that success will lead to personal rewards
Answer: C
QUESTION 568
Determining conformance with scope requirements is called _________.
A. Quality Management
B. Quality Assurance
C. plan Quality
D. Quality Control
Answer: D
QUESTION 569
Risks are accepted when __________.
PMI-002
A. You develop a contingency plan to execute in case the risk event occurs.
B. To eliminate the threat entirely.
C. You transfer the risk to another party.
D. Taking early action to reduce probably of risk rather repair the damage after risk has occurred.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. Risks are accepted when You develop a contingency plan to execute in
case the risk event occurs and You accept the consequences of the risk.
QUESTION 570
The concept of making a giant leap forward followed by a period of maturity is called _________.
A. Innovation
C. Just in time
D. Paradigm
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. The concept of making a giant leap forward followed by a period of
maturity is called Innovation
QUESTION 571
What impact does a matrix organization have on project team development?
A. No impact at all
B. It complicates team development
C. It simplifies team development
D. It hinders team development completely
Answer: B
QUESTION 572
A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a neutral third party hear the
dispute and make a decision is called __________.
A. Negotiation
B. Arbitration
C. Smoothing
D. Forcing
Answer: B
QUESTION 573
The sender is responsible for __________.
PMI-002
A. Confirming that the message is understood

B. Ensuring that the receiver agrees with the message
C. Scheduling communication exchange
D. Presenting the message in the most agreeable manner
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. The sender is responsible for Confirming that the message is understood
QUESTION 574
Completion of the _____________ scope is measured against the project management plan.
A. Project
B. Technical
C. Product
D. Baseline
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. Completion of the Project scope is measured against the project
management plan.
QUESTION 575
The items at the lowest level of the WBS are called __________.
A. Code of accounts
B. Subtasks
C. Work packages
D. Nodes
Answer: C
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. items at the lowest level of the WBS are called Work packages
QUESTION 576
The communications management plan is primarily dependent on the ____________.
A. Length of the project
B. Physical location of team members
C. Specific needs of the project
D. Project deliverables
Answer: C
QUESTION 577
The overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to quality as formally expressed
by top management is a __________.
PMI-002
A. Quality Plan
B. Quality Statement
C. Quality Policy
D. TQM
Answer: C
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. Quality Policy : endorsed by senior management.
QUESTION 578
The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence
that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards is called __________.
B. Quality Control
C. Plan Quality
D. Quality Review
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis
to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards is called Quality
Assurance
QUESTION 579
All of the following aid in achieving consensus EXCEPT __________.
A. Maintaining a focus on the problem, not each other
B. Avoiding conflict
C. Seeking facts
D. Avoiding voting, trading, or averaging
Answer: B
Explanation:
B is the correct answer. Avoiding conflict is the correct answer.
QUESTION 580
Which of the following statements is false?
A. Uncertainty and risk are greatest at the start of the project and lowest at the end.
B. The amount at stakeIs lowest at the end of the project and greatest at the start.
C. Expected monetary value can be expressed as the product of the risk event probability and the
risk event value.
D. Opportunities are positive outcome of risks.
Answer: B
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Explanation:
B is the correct answer. All statements are true EXCEPT B
QUESTION 581
___________ is a groups of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or
C. Scope Management
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. Procurement Management is a groups of processes required to purchase
or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the
work.
QUESTION 582
Which of the following is not a process of project human resource management?
A. Organizational Planning
B. stan< Acquisition
D. Team Development
Answer: C
QUESTION 583
To shorten project duration, resources have been added to tasks on the critical path. The plan
should then be reviewed for the __________.
A. Lagging time on other paths
B. Emergence of a new critical path
C. Resource assigned to other tasks on the critical path
D. Longest task remaining in the plan
Answer: B
QUESTION 584
The project manager's leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental
level of the project team and should move through successive steps in the following order:
A. Disciplinary, autocratic, and participative
B. Staff planning, team training, and performance monitoring
C. Team building, team development, and responsibility assignment
D. Directing, coaching, supporting, and delegating
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Answer: D
QUESTION 585
The seller delivers a fixed price plus incentive fee project at a cost of $90,000. The terms of the
contract are a ceiling price of $120,000, a target cost of $ 100,000, a target profit of $10,000, and
a target price of $110,000. The share ratio is 70/30. The final price (your total reimbursement) is
_________.
A. $93,000
B. $96,000
C. $97,000
Answer: D
QUESTION 586
Estimate Costs_____________.
A. Involves developing an estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete project
activities
B. Cost estimates are generally expresses in unit of some currency.
C. Involves allocating the overall estimates to individual work items
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 587
A project management professional can compare earned value performance data to all of the
following project management tools EXCEPT:
A. Critical path analysis
B. Technical performance metrics
C. Risk mitigation plans
D. Forecasted final costs and schedule estimates
Answer: D
QUESTION 588
Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve, which of the following statements about
contingency reserves is false?
A. A contingency reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations which
may be planned for only in part.
B. Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns.
C. Contingency reserves may be set aside for unknown unknowns.
D. Contingency reserves are normally included in the project's cost and schedule baselines.
Answer: C
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Explanation:
C is the correct answer. Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns
QUESTION 589
A histogram ordered by frequency of occurrence that shows how many results were generated by
each identified cause is __________.
A. Statistical Histogram
B. Juran Histogram
C. Fishbone Diagram
D. Pareto Diagram
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Pareto diagram (Pareto chart) shows how many defects were generated
by types or category of identified cause.
QUESTION 590
You are the controller on your project. Your project manager has requested that you provide him
with a forecast of project costs for the next 12 months. He needs this information to determine if
the budget should be increased or decreased on this major construction project. In addition to the
usual information sources, which of the following should you also consider?
A. Cost estimates from similar projects
B. The WBS
C. Long-range weather forecasts
D. Existing change requests
Answer: D
QUESTION 591
_____________ involve coordinating people and other resources to carry out the plan.
B. Resource planning
C. Planning processes
D. Executing processes
Answer: D
QUESTION 592
The three major types of communication are:
A. Written, verbal, and non-verbal
B. Verbal, formal documentation, and informal documentation
C. Verbal, written, and graphic
D. Verbal, written, and electronic
Answer: A
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Explanation:
A is the correct answer. Written, verbal, and non-verbal are three major types of communications
QUESTION 593
A Strong Matrix is _____.
A. A balanced matrix organization
B. Where all team members are brought together in one location
C. Where functional managers operate in a dual reporting structure reporting to both their own
departments and to the project manager
D. Power reset with Functional Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION 594
When should the project expeditor form of organization be used?
A. When the project is extremely important to the organization
B. When a project's cost and importance are relativelylow
C. When the project manager has a lot of responsibility and accountability
D) Q When the organization's primary source of revenue is derived from projects
Answer: B
QUESTION 595
A. Identify stakeholders
B. Report Performance
D. Conflict Management
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Conflict Management is a tool and technique for Manage Project Team
QUESTION 596
Which of the following is NOT considered a cost of non-conformance to quality?
A. Scrap
B. Rework
C. Liabilities
D. Training
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Training is considered as cost of conformance to quality.
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QUESTION 597
Team motivation, problem resolution, and space verification occur during which process?
A. Initiation
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Close
Answer: C
QUESTION 598
All of the following are communication tools EXCEPT _________.
A. Memos
B. Verbal circulation of arumour
C. video conferencing
D. Inputting data into a spreadsheet
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Inputting data into a spreadsheet is not communication tool. Memos
belongs to push communication. Video conferencing belongs to interactive communication.
QUESTION 599
Which of the following is not an input into organizational planning?
A. Recruitment practices
B. Project interfaces
C. Staffing requirements
D. Constraints
Answer: A
QUESTION 600
Most schedule simulations are based on some form of which of the following?
A. Delphi
B. PERT
C. CPM
D. Monte Carlo Analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
D is the correct answer. Most schedule simulations are based Monte Carlo Analysis
QUESTION 601
Monte Carlo analysis is a form of what type of analysis?
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A. Critical path method

B. Schedule compression
C. What if scenario analysis
D. Resource leveling
Answer: C
QUESTION 602
Which process involves formal product acceptance and end of a project?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Planning Processes :Approach to executing project. Executing processes :Coordinating people
and other resources. Controlling Processes :Monitoring , measuring, and taking corrective action.
Closing processes : Formal product acceptance and end of project.
QUESTION 603
Planning components are tools or techniques of the Define Activities process. Which of the
following are planning components?
Answer: B
QUESTION 604
If BCWP= 450: ACWP= 410, and BCWS= 325, what is the schedule variance and the schedule
performance index?
A. +25: 875
B. +75:1.38
C. _50: -875
D. "50:1.07
Answer: B
Explanation:
Schedule Variance (SV) :Any difference between the scheduled completion of an activity and the
actual completion of that activity. Schedule Variance = BCWP - BCWS. Schedule Performance
Index (SPI): The ratio of work performed to work scheduled. (BCWP / BCWS)
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QUESTION 605
Bar charts generally illustrate:
A. Progress of status.
B. The critical path.
C. Budget relation ships.
D. Logical relationships.
Answer: A
QUESTION 606
As a project manager, you know that the most important activity to ensure customer and
stakeholder satisfaction is which of the following?
A. Documenting and meeting the requirements
B. Reporting project status regularly and in a timely manner
C. Documenting and meeting the performance measurements
D. Reporting changes and updating the project plan and other project documents where
appropriate
Answer: A
Explanation:
Documenting the requirements and meeting them is one of the key things you can do to ensure
customer satisfaction
QUESTION 607
You are assigned to a project that has already been decided to be outsourced. As a project
manager, you need to organize a formal bid process and select the vendor for this project. Your
senior management is forcing you to select a vendor which has good relation with your senior
management. What is the BEST course of action for you?
A. Follow the formal bid process, and show the senior management about why the favored vendor
is or is not the best choice.
B. Report to legal department of your company.
C. Report to your Manager about this.
D. Get a written permission from your senior management to bypass the formal bid process.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Best option is follow the formal bid process, and show the senior management about why the
favored vendor is or is not the best choice.
QUESTION 608
What type of organizational structure usually experiences the MOST team nervousness at project
close-out?
A. Weak matrix
B. Projectized
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C. Strong matrix
D. Functional
Answer: B
Explanation:
PROJECTIZED : All organization is by projects. The project manager has total control of projects.
Personnel are assigned and report to a project manager
QUESTION 609
Project management processes is organized into:
A. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing
B. Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and closing
C. Designing, developing, testing, and implementing
D. Initiating, planning, contracting, developing, and closing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Within the structure of a project, there are five phases: Initiation, Planning, Execution, Control, and
Closing
QUESTION 610
To verify if the scope of the project is being met (Verify Scope), it is necessary to:
A. Ensure that changes tot eh project character are reflected in the definition.
B. Conduct periodic inspections, reviews, and walk-thoughts.
C. Verify the project schedule is on track.
D. Define causes and symptoms of identified problem.
Answer: B
QUESTION 611
Overall project performance is measured by the:
A. Gantt chart.
B. Work breakdown structure.
C. PERT chart.
D. Earned value chart.
Answer: D
QUESTION 612
You are the project manager and cost or schedule for a project is often dictated by management.
In this situation, you should take all of the following steps EXCEPT:
A. Accept is with no prior action.
B. Inform management of the consequences.
C. Negotiate scope.
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D. Perform risk assessment.

Answer: A
QUESTION 613
Which of the following brings together a set of tools and techniques used to describe, organize,
and monitor the work of project activities?
A. Project management
B. Stakeholders
C. Project managers
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project management brings together a set of tools and techniques to organize project activities.
Project managers are the ones responsible for managing the project processes.
QUESTION 614
_______ must be measured regularly to identify variance from the plan.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Variance Analysis: Project performance measurements are used to assess the magnitude of
variation.
QUESTION 615
Project progress reports are:
A. Used, to predict future status and progress.
B. An Important element of communications.
C. Needed at least weakly.
D. None
Answer: B
QUESTION 616
Which of the following best describes the conflict resolution technique that involves problem
solving and fact finding missions in order to discuss a win-win resolution?
A. Withdrawal
B. Forcing
C. Confrontation
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D. Smoothing
Answer: C
QUESTION 617
20 Reverse analysis is a tool or technique in all of the following processes EXCEPT:
A. Monitor and Control Risks
C. Cost estimation
D. Determine Budget
Answer: B
QUESTION 618
What is the BEST way to accomplish resource planning?
A. Identify required resources and allocate them to all project activities.
B. Identify required resources in the project charter.
C. Identify available resources and allocate them to all activities in the current phase of the project.
D. Identify the resources that performed past similar projects, and allocate them to all project
activities.
Answer: D
QUESTION 619
Which organization has set the de facto standards for project management techniques?
A. PMBOK
B. PMI
C. PM0
D. PMA
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Project Management Institute (PMI) is the industry recognized standard for project
management practices.
QUESTION 620
Which of the following situations will cause schedule activity duration estimates to directly
influence the cost estimates EXCEPT:
A. When resource cost rate information is unavailable from commercial databases
B. When resources are applied per unit of time of duration of schedule activity
C. When union labor with regularly expiring collective bargaining agreements are involve
D. When seasonal cost variations are involve E. When project budget includes interest rate
changes
Answer: A
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QUESTION 621
You are project manager and during the course of a project, the number of team members
increases form six to ten. How many ADDITIONAL lines of communication channel now exist?
A. 10
B. 35
C. 30
D. 55
Answer: C
Explanation:
lines of communication channel = n(n-1)/2 So answer is 10(10-1)/2 - 6(6-1)/2 = 45-15 = 30
QUESTION 622
Which of the following is true regarding the NPV?
A. NPV assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.
B. NPV assumes reinvestment at the prevailing rate.
C. NPV assumes reinvestment at the NPV rate.
D. NPV decisions should be made based on the highest value for all the selections.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Net present value (NPV) assumes reinvestment is made at the cost of capital.
QUESTION 623
Your project is moving ahead of schedule. Management elects to incorporate additional quality
testing into the project to improve the quality and acceptability of the project deliverable. This is an
example of which one of the following?
A. Scope creep
B. Change control
C. Quality Assurance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Additional quality testing will require additional time and resources for the project. This is an
example of Integrated Change Control.
QUESTION 624
As a CAPM, you are required to comply with the CAPM Code of Professional Conduct. Part of
your responsibility concerns applying professional knowledge. All of the following are part of
applying professional knowledge except for which one?
A. Staying abreast of project management practices
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B. Honestly reporting your project management experience

C. Keeping up with industry trends and new technology
D. Developing relationships based on mutual respect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Applying professional knowledge involves staying abreast of project management practices,
industry trends, and new technology and honestly reporting your experiences.
QUESTION 625
Which of the following are NOT tools or techniques of the Activity Definition process?
A. Expert judgment
B. Decomposition, templates
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Schedule network templates
Answer: D
QUESTION 626
As a project manager, you are responsible for maintaining and ensuring integrity for all of the
following except:
A. Personal integrity of others
B. Project management process
C. Personal integrity
D. Product integrity
Answer: A
Explanation:
You are not responsible for the personal integrity of others, but as project manager you do have
influence over others, such as your project team members.
QUESTION 627
You are a project manager for a small local bank. The bank wants you to design and develop a
custom online bill pay software so that its customers can pay their bills online. You are ready to
begin the Activity Resource Estimation process for your project. Which of the following would you
not consider when developing the activity resource requirements document?
A. Resource availability
B. Project management plan
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. Activity list
Answer: C
QUESTION 628
Which of the following is useful in Identify Risks because it permits a systemic evaluation of the
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work?
A. Work breakdown structure.
B. Design specification
C. Project slow chart
D. Project chart
Answer: A
QUESTION 629
appropriate
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION 630
Which is not true about change requests :
A. They always require additional funding.
B. They happen while the project work is being done.
C. They can be written or verbal.
D. They can be requested by a stakeholder.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Change requests do not always require more money. Approved changes may require more funds,
but not always
QUESTION 631
A project success can be achieved only if:
A. There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the business strategy.
B. The project sponsor leads the initiatives.
C. The project manager is an expert in managing resources.
D. Allof the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
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There is no project for the sake of spending money. There is a clear link between the project
deliverables and the business strategy.
QUESTION 632
You are managing a project that will implement a new MARKETING software package. You have
assigned the resources and want to keep the IT manager in the loop by informing your decisions.
Which type of organizational structure are you working in?
A. Projectized
B. Strong Matrix
C. Weak Matrix
D. Functional
Answer: B
Explanation:
Projectized Organization: Any organizational structure in which the project manager has full
authority to assign priorities and to direct the work of individuals assigned to the project. Strong
Matrix: The project manager is assigned full time and has a full time support staff.project manager
has the preeminent position of authority. Weak Matrix : Power reset with Functional Manager.
Functional : In this organization Project Manager has least power and all management is taken
care by functional manager like marketing engineer, sales engineer.
QUESTION 633
21 Your project sponsor has asked you to produce a Risk Management Plan for your current
project. Which of the following best describes the plan you should adopt for your project?
A. The plan must include the predefined risk management policies as they relate to the
organization
B. The plan must ensure that the level of details and risk management efforts are commensurate
with the level of risk and importance of the project
C. The plan must be predefined templates as defined by the organization
D. The plan must include the predefined roles and responsibilities as they relate to risk
management.
Answer: B
QUESTION 634
You are the project manager and are considering recommending a project that costs $280,000;
expected inflows are $10,000 per quarter for the first two years and then $25,000 per quarter
thereafter. What is the payback period?
A. 48 months
B. 40 months
C. 36 months
D. 50 months
Answer: A
Explanation:
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Year 1 and 2 inflows are each $40,000 for a total of $80,000. Year 3 inflows are an additional
$100,000. Add one more quarter to this total, and the $280,000 is reached in 4 years, or 48
months.
QUESTION 635
If BCWP =400, ACWP = 410, and BCWS = 350, what is the cost performance index?
A. 0-413
B. 0-82
C. 1-06
D. 1-142
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cost Performance Index (CPI): The ratio of budgeted costs to actual costs (BCWP / ACWP). If CPI
is less than 1, this means that the project is over budget.
QUESTION 636
Which statement is not true regarding the issue logs?
A. Issue logs are written logs that document person responsible for resolving for specific issue by
a target date.
B. Issue logs are tool of Manage Stakeholder Expectations process.
C. Issue logs are tool of manage project team process.
D. Issue logs describe the ground rules and conflict management procedures to manage the
project.
Answer: D
QUESTION 637
You are a project manager for Food Plaza, which is a retail food delivery store. Your company is
competing with another retail store for the option of opening two new stores in a foreign country.
You have been invited for a dinner with the prospective foreign business partners and their
spouses upon your arrival. You know that all of the following statements are generally true except:
A. You should spend time building relationships with your prospective foreign business partners
before getting down to business.
B. You should respect the cultural differences you'll encounter when working with your prospective
foreign business partners.
C. You should build an atmosphere of mutual trust and cooperation.
D. You should explain your company's rules, standards, and operating policies at your first
meeting with the prospective foreign business partner!
Answer: D
Explanation:
Your first meeting with foreign partners should be spent getting to know them on a personal basis.
You should explain your company's rules, standards, and operating policies at your first meeting
with the prospective foreign business partners.
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QUESTION 638
In project planning, which one of the following is the LEAST applicable to the resource assignment
matrix?
A. The lines of communication both with in and outside the project
B. The compensation level of participants
C. The assignment of responsibilities to the work breakdown stricture
D. The authority to approve at various completion stages
Answer: B
QUESTION 639
You are a project manager and the management wants you to help them determine which projects
should be selected for implementation. In a project selection model, the most important factor is
which one of the following?
A. Business needs
C. Budget
D. Schedule
Answer: A
Explanation:
Projects are selected based on business needs first.
QUESTION 640
Your upcoming project includes project team members from a foreign country. To make certain
that cultural differences do not interfere with team performance, thereby affecting the success of
the project, which is your first course of action ?
A. Provide diversity training to all the team members.
B. Collocate the project team.
C. Inform the team members of the organization's rules and standards.
D. Perform team building exercises.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most correct response is to first provide training to your team members to teach them how to
respect and work with others from different cultures.
QUESTION 641
A. Helping the project manager and stakeholders to resolve any issues
B. Acting as a sounding board for the project stakeholders
C. Showing management the project progress and status reports
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D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION 642
The Person primarily responsible for the quality of deliverables is the.
A. Quality control inspector.
B. Project manager.
C. Design engineer.
D. Quality manager.
Answer: B
QUESTION 643
Based on the PMBOK, who is ultimately responsible for the project quality?
A. Project team
B. Project manager
C. QA manager
D. Validation engineer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Project manager IS ultimately responsible for the project quality
QUESTION 644
Comparing actual to baseline schedules, examining the statement of work, understanding cost
overruns, and assessing risk; all occur during a:
A. Project audit.
B. Contract negotiation.
C. Stakeholder meeting.
D. Resource leveling activity.
Answer: A
QUESTION 645
Which of the following best describes the risks that still remain after avoidance, transfer, or
mitigation responses have been implemented?
A. Contingency risks
B. Tertiary risks
C. Residual risks
D. Secondary risks
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Answer: C
QUESTION 646
Which of the following illustrate a chart with upper or lower limits on which value of some statistical
measure for a series of samples are plotted using sample measure measurement, where the
mean and standard deviation are determine from the sample selected?
A. Statistical sampling
B. Gantt chart
C. Pareto diagram
D. Control chart
Answer: D
QUESTION 647
The responsibility assignment matrix is a project management tool used to ________.
A. Ensure team members understand their specific roles.
B. Develop the work breakdown structure based on available resources.
C. Establish project members availability to work on the project.
D. Depict the project's organizational structure.
Answer: A
QUESTION 648
You are project manager of a project and the funding for your project has been reduced. What is
the BEST action to take in response to this?
A. Perform detailed financial analysis and renegotiate for adequate funding.
B. Inform in customer that the project will be delayed an adjust resources accordingly.
C. Only do as much work as the new budget permits and document actions taken.
D. Inform the customer of impacts and negotiate a change in scope.
Answer: D
QUESTION 649
Which of the following is output of Direct and Manage Project Execution ?
A. Change requests.
B. Responsibility assignment matrix
D. Project character
Answer: A
Explanation:
Change requests , Deliverables and work performance information is output of Direct and Manage
Project Execution.
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QUESTION 650
You have been assigned to take over a project that is 60 percent complete according to the
schedule. After evaluation, you find that the project is running far behind schedule, and that the
project will probably take double the time originally estimated by the previous project manager.
However, the sponsor has been told that the project is on schedule. What is the BEST course of
action you will take?
A. Add new resource to the project and complete the project on schedule.
B. Show your evaluation to sponsor.
C. Ask your senior manager to deal with this.
D. Turn the project back to the previous project manager.
Answer: B
Explanation:
You can't turn the project back to the previous project manager because he or she may be busy
with other project. Best Option is show your evaluation to sponsor.
QUESTION 651
A project Control Scope system is documented during which of the Project Scope Management
processes?
B. Define Scope
C. Verify ScoPe
D. Control Scope
Answer: B
Explanation:
A project scope management plan should document the Control Scope system.
QUESTION 652
The project baseline is:
A. original plans plus the approved changes
B. important in the project initiation phase
C. initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project baseline : original plans plus the approved changes .
QUESTION 653
completion is the _________.
A. Owner
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B. client
C. Sponsor
D. Customer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Owner
QUESTION 654
You are in process of developing an approximation of the costs of resources needed to complete
each schedule activity. Which of the following is the least helpful input?
A. WBS, WS dictionary
B. Market place conditions, commercial databases
C. Estimate Costs policies/ templates, historical information, project team knowledge
D. Activity cost estimates, activity cost estimate supporting detail
Answer: D
QUESTION 655
appropriate
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION 656
You are the project manager and at the completion of the project, you MUST:
A. Celebrate success with the team.
B. Evaluate team member performance.
C. get a sign-off from the customer.
D. Plan a turnover meeting.
Answer: C
QUESTION 657
Which of the following are not tools and techniques of source selection ?
A. a weighting system.
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C. Independent estimates.
D. A screening system.
Answer: B
QUESTION 658
Which of the following statements regarding configuration management system is least true?
A. Configuration management systems establish a method to consistently identify and request
changes to established baselines.
B. Configuration management systems provide mechanisms to communicate changes to all
stakeholders.
C. Configuration management systems provide mechanisms to manage risk and implement risk
response activities.
D. Configuration management systems provide opportunities to improve project by considering
impact of changes.
Answer: C
QUESTION 659
You are the project manager for a new construction project in your city. Your personal friend is
bidding on the project. Your friend has asked you to give them an indication of the budget for this
project so that they do not overbid and lose the deal. What is the most appropriate response?
A. Give the information to your friend
B. Tell your friend that after all this time, they should know you better than to think you had put
your personal integrity on the line or compromise your job because of a conflict of interest. Decline
to give them the information.
C. Tell your friend you will give them the information if they will promise not to tell anyone and if
they will agree to help you with some materials on your other project.
D. Give the information to your friend and inform the project sponsor so that the information can be
shared with the other bidders as well
Answer: B
Explanation:
This situation is clearly a conflict of interest and should be avoided. Decline to provide your friend
this information.
QUESTION 660
The stakeholder's influence is greatest at the ______ of the project.
A. beginning
B. closing
C. controlling
D. none
Answer: A
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Explanation:
Stakeholder influence is greatest at the beginning of the project
QUESTION 661
All of the statements regarding control accounts and planning packages are true EXCEPT:
A. Control accounts and planning packages are tools and techniques of Develop Schedule
process.
B. A control account is an assigned WBS level used to monitor cost and schedule performance of
significant element of work.
C) O Planning packages reflect a future segment of work within a control account that has not yet
been decomposed into detailed work packages.
D. As work becomes more clearly defined, planning packages are converted into work packages.
Answer: A
QUESTION 662
Which of the following methods is a technique used to predict project duration by analyzing which
sequence of activities has the least amount of scheduling flexibility?
A. Dependency diagramming
B. PERT
C. Critical Path
D. Grant chart
Answer: C
QUESTION 663
What are the five project management process groups. Choose in order?
A. Initiating, Planning, Monitoring and Controlling, Executing, and Closing
B. Initiating, Executing, Planning, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
C. Initiating, Monitoring and Controlling, Planning, Executing, and Closing
D. Initiating, Planning, Monitoring and Controlling, Executing, and Closing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Remember IPECC (Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing).
QUESTION 664
Resource leveling will generally:
A. Increase total costs for the project.
B. Push out the end date of the project.
C. Require fewer resources.
D. Require more resources.
Answer: B
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QUESTION 665
Random variance in a process, as measured by the standard deviation can be directly reduced by:
A. Studying scatter diagrams.
B. Increasing the number of quality inspectors.
C. Improving the overall system of production.
D. Identifying patterns of variance.
Answer: C
QUESTION 666
A primary function of the change control board is to:
A. Review the impact of change request.
B. Issue change requests.
C. Identify new areas of project work.
D. None
Answer: A
QUESTION 667
The cost effective rule for shortening a project is to crash the:
A. Critical tasksB. Non-critical tasks.
C. Tasks with lowest cost.
D. Tasks with highest cost.
Answer: A
QUESTION 668
Developing alternative activity sequences is an example of:
A. Polling wave.
B. Risk aversion.
C. Rework.
D. Contingency planning.
Answer: D
QUESTION 669
Which of the following are not essential for project close out ?
A. Documenting formal acceptance of the product.
B. Documenting the lessons learne
C.
D. Documenting the final project scope
Answer: D
PMI-002
QUESTION 670
What is the key difference between a contract close-out and an administrative closure?
A. Contract close-out formalizes project completion.
B. Contract close-out includes updating records with final results.
C. Administrative closure includes procurement audits.
D. Contract close-out includes product verification.
Answer: D
QUESTION 671
Your selection committee is debating between two projects. Project A has a payback period of 20
months. Project B has a cost of $150,000, with expected cash inflows of $50,000 the first year and
$25,000 per quarter after that. Which project should you recommend?
A. Either Project A or Project B, because the payback periods are equal
B. Project A, because Project B's payback period is 24 months
C. Project A, because Project B's payback period is 20 months
D. Project A, because Project B's payback period is 21 months
Answer: B
Explanation:
Project B has a payback period of 24 months; $50,000 is received in the first 12 months, with
another $100,000 coming in over next 12 months.
QUESTION 672
Ishikawa diagrams are used in which of the following processes?
A. Perform quality control
B. Create WBS
C. Develop Schedule
D. Plan Risk Management
Answer: A
QUESTION 673
Which of the following scheduling techniques incorporates a form of risk assessment?
A. Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)
B. Program evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
C. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
D. Critical Path Method (CPM)
Answer: B
Explanation:
PERT : An event-oriented network analysis technique used to estimate project duration when
there is a high degree of uncertainty with the individual activity duration estimates
PMI-002
QUESTION 674
To determine the impact of a change that has occurred, which of the following should be taken?
A. Re-evaluate the work breakdown structure.
B. Assess the communication policy.
C. Review the earned value
D. Performance measurement
Answer: D
QUESTION 675
Mathematical models using linear, dynamic, integer, or algorithm models are considered
A. Project selection methods
B. Project selection criteria
C. A form of expert judgment
D. A form of historical information
Answer: A
Explanation:
Mathematical models are one of the methods described in the project selection methods tool and
technique of the Develop Project Charter process
QUESTION 676
You are a project manager with several years of experience in project management. You have just
accepted your first project in a foreign country. You have been in the country a week or two and
are experiencing some disorientation. This is known as which of the following?
A. Collocation
B. Diversity shock
C. Global culturing
D. Culture shock
Answer: D
Explanation:
Culture shock is the disoriented feeling that people might experience when working in a foreign
country.
QUESTION 677
Which of the following is required for Control Scope?
A. Risk mitigation
B. Charter update
C. Verify Scope
D. Cost-benefit analysis
Answer: C
PMI-002
QUESTION 678
A response to a risk event that was not defined in advance of is occurrence is called a:
A. Risk mitigation response.
B. Workaround response.
C. Corrective action response.
D. Contingency response.
Answer: B
QUESTION 679
appropriate
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION 680
Which of the following is needed to develop a detailed project cost estimate?
A. Management plan
B. Resource requirements
C. Project character
D. Cost Plan
Answer: B
QUESTION 681
What is one of the advantages of a functional organization?
A. All employees report to two or more managers
B. The organization is focused on projects.
C. Teams are co located.
D. All employees report to one manager and have a clear chain of command.
Answer: D
Explanation:
An organization structure in which staff are grouped hierarchically by specialty. Advantages for
employees in a functional organization are that they have only one supervisor and a clear chain of
command exists.
PMI-002
QUESTION 682
Who creates the the Lessons Learned document?
A. Customers
B. Project team
C. Project Sponsor
D. Stakeholders
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION 683
Project management is a preferred management approach EXCEPT for:
A. Product manufacturing environment.
B. Cross functional tasks.
C. Unique operations.
D. Time-constrained deliverables.
Answer: A
QUESTION 684
The Sales VP approaches you to change the visitor logon screen on the company's website to
include a user name with at least eight characters. This is considered
A. project initiation
B. a Project
C. ongoing operations
D. project execution
Answer: C
Explanation:
A minor change has been requested, indicating this is an ongoing operation function.
QUESTION 685
Fast tracking involves:
A. Developing workarounds for previous problems.
B. An increase in project risk.
C. Getting people to work longer with overtime.
D. Meeting schedule objectives by adding resources.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Fast Tracking: Doing activities in parallel that would normally be done in sequence ( eg . starting to
PMI-002
write code on a software project before the design is complete). Fat tracking often results in
rework and usually increases risk.
QUESTION 686
The work breakdown structure:
A. Is used to break down the project Into manageable pieces
B. Is set and does not change throughout the project
C. Is needed as part of the project charter
Answer: A
Explanation:
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS): A deliverable-oriented grouping of project elements which
organizes and defines the total scope of the project. It sub divide the major tasks to minor details.
QUESTION 687
Which characteristic distinguishes the network diagram from the Gant chart?
A. Critical dependencies
B. Few resources
C. Critical dates
D. key milestones
Answer: A
QUESTION 688
The customer service VP expresses concern over a project in which you are involved. His specific
concern is that if the project is implemented as planned, he will have to purchase additional
equipment to staff his customer service center. The cost is substantial and was not taken into
consideration in the project budget. The project sponsor insists that the project must go forward as
originally planned or the customer will suffer. Which of the following is true?
A. The conflict should be resolved in favor of the customer.
B. The conflict should be resolved in favor of the project sponsor.
C. The conflict should be resolved in favor of the VP of customer service.
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
Conflicts between stakeholders should always be resolved in favor of the customer.
QUESTION 689
_______________ must be measured regularly to identify variance from the plan.
PMI-002

Answer: A
Explanation:
Variance Analysis: Project performance measurements are used to assess the magnitude of
variation.
QUESTION 690
The process to change a contract clause is _______ the project change control system.
A. Not related to
B. An input to
C. The same as
D. Integrated within
Answer: D
QUESTION 691
A project schedule can be presented in various formats. All of the following are valid formats of the
project schedule EXCEPT:
A. Activity-on-node diagram
B. Logic bar chart
C. Time-scaled schedule network diagram
D. Flow charts
Answer: D
QUESTION 692
According to the PMBOK guide, the project statement of work(SOW) should contain or reference
to all the following elements except ?
A. Business need, strategic plan, product scope description
B. Requirements, business need, stakeholder expectations
C. Strategic plan, product scope description, stakeholder influences, and business need
D. Project purpose, business case, stakeholder influences, product scope description
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project SOW should contain the business need for the project and the product scope
description and should support the organization's strategic plan.
QUESTION 693
A project's scope statements are developed during scope:
A. Initiation.
B. Verification.
C. Planning.
PMI-002
D. Definition.
Answer: C
QUESTION 694
How many communication channels will be required in a project having five individual
participants?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
No of communication channels : n*(n-1)/2 where n = individual In this case 5*(5-1)/2 = 10
QUESTION 695
If the level of conformance directly increases as a result of new processes, the required cost of
monitoring is likely to:
A. Stay the same.
B. Decrease.
C. Be more predictable.
D. Increase.
Answer: B
QUESTION 696
You have been assigned to a project where the objective is to create a new building. You are in
charge of the demolition phase of this project, and you report to the project manager in charge of
this project. You have been hired on contract and will be released at the completion of the
demolition phase. What type of organizational structure you are working for?
B. Weak matrix organization
C. Balanced matrix organization
D. Functional organization
Answer: A
Explanation:
Projectized organizations are focused on the project itself. One issue with this type of structure is
determining what to do with project team members when they are not actively involved on the
project. One alternative is to release them when they are no longer needed for the project.
QUESTION 697
PMI-002

appropriate
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION 698
Which of the following is true regarding IRR?
A. IRR is a constrained optimization method.
B. IRR assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.
C. IRR is the discount rate when NPV is greater than zero.
D. IRR is the discount rate when NPV is equal to zero.
Answer: D
Explanation:
IRR assumes reinvestment at the IRR rate and is the discount rate when NPV is equal to zero.
QUESTION 699
Which of the following conflict resolution approaches is likely to lead to the MOST long-lasting
solutions?
A. Negotiating
B. Smoothing
C. Problem solving
D. Compromising
Answer: C
QUESTION 700
A project Control Scope system is documented during the ______ process.
B. Define Scope
C. Verify Scope
D. Control Scope
Answer: B
Explanation:
A project scope management plan should document the Control Scope system
PMI-002
QUESTION 701
A project scope management plan should document the Control Scope system
A. Customer acceptance.
B. Completion of execution.
C. Product completion.
D. Completion of each project phase.
Answer: D
QUESTION 702
After preparing a probability distribution of cost outcomes for a project, the estimate with a 20%
probability of being exceeded is approximately one standard deviation:
A. Below the mean.
B. Above the mean.
C. Below the median.
D. Above the median.
Answer: B
QUESTION 703
When a project is being performed under contract, who provides SOW ?
A. The buyer
B. The contractor
C. The Project sponsor
D. The Project manager
Answer: A
Explanation:
The buyer provides SOW when projects are performed under contract.
QUESTION 704
Activity duration estimates include all of the following EXCEPT for:
A. Project team knowledge.
B. Time studies.
C. Information from previous experience.
D. Commercial duration databases.
Answer: B
QUESTION 705
Integrity in the project management field is accomplished through all of the following except:
A. Adhering to an ethical code
B. Applying established project management processes
C. Following the CAPM Code of Professional Conduct
PMI-002
D. Training to learn how to manage relationships with others from different cultures
Answer: D
Explanation:
Diversity training is used to help you manage project teams that consist of people from other
countries or cultures. Integrity is accomplished by following an ethical code and applying project
management practices.
QUESTION 706
Communication between the project manager and the project team members should take place:
A. Via daily status report.
B. Through approved documented forms.
C. By written and oral communication.
D. Through the formal chain of comman
Answer: C
QUESTION 707
You are the project manager for Tech Days Seminar Homes. Your new project assignment is to
head the Days Seminar Home opening in Mountainview, C
A. You are estimating the duration of
the project plan activities, devising the project schedule, and monitoring and controlling deviations
from the schedule. Which of the Project Management Knowledge Areas are you working in?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Quality Management
C. Project Integration Management
D. Project Time Management
Answer: D
Explanation:
Project Time Management involves the following processes: Define Activities, Activity Sequencing,
Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule, and Control Schedule.
QUESTION 708
Estimate At Completion (EAC) is a periodic evaluation of total:
A. Forecasted project cost.
B. Cost of the unfinished work.
C. Resources projected at project complain
D. Value of work performed to date.
Answer: A
QUESTION 709
The development of a cohesive project team occurs:
PMI-002
A. Throughout the project.

B. During planning.
C. During initiation.
D. None
Answer: A
QUESTION 710
Which process involves monitoring, measuring, and taking corrective action?
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION 711
You are in the process of numerically analyzing the effects of identified risks. Which of the
following are NOT tools or techniques you can use in the process?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Reserve analysis
C. Expected monetary value analysis
D. Modeling and simulation
Answer: B
QUESTION 712
Control Costs includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Informing stakeholders of changes.
B. Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline.
C. Monitoring cost performance.
D. Preparing cost estimates.
Answer: D
QUESTION 713
You are a project manager for your organization. Management has asked you to help them
determine which projects should be selected for implementation. In a project selection model,
which one of the following is the most important factor?
A. Business needs
PMI-002
C. Budget
D. Schedule
Answer: A
Explanation:
Projects are selected based on business needs.
QUESTION 714
The peak point of Maslow's hierarchy is called:
A. Survival.
B. Safety.
C. Physiological satisfaction.
D. Self-actualization.
Answer: D
QUESTION 715
As a CAPM, you will be required to comply with the CAPM Code of Professional Conduct. This
code refers to all of the following except which one?
A. Reporting conflicts of interest
B. Complying with the stakeholder requirements
C. Reporting experience and CAPM status truthfully
D. Complying with the rules and standards of foreign countries
Answer: B
Explanation:
Stakeholder requirements are needed to determine whether the project is successful and are not a
part of the professional code.
QUESTION 716
Which of the following describes a group of elated schedule activities aggregated at some
summary level, displayed reported as a single activity at summary level?
A. Work activity
B. Control account
C. Planning package
D. Hammock activity
Answer: D
Explanation:
Hammock activity, PMBOK Page no 157.
QUESTION 717
You are project manager of a project. A scope change requested by a client after acceptance of
the design has a potential impact on several components of the project. What do you do?
PMI-002
A. Convince the client to postpone the change.

B. Estimate the impact to the cost and schedule and the approval before proceeding.
C. Make the change if it is critical, regardless of its cost and impact, and in form the change control
boar
Answer: B
QUESTION 718
You are a project manager for a manufacturing firm . You discover a design error during a test
production run on your latest project. Which of the following is the most likely response to this
problem?
A. Reduce the technical requirements so that the error Is no longer valid.
B. Go forward with production, and ignore the error.
C. Go forward with production, but inform the customer of the problem.
D. Develop alternative solutions to address the error.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Best answer to this problem is to develop alternative solutions to address the design error.
Reducing technical requirements might be an alternative solution, but it is not one you had
implement without looking at all the alternatives. Ignoring the error and going forward with
production will result in an unsatisfactory product for the customer.
QUESTION 719
You are project manager and working on gathering requirements and estimating for the project.
Which process group are you in?
A. Planning
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Executing
D. Initiating
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the Planning process requirements are fleshed out, stakeholders are identified, and estimates
on project costs and time are made.
QUESTION 720
A project is considered successful when
A. the project meets or exceeds the expectations of the stakeholders
B. the product of the project has been manufactured
C. the project sponsor announces the completion of the project
D. None
Answer: A
PMI-002
Explanation:
A project is considered successful when stakeholder needs and expectations are met or
exceeded.
QUESTION 721
Which of the following estimates MOST accurately reflects the actual cost of the project?
A. Top-down
B. Bottom-up
C. Budget
D. Appropriations
Answer: B
Explanation:
Bottom-up estimating : Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to
arrive at a project total - more accurate
QUESTION 722
In the arrow diagramming method, which of the following requires an expenditure of the
resources?
A. Histograms
B. Milestone events
C. Path activities
D. Accounting support costs.
Answer: D
QUESTION 723
You are project manager of a project. A customer requests a scope change in the project . In order
to determine the impact of the requested change, you will need a work breakdown structure,
change request, scope management plan, and:
A. Performance reports.
B. A responsibility matrix.
C. A Pareto diagram
D. A Monte Carlo simulation.
Answer: A
QUESTION 724
PMI-002
appropriate
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION 725
Which of the following are not the tools and techniques for source selection?
A. a weighting system.
C. Independent estimates.
D. A screening system.
Answer: B
QUESTION 726
___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire products, services, or
results needed outside the project team to perform the work.
C. Scope Management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Procurement Management is a groups of processes required to to purchase or acquire the
products, services, or results needed outside the project team to perform the work.
QUESTION 727
On any project, who creates the Lessons Learned document?
A. Customers
B. Project team
C. Project Sponsor
D. Stakeholders
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION 728
Duration estimates indicate:
A. How many work periods an activity is expected to last.
PMI-002
B. How many hours a resource will work on an activity.

C. When an activity is likely to finish.
D. When an activity is likely to start.
Answer: A
QUESTION 729
Which of the following are inputs of the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Project statement of work, Contract, Business case and organizational process assets
B. Project SOW, project selection methods, and enterprise environmental factors
C. Contract, project selection methods, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational
process assets
D. Contract, project SOW, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets
Answer: A
Explanation:
Inputs to the Develop Project Charter process are Project statement of work, Contract, Business
case and organizational process assets.
QUESTION 730
You are the project manager of a large construction project. The project objective is to construct a
set of buildings in the city within 18 months from the project start date. Resources are not readily
available because they are currently assigned to other projects. Nick, an expert crane operator, is
needed for this project two months from today. Which of the following skills will you use to get Nick
assigned to your project?
A. Negotiation and influencing skills
B. Communication and organizational skills
C. Problem solving skills
D. Communication skills
Answer: A
Explanation:
Negotiation and influencing skills are needed to convince Nick's boss and come to agreement
concerning his assignment.
QUESTION 731
You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your ptoject recently for $5,000 and is
expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years the expected worth of the
equipment is $2,000. Using straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written off
each year?
A. $600
B. $1200
C. $3000
D. Zero
PMI-002
Answer: C
Explanation:
The straight-line depreciation takes the purchase value of the item, minus the salvage price of the
item, divided by the number of time periods. Calculation is (5000-2000)/5 = $600
QUESTION 732
Which of the following statements are FALSE about cost reimbursable contracts?
A. cost-reimbursable contracts generally carry the highest risks to the buyer, as the total costs are
uncertain
B. cost-reimbursable contracts often includes incentives for meeting or exceeding project
objectives
C. cost-reimbursable contracts resemble fix unit agreements when the unit rates are preset by the
buyer and seller
D. cost-reimbursable contracts are contracts that involves payments to the seller for actual costs,
plus a fee representing the sellers profit
Answer: C
QUESTION 733
A forward and backward pass indicted total float is equal to - 30 days. This indicates that:
A. The critical path must be evaluated to determine actual slack time.
B. The project is estimated to be-20 days ahead of schedule.
C. Two branches converge on a node.
D. Duration compression may be required to meet the original project scope.
Answer: D
QUESTION 734
What techniques are used to control the project schedule?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance measurement
D. Statistical sampling
Answer: B
QUESTION 735
The MOST important selection criterion to select a project manager for a large project in a
technical industry is:
A. Communication and Integration skills.
B. Specific technical specialization.
C. Financial management experience.
D. Industry and business experience.
Answer: A
PMI-002
QUESTION 736
Which of the following describes tool/ technique where expenditure of funds is reconciled with the
funding limits imposed by the performing organization?
A. Forecasting
B. Cost reconciliation
C. Funding limit reconciliation
D. Reserve reconciliation
Answer: C
QUESTION 737
18 You are the project manager of a software company. As software development can be very
chaotic, your company has decided to follow a more rigorous approach to software development.
Specifically your company has chosen to adopt the extreme programming XP methodology for
your current software project. The XP methodology is highly iterative, and produces numerous
deliverables include UML diagrams, architecture diagrams, prototypes and test-cases. Assume
you are in the Sequence Activities phase of the project. Which of the following sequencing
methods should you use to identify the logical relationships between tasks, so that the activities
can be sequenced correctly?
A. ADM
B. PDM
C. GEPT
D. A0A
Answer: C
QUESTION 738
You are the project manager and have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope
process. What should you do next?
A. Create WBS
B. Verify Scope
C. Value analysis
D. Control Scope
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION 739
A project is considered successful when:
A. The project meets or exceeds the expectations of the stakeholders.
B. The product of the project has been manufactured.
C. The project sponsor announces the completion of the project.
PMI-002
Answer: A
Explanation:
A project is considered successful when stakeholder needs and expectations are met or
exceeded.
QUESTION 740
The level of authority a project manager has is __________.
A. based on the organizational structure
B. based on the amount of authority the manager of the project manager possesses
C. based on the key stakeholder's influence on the project
D. based on the project managers communication skills
Answer: A
Explanation:
The level of authority the project manager has is determined by the organizational structure.
QUESTION 741
With respect to earned value analysis, which of the following is the value of work actually
completed?
A. Actual Cost (AC)
B. planed Value (PV)
C. Cost Variance (CV)
D. Earned Value (EV)
Answer: D
QUESTION 742
stakeholder satisfaction is:
appropriate
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION 743
During ___________ project management process, stakeholder's ability to influence project
results is high?
PMI-002
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Initiating process is where stakeholders have the greatest ability to influence outcomes of the
project. Risk is highest during this stage because of the high degree of unknown factors.
QUESTION 744
Which process involves coordinating people and other resources to carry out a plan?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION 745
Which of the following are not indirect costs?
A. Payroll tax cost.
B. Subcontract costs.
C. Insurance costs.
D. Accounting support costs.
Answer: B
QUESTION 746
Which of the following is true about a project charter?
A. A project charter should be published under the name of a manager external to the project.
B. A project charter should be published under the project sponsor's name.
C. A project charter should be published under the name of the project manager.
D. A project charter should be published under the name of the project champion.
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK Guide, a project charter should be published by a manager external to
the project but with sufficient power and authority to carry it off.
PMI-002
QUESTION 747
appropriate
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION 748
23 Reverse analysis is a tool or technique in all of the following processes EXCEPT:
A. Monitor and Control Risks
C. Cost estimation
D. Determine Budget
Answer: B
QUESTION 749
The quality management plan includes all of the following EXCEPT quality:
A. Planning
B. Definitions
C. Assurance
D. Control
Answer: B
QUESTION 750
You are project manager and the monthly report to the client showed zero schedule variance.
However, member of the team know that a milestone has been missed which will cause an overall
delay to the project. Which one of the following is being inadequately reported?
A. Communication plan variance
B. Resource management plan
C. Critical path status
D. Risk analysis
Answer: C

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PMI-002

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)

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B. Prevention over inspection

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A. Requirements document created in collect requirements process

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B. Project closer Process

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B. Project scope statement

the WBS balanced.

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B. Project scope statement

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C. To get customer and sponsor approval

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D. Only if minor changes are made

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A. Estimate Costs process

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A. Rolling Wave Planning is a phased iterative approach to project development.

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D. A definitive resolution is seldom achieved.

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B. Cost plus-incentive-fee contract

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constrained by limited resources

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